NR 507 / NR507 Week 4 Midterm Exam (Latest, 2020 / 2021): Advanced Pathophysiology: Chamberlain College of Nursing (Already Graded A)

NR-507 Advanced Pathophysiology Midterm Exam Week 4 1. Question: Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) can occur if the mother: Student Answer: Is Rh-positive and the fetus is Rh-negative ...

NR-507 Advanced Pathophysiology Midterm Exam Week 4 1. Question: Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) can occur if the mother: Student Answer: Is Rh-positive and the fetus is Rh-negative Is Rh-negative and the fetus is Rh-positive Has type A blood and the fetus has type O Has type AB blood and the fetus has type B Instructor HDN can occur only if antigens on fetal erythrocytes differ from Explanation: antigens on maternal erythrocytes. Maternal-fetal incompatibility exists only if the mother and fetus differ in ABO blood type or if the fetus is Rh-positive and the mother is Rh-negative. This erythrocyte incompatibility does not exist in any of the other options. 0 -589875941 MultipleChoice 68 Question 2. Question: Examination of the throat in a child demonstrating signs and symptoms of acute epiglottitis may contribute to which life-threatening complication? Student Retropharyngeal abscess Answer: Laryngospasms Rupturing of the tonsils Gagging induced aspiration Instructor Examination of the throat may trigger laryngospasm and cause Explanation: respiratory collapse. Death may occur in a few hours. This selection is the only option that accurately identifies the life-threatening complication that can result from an examination of the throat of a child who demonstrates the signs and symptoms of acute epiglottitis. 0 -589875940 MultipleChoice 87 Question 3. Question: If the sinoatrial (SA) node fails, then at what rate (depolarizations per minute) can the atrioventricular (AV) node depolarize? Student Answer: 60 to 70 40 to 60 30 to 40 10 to 20 Instructor If the SA node is damaged, then the AV node will become the heart’s Explanation: pacemaker at a rate of approximately 40 to 60 spontaneous depolarizations per minute. 0 -589875939 MultipleChoice 75 Question 4. Question: What is the ratio of coronary capillaries to cardiac muscle cells? Student 1:1 (one capillary per one muscle cell) Answer: 1:2 (one capillary per two muscle cells) 1:4 (one capillary per four muscle cells) 1:10 (one capillary per ten muscle cells) Instructor The heart has an extensive capillary network, with approximately Explanation: 3300 capillaries per square millimeter (ca/mm2) or approximately one capillary per one muscle cell (muscle fiber). 0 -589875938 MultipleChoice 73 Question 5. Question: Which cytokines initiate the production of corticotropin- releasing hormone (CRH)? Student IL–1 and IL-6 Answer: IL-2 and TNF- IFN and IL-12 TNF-ß and IL-4 Instructor Although a number of stress factors initiate the production of CRH, of Explanation: the options available, only high levels of IL-1 and IL-6 initiate such a response. 0 -589875937 MultipleChoice 21 Question 6. Question: What process allows the kidney to respond to an increase in workload? Student Answer: Glomerular filtration Secretion of 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 Increased heart rate Compensatory hypertrophy Instructor Compensatory hypertrophy allows the kidney to respond to an Explanation: increase in workload throughout life. The remaining options are not relevant to accommodating an increased workload. 0 -589875936 MultipleChoice 108 Question 7. Question: Which type of antibody is involved in type I hypersensitivity reaction? Student IgA Answer: IgE IgG IgM Instructor Type I reactions are only mediated by antigen-specific IgE and the Explanation: products of tissue mast cells (see Figure 9-1). 0 -589875935 MultipleChoice 9 Question 8. Question: Causes of hyperkalemia include: Student Answer: Hyperparathyroidism and malnutrition Vomiting and diarrhea Renal failure and Addison disease Hyperaldosteronism and Cushing disease Instructor Hyperkalemia should be investigated when a history of renal disease, Explanation: massive trauma, insulin deficiency, Addison disease, use of potassium salt substitutes, or metabolic acidosis exists. The other options are not known to be causes of hyperkalemia. 0 -589875934 MultipleChoice 36 Question 9. Question: What is the first stage in the infectious process? Student Invasion Answer: Colonization Spread Multiplication Instructor From the perspective of the microorganisms that cause disease, the Explanation: infectious process undergoes four separate stages of progression: (1) colonization, (2) invasion, (3) multiplication, and (4) spread. 0 -589875933 MultipleChoice 7 Question 10. Question: Which statement is true concerning the IgM? Student Answer: IgM is the first antibody produced during the initial response to an antigen. IgM mediates many common allergic responses. IgM is the most abundant class of immunoglobulins. IgM is capable of crossing the human placenta. Instructor Explanation: Typically, IgM is produced first (primary immune response), followed by IgG against the same antigen. The other options are not true statements regarding IgM. 0 -589875932 MultipleChoice 6 Question 11. Question: An infant has a loud, harsh, holosystolic murmur and systolic thrill that can be detected at the left lower sternal border that radiates to the neck. These clinical findings are consistent with which congenital heart defect? Student Answer: Atrial septal defect (ASD) Ventricular septal defect (VSD) Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) Atrioventricular canal (AVC) defect Instructor On physical examination, a loud, harsh, holosystolic murmur and Explanation: systolic thrill can be detected at the left lower sternal border. The intensity of the murmur reflects the pressure gradient across the VSD. An apical diastolic rumble may be present with a moderate-to-large defect, reflecting increased flow across the mitral valve. The presentations of the other congenital heart defects are not consistent with the described symptoms. 0 -589875931 MultipleChoice 39 Question 12. Question: What is the chief predisposing factor for respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) of the newborn? Student Answer: Low birth weight Alcohol consumption during pregnancy Premature birth Smoking during pregnancy Instructor RDS of the newborn, also known as hyaline membrane disease Explanation: (HMD), is a major cause of morbidity and mortality in premature newborns. None of the other options are considered the chief predisposing factors for RDS. 0 -589875930 MultipleChoice 81 Question 13. Question : Which cardiac chamber has the thinnest wall and why? Student The right and left atria; they are low-pressure chambers Answer: that serve as storage units and conduits for blood. The right and left atria; they are not directly involved in the preload, contractility, or afterload of the heart. The left ventricle; the mean pressure of blood coming into this ventricle is from the lung, which has a low pressure. The right ventricle; it pumps blood into the pulmonary capillaries, which have a lower pressure compared with the systemic circulation. Instructor Explanation: The two atria have the thinnest walls because they are lowpressure chambers that serve as storage units and conduits for blood that is emptied into the ventricles. This selection is the only option that correctly identifies which heart chambers have the thinnest walls and why that helps cardiac function. 0 -589875929 MultipleChoice 71 Question 14. Question: What is the direct action of atrial natriuretic hormone? Student Sodium retention Answer: Sodium excretion Water retention Water excretion Instructor Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) and brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) Explanation: inhibit the secretion of renin, inhibit angiotensin-induced secretion of aldosterone, vasodilate the afferent and constrict the efferent glomerular arterioles, and inhibit sodium and water absorption by kidney tubules. The other actions are not a result of the atrial natriuretic hormone. 0 -589875928 MultipleChoice 102 Question 15. Question: What is the primary site for uncomplicated local gonococci infections in men? Student Answer: Epididymis Lymph nodes Urethra Prostate Instructor Uncomplicated local infections are observed primarily as urethral Explanation: infections in men. 0 -589875927 MultipleChoice 48 Question 16. Question: Which statement concerning benign tumors is true? Student The resulting pain is severe. Answer: Benign tumors are not encapsulated. Benign tumors are fast growing. The cells are well-differentiated. Instructor A benign tumor is well-differentiated with its tissue appearing similar Explanation: to the tissue from which it arose. The other options are characteristic of a malignant tumor. 0 -589875926 MultipleChoice 30 Question 17. Question: Which of the following is classified as a megaloblastic anemia? Student Iron deficiency Answer: Pernicious Sideroblastic Hemolytic Instructor Pernicious anemia is the most common type of megaloblastic anemia. Explanation: The remaining options are not classified as megaloblastic anemias. 0 -589875925 MultipleChoice 61 Question 18. Question: Apoptosis is a(an): Answer: growth is excessive Student Normal mechanism for cells to self-destruct when Antigrowth signal activated by the tumor-suppressor gene Rb Mutation of cell growth stimulated by the TP53 gene Transformation of cells from dysplasia to anaplasia Instructor Normal cells have a mechanism that causes them to self-destruct Explanation: when growth is excessive and cell cycle checkpoints have been ignored. Diverse stimuli, including normal development and excessive growth, trigger this self-destruct mechanism, called apoptosis. The remaining options do not describe apoptosis. 