NURS 612 FINAL EXAM 2020 REVIEW
1.Assessing orientation to person, place, and time helps determine
2.under most conditions, adult patients should be able to repeat a series of ____ numbers.
3.Recent memory may be test
...
NURS 612 FINAL EXAM 2020 REVIEW
1.Assessing orientation to person, place, and time helps determine
2.under most conditions, adult patients should be able to repeat a series of ____ numbers.
3.Recent memory may be tested by
4.Which condition is considered progressive rather than reversible?
5.An older adult is administered the Set Test and scores a 14. The nurse interprets this score as indicative of
6.Which of the following is usually related to structural diseases of the brain?
7.A state of impaired cognition, consciousness, mood and behavioral dysfunction of acute onset refers to
8.The mini-mental state examination should be administered for a patient who
9.The mini-mental state examination
10.While interviewing a 70-year-old female clinic patient, she tells you that she takes ginkgo biloba and St John's wort. You make a short note to check for results of the
11.For purpose of examination and communication of physical findings, the breast is divided into
12. When conducting a clinical breast examination, the examiner should
13. Which breast change is typical after menopause?
14. in a woman complaining of a breast lump, it is most important to ask about
15. A 50 year old woman presents as a new patient. which finding in her personal and social history would increase her risk profile for developing breast cancer?
16. To begin the clinical breast examination for a man, ask him to
17. Inspection of the breasts usually begins with the patient in which position?
18. Which finding, found on inspection, is related to fibrotic tissue changes that occur with breast carcinoma?
19. Venous patterns on breasts are suggestive of pathology when they are
20. In a patient with breast cancer, pau d'orange skin is often first evident
21. Recent unilateral inversion of a previously everted nipple suggests
22. You are conducting a clinical breast exam for a 30 year old patient. Her breasts are symmetrical with bilateral, multiple tender masses that are freely moveable with well-defined borders. You recognize that these symptoms and assessment findings are consistent with
23. When palpating breast tissue, the examiner should use the _____ at each site.
24. The largest amount of glandular breast tissue lies in the
25. The tail of spence extends
26. When examining axillary lymph nodes, the patient's arm is
27. Lymphatic flow of the breast primarily drains
28. The greatest concern for breast cancer is when you palpate ______ nodes
29. You are performing a clinical breast examination for a 55-year-old woman. While palpating the supraclavicular area, you suspect that you felt a node. To improve your hooked technique, you should
30. What structures are located at the 5 and 7 o'clock positions of the vaginal orifice and open onto the sides of the vesibule in the groove between the labia minora and the hymen?
31. Which factor is associated with an increased risk of cervical cancer?
32. The risk of ovarian cancer is increased by a history of
33. During digital examination of the vagina, the cervix is noted to be positioned posteriorly. Upon bimanual examination of this woman, you would expect to palpate a(n) ________ uterus.
34. The presence of cervical motion tenderness may indicate
35. During a routine vaginal examination, you insert the speculum and visualize the cervix. the cervix projection into the vaginal vault is approximately 5 cm. Upon bimanual examination, you would expect to find the uterus
36. Small, pale yellow, raised, rounded areas are visualized on the surface of the cervix. You should
37. The assessment of which structure is not part of the bimanual examination?
38. When a woman is not sexually active, cervical cancer screening should begin
39. During a pelvic examination for a postmenopausal woman, you would expect to assess
40. Which of the following is a risk factor for testicular cancer?
41. the most common cancer in young men age 15-30 years is
42. Self-examination of the male genitalia
43. Mr. L has an unusually thick scrotum with edema and pitting. He has a history of cardiac problems. The appearance of his scrotum is more likely a(n)
44. An enlarged, painless testicle in an adolescent or adult may indicate
45. You palpate a soft, slightly tender mass in the right scrotum of a man. You attempt to reduce the size of the mass, and there is no change in the mass size. Your next assessment maneuver is to
46. An adolescent male is being seen for acute onset of left testicular pain. The pain started 3 hours ago. He complains of nausea and denies dysuria and fever. Your prioritized assessment should be to
47. A 12 year old boy says that his left scrotum has a soft swollen mass. The scrotum is not painful upon palpation. the left inguinal canal is without masses. The mass does transilluminate with a penlight. This collection of symptoms is consistent with
48. A cremateric reflex should result in
49. Which technique is appropriate to detect an inguinal hernia?
50. Which type of hernia lies within the inguinal canal?
51. What structure of the male genitalia travels through the inguinal canal and unites with the seminal vesicle to form the ejaculatory duct?
52. A normal vas deferens should feel
53. An adolescent male is being seen for acute onset of left testicular pain. The pain started 3 hours ago. He complains of nausea and denies dysuria and fever. Your prioritized assessment should be to
54. The most emergent cause of testicular pain in a young male is
55. The most common type of hernia occurring in young males is
56. Percussion of the abdomen begins with establishing
57. Before performing an abdominal examination, the examiner should
58. When examining a patient with tense abdominal musculature, a helpful technique is to have the patient
59. After thorough inspection of the abdomen, the next assessment step is to
60. How long do you auscultate for bowel sounds?
61. To assess for liver enlargement in an obese person, you should
62. Percussion at the right midclavicular line, below the umbilicus, and continuing upward is the correct technique for locating the
63. When palpating the abdomen, you should note whether the liver is enlarged in the
64. An examiner can recognize a friction rub in the liver by a sound that is
65. CVA tenderness might be a sign of
66. The autonomic nervous system coordinates which of the following?
67. The major function of the sympathetic nervous system is to
68. The parasympathetic nervous system maintains the day-to-day function of
69. The motor cortex of the brain is in the
70. The thalamus is the major integration center for perception of
71. Which area of the brain is responsible for perceiving sounds and for determining their source?
72. Nerves that arise from the brain rather than the spinal cord are called
73. If a patient cannot shrug shoulders against resistance, which cranial nerve requires further evaluation?
74. Normal changes of the aging brain include
75. The area of body surface innervated by a particular spinal nerve is called a
76. A neurologic past medical history should include data about
77. When assessing superficial pain, touch, vibration, and position perception, you are testing
78. You are examining a patient in the emergency department who has recently sustained head trauma. To initially assess this patient's neurologic status, you would
79. you are initially evaluating the equilibrium of Ms. Q. You ask her to stand with her feet together and arms at her sides. She loses her balance. Ms. Q has a positive
80. The finger to nose test allows assessment of
81. You are performing a two-point discrimination test as part of a well physical examination. The area with the ability to discern two points in the shortest distance is the
82. As Mr. B enters the room, you observe that his gait is wide based and he staggers from side to side while swaying his trunk. You would document Mr. B's patterns as
83. Deep pressure tests are used mostly for patients who are experiencing
84. To assess a cremasteric reflex, the examiner strokes
85. You have asked a patient to close his eyes and identify an object placed in his hand. You are evaluating
86. The ability to recognize a number traced on the skin is called
87. To assess spinal levels L2 L3 L4 which deep tendon reflex should be tested
88. It is especially important to test for ankle clonus if
89. Which sign is associated with meningitis and intracranial hemorrhage?
90. When assessing a 17 year old patient for nuchal rigidity, you gently raise his head off the examination table. He involuntarily flexes his hips and knees. To confirm your suspicions associated with this positive test result, you would also perform a test for the ______ sign.
91. On a sclae of 0-4+ which deep tendon reflex score is appropriate for a finding of clonus in a patient?
92. Cranial nerve XII may be assess in an infant by
93. A positive Babinski sign is normal until what age?
94. Which of the following is a concern rather than an expected finding, in older adults?
95. Ipsilateral Horner syndrome indicates a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) occurring in the
96. An acute polyneuropathy the commonly follows a nonspecific infection occurring 10-14 days earlier and that primarily affects the motor and autonomic peripheral nerves in an ascending pattern is
97. The immune system attacks the synaptic junction between the nerve and muscle fibers blocking acetylcholine receptor sites it
98. Diabetic peripheral neuropathy will likely produce
99. Persons with Parkinson disease have an altered gait that is characterized by
100. A clinical syndrome of intracranial hypertension that mimics brain tumors is
101. Classic carpal tunnel syndrome would result in
102. You note that a child has a positive Gower sign. You know that this indicates generalized
103. A tingling sensation radiating from the wrist to the hand on striking the median nerve is a positive ____ sign.
104. Thrombosis of a leg vein should be suspected if the patient feels calf pain
105. Your patient presents with symptoms that lead you to suspect acute appendicitis. Which assessment finding is least likely to be associated with this condition?
106. A patient presents with symptoms that lead you to suspect acute appendicitis. which assessment finding is least likely to be associated with this condition early in its course?
107. Your patient is a 48 year old woman with complaints of serve cramping pain in the abdomen and right flank. Her past medical history includes a history of bladder calculi. You diagnose her with renal calculi at this time. Which of the following symptoms would you expect with her diagnosis?
108. A 45 year old laborer presents with low back pain, stating that he pain comes from the right buttock and shoots down and across the right anterior thigh, down the shin to the ankle. Which examination finding is considered more indicative of nerve root compression
109. A positive straight leg raise test usually indicates
110. The Thomas test is used to detect
111. When performing the drawer test, the examiner would place the patient in a supine position and flex the knee 45-90 degrees, placing the foot flat on the table, and then
112. Which one of the following techniques is used to detect a torn meniscus?
113. During a football game, a player was struck on the lateral side of the left leg while his feet were firmly planted. He is complaining of left knee pain. To examine the left knee, you should initially perform the _______ test.
114. anterior cruciate ligament integrity is assessed via the ______ test
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