NSG 6440 Week 9 Practice Exam Graded A

NSG 6440 Week 9 Practice Exam Which of the following is a primary prevention measure for a 76-year-old man newly diagnosed with a testosterone deficiency? Question 1 options: 1) Calcium supplementation 2) Tes ...

NSG 6440 Week 9 Practice Exam Which of the following is a primary prevention measure for a 76-year-old man newly diagnosed with a testosterone deficiency? Question 1 options: 1) Calcium supplementation 2) Testicular self-examination 3) Bone density test 4) Digital rectal examination Question 2 (1 point) Which of the following is an example of secondary prevention in a 50-year-old woman? Question 2 options: 1) Yearly mammogram 2) Low animal-fat diet 3) Use of seat belt 4) Daily application of sunscreen Question 3 (1 point) Which of the following is an example of tertiary prevention in a patient with chronic renal failure? Question 3 options: 1) Fluid restriction 2) Hemodialysis 4 days a week 3) High-protein diet 4) Maintenance of blood pressure at 120/80 Question 4 (1 point) Nursing research should be utilized by: Question 4 options: 1) Nurses at the bedside 2) Advanced practice nurses 3) Nurse researchers 4) Nurses at all levels of practice Question 5 (1 point) A clinical guideline may be found useful if the guideline was: Question 5 options: 1) Published 2 years ago 2) Created using one group 3) Authored by a relatively unknown source 4) Funded by an anonymous source Question 6 (1 point) Practice guidelines are designed to: Question 6 options: 1) Be inflexible 2) Be utilized in every circumstance 3) Provide a reference point for decision making 4) Be created by a professional organization to guide the practice of a profession Question 7 (1 point) Tatiana is receiving a sports physical to participate in cross-country running. She receives her exam from a single provider, who is examining all of the athletes one after the other in the nurse’s office at school. Which of the following is a problem with this exam format for sports physicals? Question 7 options: 1) It is expensive, and her school will have to use a large amount of its budget to fulfill the sports physical requirement. 2) It lacks individual attention that could increase the risk of insufficient medical history. 3) It is disorganized, and the athletes may have the potential for inadequate integration of findings. 4) It lacks privacy and the students may feel that their medical information is not being kept confidential. Question 8 (1 point) Tyler is a 16-year-old football player who has an appointment for his sports physical. He had a head hit yesterday while playing with friends, and went to the emergency room. He was discharged with a diagnosis of a concussion. Today he feels dizzy, has noise sensitivity, and had trouble sleeping last night. Which of the following options is best for the clinician to pursue? Question 8 options: 1) Complete a formal Balance Error Scoring System (BESS) and neuropsychologic testing before clearing him to play. 2) Clear him to play, because the emergency room discharged him and these symptoms are normal after a head hit. 3) Clear him to play in a week when his symptoms will subside. 4) Refuse to clear him because he had a concussion and should not be playing football at all anymore. Question 9 (1 point) The clinician is seeing Dahlia, a 15-year-old swimmer, for a sports physical. During examination, she notes she has had difficulty breathing while swimming over the last 3 days. Which of the following options is best for the clinician to pursue? Question 9 options: 1) Clear her to participate in swimming, as it is common to have some days of difficulty on exertion, especially if she has not been as active the week before. 2) Refer Dahlia to the sports trainer prior to clearing her so she can work on her form and have less difficulty on exertion. 3) Complete a workup for pulmonary hypertension, anemia, asthma, and cardiovascular issues prior to clearing her for participation. 4) Send her to the emergency room immediately, as this is very concerning and needs to be urgently addressed. Question 10 (1 point) Which theory regarding the aging process is linked to cancer and Alzheimer’s disease? Question 10 options: 1) Replicating senescence 2) Weakening of the immune system 3) Oxidative damage 4) Telomere shortening Question 11 (1 point) What is the key to increase physical activity in older adults? Question 11 options: 1) Motivation 2) Having a partner to exercise with 3) Belonging to a fitness center 4) Owning home fitness equipment Question 12 (1 point) Which of the following is especially important for ensuring the safety of older adults? Question 12 options: 1) Removing firearms from the home due to the high rate of depression in