AWS Study Guide Review Questions (SAA-C01)

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Which of the following describes the function of a name server? A) Translating human-readable domain names into IP addresses B) Registering domain names with ICAAN C) Registering domain names with ... VeriSign D) Applying routing policies to network packets - ANSWER A. Name servers resolve IP addresses from domain names, allowing clients to connect to resources. Domain registration is performed by domain name registrars. Routing policies are applied through record sets within hosted zones. Which of the following describes a domain? A) An object's FQDN B) Policies controlling the way remote requests are resolved C) One or more servers, data repositories, or other digital resources identified by a single domain name D) A label used to direct network requests to a domain's resources - ANSWER C. A domain is a set of resources identified by a single domain name. FQDN stands for fully qualified domain name. Policies for resolving requests are called routing policies. Which of the following is an example of a top-level domain (TLD)? A) amazon.com/documentation/ B) aws. C) amazon. .D) com - ANSWER D. The rightmost section of an FQDN address is the TLD. aws. would be a subdomain or host, amazon. is the SLD, and amazon.com/documentation/ points to a resource stored at the web root of the domain server. Which of the following categories would not be found in a zone file? A) CNAME (canonical name) B) TTL (time to live) C) Record type D) Record data - ANSWER A. CNAME is a record type, but it's not a category. TTL, record type, and record data are all category names. Which of the following DNS record types should you use to associate a domain name with an IP address? A) NS B) SOA C) A D) CNAME - ANSWER C. An A record maps a hostname to an IPv4 IP address. NS records identify name servers. SOA records document start of authority data. CNAME records define one hostname as an alias for another. Which of the following are services provided by Amazon Route 53? (Choose three.) A) Domain registration B) Content delivery network C) Health checks D) DNS management - ANSWER A, C, D. Route 53 provides domain registration, health checks, and DNS management. Content delivery network services are provided by CloudFront. For regulatory compliance, your application may only provide data to requests coming from the United States. Which of the following routing policies can be configured to do this? A) Simple B) Latency C) Geolocation D) Multivalue - ANSWER C. Geolocation can control routing by the geographic origin of the request. The simple policy sends traffic to a single resource. Latency sends content using the fastest origin resource. Multivalue can be used to make a deployment more highly available. Your web application is hosted within multiple AWS regions. Which of the following routing policies will ensure the fastest possible access for your users? A) Latency B) Weighted C) Geolocation D) Failover - ANSWER A. Latency selects the available resource with the lowest latency. Weighted policies route among multiple resources by percentage. Geolocation tailors request responses to the end user's location. Failover incorporates backup resources for higher availability. You're testing three versions of a new application, with each version running on its own server and the current production version on a fourth server. You want to route 5 percent of your total traffic to each of the test servers and route the remaining 85 percent of traffic to the production server. Which routing policy will you use? A) Failover B) Weighted C) Latency D) Geolocation - ANSWER B. Weighted policies route among multiple resources by percentage. Failover incorporates backup resources for higher availability. Latency selects the available resource with the lowest latency. Geolocation tailors request responses to the end user's location. You have production infrastructure sitting behind one DNS domain, and for disaster recovery purposes, you have parallel infrastructure on standby behind a second domain hosted in a second AWS region. Which routing policy will automate the switchover in the event of a failure in the production system? A) Latency B) Weighted C) Geolocation D) Failover - ANSWER D. Failover incorporates backup resources for higher availability. Latency selects the available resource with the lowest latency. Weighted policies route among multiple resources by percentage. Geolocation tailors request responses to the end user's location. Which of the following kinds of hosted zones are real options within Route 53? (Choose two.) A) Public B) Regional C) VPC D) Private - ANSWER A, D. Public and private hosting zones are real options. Regional and VPC zones don't exist (although private zones do map to VPCs). Which of the following actions will you need to perform to transfer a domain from an external registrar to Route 53? (Choose two.) A) Unlock the domain transfer setting on the external registrar admin page. B) Request an authorization code from the external registrar. C) Copy the name server addresses from Route 53 to the external registrar admin page. D) Create a hosted zone CNAME record set. - ANSWER A, B. To transfer a domain, you'll need to make sure the domain isn't set to locked and an authorization code that you'll provide to Route 53. Copying name server addresses is necessary only for managing remotely registered domains on Route 53. CNAME record sets are used to define one hostname as an alias for another. Which of the following actions will you need to perform to use Route 53 to manage a domain that's being hosted on an external registrar? A) Request an authorization code from the external registrar. B) Copy the name server addresses from Route 53 to the external registrar admin page. C) Create a hosted zone CNAME record set. D) Unlock the domain transfer setting on the external registrar admin page. - ANSWER B. You can enable managing remotely registered domains on Route 53 by copying name server addresses to the remote registrar's admin interface. Making sure the domain isn't set to locked and requesting authorization codes are used to transfer a domain to Route 53. CNAME record sets are used to define one hostname as an alias for another. How do Route 53 health checks test for the health of a resource? A) It periodically tries to load the index.php page. B) It periodically tries to load the index.html page. C) It periodically tries to load a specified web page. D) It periodically tries to log into the resource using SSH. - ANSWER C. You specify the web page you want used for testing when you configure your health check. There is no default page. Remote SSH sessions would be impossible for a number of reasons and wouldn't definitively confirm a running resource in any case. Which of the following most accurately describes the difference between geolocation and geoproximity routing policies? A) Geoproximity policies specify geographic areas by their relationship to either a particular longitude and latitude or to an AWS region, while geolocation policies use the continent, country, or U.S. state where the request originated to decide what resource to send. B) Geolocation policies specify geographic areas by their relationship to either a particular longitude and latitude or to an AWS region, while geoproximity policies use the continent, country, or U.S. state where the request originated to decide what resource to send. C) Geolocation policies will direct traffic to the resource you identify as primary as long as health checks confirm that that resource is running properly, while geoproximity policies allow you to deliver web pages in customer-appropriate languages. D) Geolocation policies use a health check configuration routing to make a deployment more highly available, while geoproximity policies leverage resources running in multiple AWS regions to provide service to clients from the instances that will deliver the best experience. - ANSWER A) Geoproximity policies specify geographic areas by their relationship to either a particular longitude and latitude or to an AWS region, while geolocation policies use the continent, country, or U.S. state where the request originated to decide what resource to send. Which of the following are problems that CloudFront is well-positioned to solve? (Choose two.) A) A heavily used website providing media downloads for a global audience B) An S3 bucket with large media files used by workers on your corporate campus C) A file server accessed through a corporate VPN D) A popular website with constantly changing content - ANSWER A, D. Users on a single corporate campus or accessing resources through a VPN will not benefit from the distributed delivery provided by CloudFront. Which of the following is not a permitted origin for a CloudFront distribution? A) Amazon S3 bucket B) AWS MediaPackage channel endpoint C) API Gateway endpoint D) Web server - ANSWER C. API Gateway is used to generate custom client SDKs for your APIs to connect your backend systems to mobile, web, and server applications or services. What's the best way to control the costs your CloudFront distribution incurs? A) Select a price class that maintains copies in only a limited subset of CloudFront's edge locations. B) Configure a custom SSL certificate to restrict access to HTTPS requests only. C) Disable the use of Alternate Domain Names (CNAMES) for your distribution. D) Enable Compress Objects Automatically for your distribution. - ANSWER A) Select a price class that maintains copies in only a limited subset of CloudFront's edge locations. Which of the following is not a direct benefit of using a CloudFront distribution? A) User requests from an edge location that's recently received the same request will be delivered with lower latency. B) CloudFront distributions can be directly mapped to Route 53 hosted zones. C) All user requests will be delivered with lower latency. D) You can incorporate free encryption certificates into your infrastructure. - ANSWER C. Requests of an edge location will only achieve lower latency after copies of your origin files are already cached. Therefore, a response to the first request might not be fast because CloudFront still has to copy the file from the origin server. Which of the following content types is the best fit for a Real-Time Messaging Protocol (RTMP) distribution? A) Amazon Elastic Transcoder-based videos B) S3-based videos C) Streaming videos D) A mix of text and media-rich digital content - ANSWER B. RTMP distributions can only manage content from S3 buckets. RTMP is intended for the distribution of video content. Your developers want to run fully provisioned EC2 instances to support their application code deployments but prefer not to have to worry about manually configuring and launching the necessary infrastructure. Which of the following should they use? A) AWS Lambda B) AWS Elastic Beanstalk C) Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling D) Amazon Route 53 - ANSWER B. Elastic Beanstalk takes care of the ongoing underlying deployment details for you, allowing you to focus exclusively on your code. Lambda will respond to trigger events by running code a single time, Auto Scaling will ramp up existing infrastructure in response to demand, and Route 53 manages DNS and network routing. Which service would you use to most effectively reduce the latency your end users experience when accessing your application resources over the Internet? A) Amazon CloudFront B) Amazon Route 53 C) Elastic Load Balancing D) Amazon Glacier - ANSWER A. CloudFront maintains a network of endpoints where cached versions of your application data are stored to provide quicker responses to user requests. Route 53 manages DNS and network routing, Elastic Load Balancing routes incoming user requests among a cluster of available servers, and Glacier provides high-latency, low-cost file storage. Which of the following is the best use-case scenario for Elastic Block Store? A) You need a cheap and reliable place to store files your application can access. B) You need a safe place to store backup archives from your local servers. C) You need a source for on-demand compute cycles to meet fluctuating demand for your application. D) You need persistent storage for the file system run by your EC2 instance. - ANSWER D. Elastic Block Store provides virtual block devices (think: storage drives) on which you can install and run filesystems and data operations. It is not normally a cost-effective option for long-term data storage. Which of the following is the best tool to control access to your AWS services and administration console? A) AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) B) Key Management Service (KMS) C) AWS Directory Service D) Simple WorkFlow (SWF) - ANSWER A. AWS IAM lets you create user accounts, groups, and roles and assign them rights and permissions over specific services and resources within your AWS account. KMS is a tool for generating and managing encryption keys, Directory Service allows you to integrate your resources with external users and resources through third-party authentication services, and SWF is a tool for coordinating application tasks. For data workloads requiring more speed and flexibility than a closely defined structure offers, which service should you choose? A) Relational Database Service (RDS) B) Amazon Aurora C) Amazon DynamoDB D) Key Management Service (KMS) - ANSWER C. DynamoDB provides a NoSQL (nonrelational) database service for workloads that can be more efficiently run without the relational schema of SQL database engines (like those, including Aurora, that are offered by RDS). KMS is a tool for generating and managing encryption keys. Which of the following is the correct endpoint address for an EC2 instance running in the AWS Ireland region? A) compute.eu-central-1.amazonaws.com B) ec2.eu-central-1.amazonaws.com C) elasticcomputecloud.eu-west-2.amazonaws.com D) ec2.eu-west-1.amazonaws.com - ANSWER D. EC2 endpoints will always start with an ec2 prefix followed by the region designation (eu-west-1 in the case of Ireland). What does the term availability zone refer to in AWS documentation? A) One or more isolated physical data centers within an AWS region B) All the hardware resources within a single region C) A single network subnet used by resources within a single r [Show More]

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