BIOLOGY 123
REAL SAT 2 BIOLOGY TESTS 1-16
REAL TEST 1
Questions 1-3 refer to the following ecological concepts.
(A) Parasitism.
(B) Commensalisms.
(C) Mutualism.
(D) Competition.
(E) Predation.
1. Mosses live o
...
BIOLOGY 123
REAL SAT 2 BIOLOGY TESTS 1-16
REAL TEST 1
Questions 1-3 refer to the following ecological concepts.
(A) Parasitism.
(B) Commensalisms.
(C) Mutualism.
(D) Competition.
(E) Predation.
1. Mosses live on tree trunks and do not harm the tree.
2. Acacia·trees provide food and shelter for stinging ants that help protect the trees from other insects.
3. A clown fish regularly avoids predators by living in shelters of sea anemones that eat bits of food dropped by the
fish
Questions 4-6
The accompanying figure shows the external body areas of a typical insect.
A
4. This region is where the legs are attached.
5. This region includes the organs of excretion.
6. This region contains the reproductive organs.
Questions 7-10 refer to the following:
(A) 5' UAACG 3'
(B) 5' ATTCG 3'
(C) 5' TAAGC 3'
(D) 5' ATACG 3'
(E) 5' AUUGC 3'
7.DNA complement to 3' TAAGC5'.
8. Product of a single inversion in 5' AATGC 3'.
9. Transcription product of 3' ATTGC 5'.
10. Result of single base-pair mutation in 5' TTTCG 3'.
Questions 11-13 refer to the following:
B c
E
Data from breeding experiments in guinea pigs have shown that black coat color (B) is dominant over white coat
color (b). From the data, the genotypes of the parents can be inferred. First-generation offspring are indicated as F 1•
Second-generation offspring are designated F2.
(A) Both parents are Bb.
(B) Both parents are BB.
(C) One parent is bb; the other is BB.
(D) One parent is bb; the other is Bb.
(E) Both parents are bb.
11. Which parental genotypes are indicated when all F 1 offspring are black and % of the F2 arc black?
12. Which parental genotypes are indicated when % of the F 1 offspring are black?
13. Which parental genotypes are indicated when Yi of the F 1 offspring arc black?
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Questions 14-17 refer to the following diseases:
(A) Hemophilia.
(B) Polio.
(C) Smallpox.
(D) Strep throat.
(E) Malaria.
REAL TEST 1
14. Disease that can be treated effectively with antibiotics.
15. Disease for which the causative agent was thought to have been entirely eliminated except for reserves in two
government installations.
16. Disease currently responsible for the greatest number of human deaths worldwide per year.
17. Disease that is caused by a protistan parasite.
Questions 18-20 refer to the following:
(A) Centrioles.
(B) Nuclei.
(C) Mitochondria.
(D) Plastids.
(E) Ribosomes.
18. Organelles found in plant cells but not in animal cells.
19. Organelles found in both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells.
20. Organelles found in animal cells but not in plant cells.
21. All of the following facilitate the return of venous blood to the heart in mammals EXCEPT.
(A) Reclining or lying flat on the floor.
(B) Contracting skeletal muscles.
(C) Contracting the diaphragm during breathing.
(D) Voluntarily contracting the veins.
(E) Having one-way valves in veins.
22. Plants are broadly defined as multicellular, photosynthetic eukaryotes. Which of the following is NOT an
additional feature of this group?
(A) Plants can respond to changes in day length.
(B) Plants have cell walls containing cellulose.
(C) Plant chloroplasts contain chlorophyll A and chlorophyll B.
(D) Plants have starch as the primary storage carbohydrate.
(E) Plant respiration is mostly anaerobic.
23. Many species of orchids are pollinated only by a single species of insect. This suggests that.
(A) Convergent evolution has made many insects similar.
(B) Coevolution of orchids and insects gave rise to certain pollination patterns.
(C) Adaptive radiation gave rise to rha~y species of insects.
(D) Punctuated equilibrium allows pollination only at certain times of the year.
(E) Orchids live only in the tropics where there are many types of insects.
24. The first vaccine made from cowpox virus, developed by Edward Jenner in the l 700's, inoculated people
against smallpox. The development of this vaccine was possible because.
(A) The causative agent of smallpox had been identified.
(B) The vaccine contained material that killed the smallpox pathogen.
(C) Smallpox was spreading rapidly throughout Europe and Asia.
(D) ~owpox virus contains an oncogene that can enter the host and incorporate into a chromosome.
(E) Cowpox and smallpox viruses are sufficiently similar that cowpox can stimulate the immune system
.against smallpox.
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REAL TEST 1
25. Which of the following is generally true of parasites?
(A) They give their host a competitive advantage.
(B) They are not a factor in the size of the host population.
