2020 Fall BIOL 1201 / Exams / Exam 3
Started on Tuesday, November 10, 2020, 9:03 AM
State Finished
Completed on Tuesday, November 10, 2020, 9:52 AM
Time taken 49 mins 37 secs
Points 45.00/50.00
Grade
...
2020 Fall BIOL 1201 / Exams / Exam 3
Started on Tuesday, November 10, 2020, 9:03 AM
State Finished
Completed on Tuesday, November 10, 2020, 9:52 AM
Time taken 49 mins 37 secs
Points 45.00/50.00
Grade 90.00 out of 100.00
Question 1
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CHAPTER 16: In his transformation experiments, what did Frederick Griffith observe?
Select one:
a. Mutant mice were resistant to bacterial infections.
b. Infecting mice with nonpathogenic (non-lethal) strains of bacteria makes them resistant to pathogenic (lethal) strains.
c. Mixing a heat-killed pathogenic strain of bacteria with a living nonpathogenic (non-lethal) strain can convert some of the living cells into the pathogenic (lethal) form.
Question 2
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CHAPTER 16: What determines the nucleotide sequence of the newly synthesized strand during DNA replication?
Select one:
a. the relative amounts of the four nucleoside triphosphates in the cell
b. the nucleotide sequence of the template strand
c. the primase used in the reaction
d. the particular DNA polymerase catalyzing the reaction
CHAPTER 16: DNA nucleotides consist of ...
Select one:
a. a nitrogenous base, a ribose sugar, and a phosphate group
b. a nitrogenous base and a deoxyribose sugar
c. a nitrogenous base and a ribose sugar
d. a nitrogenous base, a deoxyribose sugar, and a phosphate group
Question 4
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CHAPTER 16: Adenine pairs with in DNA?
Select one:
a. Uracil
b. Guanine
c. Cytosine
d. Thymine
Question 5
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CHAPTER 16: The strands that make up DNA are antiparallel. This means that
Select one:
a. one strand contains only purines and the other contains only pyrimidines.
b. the twisting nature of DNA creates nonparallel strands.
c. the 5' to 3' direction of one strand runs counter to the 5' to 3' direction of the other strand.
d. base pairings create unequal spacing between the two DNA strands.
e. one strand is positively charged and the other is negatively charged.
CHAPTER 16: An Okazaki fragment occurs where?
Select one:
a. among the ligases
b. the leading strand
c. before the DNA polymerase
d. the lagging strand
Question 7
Correct 1.00 points out of 1.00
CHAPTER 16: Semiconservative replication involves a template. What is the template?
Select one:
a.
DNA polymerase
b.
one strand of the DNA molecule
c.
an RNA molecule
d.
single-stranded binding proteins
Question 8
Correct 1.00 points out of 1.00
CHAPTER 16: Which enzyme separates DNA strands during DNA replication?
Select one:
a. DNA polymerase
b. primase
c. nuclease
d. helicase
e. ligase
Question 9
Correct 1.00 points out of 1.00
CHAPTER 17: A particular eukaryotic protein is 300 amino acids long. Which of the following would be the minimum number of nucleotides in the DNA to code for the amino acids in this protein?
Select one:
a. 100
b. 3
c. 1,800
d. 900
e. 300
Question 10
Correct 1.00 points out of 1.00
CHAPTER 17: Which of the following processes correctly describes alternative RNA splicing?
Select one: a.
It can allow the production of proteins of different sizes and functions from a single mRNA.
b. It increases the rate of transcription.
c.
It is a mechanism for increasing the rate of translation.
d.
It can allow the production of similar proteins from different RNAs.
Question 11
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CHAPTER 17: Which of the following are transcribed from DNA?
Select one:
a. rRNA
b. carbohydrate and rRNA only
c. protein
d. carbohydrate
e. protein and rRNA
Question 12
Correct 1.00 points out of 1.00
CHAPTER 17: What are ribosomes composed of?
