Portage Learning final exam NURS 231

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Question 1 2.5 / 2.5 pts True/False: Metaplastic cells are not better prepared to survive under stressful circumstances. True Correct! False Question 2 2.5 / 2.5 pts True/False: Hypert... rophy can occur under normal and pathological conditions. Correct! True False Question 3 2.5 / 2.5 pts Multiple Choice Which are true of the mitochondria? Select all that apply. Correct! It is involved in cellular respiration They are found far from the site of energy consumption Correct! They play a role in apoptosis They control free radicals Question 4 2.5 / 2.5 pts Which are true of the cell membrane? Select all that apply. Correct! Controls the transport of materials from the outside fluids to within The main structural component is made of proteins Correct! Helps with the conduction of electrical currents in nerve and muscle cells Correct! Aids in the regulation of cell growth and proliferation Question 5 10 / 10 pts Compare and contrast the two types of gangrenous necrosis. Your Answer: Dry gangrene occurs when blood supply is slowly reduced to an area. The area is dehydrated and becomes dark or black in color. Commonly seen in patients with diabetes. It is not very painful, but tissues eventually die. Wet gangrene is casued with a sudden reduction in blood flow. The area is cold and swollen, with no pulse. This can occur from trauma. Bacteria is involved and is very painful. It has the appearance of pus, becasue it looks wet. There is also a foul smell. In dry gangrene the affected tissue becomes dry and shrinks, the skin wrinkles, and its color changes to dark brown or black. The spread of dry gangrene is slow. It results from a cut off in arterial blood supply and is a form of coagulation necrosis. In wet gangrene, the affected area is cold, swollen, and pulseless. The skin is moist, black, and under tension. Blebs form on the surface, liquefaction occurs, and a foul odor is caused by bacterial action. The spread of tissue damage is rapid. Question 6 2.5 / 2.5 pts True/False: Cell proliferation is the process in which proliferating cells become more specialized cell types. True Correct! False False, cell differentiation Question 7 2.5 / 2.5 pts True/False: Cell differentiation is the process of increasing cell numbers by mitotic cell division. True Correct! False False, cell proliferation Question 8 2.5 / 2.5 pts What are two important properties that stem cells possess? Your Answer: Stem cells possess potency and self-renewal. Potency and self-renewal Question 9 2.5 / 2.5 pts These are cells of the same lineage that have not yet differentiated to the extent that they have lost their ability to divide: Your Answer: progenitor or parent cells progenitor or parent cells Question 10 10 / 10 pts 1. ______ is a systemic treatment that enables drugs to reach the site of the tumor as well as other distant sites. 2. The profound weight loss and wasting of fat and tissue that accompany cancer is known as _______. Your Answer: 1. chemotherapy 2. cancer anorexia-cachexia syndrome 1. chemotherapy 2. cancer anorexia-cachexia syndrome Question 11 5 / 5 pts Short answer Explain the challenges of diagnosing autoimmune disorders. Your Answer: There are about 80 autoimmune disorders identified, with many overlapping presentations. Blood tests can be more generic and results are imprecise. Markers can be elevated in the presecence of other diseases. There are over 80 identified, many with overlapping presentations. Many manifestations are nonspecific and are seen in other non-autoimmune diseases. Blood testing isn’t perfect either, as some tests are more generic and can be elevated in the presence of other diseases. Question 12 2.5 / 2.5 pts True/False: The T cells that display the host’s MHC antigens and T-cell receptors for a nonself-antigen are allowed to mature, a process termed negative selection. True Correct! False Question 13 2.5 / 2.5 pts Multiple Choice: Which lab value will typically be increased in a viral infection? Neutrophils Eosinophils Basophils Correct! Lymphocytes Question 14 10 / 10 pts A 9-year-old boy with a peanut allergy was exposed to peanuts. He presents to the emergency room with an anaphylactic reaction. (1) What symptoms might he present with? (2) Does the quantity of exposure mean he will have a more severe reaction? (3) What is the initial immediate treatment? (4) What are 2 things people with anaphylaxis should always carry? Your Answer: 1) Shortness of breath, skin redness/hives, GI discomfort such as cramping, nausau. 2) Does NOT play a role 3) epinephrine 4) idenitification of the allergy and EpiPen (1) Any of the following reactions are accepted. Grade I: erythema and urticaria, with or without angioedema. Grade II: hypotension, tachycardia, dyspnea, and GI manifestations, like nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal cramping from mucosal edema. Grade III: bronchospasm, cardiac dysrhythmias, and cardiac collapse. Grade IV: cardiac arrest (2) No (3) Epinephrine (4) identification about allergy, EpiPen Question 15 0 / 2.5 pts Multiple Choice: A 23-year-old African-American man with a history of severe lifelong anemia requiring many transfusions has nonhealing leg ulcers and recurrent periods of abdominal and chest pain. These signs and symptoms are most likely to be associated with which one of the following laboratory abnormalities? Correct Answer Sickle cells on peripheral blood smear Loss of intrinsic factor You Answered Decreased erythropoietin Decreased ferritin Question 16 2.5 / 2.5 pts Multiple Choice: Which of the following is NOT true of vitamin B12 deficiency anemia? Dietary deficiencies are not common Peripheral neuropathy can be a result of deficiency Vitamin B12 is bound to intrinsic factor Correct! MCV is decreased Question 17 2.5 / 2.5 pts Multiple Choice: Each of the following are risk factors for secondary hyperlipidemia except? Obesity Diabetes mellitus High cholesterol diet Correct! Autosomal dominant disorder of LDL receptor Question 18 2.5 / 2.5 pts Multiple Choice: Risk factors for coronary heart disease include each of the following except: Correct! HDL > 60 Smoking Hypertension Family history of heart disease Question 19 10 / 10 pts Patient is found to have the above: 1. What risk factors mostly led to this disease state? 2. What is this person at risk for developing? 3. What lifestyle modifications would you suggest for them? Your Answer: 1) Smoking, poor diet, hyperlipidemia, obesity, diabetes, increased age 2) Coronary artery disease, myocardial infarction 3) Stop smoking, healthy diet, lose weight/exercise, take medications Answer: Picture is of an atherosclerotic plaque 1. Hyperlipidemia, cigarette smoking, obesity and visceral fat, hypertension, diabetes mellitus. Increasing age, family history of premature CHD, and male sex. May also include C-reactive protein (CRP) and serum lipoprotein(a). 2. Coronary artery disease, angina, myocardial infarction, aneurysm, stroke (ischemia, thrombosis, emboli). 3. Stop smoking, lose weight/exercise, healthy diet (low-fat, low-cholesterol), adhere to medication for blood pressure, hyperlipidemia, and/or diabetes. Question 20 5 / 5 pts _____ is the transfer of gases between the alveoli and the pulmonary capillaries. Your Answer: diffusion Diffusion Question 21 5 / 5 pts Multiple Choice: Each of the following can lead to atelectasis except: Pleural effusion Tumor mass Correct! Thrombus Mucous plug [Show More]

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