(C) They increase the biotic potential of a host population.
(D) They do not directly kill their hosts.
(E) They prevent natural selection in the host population.
26. Which of the following is an advantage of asexual reproduction?
(A) Adaptive traits are passed from parent to offspring without genetic rearrangement.
(B) Offspring are able to make use of a wider variety of resources than the parent can.
(C) Asexual organisms thrive under continuously changing environmental conditions.
(D) Asexual organisms are intolerant of overcrowded conditions.
(E) Mutations cannot be passed from one generation to the next.
27. According to the Hardy-Weinberg principle, which of the following would help to maintain gene frequer
a large population over time?
(A) Natural selection.
(B) Mutation.
(C) Genetic drift.
(D) Founder effect.
(E) Random mating.
28. Pheromones produced by moths primarily affect.
(A) The finding of mates.
(B) The care of young.
(C) Excretion.
(D) Nest building.
(E) Metamorphosis.
29. All o'fthe following are characteristics of the members of the phylum Chordata EXCEPT.
(A) Bilateral symmetry.
(B) A dorsal, hollow nerve chord.
(C) An external skeleton.
(D) Gill slits at some developmental stage.
(E) A notochord at some development stage.
30. Experiments revealed the following information about molecule Z.
• It is a high molecular weight polymer that can be broken down into amino acids.
• It is capable of breaking down proteins into amino acids.
• It is found in high concentration in the first section of the small intestine.
Which of the following is the most likely source of molecule Z?
(A) Pancreas.
(B) Muscle.
(C) Pituitary.
(D) Testes.
(E) Colon.
31. All of the following provide evidence of the evolutionary relationship between two organisms EXCEPT.
(A) The fossil record.
(B) Radioactive carbon dating.
(C) Comparative anatomy.
(D) Nucleotide sequences.
(E) Amino acid sequences.
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REAL TEST 1
32. Which of the following was NOT used by Mendel in his study of the genetics of garden peas?
(A) Maintenance of true-breeding lines.
(B) Cross-pollination.
(C) Phylogeny.
(D) Production of hybrid plants.
(E) Quantitative analysis of results.
33. All of the following occur during fertilization in flowering plants EXCEPT.
(A) Ovules are transferred from one plant to another.
(B) A pollen tube is formed.
(C) One sperm nucleus fuses with the egg nucleus to form the zygote.
(D) One sperm nucleus fuses with the two polar nuclei to form the endosperm.
(E) The pollen tube enters the ovary.
34. Segregation of homologous chromosome pairs occurs during which of the following phases of meiosis?
(A) Anaphase I.
(B) Anaphase II.
(C) Telophase II.
(D) Prophase I.
(E) Prophase IL
35. How many atoms participate in the following reaction?
6C02 + 6H20 ~ C6H1206 + 602
(A) 3.
(B) 13.
(C) 36.
(D) 40.
(E) 72.
36. Which of the following statements best describes a unique advantage of the amniotic egg?
(A) It is used by endotherms as a mechanism for retaining heat in the eggs.
(B) It allows the storage of yolk for developing embryos.
(C) It prevents dehydration of eggs in terrestrial environments.
(D) It facilitates movement of water into and out of the egg.
(E) It allows internal retention of eggs by the mother until hatching.
37. The oxygen produced during photosynthesis comes from which of the following?
(A) The air the plant takes in.
(B) Carbon dioxide.
(C) Water.
(D) Carbohydrates.
(E) Nitrates.
38. During digestion, large organic molecules are hydrolyzed to simple molecular units. Which of the following is
NOT an example of such hydrolysis?
(A) DNA to RNA.
(B) Starch to glucose.
(C) Polypeptides to amino acids.
(D) Fats to glycerol and fatty acids.
(E) Polysaccharides to monosaccharides.
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REAL TEST 1
39. For a mutation to be significant for the process of evolution, it must be present
(A) In diploid cells.
(B) In the nerve cells of an individual.
(C) In gametes.
(D) In all members of the population.
(E) During mitosis in heart cells.
· 40. Yeast·cells, which are eukaryotic, can contain plasmids (small, circular DNA molecules) in their nuclei. When
the plasmid contains a centromere, the plasmid is often transmitted to daughter ce!ls during mitosis. When the
plasmid does not contain a centromere, the plasmid is usually not transmitted to daughter cells during mitosis.
Which of the following is the best explanation for this observation?
(A) The centromere allows attachment of the mitotic spindle.
(B) The centromere allows chromosome pairing.
(C) The centromere contains microtubule filaments.
(D) The plasmid is hydrolyzed by enzymes found in the centromere.
(E) Plasmids move to the middle of the cell.
41. A man with type 0 positive blood is unlikely to be the father of a child with which of the following blood
types? .
(A) A negative.
(B) B negative.