0 -589875924 MultipleChoice 24 Question 19. Question: What is the functional unit of the kidney called? Student Glomerulus Answer: Nephron Collecting duct Pyramid Instructor The nephron is the functional unit of the kidney. Although the other Explanation: options are also located in the kidney, they are not its functional units. 0 -589875923 MultipleChoice 91 Question 20. Question: Which hepatitis virus is known to be sexually transmitted? Student A Answer: B C D Instructor Only hepatitis B virus (HBV) is known to be sexually transmitted. Explanation: 0 -589875922 MultipleChoice 53 Question 21. Question: The glomerular filtration rate is directly related to which factor? Student Perfusion pressure in the glomerular capillaries Answer: Diffusion rate in the renal cortex Diffusion rate in the renal medulla Glomerular active transport Instructor The filtration of the plasma per unit of time is known as the Explanation: glomerular filtration rate (GFR), which is directly related to only the perfusion pressure in the glomerular capillaries. 0 -589875921 MultipleChoice 98 Question 22. Question: Decreased lung compliance means that the lungs are Student Difficult deflation demonstrating which characteristic? Answer: Easy inflation Stiffness Inability to diffuse oxygen Instructor A decrease in compliance indicates that the lungs or chest wall is Explanation: abnormally stiff or difficult to inflate. This selection is the only option that accurately identifies the meaning of decreased compliance. 0 -589875920 MultipleChoice 45 Question 23. Question: What is the most common cause of iron deficiency anemia (IDA)? Student Decreased dietary intake Answer: Chronic blood loss Vitamin deficiency Autoimmune disease Instructor The most common cause of IDA in well-developed countries is Explanation: pregnancy and chronic blood loss. 0 -589875919 MultipleChoice 63 Question 24. Question: Which drug may be prescribed orally for outbreak management of herpes simplex viral (HSV) infections? Student Acyclovir (Zovirax) Answer: 5-Fluorouracil (5-FU) Zidovudine (AZT) (Retrovir) Bichloroacetic acid (BCA) Instructor Although no curative treatment for HSV infection is known, only oral Explanation: acyclovir, valacyclovir, penciclovir, and famciclovir are used for primary and periodic outbreaks and to prevent recurrences. 0 -589875918 MultipleChoice 52 Question 25. Question: In a normal, nonmutant state, an oncogene is referred to as a: Student Answer: Basal cell Target cell Caretaker gene Proto-oncogene Instructor In its normal nonmutant state, an oncogene is referred to as a proto- Explanation: oncogene. The other options are not terms used to identify a nonmutant oncogene. -589875917 MultipleChoice 28 True 0 -589875917 MultipleChoice 28 Question 26. Question: What is the primary cause of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) of the newborn? Student Answer: Immature immune system Small alveoli Surfactant deficiency Anemia Instructor RDS is primarily caused by surfactant deficiency and secondarily by a Explanation: deficiency in alveolar surface area for gas exchange. None of the other options are related to the cause of RDS. 0 -589875916 MultipleChoice 82 Question 27. Question: Fetal hematopoiesis occurs in which structure? Student Gut Answer: Spleen Bone marrow Thymus Instructor The spleen is the largest of the secondary lymphoid organs and the site Explanation: of fetal hematopoiesis. 0 -589875915 MultipleChoice 57 Question 28. Question: Deficiencies in which element can produce depression of both B- and T-cell function? Student Iron Answer: Zinc Iodine Magnesium Instructor Of the options available, only deficient zinc intake can profoundly Explanation: depress T- and B-cell function. 0 -589875914 MultipleChoice 11 Question 29. Question: Phagocytosis involves neutrophils actively attacking, engulfing, and destroying which microorganisms? Student Bacteria Answer: Fungi Viruses Yeasts Instructor Invasion is the direct confrontation with an individual’s primary Explanation: defense mechanisms against only bacteria, which include the complement system, antibodies, and phagocytes, such as neutrophils and macrophages. 0 -589875913 MultipleChoice 15 Question 30. Question: Which hormone is synthesized and secreted by the kidneys? Student Answer: Antidiuretic hormone Aldosterone Erythropoietin Angiotensinogen Instructor Erythropoietin is produced by the fetal liver and in the adult kidney Explanation: and is essential for normal erythropoiesis. This statement is not true of the other options. 0 -589875912 MultipleChoice 107 Question 31. Question: Which congenital heart defects occur in trisomy 13, trisomy 18, and Down syndrome? Student Answer: Coarctation of the aorta (COA) and pulmonary stenosis (PS) Tetralogy of Fallot and persistent truncus arteriosus Atrial septal defect (ASD) and dextrocardia arteriosus (PDA) Instructor Explanation: Congenital heart defects that are related to dysfunction of trisomy 13, trisomy 18, and Down syndrome include VSD and PDA (see Table Ventricular septal defect (VSD) and patent ductus 33-2). The other defects are not associated with dysfunction of trisomy 13, trisomy 18, and Down syndrome. 