older adults 2) Making sure the hot water heater is set below 130oF 3) Encouraging yearly tests to assess ability to drive safely 4) Assessing fall risk and history of falls Question 13 (1 point) Which of the following would be a cause of neuropathic pain? Question 13 options: 1) Bone metastases 2) Post HERPETIC pain 3) Musculoskeletal inflammation 4) Postsurgical incisional pain Question 14 (1 point) Which drug is considered the MOST effective medication for pain in terminally ill patients? Question 14 options: 1) Codeine 2) Hydrocodone 3) Morphine 4) Hydromorphone Question 15 (1 point) Unlike palliative care, hospice provides: Question 15 options: 1) Emotional support 2) Care to patients at end of life only 3) Spiritual services 4) Relies on combined knowledge and skill Question 16 (1 point) How often should clinicians reassess a patient that is on chronic opioids? Question 16 options: 1) 2 weeks 2) 1 week 3) 4 weeks 4) 3 weeks Question 17 (1 point) You are providing end-of-life care to an elderly patient with a history of heart failure. The patient complains of dyspnea. What is often the first line treatment for this condition? Question 17 options: 1) Oxygen 2) Benzodiazepines 3) Opioids 4) Nonpharmacological solution Question 18 (1 point) The cost of care provided by an APRN is approximately: Question 18 options: 1) One-quarter that of a physician 2) One-third that of a physician 3) One-half that of a physician 4) One and one-half that of a physician Question 19 (1 point) How do bundled payments differ from fee-for-service or global capitation? Question 19 options: 1) Bundled payments are designed to reduce the number of payments to providers. 2) Bundled payments align payment to care outcomes delivered by the team. 3) Bundled payments reduce the amount of paperwork required for payment. 4) Bundled payments allow for streamlined and coordinated billing for providers. Question 20 (1 point) Patients require education prior to accessing health-care services for the following reason: Question 20 options: 1) Many patients do not understand policy benefits and payment responsibility. 2) Services may change across the beneficiary year. 3) Copayments and deductibles may have already been met by the patient. 4) Coding may need to be adjusted to meet the terms of the patient’s benefits. Question 21 (1 point) Accounting keeps track of the financial state of a business. The accounting report that demonstrates the net-growth in assets is: Question 21 options: Net income statement Balance sheet Cash flow statement Operating statement Question 22 (1 point) Commonalities among psychotherapeutic techniques include the following: Question 22 options: 1) Dream therapy, listening, and reflection 2) Psychodrama, group psychotherapy, and 12-step programs 3) Self-help groups 4) Obtaining external perspective and participation in a helping relationship Question 23 (1 point) The goals of the 15-minute hour approach include: Question 23 options: 1) Enhance self-esteem, expand behavioral repertoire, prevent dire consequences, and reestablish premorbid levels of functioning 2) Emerge with a higher level of functioning and commitment to long-term psychotherapy 3) Accept need for antidepressant therapy and psychiatric referral; share concerns with primary-care clinician 4) Improve family functioning and sexual performance as well as accept need for antidepressant medication Question 24 (1 point) BATHEing the patient refers to: Question 24 options: 1) A technique used in primary care to get the patient to accept the need for psychological or psychiatric referral 2) A technique used to facilitate cultural understanding 3) A technique used to perform psychotherapy 4) A technique that is a quick screen for psychiatric issues and interventions for psychological problems Question 25 (1 point) Which of the following scenarios best demonstrates the relationship between physical health and distress? Question 25 options: 1) A patient’s high-calorie diet contributes to his diagnosis of type 2 diabetes. 2) A patient with an elevated HbA1C reports that he was recently evicted from his home. 3) A patient with depression reports an increase in suicidal thoughts. 4) A patient reports feeling “numb” after learning that her malignant tumor is inoperable. Question 26 (1 point) Which type of liability insurance covers only situations in which the incident occurred and the claim was made while the policy was in effect? Question 26 options: 1) Claims made policy 2) Occurrence policy 3) An employment coverage policy 4) A “tail policy” Question 27 (1 point) Which insurance plan was the first to allow members to choose nurse practitioners as their primary-care provider and pay them the same rate as physicians for the same care? Question 27 options: 1) Blue Cross/Blue Shield Plan 2) Medicare/Medicaid Plan 3) Oxford Health Plan 4) United Health Insurance Plan Question 28 (1 point) In the model for future Advanced Practice Registered Nurse (APRN) practice, what does the “C” of LACE represent? Question 28 options: 1) Commitment 2) Consensus 3) Certification 4) Collaboration Question 29 (1 point) What principle is most important when obtaining informed consent? Question 29 options: 1) Justice 2) Fidelity 3) No maleficence 4) Veracity Question 30 (1 point) Emotional intelligence is defined as: Question 30 options: 1) Being highly attuned to the needs of others 2) The ability to engage in self-care 3) Being able to recognize and understand the meaning of emotions, and how they affect other people 4) The holistic integration of self-care and self-development practices Question 31 (1 point) Qualities associated with resilience include: Question 31 options: 1) Hope, self-efficacy, and positivity 2) Stick-to-it-ness, belief in a higher power 3) Education, self-regulation, and use of activity to decrease stress 4) Ability to take vacations and the availability of support systems and a secure work environment Question 32 (1 point) According to nurse theorist Jean Watson, a focus on positive intentionality—holding caring thoughts, loving kindness, and open receptivity—enhances caring energy, which leads to healing. How can the APRN bring this to their practice? Question 32 options: 1) Spiritual readings, centering oneself before patient encounters, engaging in behaviors that help build positive energy 2) Review of materials on primary care before going into the work environment to increase one’s confidence, leading to caring energy 3) Travel to sacred places 4) Helping the poor and homeless—volunteering at a domestic violence shelter, for example—in addition to one’s regular practice Question 33 (1 point) Billy presents with edematous and erythematous lid margins and closer visual inspection with a Wood’s lamp reveals scaling. Which of the following conditions could be the diagnosis? Question 33 options: 1) Hordeolum 2) Chalazion 3) Blepharitis 4) Iritis Question 34 (1 point) Which of the following is true about epiphora? Question 34 options: 1) It is uncommon that it’s a response to dry eye. 2) It will lead to decreased tearing. 3) It is common in infants. 4) It will lead to increased irritation. Question 35 (1 point) The clinician is seeing a patient complaining of red eye. The clinician suspects conjunctivitis. The presence of mucopurulent discharge suggests which type of conjunctivitis? Question 35 options: 1) Viral conjunctivitis 2) Keratoconjunctivitis 3) Bacterial conjunctivitis 4) Allergic conjunctivitis Question 36 (1 point) Which is appropriate patient education to provide regarding bacterial conjunctivitis? Question 36 options: 1) The patient should continue to go to his or her job as a day-care teacher. 2) The patient should make sure to practice proper hand washing. 3) The patient should touch his or her eyes to apply medication. 4) The patient will be infectious for only 24 hours after diagnosis of bacterial conjunctivitis. Question 37 (1 point) With regards to the relationship between diabetes and diabetic retinopathy, which of the following is TRUE? Question 37 options: 1) Diabetic retinopathy only occurs in patients with type 1 diabetes. 2) Diabetic retinopathy is always the first sign that a patient has diabetes. 3) The longer the patient has had diabetes, the more likelihood that they will develop retinopathy. 4) Diabetic retinopathy only occurs in patients with type 2 diabetes. Question 38 (1 point) Who of the following is a patient with risk factors for macular degeneration? Question 38 options: 1) 50-year-old African American male 2) 65-year-old Caucasian female 3) 40-year-old Asian man 4) 90-year-old Hispanic female Question 39 (1 point) Which of the following is an example of sensorineural hearing loss? Question 39 options: 1) Perforation of the tympanic membrane 2) Otosclerosis 3) Cholesteatoma 4) Presbycusis Question 40 (1 point) In which of the following scenarios would otitis media (OM) be considered chronic? Question 40 options: 1) Patient has had repeated episodes of acute OM followed by continuous or intermittent otorrhea lasting for more than 3 months. 2) Patient has had severe pain and intermittent otorrhea lasting for 2 months. 3) Patient has had repeated episodes of acute OM followed by continuous or intermittent otorrhea lasting for more than 1 month. 4) Patient has had severe pain and continuous otorrhea lasting for 3 months. Question 41 (1 point) Which of the following treatments is appropriate for a patient who has acute otitis media and has an allergy to penicillin? Question 41 options: 1) Augmentin 875 mg two times daily for 10 days 2) Suprax 400 mg daily for 7 days 3) Amoxicillin 500 mg every 8 hours for 10 days 4) Zithromax 500 mg on day 1, and then 250 mg daily for 4 days Question 42 (1 point) Fluctuations and reductions in estrogen may be a contributing factor in which type of rhinitis? Question 42 options: 1) Vasomotor rhinitis 2) Rhinitis medicamentosa 3) Atrophic rhinitis 4) Viral rhinitis Question 43 (1 point) Which type of stomatitis is caused by continual exposure to chewing tobacco? Question 43 options: 1) Aphthous stomatitis 2) Herpetic stomatitis 3) Nicotinic stomatitis 4) Allergic stomatitis Question 44 (1 point) The presence of hairy leukoplakia in a person with no other symptoms of immune suppression is strongly suggestive of which type of infection? Question 44 options: 1) Herpes simplex virus type 2 2) HIV 3) Pneumonia 4) Syphilis Question 45 (1 point) Which of the following medications is safe to use when an adult patient has a perforated tympanic membrane? Question 45 options: 1) Chloroxylenol 1 mg, 4 to 5 drops in the affected ear three times per day for 7 days 2) Floxin otic 10 drops in affected ear for 7 days 3) Pramoxine HCL 10 mg, 4 to 5 drops in affected ear three times per day for 7 days 4) Hydrocortisone 10 mg/mL, 3 drops in affected ear three times per day for 7 days Question 46 (1 point) Betty presents with tenderness on traction of the pinna in her right ear and when the provider places pressure on her right tragus, she expresses she is in pain. The clinician does not suspect a tympanic membrane rupture, but would like to make Betty more comfortable during the exam. Which of the following solutions should the clinician administer before attempting an examination? Question 46 options: 1) Normal saline 2) Auralgan 3) Lidocaine 4) Distilled water Question 47 (1 point) A patient has dysphonia 3 days as a result of a viral illness. Which of the following educational points is correct? Question 47 options: 1) As smoking has no effect on dysphonia, the patient can continue to smoke. 2) The patient should continue to use their voice to exercise it. 3) The patient should take cough medication with antihistamines. 4) Make sure the patient has adequate fluid intake. Question 48 (1 point) Which of the following medications for temporomandibular disorder has the warning that patients should NOT drive while taking it? Question 48 options: 1) Flexeril 2) Naprosyn 3) Tylenol 4) Elavil Question 49 (1 point) What is the initial treatment for uncomplicated anterior epistaxis? Question 49 options: 1) Tilting the head back so the blood does not run out of the nose 2) Applying firm and continuous pressure superior to the nasal alar cartilages for 10 to 15 minutes 3) Applying firm and continuous pressure to the nostril for 5 minutes 4) Letting the nose bleed clot and leaning the head forward Question 50 (1 point) Based on these patients’ histories, which of the following should receive fungal serology testing for their chronic cough? Question 50 options: 1) A patient with a history of sickle cell disease 2) A patient with a history of multiple sclerosis 3) A patient with a history of celiac disease 4) A patient with a history of AIDS Question 51 (1 point) Which of these patients should be given a decongestant? Question 51 options: 1) Gerta, a 41-year-old female with GERD 2) Christine, a 15-year-old female with pneumonia 3) Dan, a 60-year-old male with allergic rhinitis 4) Andy, a 26-year-old with cystic fibrosis Question 52 (1 point) Annie is a 30-year-old African American woman that complains of “coughing up blood.”and SOB when lying down or during excertion What is a likely cause of her condition? Question 52 options: 1) Bronchogenic carcinoma 2) Pulmonary embolus with infarction 3) Mitral stenosis 4) Bronchitis Question 53 (1 point) African American patients seem to have a negative reaction to which of the following asthma medications? Question 53 options: 1) Inhaled corticosteroids 2) Long-term beta-agonist bronchodilators 3) Leukotriene-receptor agonists 4) Oral corticosteroids Question 54 (1 point) Why do you suspect that your patient may have a decreased response to the tuberculin skin test (TST)? Question 54 options: 1) She is on a high-protein diet. 2) She is an adolescent. 3) She has been on a long-term corticosteroid therapy. 4) She just got over a cold. Question 55 (1 point) Which information should be included when you are teaching your patient about the use of nicotine gum? Question 55 options: 1) The gum must be correctly chewed to a softened state and then placed in the buccal mucosa. 2) Patients should not eat for 30 minutes prior to or during the use of the gum. 3) Initially, 1 piece is chewed every 30 minutes while awake. 4) Acidic foods and beverages should be encouraged during nicotine therapy. Question 56 (1 point) George has COPD and an 80% forced expiratory volume in 1 second. How would you classify the severity of his COPD? Question 56 options: 1) Stage 1 mild COPD 2) Stage 2 moderate COPD 3) Stage 3 severe COPD 4) Stage 5 very severe COPD Question 57 (1 point) Which of the following patients would you expect to have a decreased response to TST? Question 57 options: 1) Julie, a 50-year-old postal worker with hypertension 2) Sandy, a 40-year-old patient who recently survived a fire that left 40% of her total body surface covered in burns 3) Jill, a 16-year-old cheerleader with type 1 diabetes 4) Mark, a 29-year-old tennis player who currently has a cold Question 58 (1 point) Which of the following is a possible consequence of sleep apnea? Question 58 options: 1) Asthma 2) Increased white blood cells 3) Insulin resistance 4) Hyperactivity Question 59 (1 point) Which of the following statements regarding pulmonary function and cigarette smoking is true? Question 59 options: 1) Cigarette smoking causes an increase in circulating immunoglobulin levels. 2) Cigarette smoking has no increased risk of COPD. 3) Cigarette smoking decreases mucus production. 4) Cigarette smoking increases the risk of pneumothorax. Question 60 (1 point) Which of these patients should be evaluated with serum alpha-antitrypsin levels? Question 60 options: 1) Jamie, a 70-year-old female with COPD with a history of smoking 2) Ron, a 43-year-old male with COPD with a history of smoking 3) Leslie, a 60-year-old female with clinical emphysema and no history of smoking 4) Marshall, a 55-year-old male with clinical emphysema and no family history of early-onset COPD Question 61 (1 point) A blood pressure (BP) of 150/90 is considered: Question 61 options: 1) Stage 2 hypertension 2) Hypertensive 3) Normal in healthy older adults age 60 or older 4) Acceptable if the patient has diabetes mellitus (DM) Question 62 (1 point) Lifestyle modifications to manage hypertension (HTN) include: Question 62 options: 1) Maintaining a body mass index of 17 2) Restricting dietary sodium to 5 grams per day 3) Engaging in exercise or physical activity for 90 minutes a day 4) Limiting beer intake to 24 ounces per day Question 63 (1 point) You are assessing Sigred for metabolic syndrome. Which of her parameters is indicative of this syndrome? Question 63 options: 1) Her waist is 36 inches. 2) Her triglyceride level is 140 mg/dL. 3) Her BP is 128/84. 4) Her fasting blood sugar (BS) is 108 mg/dL. Question 64 (1 point) Which type of angina do you suspect in Harvey, who complains of chest pain that occurs during sleep and most often in the early morning hours? Question 64 options: 1) Stable angina 2) Unstable angina 3) Variant (Prinzmetal’s angina) 4) Probably not angina but hiatal hernia Question 65 (1 point) A patient is undergoing a cardiac stress test. Which of the following parts of their history could cause a false-positive reading? Question 65 options: 1) Patient is on labetalol. 2) Patient is a man. 3) Patient is on amlodipine. 4) Patient has a potassium level of 4. Question 66 (1 point) Which of these patients is at a higher risk for developing deep vein thrombosis? Question 66 options: 1) Jerry, a 64-year-old man with a history of epilepsy 2) Samantha, a 45-year-old female undergoing a hysterectomy 3) Diane, a 15-year-old female with type 1 diabetes 4) Ben, a 23-year-old male with a history of a pneumothorax Question 67 (1 point) What percentage of patients with angina pectoris will have simultaneous dyspnea, caused by transient increase in pulmonary venous pressures that accompany ventricular stiffening during an episode of myocardial ischemia? Question 67 options: 1) About 20% 2) About 30% 3) About 50% 4) Almost all Question 68 (1 point) Which of the following patient complaints indicates palpitations are due to increased catecholamine production? Question 68 options: 1) “I feel like my heart is pounding out of my chest and I have been sitting for an hour.” 2) “I feel like my heart is in a vise and I can’t breathe.” 3) “I feel like my heart is beating strongly after I just worked out.” 4) “I feel like my heart is skipping beats.” Question 69 (1 point) When teaching post-MI patients about their NTG tablets, the clinician should stress that the tablets should remain in the light-resistant bottle in which they are packaged and should not be put in another pill box or remain in areas that are or could become warm and humid. Once opened, the bottle must be dated and discarded after how many months? Question 69 options: 1) 1 month 2) 3 months 3) 6 months 4) As long as the tablets are kept in this special bottle, they will last forever. Question 70 (1 point) Which of the following doses of statins decrease LDL by up to 50% on average? Question 70 options: 1) Pravastatin 40 mg 2) Simvastatin 20 mg 3) Atorvastatin 80 mg 4) Fluvastatin 40 mg Question 71 (1 point) What is true regarding the treatment of cilostazol? Question 71 options: 1) It causes vasoconstriction. 2) It can be used when a patient has a degree of heart failure. 3) It is used to treat leg pain due to blockages in the leg veins. 4) It causes platelet aggregation. Question 72 (1 point) What value on the ankle-brachial index diagnoses peripheral artery disease? Question 72 options: 1) Less than 0.25 2) Less than 0.50 3) Less than 0.90 4) Greater than 1 Question 73 (1 point) Your patient with permanent atrial fibrillation asks what other options he has to warfarin. You tell him: Question 73 options: 1) There is a permanent implantable device, but you will have to continue the warfarin when you have it. 2) We could try dabigatran, but it would require more laboratory monitoring. 3) Rivaroxaban is a good alternative because it has an established antidote. 4) Apixaban is an alternative medication because it does not necessitate dose titration. Question 74 (1 point) A patient comes to the office complaining of constipation. The patient lists all of the following medications. Which drug could be responsible for the constipation? Question 74 options: 1) Multivitamin 2) Magnesium hydroxide 3) Pepto-Bismol® 4) Ibuprofen Question 75 (1 point) A patient is seen with complaints of diarrhea. Which of the following should be included in the patient’s differential diagnosis? Question 75 options: 1) Gastroenteritis 2) Recent use of Imodium 3) Lack of dietary fiber 4) Decreased physical activity Question 76 (1 point) Cameron, 38 years old, is 5 feet 8 inches tall and weighs 189 pounds. He reports that he has had intermittent heartburn for several months and takes antacids with temporary relief. He has been waking during the night with a burning sensation in his chest. Which additional information would lead you to believe that gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is the cause of his pain? Question 76 options: 1) The pain seems better when he smokes to relieve his nerves. 2) Coffee and fried foods don’t bother him. 3) He wakes at night coughing with a bad taste in his mouth. 4) He likes to wear loose clothing. Question 77 (1 point) Hannah is a patient that just had an appendectomy after a diagnosis of appendicitis and had no complications. Which of the following patient education points is correct? Question 77 options: 1) “You will need to take laxatives to encourage defecation post-surgery.” 2) “You will need to stay in the hospital for 2 weeks to recover.” 3) “Your diet will be advanced when bowel sounds return.” 4) “I will put you on narcotics to manage your pain.” Question 78 (1 point) Which of the following is true of appendicitis? Question 78 options: 1) Appendicitis is more common in Asian countries. 2) Family history of appendicitis does not increase a patient’s risk of having appendicitis. 3) Appendicitis is most common between the ages of 40 and 60. 4) If appendicitis occurs in infants, it is associated with higher morbidity. Question 79 (1 point) A 28-year-old patient is seen in the clinic with colicky abdominal pain, particularly after meals. She has frequent constipation, flatulence, and abdominal distension. Which of the data make a diagnosis of diverticulitis unlikely? Question 79 options: 1) Her age 2) Frequent constipation 3) Pain after meals 4) Colicky abdominal pain Question 80 (1 point) A 28-year-old patient is seen with complaints of diarrhea. Which of the following responses to the history questions would help the primary-care provider (PCP) establish the diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)? Question 80 options: 1) Feels relief after urination 2) Pain wakes up patient from sleep 3) Defecates in the middle of the night 4) Pain is precipitated by eating Question 81 (1 point) Elaine is a 32-year-old Hispanic woman who is 33 weeks pregnant. She complains that when she wipes after defecation she noticed “a red streak on the toilet paper.” Which of the following should be included in the differential diagnosis? Question 81 options: 1) Gastric ulcer 2) Rectal prolapse 3) Diverticulitis 4) Irritable bowel syndrome Question 82 (1 point) The nurse practitioner (NP) suspects a patient has a peptic ulcer. Which of the following items on the history would lead the NP to this conclusion? Question 82 options: 1) Use of fish oil vitamin 2) Ethanol avoidance 3) Cigarette smoking 4) Prednisone use Question 83 (1 point) Which of the following is part of the treatment plan for the patient with IBS? Question 83 options: 1) High-fiber diet 2) A discussion that the goal of treatment is to cure their disease 3) Daily laxatives 4) A conversation about their expected shorter life span Question 84 (1 point) Which type of heat-related illness involves a core body temperature of at least 104°F and may present with hot dry skin, acute mental status changes, absent sweat, and tachypnea? Question 84 options: 1) Heat cramps 2) Heat syncope 3) Heat exhaustion 4) Heat stroke Question 85 (1 point) Which drug commonly prescribed for burns is active against a wide spectrum of microbial pathogens and is the most frequently used agent for partial- and full-thickness thermal injuries? Question 85 options: 1) Clotrimazole cream (Lotrimin) 2) Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon) 3) Silver nitrate 4) Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) Question 86 (1 point) What number represents normal neurological function on the Glasgow Coma Scale? Question 86 options: 1) 7 2) 9 3) 10 4) 15 Question 87 (1 point) Delayed serum sickness–type reactions in response to multiple bee, wasp, or fire-ant stings can be managed with which of the following? Question 87 options: 1) A corticosteroid such as prednisone (Deltasone), 60 to 100 mg, tapered over 2 weeks 2) An oral antihistamine, such as hydroxyzine, for 2 weeks 3) An H2 blocker such as cimetidine for 1 week 4) 0.1 mg (1 mL of 1:10,000 solution epinephrine) in 10 mL of normal saline and administer as a slow IV push over 10 minutes Question 88 (1 point) A patient who sustains blunt chest trauma and/or penetrating chest trauma must have which of the following imaging examinations? Question 88 options: 1) Upright anterior/posterior and lateral chest x-ray 2) Supine anterior/posterior and lateral chest x-ray 3) Upright bilateral chest x-ray 4) Supine anterior/posterior chest x-ray Question 89 (1 point) What is the most common cause of infectious conjunctivitis? Question 89 options: 1) Adenovirus 2) Rhinovirus 3) Staphylococcus aureus 4) Streptococcus Question 90 (1 point) Which of the following indicates a diagnosis of dementia? Question 90 options: 1) Onset after an infection 2) Abrupt onset over a week 3) Difficulty with long-term memory 4) Hard time finding words Question 91 (1 point) Which of the following may trigger migraines? Question 91 options: 1) Taking an ibuprofen for muscle pain 2) A cup of coffee with regular sweetener 3) A glass of merlot wine 4) Drinking a cup of green tea Question 92 (1 point) Sondra’s peripheral vestibular disease causes dizziness and vertigo. Which of the following medications will help to decrease edema in the labyrinth of the ear? Question 92 options: 1) Meclizine 2) Diphenhydramine 3) Diamox 4) Promethazine Question 93 (1 point) Which of the following signs would a health-care provider expect to see in a patient with Parkinson-plus disorder? Question 93 options: 1) Resting tremor 2) Bradykinesia 3) Rigidity 4) Postural instability Question 94 (1 point) Which of the following is a sign or symptom of a migraine? Question 94 options: 1) Light sensitivity 2) Nonpulsatile pain 3) Nasal stuffiness 4) Bandlike pain Question 95 (1 point) Which of the following describes a bulla? Question 95 options: 1) A fluid filled sac that results from a defect in the dermoepidermal junction 2) Interfaces between the epidermis and the dermis 3) A small crusty plaque 4) A dime-sized purulent pustule on the buttocks Question 96 (1 point) An example of ecchymosis is: Question 96 options: 1) A hematoma 2) A keloid 3) A bruise 4) A patch Question 97 (1 point) Your patient is in her second trimester of pregnancy and has a yeast infection. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment? Question 97 options: 1) Terbinafine 250 mg once daily  12 weeks 2) Noxafil 100 mg oral suspension  2 daily 3) Griseofulvin 500 mg once daily  2 to 4 weeks 4) Metronidazole 2% cream 5 g intravaginally  7 days Question 98 (1 point) Jeffrey has atopic dermatitis. You are prescribing a low-dose topical corticosteroid for him. Which would be a good choice? Question 98 options: 1) Betamethasone dipropionate 0.05% 2) Hydrocortisone base 2.5% 3) Halcinonide 0.1% 4) Desonide 0.05% Question 99 (1 point) Jack is complaining of an extremely pruritic lesion that is round to a half circle in his genital area. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? Question 99 options: 1) Tinea cruris 2) Tinea pedis 3) Tinea versicolor 4) Tinea manuum Question 100 (1 point) Which of the following is true of scabies? Question 100 options: 1) Scabies is more common in the Caucasian population. 2) Scabies is transmitted through blood. 3) Scabies is not associated with hygiene. 4) Scabies is transmitted through close personal contact.