(C) 0 negative.
(D) 0 positive.
(E) AB positive.
42. Which of the following is a characteristic of an individual, rather than a population?
(A) Sex ratio (number offemales to number of males).
, (B) Age structure.
(C) Number of individuals.
(D) Distribution.
(E) Phenotype.
43. A testcross is used to detem1ine the genotype of a plant showing the dominant tall trait. Which of the following
probably shows that the plant is heterozygous?
I. All the offspring show the dominant trait.
II. All of the offspring show the recessive trait.
III. Some of the offspring are tall.
IV. None of the offspring are short.
(A) I only.
(B) II only.
(C) III only.
(D) IV only.
(E) III and IV.
44. Sensory neurons send impulses down their axons when
(A) They are stimulated by impulses from the spinal cord.
(B) Their cell body releases a neurotransmitter.
(C) They are stimulated by a receptor.
(D) The brain sends signals to them.
(E) The organism is about to do something dangerous.
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REAL TEST 1
45. The classification of organisms into different kingdoms is based on which of the following?
(A) The structure of the organisms' cells and, how the organisms obtain nutrition.
(B) The typical habitats of the organisms.
(C) Whether the organisms are motile.
(D) How the organisms reproduce.
(E) How long the organisms have been.
46. As a farmer, you plant a new crop variety developed by standard breeding techniques. The seeds of the crop are
a brilliant purple color. You plant many acres of purple seeds and after harvest discovered the following seed
colors and amounts.
Seed Color
Purple
Blue
Red
#Bushels
130
64
66
Which of the following would be a reasonable hypothesis for these results?
(A) Crossing-over during pollination favors the production of purple pollen.
(B) Purple pollen grains germinate at lower frequencies.
(C) Red seeds and blue seeds germinate at lower rates than do purple seeds.
(D) The trait for seed color is incompletely dominant.
(E) Blue seeds represent heterozygous individuals.
II III
- - -
- -
-
-
-
-- -
- -
-
-
-
47. The Diagram above shows results obtained by using which of the following techniques?
(A) Gel electrophoresis.
(B) Ultracentrifugation.
(C) Amniocentesis.
(D) Genetic engineering.
(E) Karyotyping.
48. The nitrogenous base guanine makes up 30 percent of the bases in the DNA of a certain organism. What
percentage of this organism's bases is composed of adenine?
(A) 20%
(B) 30%
(C) 40%'
(D) 50%
(E) 60%
49. Which of the following vertebrates belongs to the class Amphibia?
(A) Snapping turtle.
(B) Shark.
(C) Swordfish.
(D) Salamander.
(E) Crocodile.
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REAL TEST 1
50. Rapid motility is normally associated with animals that.
(A) Have radial symmetry.
(B) Have bilateral symmetry.
(C) Have biradial symmetry.
(D) Are asymmetrical.
(E) Are spherical.
51. Sickle-cell anemia is an example of a condition in which a point mutation in one codon of DNA causes
(A) Formation of an abnormal protein.
(B) More than the usual amount of a protein.
(C) Less than the usual amount of a protein.
(D) A particular protein to be missing.
(E) An abnormal enzyme reaction.
Questions 52-53
· The graph below is an oxygen dissociation curve which shows the relative amounts of oxygen bound when the
hemoglobin is in solutions with varying partial pressures of dissolved oxygen. The solid line represents adult
hemoglobin and the dashed line represents fetal hemoglobin.
100 Fetus Mother
,.
-
~
=
-.c 80
=
1:.-
0 60
.s =
......
;... ~ 40
::s
...... / I I I I
I I I I I
~
r'1
N 20
/
I
0 /
/.
0
0 20 40 60 80 100
P02(mm Hg)
52. Based on the graph, when the Po2 is less than 10 mm Hg, which of the following best describes hemoglobin?
(A) It is highly saturated.
(B) It is able to provide a lot more oxygen if metabolism increases.
(C) It transports very little oxygen.
(D) It is at a substantially lower pH.
(E) It is at a somewhat higher pH.
53. Which of the following statements is supported by the data?
(A) The fetal hemoglobin will bind more oxygen at lower oxygen pressure than the mother's hemoglobin.
(B) The mother will be able to unload oxygen for her own tissues before it is available to the fetus.
(C) The fetal tissues require higher oxygen pressure until birth than the maternal constant.
(D) Oxygen pressure in the fetal tissues in nearly constant.
(E) Hemoglobin saturation in the fetal tissues is less variable than in the maternal t ~
Dr. Khaled Elshamanhory 8 01005030033
REAL TEST 1
Questions 54-57
. An ecologist was studying two species of cliff-nesting gulls, red-legged and black-legged kittiwakes in Alaska.
One experiment compared the use of artificial nesting, which differed in width and elevation on the cliff face the
results are shown in the figure below.