0 -589875911 MultipleChoice 38 Question 32. Question: Which laboratory test is considered adequate for an accurate and reliable diagnosis of gonococcal urethritis in a symptomatic man? Student Ligase chain reaction (LCR) Answer: Gram-stain technique Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) DNA testing Instructor Microscopic evaluation of Gram-stained slides of clinical specimens is Explanation: deemed positive for Neisseria gonorrhoeae if gram-negative diplococci with the typical “kidney bean” morphologic appearance are found inside polymorphonuclear leukocytes. Such a finding is considered adequate for the diagnosis of gonococcal urethritis in a symptomatic man. The other options are not relevant to the diagnosis of this condition. 0 -589875910 MultipleChoice 49 Question 33. Question: During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, which leukocyte is activated? Student Answer: Neutrophils Monocytes Eosinophils T lymphocytes Instructor Of the options provided, only eosinophils are activated during IgEExplanation: mediated hypersensitivity reactions. 0 -589875909 MultipleChoice 10 Question 34. Question: What is the life span of platelets (in days)? Student 10 Answer: 30 90 120 Instructor A platelet circulates for approximately 10 days and ages. Macrophages Explanation: of the mononuclear phagocyte system, mostly in the spleen, remove platelets. 0 -589875908 MultipleChoice 56 Question 35. Question: What is the role of caretaker genes? Student Maintenance of genomic integrity Answer: Proliferation of cancer cells Secretion of growth factors Restoration of normal tissue structure Instructor Caretaker genes are responsible for the maintenance of genomic Explanation: integrity. The other options are not roles assumed by caretaker genes. 0 -589875907 MultipleChoice 27 Question 36. Question: Which blood cell type is elevated at birth but decreases to Student Monocytes adult levels during the first year of life? Answer: Platelets Neutrophils Lymphocytes Instructor Only monocyte counts are high in the first year of life and then Explanation: decrease to adult levels. 0 -589875906 MultipleChoice 65 Question 37. Question: Which term is used to identify the movement of gas and air into and out of the lungs? Student Perfusion Answer: Ventilation Respiration Diffusion Instructor Of the options available, ventilation is the only term used to identify Explanation: the mechanical movement of gas or air into and out of the lungs. 0 -589875905 MultipleChoice 41 Question 38. Question: In which primary immune deficiency is there a partial-to- complete absence of T-cell immunity? Student Bruton disease Answer: DiGeorge syndrome Reticular dysgenesis Adenosine deaminase deficiency Instructor The principal immunologic defect in DiGeorge syndrome is the partial Explanation: or complete absence of T-cell immunity. The other options are not the result of either a partial or complete absence of T-cell immunity. 0 -589875904 MultipleChoice 12 Question 39. Question: Which substance has been shown to increase the risk of Student Alcohol cancer when used in combination with tobacco smoking? Answer: Steroids Antihistamines Antidepressants Instructor Alcohol interacts with smoke, increasing the risk of malignant tumors, Explanation: possibly by acting as a solvent for the carcinogenic chemicals in smoke products. No current research supports the remaining options as having an increased effect on the incidence of cancer when used in combination with tobacco smoking. 0 -589875903 MultipleChoice 31 Question 40. Question: Which statement concerning exotoxins is true? Student Answer: Exotoxins are contained in cell walls of gram-negative bacteria. Exotoxins are released during the lysis of bacteria. Exotoxins are able to initiate the complement and coagulation cascades. Exotoxins are released during bacterial growth. Instructor Exotoxins are proteins released during bacterial growth. The Explanation: other options are not true of exotoxins. 0 -589875902 MultipleChoice 16 Question 41. Question: Which type of immunity is produced by an individual after either natural exposure to the antigen or after immunization against the antigen? Student Passive-acquired immunity Answer: Active-acquired immunity Passive-innate immunity Active-innate immunity Instructor An individual produces active-acquired immunity (active immunity) Explanation: after natural exposure to an antigen or after immunization, whereas passive-acquired immunity (passive immunity) does not involve the host’s immune response at all. The innate immune system, also known as nonspecific immune system and the first line of defense, is composed of the cells and mechanisms that defend the host from infection by other organisms in a nonspecific manner, which means that the cells of the innate system recognize and respond to pathogens in a generic way. 0 -589875901 MultipleChoice 2 Question 42. Question: Research supports the premise that exercise has a probable impact on reducing the risk of which cancer? Student Answer: Liver Endometrial Stomach Colon Instructor The World Cancer Research Fund summarizes the effects as Explanation: convincing for cancers of the colon and probable for postmenopausal breast cancer and endometrial cancer. The relationship is not supported for the remaining options. 0 -589875900 MultipleChoice 32 Question 43. Question: What part of the kidney controls renal blood flow, glomerular filtration, and renin secretion? Student Answer: Macula densa Visceral epithelium Juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) Filtration slits Instructor Control of renal blood flow, glomerular filtration, and renin secretion Explanation: occur at the JGA. Together, the juxtaglomerular cells and macula densa cells form the JGA. The control of renal blood flow, glomerular filtration, and renin secretion is not directed by any of the other options. 0 -589875899 MultipleChoice 94 Question 44. Question: What is the fundamental physiologic manifestation of anemia? Student Answer: Hypotension Hyperesthesia Hypoxia Ischemia Instructor The fundamental physiologic manifestation of anemia is a reduced Explanation: oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, resulting in tissue hypoxia. 0 -589875898 MultipleChoice 60 Question 45. Question: Between which months of age does sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) most often occur? Student Answer: 0 and 1 2 and 4 5 and 6 6 and 7 Instructor The incidence of SIDS is low during the first month of life but sharply Explanation: increases in the second month of life, peaking at 2 to 4 months and is unusual after 6 months of age. 0 -589875897 MultipleChoice 89 Question 46. Question: What is the purpose of the spirometry measurement? Student To evaluate the cause of hypoxia Answer: To measure the volume and flow rate during forced expiration To measures the gas diffusion rate at the alveolocapillary membrane To determine pH and oxygen and carbon dioxide concentrations Instructor Spirometry measures volume and flow rate during forced expiration. Explanation: The alveolar-arterial oxygen gradient is used to evaluate the cause of hypoxia. Diffusing capacity is a measure of the gas diffusion rate at the alveolocapillary membrane. Arterial blood gas analysis can be used to determine pH and oxygen and carbon dioxide concentrations. 0 -589875896 MultipleChoice 47 Question 47. Question: Carcinoma in situ is characterized by which changes? Student Answer: Cells have broken through the local basement membrane. Cells have invaded immediate surrounding tissue. Cells remain localized in the glandular or squamous cells. Cellular and tissue alterations indicate dysplasia. Instructor Carcinoma in situ (CIS) refers to preinvasive epithelial malignant Explanation: tumors of glandular or squamous cell origin. These early stage cancers are localized to the epithelium and have not broken through the local basement membrane or invaded the surrounding tissue. Dysplasia refers to changes in mature cell structure. 0 -589875895 MultipleChoice 22 Question 48. Question: The drug heparin acts in hemostasis by which processes? Student Inhibiting thrombin and antithrombin III (AT-III) Answer: Preventing the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin Shortening the fibrin strands to retract the blood clot Degrading the fibrin within blood clots Instructor Clinically administered heparin or heparin sulfate (on the surface of Explanation: endothelial cells) binds to AT-III and induces a conformational change that greatly enhances its activity. Under normal conditions, the presence of endothelial cell heparin sulfate and available AT-III in the circulation cooperate to protect the vessels from the effects of spontaneously activated thrombin. The other options do not accurately describe the role heparin plays in hemostasis. 0 -589875894 MultipleChoice 58 Question 49. Question: The coronary ostia are located in the: Student Left ventricle Answer: Aortic valve Coronary sinus Aorta Instructor Coronary arteries receive blood through openings in the aorta, called Explanation: the coronary ostia. 0 -589875893 MultipleChoice 72 Question 50. Question: Blood vessels of the kidneys are innervated by the: Student Vagus nerve Answer: Sympathetic nervous system Somatic nervous system Parasympathetic nervous system Instructor The blood vessels of the kidney are innervated by the sympathetic Explanation: noradrenergic fibers that cause arteriolar vasoconstriction and reduce renal blood flow. The other options are not involved in this process. 