Select one:
a. mRNA, rRNA, and protein
b. both rRNA and protein
c. mRNA, tRNA, rRNA, and protein
d. proteins only
e. rRNA only
Question 13
Correct 1.00 points out of 1.00
CHAPTER 17: Which of the following helps to stabilize mRNA by inhibiting its degradation?
Select one:
a. poly-A tail
b. both 5' cap and poly-A tail
c. TATA box
d. 5' cap
e. spliceosomes
Question 14
Incorrect 0.00 points out of 1.00
CHAPTER 17: All of the following are directly involved in translation except
Select one:
a. tRNA.
b. mRNA.
c. DNA.
d. aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase enzymes.
e. ribosomes.
Question 15
Correct 1.00 points out of 1.00
CHAPTER 17: Where is eukaryotic messenger RNA transcribed?
Select one:
a. in the nucleus
b. in ribosomes
c. in the X chromosome
d. in the cytoplasm
e. in the Golgi apparatus
Question 16
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CHAPTER 17: An original section of DNA has the base sequence AGCGTTACCGT. A mutation in this DNA strand results in the base sequence AGGCGTTACCGT. What type of mutation does this change represent?
Select one:
a. frameshift mutation
b.
a point mutation
c.
a missense mutation
d.
a silent mutation
Question 17
Incorrect 0.00 points out of 1.00
CHAPTER 12: If there are 20 chromatids in a cell at metaphase of mitosis, how many tetrads are there?
Select one:
a. 0
b. 20
c. 10
d. 40
Question 18
Incorrect 0.00 points out of 1.00
CHAPTER 12: In the cell cycle below, what is the purpose of the G1 phase?
Select one:
a. Making material for cell division
b. Growing centrosomes
c. General cell growth
d. Replicating chromosomes
Question 19
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CHAPTER 12: Q1 The top circle in the figure below shows a diploid nucleus with four chromosomes. There are two kinds of chromosomes, one long and the other short. One haploid set is symbolized as black and the other haploid set is gray. The chromosomes in the top circle have not yet replicated.
Choose the correct chromosomal conditions at prophase of mitosis.
Select one:
a. B
b. C
c. E
d. A
e. D
Question 20
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CHAPTER 12: During which phase of mitosis do the chromatids become independent chromosomes?
Select one:
a. cytokinesis
b. anaphase
c. prophase
d. metaphase
Question 21
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CHAPTER 12: Why do chromosomes condense during mitosis?
Select one:
a. to allow the sister chromatids to remain attached
b. to allow the chromosomes to fit within the nuclear envelope
c. to increase their potential energy
d. to allow the them to move without becoming entangled and breaking
Question 22
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CHAPTER 12: Regarding mitosis and cytokinesis, one difference between higher plants and animals is that in plants
Select one:
a. sister chromatids are identical, but they differ from one another in animals.
b. at telophase, a cell plate begins to form, whereas in animals a cleavage furrow is initiated at that stage.
c. the spindles contain microfibrils in addition to microtubules, whereas animal spindles do not contain microfibrils.
d. chromosomes become attached to the spindle at prophase, whereas in animals chromosomes do not become attached until anaphase.
Question 23
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CHAPTER 13: In animals, meiosis results in gametes, and fertilization results in
Select one:
a. zygotes.
b. spores.
c. sporophytes.
d. gametophytes.
e. clones.
Question 24
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CHAPTER 13: If brain cells of an animal have 24 chromosomes, how many chromosomes do its sperm cells have?
Select one:
a. 48
b. 6
c. 12
d. 24
Question 25
Correct 1.00 points out of 1.00
CHAPTER 13: Which of the following characteristics do homologous chromosomes exhibit?
Select one:
a.
They carry the same alleles.
b.
They carry information for the same characters.
c.
They carry information for different traits.
d.
They align on the metaphase plate in meiosis II.
Question 26
Correct 1.00 points out of 1.00
CHAPTER 13: The human X and Y chromosomes
Select one:
a. include genes that determine an individual's sex.
b. are both present in every somatic cell of males and females alike.
c. are entirely homologous, despite their different names.
d. are autosomes
Question 27
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CHAPTER 13: Centromeres of sister chromatids uncouple and chromatids separate.
For this question, match the key event of meiosis described above with the appropriate stage listed below.
I. Prophase I II. Metaphase I III. Anaphase I IV. Telophase I
V. Prophase II VI. Metaphase II VII. Anaphase II VIII. Telophase II
Select one:
a. III
b. V
c. IV
d. VII
e. II
Question 28
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CHAPTER 13: When we see chiasmata under a microscope, that lets us know which of the following has occurred?
Select one:
a. anaphase II
b. asexual reproduction
c. meiosis II
d. prophase I of meiosis
Question 29
Correct 1.00 points out of 1.00
CHAPTER 13: Which of the following processes facilitates the fastest way for organisms to adapt to a changing environment?
Select one:
a.
asexual reproduction
b.
sexual reproduction
c.
mutation
d.
mitosis
Question 30
Correct 1.00 points out of 1.00
CHAPTER 13: A cell divides to produce two daughter cells that are genetically identical to one another. (Keep in mind the possible effects of crossing-over.)
Select one:
a. The statement is true for mitosis only.
b. The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis II.
c. The statement is true for meiosis II only.
d. The statement is true for meiosis I only.
e. The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis I.
Question 31
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CHAPTER 14: The light and dark chromosomes of the same size in the figure below are...
Select one:
a. Homologous
b. Heterologous
Question 32
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CHAPTER 14: How do you determine whether the dominant allele configuration in an organism is homozygous (XX) or heterozygous (Xx), since both have the same phenotype?
Select one:
a. Breed the organism with another that is homozygous recessive for that gene
b. Breed the organism with another that is heterozygous recessive for that gene
c. Breed the organism with another whose alleles exhibit incomplete dominance
Question 33
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CHAPTER 14: Mendel's observation of the segregation of alleles in gamete formation has its basis in which of the following phases of cell division?
Select one: a.
anaphase I of meiosis
b.
metaphase II of meiosis
c.
prophase I of meiosis
d.
anaphase II of meiosis
Question 34
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CHAPTER 14: An individual with genotype AaBbCCDdEE can make many kinds of gametes because of independent assortment. Which of the following is the major reason?
Select one:
a. different possible combinations of chromosomes in gametes
b. crossing over during prophase I
c. segregation of maternal and paternal alleles
d. recurrent mutations forming new alleles
Question 35
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CHAPTER 14: Two plants are crossed, resulting in offspring with a 3:1 phenotypic ratio for a particular trait. This suggests:
Select one:
a. that the parents were both heterozygous.
b. that a blending of traits has occurred.
c. that the parents were homozygous for contrasting traits.
d. that each offspring has the same alleles.
e. incomplete dominance.
Question 36
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CHAPTER 14: Black fur in mice (B) is dominant to brown fur (b). Short tails (T) are dominant to long tails (t). What fraction of the progeny of the cross BbTt × BBtt will have black fur and long tails?
Select one:
a. 3/8
b. 3/16
c. 9/16
d. 1/2
e. 1/16
Question 37
Correct 1.00 points out of 1.00
CHAPTER 14: In a cross AaBbCc × AaBbCc, what is the probability of producing the genotype AABbCc?
Select one:
a. 1/8
b. 1/16
c. 1/4
d. 1/32
e. 1/64
Question 38
Correct 1.00 points out of 1.00
CHAPTER 14: Why did the F1 offspring of Mendel's classic pea cross (PP x pp) always look like one of the two parental varieties?
Select one:
a. The traits blended together during fertilization.
b. One phenotype was completely dominant over another.
c. Different genes interacted to produce the parental phenotype.
Question 39
Correct 1.00 points out of 1.00
CHAPTER 14: Which of the following scenarios describes an example of epistasis?
Select one: a.
In rabbits and many other mammals, one genotype (ee) prevents any fur color from developing.
b.
In cacti, there are several genes for the type of spines.
c.
In Drosophila (fruit flies), white eyes can be due to an X-linked gene or to a combination of other genes.
d.
