NURS316 Unit quiz 2,3,4 Questions and Answers,100% CORRECT

NURS316 Unit quiz 2,3,4 Questions and Answers Unit 2 Quiz 1) An intravenous minibag containing 100ml is to be infused in 15 minutes. What is the required flow rate in mL/hour? A) 100 ml/hour B) 50 ml/hour C) 25 ...

NURS316 Unit quiz 2,3,4 Questions and Answers Unit 2 Quiz 1) An intravenous minibag containing 100ml is to be infused in 15 minutes. What is the required flow rate in mL/hour? A) 100 ml/hour B) 50 ml/hour C) 25 ml/hour D) 400 ml/hour 2) A patient asks the nurse what a cancer cell’s growth rate is called. What is the nurses best response? Select one. A) Cancer cells growth rate is called neoplasm B) Cancer cells growth rate is called anaplasia C) Cancer cells growth rate is called proliferation D) Cancer cells growth rate is called pleomorphism 3) 4) What is chrysotherapy? A) Treatment with disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDS) B) Treatment with salicylates C) Treatment with gold salts D) Treatment with antimalarials 5) When exercising outside on an extremely warm day, the client can feel his heart pounding very rapidly. Thinking in terms of the ability of the aorta to stretch to accommodate more blood circulating during exercise and the warm environment, this is an example of the function of which fibrous protein? A) Elastin B) Ligaments C) Reticular D) Collagen 6) Which describes the function of the nucleus? A) It contains the genetic code for the individual B) It initiates the process of aerobic metabolism C) It is basically the site of protein synthesis in the body. D) It is the transformer of cellular energy. 7) The client is to receive acetaminophen 325mg/tbsp. What does the abbreviation “tbsp” on the medication administration record mean? A) Ounce B) Double teaspoon C) Teaspoon D) Tablespoon 8) The nurse has to administer fentanyl citrate 60mcg, IM, 30 minutes prior to surgery. The medication is available as fentanyl citrate 50mcg/ml. How many milliliters of the medication would the nurse draw up in the syringe? A) 1 B) 1.1 C) 1.15 D) 1.2 9) A pregnant client is attending a Nutrional class for first time moms. During the class, the instructor stressed that they should avoid consumption of which food that may cause brain damage from methyl mercury exposure? A) Tuna B) Fresh milk C) Raw hamburger D) Beets 10) The nurse is caring for a patient newly diagnosed with a primary brain tumor. The patient asks the nurse where his or her brain tumor came from. What is the nurse’s best response? A) “Your tumor originated from a single cell that is genetically different from nearby cells” B) “Your tumor originated from somewhere outside of the CNS, from a cell just like other cells” C) “Your tumor is from nerve tissues somewhere in your body” D) “Your tumor is from the pituitary gland origin” 11) What medication used to treat rheumatic arthritis not only has anti-inflammatory effects but is also used in premature infants to close a patent ductus arteriosus? A) Indomethacin B) Penicillamine C) Prednisone D) Antimalarials 12) A 12-year-old boy’s severe wound that he received from a dog bite has begun to heal and currently shows no signs of infection. Which of the following processes occurred first during this process of repair by connective tissue deposition? A) B) Angiogenesis C) Deposition of the extracellular matrix D) Emigration of fibroblasts to the wound site 13) Which statement is true about abbreviations for the international system of units (SI)? A) Volume measures in the SI system are based on the litre B) Weight measures in the SI system are based on the teaspoon C) The international system of units was adopted from the apothecary measures D) Differences between metric and SI systems occur in dosage 14) Despite low levels of radiation used in contemporary radiologic imaging, a radiology technician is aware of the need to minimize her exposure to ionizing radiation. What is the primary rationale for the technician's precautions? Radiation: A) Results in the accumulation of endogenous waste products in the cytoplasm. B) Stimulates pathologic cell hypertrophy and hyperplasia C) Decreases the action potential of rapidly dividing cells D) Interferes with DNA synthesis and mitosis 15) A mother asks the nurse how acetaminophen works. What statement best describes the therapeutic action of acetaminophen? A) B) Acetaminophen works by blocking the increase of interleukin-1 C) Acetaminophen acts directly on the hypothalamus to cause vasodilation and sweating 21) In contrast to acute inflammation, chronic inflammation is characterized by which of the following phenomena? A) Lymphocytosis and activated macrophages B) A “shift to the left” of granulocytes C) Profuse fibrinous exudation D) Metabolic and respiratory alkalosis 22) The nurse is caring for a patient who is taking bicalutamide (Casodex). For what type of cancer would the nurse administer this drug? A) Prostate B) Breast C) Colon D) Bladder 23) The nurse is discussing ethnic differences in response to medication with your nursing students. What group of people would the nurse tell the students may have a decreased