CPC Practice Exam Questions and Answers Already Passed

CPC Practice Exam Questions and Answers Already Passed When a patient has a blood test for HIV that is inconclusive, what ICD-10-CM code is assigned a. Z21 b. R75 c. B20 d. Z11.4 ✔✔b. R75 What does MRSA stand for ...

CPC Practice Exam Questions and Answers Already Passed When a patient has a blood test for HIV that is inconclusive, what ICD-10-CM code is assigned a. Z21 b. R75 c. B20 d. Z11.4 ✔✔b. R75 What does MRSA stand for a. Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus b. Methicillin Resistant Streptococcus Aureus c. Moderate Resistance Susceptible Aureus d. Mild Resistance Steptococcus Aureus ✔✔a. Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus What does the forth character in diabetes mellitus diabetes codes indicate? a. The condition as controlled or uncontrolled b. Any complication associated with diabetes c. Type of diabetes (type 1, or Type 2, secondary) d. If the diabetes is primary or secondary diabetes ✔✔b. Any complication associated with diabetes When do you code acute respiratory failure as a secondary diagnosis a. the patient has any other condition at the same time b. When it is determined to be the cause of the shortness of breath c. Acute respiratory failure is always listed first d. When it occurs after admission ✔✔d. When it occurs after admission When the type of diabetes mellitus is not documented in the medical note, what is used as the default type a. Type 2 b. Type 1 c. Can be type 1 or 2 d. Scondary diabetes ✔✔a. Type 2 When is it appropriate to use history of malignancy, from category Z85 a. once the malignancy is removed form that site but the patient is still receiving chemotherapy b. When the patient cancels treatment for that site c. It has been excised, no evidence of any existing primary malignancy, and there is not further treatment directed to the site d. when 5 years has passed after surgery ✔✔c. It has been excised, no evidence of any existing primary malignancy, and there is not further treatment directed to the site If a patient uses insulin, what type of diabetic does it mean the patient is a. secondary diabetes b. type 2 c. type 1 d. the use of insulin does not specify the patient is a certain type of diabetic ✔✔d. the use of insulin does not specify the patient is a certain type of diabetic Pneumonia due to adenovirus. What ICD-1-CM code is reported a. B34.0 b. J12.0 c. B97.0 d. B30.1 ✔✔b. J12.0 a 50 year old patient has been diagnosed with elevated blood pressure. The patient does not have a history of hypertension. The correct ICD-10-CM code to report is a. R03.0 b. I10 c. I13.0 d. I15.0 ✔✔b. I10 What type of fracture is considered traumatic a. pathologic fracture b. spontaneous fracture c. stress fracture d. compound fracture ✔✔d. compound frature Can Z codes be listed as a primary code? a. No; Z codes are never listed as primary codes b. No; Z codes are always reported as secondary codes c. No; Z codes are reported for external injuries and where it happened which is always listed as secondary d. Yes; Z codes can be sequenced as primary and secondary codes ✔✔d. Yes; Z codes can be sequenced as primary and secondary codes Where can you find the Table of Drugs and Chemicals a. Tabular List of the ICD-10-CM codebook b. Alphabetic Index of the ICD-10-CM codebook c. Index to Procedures of the b. Alphabetic Index of the ICD-10-CM codebook d. CPT codebook ✔✔b. Alphabetic Index of the ICD-10-CM codebook In which circumstances would an external cause code be reported a. Delivery of a newborn b. Causes of injury or health condition c. Chemotherapy treatment of neoplasms d. Only for the cause of motor vehicle accidents ✔✔b. Causes of injury or health condition What would be considered an adverse effect a. Wound infection after surgery b. hemorrhaging after a vaginal delivery c. shortness of breath when running d. rash developing when taking penicillin ✔✔d. rash developing when taking penicillin What does the root work colp/o stand for a. cervix b. vagina c. uterus d. Fallopian tubes ✔✔b. vagina What does the abbreviation CKD stand for a. Chronic Kidney Dysfunction b. Congenital Kidney Disorder c. Chronic Kidney Disease ✔✔c. Chronic Kidney Disease Which statement is TRUE for reporting burn codes a. burn codes are coded by the anatomical site and sequenced form top to bottom of the anatomical body b. first degree burns involve the epidermis and dermis and should always be sequenced first for multiple degrees of burns. c. Sunburns are classified with traumatic burns and should be the only burn code reported d. the highest degree of burn is reported as the primary code ✔✔d. the highest degree of burn is reported as the primary code What chapter contains codes for diseases and disorders of the nails a. Chapter 13: Diseases of Musculoskeletal and Connective Tissue b. Chapter 16: Certain Conditions Originating in the Perinatal c. Chapter 14: Diseases of the Genitourinary System d. Chapter 12: Diseases of the Skin and Subcutaneous Tissue ✔✔d. Chapter 12: Diseases of the Skin and Subcutaneous Tissue What does the 7th character A indicate in Chapter 19 a. Initial encounter b. Subsequent encounter c. Sequela d. Adverse effect ✔✔a. Initial encounter The provider documents CKD stage 5 and ESRD. What ICD-10-CM code(s) is/are reported a. N18.4 b. N18.6, N18.4 c. N18.4, N18.6 d. N18.6 ✔✔d. N18.6 What is the definition of a postpartum complication? a. any complication occurring within the six-week period prior to delivery b. b. Any complication occurring within the six-week period after delivery ✔✔b. Any complication occurring within the six-week period after delivery What is NOT an example of active treatment for pathological fractures a. Surgical treatment b. Emergency department encounter c. Evaluation and treatment by a new physician d. Cast change ✔✔d. Cast change According to ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting, Chapter 15: Pregnancy, Childbirth, and the Puerperium (O00-O9A) codes have sequencing priority over what codes a. Codes from all other chapters b. All codes including Z33.1 ✔✔a. Codes from all other chapters Many coding professionals go on to find work as a. Accountants b. Consultants ✔✔b. Consultants A medical record contains information on all but what areas a. Observations b. Medical or surgical interventions c. Treatment outcomes d. Financial records ✔✔d. Financial records Technicians who specialize in coding are called a. coding specialists b. LPN's ✔✔a. coding specialists What type of provider goes through approximately 26 1/2 months of education and is licensed to practice medicine with the oversight of a physician ✔✔Physician Assistant (PA) The Medicare program is made up of several parts. Which part is most significant to coders working in physician offices and covers physician fees without the use of a private insurer? ✔✔Part B The Medicare program is made up of several parts. Which part is affected by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid -Hierarchical Condition Categories (CMS-HCC) ✔✔Part C What does CMS-HCC stand for a. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services - Hierarchial Condition Category b. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services - Hospital Correct Coding Initiative ✔✔a. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services - Hierarchial Condition Category When coding an operative report, what action would NOT be recommended a. Starting with the procedure listed b. Reading the body of the report c. Coding form the header without reading the body of the report. d. Highlighting unfamiliar words ✔✔c. Coding form the header without reading the body of the report. Outpatient coders focus on learning which coding manuals ✔✔CPT, HCPCS Level II, ICD-10- CM If an NCD doesn't exist for a particular service/procedure performed ona Medicare patient, who determines coverage ✔✔MAC (Medicare Administrative Contractor) The ___ describes whether specific medical items, services, treatment procedures, or technologies are considered medically necessary under Medicare. a. NCD b. Medicare Physician Fee Schedule c. MS-DRG d. Internet Only Manual ✔✔NCD (National Coverage Determinations Manual) NCD serve what purpose a. to provide payment options to physicians b. To spell out CMS policies on when Medicare will pay for items or services. ✔✔b. To spell out CMS policies on when Medicare will pay for items or services. MAC stands for ✔✔Medicare Administrative Contractor Local Coverage Determinations (LCD) are administered by ✔✔Each regional MAC LCD only have jurisdiction in their ____ area ✔✔regional ABN stands for ✔✔Advance Beneficiary Notice When are providers responsible for obtaining an ABN for a service not considered medically necessary a. Prior to providing a service or item to a beneficiary b. After providing a service or item to a beneficiary ✔✔a. Prior to providing a service or item to a beneficiary A covered entity does NOT include a. Healthcare provider b. Patient c. Clearinghouse d. Health plan ✔✔b. Patient What is the definition of coding a. deciphering explanation EOB provided by an insurance carrier b. translating documentation into numerical/alphanumerical codes used to obtain reimbursement ✔✔b. translating documentation into numerical/alphanumerical codes used to obtain reimbursement Who is responsible for enforcing the HIPAA security rule ✔✔OCR (Office of Civil Rights) Healthcare providers are responsible for developing ___ and policies and procedures regarding privacy in their practices a. Fees b. Notice of Privacy Practices ✔✔Notice of Privacy Practices A covered entity may obtain consent of the individual to use or disclose PHI to carry out all but what of the following a. healthcare operations b. for public use ✔✔for public use The minimum necessary rule is based on sound on sound current practice that protected health information should not be used or disclosed when it is not necessary to satisfy a particular purpose or carry out a function. What does this mean. a. Practices should send records without releases b. Providers should develop safeguards to prevent unauthorized access ✔✔b. Providers should develop safeguards to prevent unauthorized access The minimum necessary rule applies to a. Uses or disclosures that are required by other law b. Covered entities taking reasonable steps ✔✔b. Covered entities taking reasonable steps HITECH provides a ___ day window which any violation not due to willful neglect may be corrected without penalty ✔✔30 HITECH was enacted as part of the American Recovery and Reinvestment Act in what year ✔✔2009 Which of the following choices is NOT a benefit of an active compliance plan a. faster, more accurate payment of claims b. eliminates risk of an audit c. Fewer billing mistakes d. Increased accuracy of physician documentation ✔✔b. eliminates risk of an audit What will the scope of a compliance program depend on a.The insurance carrier the physician is contracted with b. Size and resources of the physician's practice ✔✔b. Size and resources of the physician's practice Evaluation and Management services are often provided in a standard format such as SOAP. What does the acronym SOAP stand for ✔✔Subjective Objective Assessment Plan According to the OIG, internal monitoring and auditing should be performed by what means a. Periodic audits b. a baseline audit ✔✔a. Periodic audits Voluntary compliance programs also provide benefits by not only helping to prevent erroneous or ___, but also by showing that the physician practice is making additional good faith efforts to submit claims appropriately a. Mistaken principals b. Fraudulent claims ✔✔b. Fraudulent claims How many components should be included in an effective compliance plan ✔✔7 According to AAPC's Code of Ethics, a member shall use only ___ and ___ means in all professional dealings ✔✔Legal Ethical Medicare Part D is what type of Insurance ✔✔Prescription drug coverage available to all Medicare Beneficiaries What type of health insurance provides coverage for low-income families ✔✔Medicaid What is PHI ✔✔Protected Health Insurance What form is used to send a provider's charge to the insurance carrier ✔✔CMS-1500 Which option below is NOT a covered entity under HIPAA a. Medicare b. Medicaid c. BCBS d. Workers Compensation ✔✔d. Workers Compensation WHich of the following is a BENEFIT of electronic transactions a. Payment of claims b. Timely submission of claims ✔✔b. Timely submission of claims What is the value of a remittance advice a. It catalogs the patient's coverage benefits b. It tells you what you will be paid and why any changes to charges were made ✔✔b. It tells you what you will be paid and why any changes to charges were made The OIG recommends that the physician's practice enforcement and disciplinary mechanisms be a. Frequent b. Consistent ✔✔b. Consistent Each October the OIG releases a ___ outlining its priorities for the fiscal year ahead ✔✔work plan Which provider is NOT a mid-level provider a. Physician Assistant b. Nurse Practitioner c. Anesthesiologist d. All choices are mid-level providers ✔✔c. Anesthesiologist The AAPC was founded in what year ✔✔1988 According to the 2014 AAPC ____, it shows coders salaries rose 2% to an average of 50,030 for credential professional coders a. Specialty survey b. Credentialing survey c. Salary survey d. CPC review guide ✔✔Salary survey AAPC credentialed coders have NOT proven mastery of a. code sets b. evaluation and management principles c. Administrative regulations d. documentation guidelines ✔✔Administrative regulations The AAPC offers over 400 local chapters across the country for the purpose of ✔✔Networking Which of the following is NOT a function of skin a. acts as a gland by synthesizing vitamin A b. Excretes water, salt, and small amounts of waste c. houses sensory receptors for touch, pressure, pain, and temperature d. Plays an important role in regulation of body temperature ✔✔Acts as a gland by synthesizing vitamin A Which layer is NOT considered part of the skin a. Stratum corneum b. Stratum germinativum c. epidermis d. hypodermis ✔✔Hypodermis Which of the following is true of the stratum germinativum a. it is composed of about 30 layers of dead, flattened, keratinized cells b. it is composed of dense fibrous connective tissue c. it lies on top of the dermis and has access to a rich supply of blood ✔✔c. it lies on top of the dermis and has access to a rich supply of blood WHich of the following best describes psoriasis a. an inflammatory condition characterized by redness pustular and vesicular lesions, crusts, and scales b. a contagious infection of skin generally caused by staphylococcus bacterium c. A chronic condition characterized by red, dry, elevated lesions, covered by silvery scales ✔✔c. A chronic condition characterized by red, dry, elevated lesions, covered by silvery scales Muscle is attached to bone by what method a. tendons, and cartilage b. tendons, aponeurosis and directly to bone ✔✔Tendons, aponeurosis and directly to bone What is affected by myasthenia gravis a. Neuromuscular junction b. muscle/bone connection ✔✔Neuromuscular junction Which bone(s) have trochanters ✔✔Femur What is the great toe called ✔✔Hallux What is a function of the alveoli in the lungs ✔✔Oxygen exchange Through which vessel is oxygenated blood returned to the heart form the lungs ✔✔Pulmonary vein Which respiratory structure is comprised of cartilage and ligaments ✔✔Trachea How many lobes make up the right lung ✔✔3 A myocardial infarction is a. overgrowth of muscle tissue, affecting the heart's ability to pump b. Lack of oxygen to the heart tissue, resulting in tissue death ✔✔Lack of oxygen to the heart tissue, resulting in tissue death Which of the following does NOT circulate fluids throughout the body a. endocrine system b. venous system c. arterial system d. lymphatic system ✔✔. endocrine system