0 -589875892 MultipleChoice 100 Question 51. Question: Which term is used to describe a muscle cell showing a reduced ability to form new muscle while appearing highly disorganized? Student Answer: Dysplasia Hyperplasia Myoplasia Anaplasia Instructor Anaplasia is defined as the loss of cellular differentiation, irregularities Explanation: of the size and shape of the nucleus, and the loss of normal tissue structure. In clinical specimens, anaplasia is recognized by a loss of organization and a significant increase in nuclear size with evidence of ongoing proliferation. The remaining options refer to specific changes in the cell. 0 -589875891 MultipleChoice 23 Question 52. Question: Which statement best describes a Schilling test? Student Answer: Administration of radioactive cobalamin and the measurement of its excretion in the urine to test for vitamin B12 deficiency Measurement of antigen-antibody immune complexes in the blood to test for hemolytic anemia Measurement of serum ferritin and total iron-binding capacity in the blood to test for iron deficiency anemia Administration of folate and measurement in 2 hours of its level in a blood sample to test for folic acid deficiency anemia. Instructor Explanation: The Schilling test indirectly evaluates vitamin B12 absorption by administering radioactive B12 and measuring excretion in the urine. This selection is the only option that accurately describes a Schilling test. 0 -589875890 MultipleChoice 62 Question 53. Question: What is the major concern regarding the treatment of gonococci infections? Student Development of antibiotic resistance Answer: Changes in virulence Changes in pathogenicity Mutations into different strains Instructor Several types of drug-resistant strains have been identified; they are Explanation: penicillinase-producing Neisseria gonorrhoeae (PPNG), which is resistant to penicillin; tetracycline-resistant N. gonorrhoeae (TRNG), which is resistant to tetracycline; chromosomal control of mechanisms of resistance of N. gonorrhoeae (CMRNG), which is resistant to penicillin and tetracycline; and increasingly a fluoroquinoloneresistant N. gonorrhoeae (QRNG). The other options are not major concerns. 0 -589875889 MultipleChoice 50 Question 54. Question: What is the action of urodilatin? Student Urodilatin causes vasoconstriction of afferent arterioles. Answer: It causes vasodilation of the efferent arterioles. Urodilatin inhibits antidiuretic hormone secretion. It inhibits salt and water reabsorption. Instructor Urodilatin (a natriuretic peptide) inhibits sodium and water Explanation: reabsorption from the medullary part of collecting duct, thereby producing diuresis. It is not involved in the actions described by the other options. -589875888 MultipleChoice 105 True 0 -589875888 MultipleChoice 105 Question 55. Question: How is most carbon dioxide (CO2) in the blood transported? Student Attached to oxygen Answer: In the form of bicarbonate Combined with albumin Dissolved in the plasma Instructor Approximately 60% of the CO2 in venous blood and 90% of the CO2 in Explanation: arterial blood are carried in the form of bicarbonate. 0 -589875887 MultipleChoice 44 Question 56. Question: The most common site of metastasis for a patient diagnosed Student Bones with prostate cancer is which location? Answer: Brain Bladder Kidney Instructor The bone, especially the lumbar spine area, is the most common Explanation: metastasis site for prostate cancer. 0 -589875886 MultipleChoice 29 Question 57. Question: Immunoglobulin E (IgE) is associated with which type of hypersensitivity reaction? Student I Answer: II III IV Instructor Hypersensitivity reactions have been divided into four distinct types: Explanation: type I (IgE-mediated) hypersensitivity reactions, type II (tissue- specific) hypersensitivity reactions, type III (immune complex– mediated) hypersensitivity reactions, and type IV (cell-mediated) hypersensitivity reactions. 0 -589875885 MultipleChoice 14 Question 58. Question: Which immunoglobulin (Ig) is present in childhood asthma? Student IgM Answer: IgG IgE IgA Instructor Included in the long list of asthma-associated genes are those that code Explanation: for increased levels of immune and inflammatory mediators (e.g., interleukin [IL]–4, IgE, leukotrienes), nitric oxide, and transmembrane proteins in the endoplasmic reticulum. None of the other options are associated with childhood asthma. 0 -589875884 MultipleChoice 84 Question 59. Question: The Papanicolaou (Pap) test is used to screen for which cancer? Student Answer: Ovarian Uterine Cervical Vaginal Instructor The Pap test, an examination of cervical epithelial scrapings, readily Explanation: detects early oncogenic human papillomavirus (HPV)infection. The Pap test is not used for screening the other cancer sites listed. 0 -589875883 MultipleChoice 25 Question 60. Question: The risk for respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) decreases for premature infants when they are born between how many weeks of gestation? Student Answer: 16 and 20 20 and 24 24 and 30 30 and 36 Instructor Surfactant is secreted into fetal airways between 30 and 36 weeks. The Explanation: other options are not true regarding the timeframe when the risk for RDS decreases.