sensitivity to pain- relieving effects of anti-inflammatory drugs and should be educated concerning signs and symptoms of gastrointestinal bleeding from the use of these drugs? A) Hispanics B) African Americans C) White Americans D) Asians 24) A patient arrives at the emergency department brought by his or her friends. The friends tell the nurse that the patient has taken a whole bottle of aspirin. Blood work for salicylate toxicity is run. What does the nurse expect the results to be? A) >15g B) >10g C) >20g D) >5g 25) A nursing student is cleaning and changing the dressing on a client’s sacral ulcer. The student has vigorously cleansed the wound bed to remove all traces of the beefy, red tissue that existed in the wound bed. The student has most likely removed: A) Necrotic tissue B) The extracellular matrix C) Granulation tissue D) Stem cells Unit 3 Quiz 1) The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is characterized by: Select one. A) Increased osmolarity level B) Excessive thirst with fluid intake greater than 7000mL/ day C) Copious dilute urination with output of 500mL/ day D) Low serum sodium level 2) A client diagnosed with schizophrenia has been admitted to the emergency department, after ingesting more than 2 gallons of water in one sitting. Which of the following pathophysiologic processes may result from the sudden water gain? A) Hypernatremia B) Water movement from the extracellular to the intracellular compartment C) Syndrome of inappropriate secretion of ADH (SIADH) D) Isotonic fluid excess in the extracellular fluid compartment 3) Manifestations of metabolic acidosis include which of the following: Select all that apply A) Lightheadedness, and numbness in fingers and toes. B) Abdominal pain C) Weakness D) Stupor 4) The physician ordered 250mL of packed red blood cells to infuse over 4 hours with a drop factor of 10gtt/mL. Calculate the correct IV flow rate in milliliters per hour. Round off to the nearest whole number. A) 42 B) 63 C) 83 D) 120 5) Severe diarrhea is associated with which primary acid-base disturbance? Select one. A) Metabolic acidosis B) Metabolic alkalosis C) Respiratory acidosis D) Respiratory alkalosis 6) The physician ordered Aminophyline 250mg in 500mL of D5W. It is to infuse at 30mg/hour per infusion pump. How many hours will the IV pump run? Round to the nearest hour. A) 8 B) 10 C) 12 D) 14 7) When would you infuse plain sterile water (additive free, electrolyte free and dextrose free) intravenously? A) Rarely and with extreme caution, as it rapidly enters red blood cells causing them to rupture. B) When the patient is severely dehydrated C) When the patient is in an excess of an electrolyte ie. Hypercalcemia D) When the patient is in a deficit of an electrolyte ie. Hypocalcemia 8) The nurse is assessing a patient for the presence of a Chvostek’s sign. What electrolyte imbalance does a positive Chvostek’s sign indicate? A) Hypermagnesemia B) Hypercalcemia C) Hypocalcemia D) Hyperkalemia 9) Which of the following scenarios place the client at a high risk for developing hypoparathyroidism and require close supervision for assessing for development of muscle cramps, carpopedal spasm, convulsions, and paresthesia of the hands and feet? Select all that apply. A) A neck cancer client returning from OR after having a radical neck dissection B) A hyperthyroid client experiencing a “thyroid storm” requiring urgent thyroidectomy. C) A client with seizure experiencing some anoxic deficits and memory loss. D) A client with a history of human papillomavirus (HPV) in the uvula. 10) You are caring for a 65-year-old male patient admitted to your unit 72 hours ago with pyloric stenosis. A nasogastric tube was placed upon admission and has been on low intermittent suction ever since. You notice the patient’s potassium is very low. What would you be concerned that the patient may be at risk for? A) Hypercalcemia B) Metabolic acidosis C) Metabolic alkalosis D) Respiratory acidosis 11) Patient X is found to be in metabolic acidosis. Which combination of lab values would indicate your findings? A) PH = 7.48 and HC03 = 20 B) PH = 7.52 and PC02 = 27 C) PH = 7.28 and PC02 = 22 D) PH = 7.19 and HC03 = 18 12) Your patient is showing signs of ketoacidosis, when you check their lab values you notice their PH is 7.29, their PC02 is 33 and their HC03 is 16. You know that these lab values indicate that the patient is in which of the following metabolic conditions? A) Metabolic alkalosis B) Metabolic acidosis C) Respiratory acidosis D) Respiratory alkalosis 13) Manifestations of respiratory acidosis include which of the following? Select one or more. A) Lightheadedness, and numbness in fingers and toes. B) Cardia arrythmias C) Flushed skin D) Weakness and headache 14) Low plasma PH and low bicarbonate ion (HC03-) indicate the following primary acid-base disturbance? Select one. A) Metabolic alkalosis B) Metabolic acidosis C) Respiratory acidosis D) Respiratory alkalosis 15) A client develops interstitial edema as a result of decreased: Select one. A) Vascular volume B) Hydrostatic pressure C) Capillary permeability D) Colloidal osmotic pressure 16) Select the statement that is true about the definition for a drug preparation. Select one. A) An elixir is a drug dissolved in a hydroalcoholic sweetened base. B) A suspension is a drug contained in a clear liquid preparation. C) An ointment is a liquid alcoholic solution of a drug. D) A solution is an alcoholic solution of a volume solution. 17) When cells are in a hypertonic solution, the fluid movement causes cells to: A) Swell B) Shrink C) Remain the same D) None of the above 18) Hyperventilation is associated with which primary acid-base disturbance? Select one. A) Metabolic alkalosis B) Metabolic acidosis C) Respiratory acidosis D) Respiratory alkalosis 19) The nurse has to administer hydrocortison sodium succinate 450mg IV daily for 7 days. The medication is available as hydrocortison sodium succinate 250mg/ml. How many milliliters of medication would the nurse draw up in the syringe? Round to the nearest tenth. A) 1.6 B) 1.8 C) 2 D) 2.2 20) A client is undergoing an assessment to measure the extent of their edema. The nurse will explain to the client that this involves: Select one. A) Keeping a diary of food intake B) Grip strength measurements C) The application of elastic support stockings D) Measuring the client’s weight daily 21) An elderly client is admitted with elevated magnesium level related to a history of renal insufficiency and excess use of antacids and laxatives containing magnesium. On admission assessment, the nurse notes which clinical manifestations that correlate to hypermagnesemia? Select all that apply. A) Hyporeflexia B) Blood pressure 180/90 C) Tetanic muscle contraction D) Muscle weakness causing shallow breathing E) Paresthesia of the lips 22) A client has been admitted for deterioration of her renal function due to chronic renal failure. Her admission K+ level is 7.8 mmol/L (high). The nurse would expect to see which of the following abnormalities on her telemetry (ECG) strip? Select one. A) Tachycardia (fast rate) with frequent early ventricular beats (PVC’s) B) Shortening of the QRS complex C) T-Wave becomes prominent d) Atrial flutter with a 2:1 conduction ratio 23) a 77-year-old woman has been brought to the emergency department by her daughter because of a sudden and unprecedented onset of confusion. The client admits to ingesting large amounts of baking soda this morning to treat some “indigestion”. How will the woman’s body attempt to resolve this disruption is acid-base balance? A) Increase the depth in respiration B) Increasing the renal H+ excretion C) Increased renal HC03- reabsorption D) Hypoventilation 24) You are caring for a patient with a diagnosis of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion. Your patient has specific gravities ordered every 4hours. What does this test detect? A) Nutritional deficit B) Hyperkalemia C) Hypercalcemia D) Fluid volume status 25) The physician ordered 2500 ml of NS to infuse at 150ml/hour with a drop factor of 15gtt/ml. How long will this IV run? A) 14 hours B) 15 hours and 30 minutes C) 16 hours and 36 minutes D) 17 hours Unit 4 Quiz 1) An infant from parents of Mediterranean decent has been diagnosed with a severe form of beta- thalassemia anemia. The nurse caring for this infant knows that the infant will likely receive which of the following medical treatments? select one. A) Warfarin, a blood thinner to decrease clot formation B) Iron sulfate supplements C) Transfusion Therapy 1 D) Stem cell therapy 2 2) The nurse is caring for a pediatric patient with hemophilia who receives antihemophilic factor several times a year. What should this patient be regularly screened for? Select all that apply. A) Hepatitis B) Cardiomyopathy C) HIV D) Anemia E) Infection 3) Prior to beginning anticoagulant therapy, the nurse will question the female patient about what? A) Last menstrual period B) Weight C) Urinary tract infection D) Peptic ulcers 4) Conditions that predispose to sickling of the hemoglobin in persons with sickle cell anemia include: select one. A) Increased iron content of blood B) Increased intravascular volume C) Decreased oxygen saturation D) Impaired ed blood cell maturation 5) A young adult is preparing to begin treatment for non-Hodgkin's lymphoma (NHL), a disease that has disseminated widely. What is the most likely treatment regime for this client? A) Bone marrow or stem cell transplant B) Antiviral medication C) Radiation and chemotherapy D) Surgery and whole blood transfusion 6) The client s to receive allopurinol 0.25g po every day. Each scored tab contains 100mg. how many tablets would the client receive? A) 1.5 B) 3 C) 2.5 D) 2 7) A 50-year-old patient with pernicious anemia asks why she can’t just take a vitamin B12 pill instead of getting an injection. What is the nurse’s best response to her question? select one. A) “pernicious anemia is caused by the body’s inability to absorb vitamin B12” B) “Oral ingestion of vitamin B12 irritates the GI tract and bleeding could occur” C) “Pernicious anemia alters mucous membrane lining of the bowel and impairs absorption.” D) “With severe deficiencies like yours, oral vitamin B12 does not work fast enough.” 8) The client is to receive olanzapine 10mg po twice a day. Each tablet contains 2.5mg. How many tablets would the client receive for each dose? A) 4 B) 4.5 C) 3.5 D) 3 9) The client is to receive metoprolol titrate 0.05g po every day. Each scored tablet contains 50mg. How many tablets would the client receive? A) 2 B) ½ C) 1 ½ D) 1 10) A 12-month-old infant is displaying pale skin, rapid heart rate, and increased respiratory rate. The parents bring the child to the clinic. Which statement by the parents points the health care worker to suspect iron deficiency anemia? A) “He doesn’t like to eat any vegetables” B) “He has one to two bowel movements a day” C) “We give him regular cow’s milk with all his meals and snacks” D) “His grandma feeds him cookies every time she comes to visit.” 11) A client presents to the emergency clinic not feeling well. Which of the following complaints leads the health care provider to suspect the client may have acute leukemia? Select one. A) Muscle aches and pains in large muscle groups, especially while lying in bed B) Severe headache with associated photophobia C) Frequent nausea and vomiting for the past week D) Bleeding from the gums, not related to brushing the teeth 12) The nurse is caring for a patient following repeat coronary artery bypass grafting who has excessive bleeding. What systemic hemostatic drug will the nurse expect to administer? Select one. A) Human fibrin sealant B) Thrombin recombinant C) Aminocaproic acid (Amicar) D) Microfibrillar collagen 13) A 72-year-old woman with complaints of increasing fatigue has completed a series of fecal occult blood tests that indicate the presence of blood in her stool. Which of the following health problems is likely to accompany this client’s gastrointestinal bleed? A) Megaloblastic anemia B) Aplastic anemia C) Hemolytic anemia D) Iron deficiency anemia 14) The 86-year-old patient admitted with thrombophlebitis, is being sent home on enoxaparin (Lovenox). The nurse evaluates that he understands why enoxaparin is being used if he states it will do what? Select one. A) Stimulate production of certain clotting factors B) Prevent the blood from clotting C) Dissolve the clot D) Inhibit the formation of additional clots 15) The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with megaloblastic anemia and administers what drug? A) Epoetin alfa B) Ferrous sulfate C) Hydroxyurea D) Folic Acid 16) The nurse admits a 26-year-old patient with sickle cell anemia. What drug does the nurse anticipate administering? A) Methoxy polyethylene glycol-epoetin beta B) Hydroxyurea C) Vitamin B12 D) Leucovorin 17) The client is to receive cimetidine 0.8g po three times a day. Each tablet contains 0.4g. How many tablets would the client receive for each dose? A) 5 B) 4 C) 3 D) 2 18) T-cell lymphocytes leave the bone marrow and travel to the thymus. If successful, they differentiate into which of the following cells? Select all that apply. A) CD4+helper T cells B) CD8+ cytotoxic T cells 19) The nurse is caring for a child who needs anticoagulation therapy. What drug is approved for pediatric use? A) Heparin B) Riveroxaban C) Low-molecular weight heparins D) Dabigatran 20) The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with pernicious anemia and anticipates this patient will require supplemental what? A) Vitamin B12 B) Iron C) Erthropoietin D) Oxygen 21) A client was started on a protocol for the prevention of deep vein thrombosis shortly after admission and has been receiving 5000 units of heparin twice daily for the last week. An immune response to this treatment may increase the client’s chance of developing which health problem? Select one. A) Thrombocytopenia B) Antiphospholipid syndrome C) Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) D) von Williebrand disease 22) A young man has been diagnosed with hemophilia and the nurse is planning his discharge teaching and includes what teaching point? Select one. A) Using nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS) for mild pain B) Understanding the condition is an X-linked recessive disorder C) Preventing trauma to the body D) Receiving IV factor VIII at home 23) Which of the following clients likely faces the highest risk of an acquired hypocoagulation disorder and vitamin K deficiency? A client who: A) Has dehydration and hypokalemia resulting from clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea B) Is immunocompromised as a result of radiation therapy for the treatment of lung cancer C) Has a diagnosis of liver failure secondary to alcohol abuse D) Has chronic renal failure as a result of type 1 diabetes mellitus 24) The client is to receive erythromycin 0.666g po every 6 hours. Each tablet contains 333mg. How many tablets would the client receive? A) 1 ½ B) 1 C) 1/2 D) 2 25) Sue is fatigued, and some blood tests are done. Her results include Hct 0.40, Hgb 8g/dL, WBC 8000 and platelets 175,000. The nurse should interpret Sue’s blood work as indicative of? A) Low WBC count/ granulocytopenia B) Low hemoglobin/ anemia C) High hematocrit/ polycythemia D) High platelets/ thrombocytosis