Narrow Wide
Artificial Ledge Width
54. From these observations, it appears that.
(A) Black-legged kittiwakes prefer narrow ledges high up on cliffs.
(B) Black-legged kittiwakes prefer wide ledges high up on cliffs.
(C) Red-legged kittiwakes prefer narrow ledges high up on cliffs.
(D) Both species prefer wide ledges high up on cliffs.
(E) Neither species shows any preference for width of ledges.
Black
Low High
Elevation on Sea Cliff
55. These observed nesting patterns represent which of the following types of ecological interaction?
(A) Predator/prey.
(B) Ho~t/parasite.
(C) Competitive displacement.
(D) Ecological succession.
(E) Mutualism.
56. In another experiment the ecologist planned to put out only intermediate-width ledges. Which of the following
would be a likely outcome from this planned experiment?
(A) Only the larger black-legged kittiwakes would use the intermediate-width ledges.
(B) Only the smaller red-legged kittiwakes would use the intermediate-width ledges.
(C) Neither species would use the intermediate-width ledges.
(D) Red kittiwakes would use more of the higher ledges and black kittiwakes would use more of the lower
ledges.
(E) Red kittiwakes would use more of the lower ledges and black kittiwakes would use more of the higher
ledges.
57. Both species of gull prefer to nest in large groups. All of the following are advantages of this colonial behavior
EXCEPT.
(A) Increased chance of finding a mate.
(B) Increased resistance to disease.
(C) Increased reproductive success.
(D) Decreased chance of predation.
(E) Exclusion of other gull species.
Dr. Khaled Elshamanhory 9 01005030033
REAL TEST 1
Questions 58-60
In an experiment, equal doses of a certain hormone marked with a harmless radioactive label were injected into
several rats. Periodically thereafter, the amount of radioactivity in various tissues (Figure A), and in subcellular
locations of the eventual target cells for the hormone (Figure B), was measured.
Tissue radioactivity Subcellular radioactivity
,,,.---- ........... ~ -- - - -
Uterus /
I Cytoplasm Nucleus
I I
I
I
I I
I I
I
I
I
I
I
,. Plasma membrane
,. ,. ""
.~..-::.~.................................::::~.
0 2 4 6 8 0 20 40
Time (hours)
Figure A
Time (minutes)
Figure B
58. Based on the data in figure A, which of the following is a reasonable conclusion?
(A) Uterine cells lack receptors for this hormone.
(B) The most likely target of this hormone is the uterus.
(C) The lung is the most likely target tissue for this hormone.
(D) The hormone is probably not transported via the blood to the target cells.
(E) The hormone regulates the glucose level within the target cells.
59. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism of action for this hormone?
(A) The hormone binds tightly to the plasma membrane.
(B) The hormone moves through the nucleus on its way to the cytoplasm.
60
(C) The hormone binds to a cytoplasmic receptor and is then transported into the nucleus.
(D) The hormone enters cells through chloride ion channels.
(E) The hormone utilizes active transport to enter the cell.
60. The hormone is most likely.
(A) Insulin.
(B) Norepinephrine.
(C) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH).
(D) Estrogen.
(E) Indolacetic acid (auxin).
Dr. Khaled Elshamanhory 10 01005030033
REAL TEST 1
E-SECTION
61. Prokaryotes are thought to be similar to the first forms of cellular life on Earth because, like the first forms,
prokaryotes.
(A) Lack DNA.
(B) Are parasitic.
(C) Lack a nuclear envelope.
(D) Possess mitochondria.
(E) Are capable of aerobic respiration.
62. The behavior of mammals is regulated by which of the following systems?
I. Nervous.
II. Circulatory.
III. Endocrine.
(A) I only.
(B) II only.
(C) III only.
(D) I and II only.
(E) I and III only.
63. When top predators (third-order consumers) are removed from an environment, what is the first effect
observed?
(A) A decrease in the number of individual producer organisms.
(B) A decrease in the number of individual chemosynthetic organisms.
(C) An increase in the number of individual second-order consumer organisms.
(D) An increase in the number of individual first-order consumer organisms.
(E) An increase in the diversity of first-order consumer organisms.
64. During the Mesozoic era (245-266 million years ago), Pangaea separated into individual continents with
different conditions. Which of the following occurred as a result?
(A) Most animal and plant species became extinct.
(B) Most of the modem fish species appeared.
(C) Most of the current plant phyla evolved.
(D) Flight evolved in reptiles, which allowed organisms to migrate among continents.
(E) Distinctive terrestrial plants and animals evolved on individual continents.
65. Which of the following statements is true of ALL biological communities?
(A) The greatest biomass is in the tertiary consumers.
(B) Less energy is available to primacy consumers than to producers.
(C) