NR 224 PATHOPHYSIOLOGY PRACTICE TEST 1-3/ NR224 PATHOPHYSIOLOGY PRACTICE TEST 1-3 (LATEST, 2020): CHAMBERLAIN COLLEGE OF NURSING (VERIFIED ANSWERS, DOWNLOAD TO SCORE A)

Pathophysiology Practice Test 1 1. Smoking causes lung cancer a. True b. False 2. Degenerative changes in cells ultimately lead to cellular necrosis a. True b. False 3. Which of the following organ’s cells are the ...

Pathophysiology Practice Test 1 1. Smoking causes lung cancer a. True b. False 2. Degenerative changes in cells ultimately lead to cellular necrosis a. True b. False 3. Which of the following organ’s cells are the most dependent on oxygen? a. Liver b. Kidney c. Heart d. Skin 4. Exposure to which of the following could lead to chemical damage to cells? a. Antifreeze b. Antibiotics c. Heavy metals d. Alcohol e. All of the above f. All but option b 5. Sublethal cellular injury occurs first in what part of the cell? a. The Endoplasmic Reticulum b. The Cytoplasm c. The Golgi Apparatus d. The Nucleus 6. Hypertrophy and Atrophy are both adaptive cellular responses. a. True b. False 7. Liquefactive necrosis is commonly occurs in what organ? a. The Skin b. Liver c. The Heart d. The Brain 8. When hypertrophied, which of the following organ(s) tend to accumulate lipids instead of water? (More than one answer may be correct) a. Liver b. Heart c. Pancreas d. Kidneys 9. A patient with TB has what look like craters in her lungs; this is an example of what type of necrosis? a. Gangrene b. Caseous c. Liquefactive d. Coagulative 10. Also known as postmortem lividity, which postmortem change occurs due to the pooling of blood due to gravity? a. Livor Mortis b. Algor Mortis c. Rigor Mortis d. Autophagocytosis 11. Dystrophic calcification can lead to which of the following? a. Kidney Stone formation b. Arterial Sclerosis c. Splinter hemorrhages d. All of the above e. a and b 12. Which of the following are considered intrinsic disease pathways? a. Infection b. Age c. Radiation d. Environmental toxins 13. Which of the following are considered recessive sex-linked disorders of the x chromosome? a. Menkes’ disease b. Hemophilia A c. Turner’s syndrome d. G-6-PD e. All of the above f. All but c 14. Mutation of a cell is always harmful to the host organism. a. True b. False 15. Which of the following have the ability to mutate DNA? a. Formalin b. Viruses c. Antibiotics d. All of the above e. only b 16. A congenital disease is the same thing as a genetic disease a. True b. False 17. Which of the following results from a hepatic enzyme deficiency that leads to fatty buildup in the CNS, trouble myelinating nerves and can cause mental retardation? a. Tay-Sachs b. Menkes’ disease c. PKU d. Gaucher’s disease 18. Which disease is caused by the lack of a hepatic enzyme and causes skin pathologies and spleen and liver enlargement? a. Tay-Sachs b. Menkes’ disease c. PKU d.Gaucher’s disease 19. Which recessive autosomal disorder degrades CNS tissue leading to motor and neurological disturbance and ultimately early death? a. Tay-Sachs b. Menkes’ disease c. PKU d. Gaucher’s disease 20. Which of the following are common causes of cellular injury? a. Oxygen deprivation b. Nutrient deprivation c. Ischemia d. Chemical damage e. Physical trauma f. All of the above g. all but b and c 21. Which of the following are sex-linked diseases? a. Menkes’ disease b. Down’s Syndrome c. Turner’s Syndrome d. Klinefelter’s Syndrome 22. Down’s Syndrome is associated with which of the following? a. high incidence of Alzheimer’s disease b. high incidence of congenital heart valve problems c. depressed immune system function d. a third chromosome # 12 e. All of the above f. all but d g. all but c and d 23. The Genotype for Klinesfelter’s syndrome is: a. XXY b. XXX c. XYY d. XO 24. A macule or “sun spot” on the skin is the left over remnant of what process? a. Freckling of the skin b. Dry gangrene c. Apoptosis d. Autophagocytosis e. none of the above f. only a 25. A first-degree burn involves which layers of the skin? a. epidermis only b. epidermis and dermis c. epidermis, dermis and subcutaneous fat 26. Which of the following is the biggest threat to a burn victim? a. Stress ulcers and bleeding b. Loss of skin and potential for infection c. Increase in fluid volume due to intense thirst d. Extreme Hypertension 27. What is the most common heat-related issue? a. Heat Cramps b. Heat Exhaustion c. Heat Injury d. Heat Stroke 28. Malignant Hyperthermia is a condition that involves: a. Sensitivity to anesthetic shots b. Sensitivity to anesthetic gases c. Sensitivity to anesthetic pills d. Increased muscle metabolism of calcium e. A genetic link f. All of the above g. only b and d h. only b 29. The textbook definition of hypothermia is a body temperature of: a. 35 degrees Celsius or less b. 32 degrees Fahrenheit or less c. 35 degrees Fahrenheit or less d. any temperature that slows down enzyme reactions in the body 30. Night-blindness is associated with which vitamin deficiency? a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin B6 c. Vitamin E d. Vitamin D 31. Which Vitamin is given to all newborns to help aid in coagulation? a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin B6 c. Vitamin K d. Vitamin D 32. Which Vitamin is often used to treat peripheral neuropathy experienced by TB patients from INH therapy? a. Vitamin B1 b. Vitamin B2 c. Vitamin B6 d. Vitamin B12 33. Which is the correct order of the four d’s of Niacin deficiency (least to most serious)? a. Diarrhea, dermatitis, dementia and death b. Dermatitis, diarrhea, dementia and death c. Dementia Diarrhea, dermatitis, and death d. Death, diarrhea, dermatitis and dementia 34. Which of the following is not a fat-soluble vitamin? a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin K c. Vitamin C d. Vitamin E 35. Toxic levels of Vitamin A can cause which of the following? a. Cracked skin b. Fetal defects c. Spontaneous abortion d. Impaired of night vision e. all but d 36. Which two Vitamins are so crucial that our body makes a large portion of our needed supply on its own? a. Vitamins B6 and B12 b. Vitamins K and D c. Vitamins A and E d. Vitamins K and E 37. Vitamin B1 deficiency: a. Results in general weakness of the body b. Is often seen in alcoholics and people with eating disorders c. Is also called Pellagra d. Leads to a buildup of pyruvic acid in the body that can interfere with regular heartbeats e. all but c f all but c and d g. only a 38. Pernicious anemia can result from: a. Lack of dietary Vitamin B12 b. Lack of intrinsic factor in the stomach c. The presence of a tapeworm d. All of the above e. All but b 39. Inflammation is a natural, useful repair response of the body: a. True b. False 40. Inflammation can only occur after the body has become infected: a. True b. False 41. The movement of WBC and repair components into an area of inflammation is called: a. Hemolytic movement b. Chemotaxis c. Adjunct tissue Edema d. Histamine bombardment 42. A person with one completely burned arm, one completely burned leg and a completely burned torso would have what approximate % of their total body burned? a. 45% b. 54% c. 63% d. 72% 43. Blood pH and plasma potassium levels are: a. directly proportionate b. independent of one another c. inversely proportionate 44. Purulent exudate is also called: a. Neutrophilic exudate b. Fibrous exudate c. Pus d. Serous exudate e. Transudate f. only a g. only a and c 45. Granulomatous inflammation can be caused as the result of which of the following? a. Stroke b. Bilateral Pitting Edema C. TB infection D. Cirrhosis of the liver 46. Which antibodies form the main line of immune defense in the body? a. IgA b. IgD c. IgE d. IgG 47. Which antibodies are usually the first to respond to newly introduced antigens? a. IgA b. IgD c.. IgM d. IgG 48. Which antibody type is produced in overabundance in allergy suferers? a. IgA b. IgE c.. IgM d. IgG e. IgD 49. Anaphylaxis can never occur the first time a person encounters an antigen because the cells are merely sensitized during this initial contact. a. True b. False c. It depends on how much antigen is present 50. When the nurse suspects a transfusion reaction, what is the first response? a. Warm the blood to prevent any cold antibodies from interfering with transfusion b. Cool the blood c. Give Benadryl and blood thinners d. Discontinue the blood 51. Which autoimmune disease can result in petechiae? a. SLE b. Sjogren’s c. ITP d. Rheumatoid arthritis 52. Histamine release leads to which of the following? a. Capillary Dilation b. Airway Constriction c. high fever d. mucus secretion e. itching of the skin 53. Epinephrine causes which of the following? a. Fever reduction b. Bronchi dilation c. Blood vessel constriction d. both b and c e. only b 54. Which autoimmune disease is a disorder of the blood vessels that results in achy, numb or tingling extremities and is experienced in cold weather conditions? a. SLE b. ITP c. Reynaud’s disease d. Sjogren’s 55. Glomerulonephritis results from errant antibodies produced after infection by which bacteria? a. T. pallidum b. staphylococcus c. streptococcus d. Cryptococcus 56. Which genetic disorder afects the membrane integrity of red blood cells, leading to premature cell lysis and hemolytic anemia, often as the result of exposure to certain drugs? a. Sjogren’s b. ITP c. G-6-PD d. SLE 57. A virus is considered alive even before introducing itself into a viable host: a. True b. False 58. All viruses are either 100% DNA or 100% RNA but are never mixed RNA/DNA viruses: a. True b. False 59. People who have AIDS most often die of: a. Kaposi’s sarcoma b. Pneumonia c. Candida infection d. Cancers comorbid with their disease 60. Potential features of SLE include: a. “Butterfly” rash on face b. Comorbid rheumatoid arthritis c. Kidney failure d. Dry eyes and mucous membranes e. All of the above f. b and c only g. a and c only