Recessive genotypes for each of two genes (aabb) results in an albino corn snake.
Question 40
Correct 1.00 points out of 1.00
CHAPTER 14: Which of the following inheritance patterns describes the ability of a single allele to have multiple phenotypic effects?
Select one: a.
pleiotropy
b.
incomplete dominance
c.
epistasis
d.
multiple alleles
Question 41
Correct 1.00 points out of 1.00
CHAPTER 14: An individual that possesses different alleles of a gene is said to be
for that gene.
Select one:
a. Homozygous
b. Holozygous
c. Hemizygous
d. Heterozygous
Question 42
Correct 1.00 points out of 1.00
CHAPTER 14: Which of the following statements is correct in describing the terms monohybrid cross and dihybrid cross?
Select one:
a.
A monohybrid cross involves a single parent, whereas a dihybrid cross involves two parents.
b.
A dihybrid cross involves organisms that are heterozygous for two characters that are being studied, and a monohybrid cross involves organisms that are heterozygous for only one character being studied.
c.
A monohybrid cross results in a 9:3:3:1 ratio, whereas a dihybrid cross gives a 3:1 ratio.
d.
A monohybrid cross is performed for one generation, whereas a dihybrid cross is performed for two generations.
Question 43
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CHAPTER 15: Why are fruit flies (Drosophila) an excellent model organism?
Select one:
a. All of these
b. they undergo occasional mutations
c. They produce a large number of offspring
d. They have a short generation time
Question 44
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CHAPTER 15: Males are more often affected by sex-linked traits than females because
Select one:
a. X chromosomes in males generally have more mutations than X chromosomes in females.
b. males are hemizygous for the X chromosome.
c. mutations on the Y chromosome often exacerbate the effects of X-linked mutations.
d. male hormones such as testosterone often exacerbate the effects of mutations on the X chromosome.
e. female hormones such as estrogen often compensate for the effects of mutations on the X.
Question 45
Correct 1.00 points out of 1.00
CHAPTER 15: In a test cross of fruit flies (Drosophila) with red-eyes (w+w+) and flies with a sex-linked white eye mutation, what will be the ratio of eye-color in the F2 generation of these flies?
Select one:
a. 2:1
b. 1:1
c. 4:1
d. 9:3
e. 3:1
Question 46
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CHAPTER 15: The reason that linked genes are inherited together is that
Select one:
a. genes align that way during metaphase I.
b. the number of genes in a cell is greater than the number of chromosomes.
c. chromosomes are unbreakable.
d. alleles are paired.
e. they are located on the same chromosome.
Question 47
Correct 1.00 points out of 1.00
CHAPTER 15: Use the following information to answer the question.
In a Drosophila experiment, a cross was made between homozygous wild-type females and yellow- bodied males. All of the resulting F1s were phenotypically wild type. However, adult flies of the
F2 generation (resulting from matings of the F1s) had the characteristics shown in the table above. How is the mutant allele for yellow body inherited?
Select one:
a.
It is dominant.
b.
It is recessive.
c.
It is codominant.
d.
It is incompletely dominant.
Question 48
Correct 1.00 points out of 1.00
CHAPTER 15: What does a recombination frequency of 50% indicate?
Select one:
a.
All of the offspring have combinations of traits that match one of the two parents.
b.
The genes are located on sex chromosomes.
c.
Abnormal meiosis has occurred.
d.
The two genes are likely to be located on different chromosomes.
Question 49
Correct 1.00 points out of 1.00
CHAPTER 15: In birds, sex is determined by a ZW chromosome scheme. Males are ZZ and females are ZW. A recessive lethal allele that causes death of the embryo is sometimes present on the Z chromosome in pigeons. What would be the sex ratio in the offspring of a cross between a male that is heterozygous for the lethal allele and a normal female?
Select one: a.
2:1 male to female
b.
3:1 male to female
c.
1:1 male to female
d.
1:2 male to female
Question 50
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CHAPTER 15: Barr bodies form in which sex of mammals?
Select one:
a. Female
b. Male
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