NCLEX-RN National Council Licensure Examination(NCLEX-RN)

Number: NCLEX-RN Passing Score: 800 Time Limit: 120 min File Version: 1 NCLEX-RN National Council Licensure Examination(NCLEX-RN) Sections 1. Questions Set A 2. Question Set B 3. Questions Set C 4. Questions Se ...

Number: NCLEX-RN Passing Score: 800 Time Limit: 120 min File Version: 1 NCLEX-RN National Council Licensure Examination(NCLEX-RN) Sections 1. Questions Set A 2. Question Set B 3. Questions Set C 4. Questions Set D 5. Questions Set E 6. Questions Set F 7. Questions Set G Exam A QUESTION 1 To appropriately monitor therapy and client progress, the nurse should be aware that increased myocardial work and O2 demand will occur with which of the following? A. Positive inotropic therapy B. Negative chronotropic therapy C. Increase in balance of myocardial O2 supply and demand D. Afterload reduction therapy Correct Answer: A Section: Questions Set A Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: (A) Inotropic therapy will increase contractility, which will increase myocardial O2 demand. (B) Decreased heart rate to the point of bradycardia will increase coronary artery filling time. This should be used cautiously because tachycardia may be a compensatory mechanism to increase cardiac output. (C) The goal in the care of the MI client with angina is to maintain a balance between myocardial O2 supply and demand. (D) Decrease in systemic vascular resistance by drug therapy, such as IV nitroglycerin or nitroprusside, or intra-aortic balloon pump therapy, would decrease myocardial work and O2 demand. QUESTION 2 The nurse would need to monitor the serum glucose levels of a client receiving which of the following medications, owing to its effects on glycogenolysis and insulin release? A. Norepinephrine (Levophed) B. Dobutamine (Dobutrex) C. Propranolol (Inderal) D. Epinephrine (Adrenalin) Correct Answer: D Section: Questions Set A Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: (A) Norepinephrine’s side effects are primarily related to safe, effective care environment and include decreased peripheral perfusion and bradycardia. (B) Dobutamine’s side effects include increased heart rate and blood pressure, ventricular ectopy, nausea, and headache. (C) Propranolol’s side effects include elevated blood urea nitrogen, serum transaminase, alkaline phosphatase, and lactic dehydrogenase. (D) Epinephrine increases serum glucose levels by increasing glycogenolysis and inhibiting insulin release. Prolonged use can elevate serum lactate levels, leading to metabolic acidosis, increased urinary catecholamines, false elevation of blood urea nitrogen, and decreased coagulation time. QUESTION 3 Which of the following medications requires close observation for bronchospasm in the client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease or asthma? A. Verapamil (Isoptin) B. Amrinone (Inocor) C. Epinephrine (Adrenalin) D. Propranolol (Inderal) Correct Answer: D Section: Questions Set A Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: (A) Verapamil has the respiratory side effect of nasal or chest congestion, dyspnea, shortness of breath (SOB), and wheezing. (B) Amrinone has the effect of increased contractility and dilation of the vascular smooth muscle. It has no noted respiratory side effects. (C) Epinephrine has the effect of bronchodilation through β stimulation. (D) Propranolol, esmolol, and labetalol are all β- blocking agents, which can increase airway resistance and cause bronchospasms. QUESTION 4 The following medications were noted on review of the client’s home medication profile. Which of the medications would most likely potentiate or elevate serum digoxin levels? A. KCl B. Thyroid agents C. Quinidine D. Theophylline Correct Answer: C Section: Questions Set A Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: (A) Hypokalemia can cause digoxin toxicity. Administration of KCl would prevent this. (B) Thyroid agents decrease digoxin levels. (C) Quinidine increases digoxin levels dramatically. (D) Theophylline is not noted to have an effect on digoxin levels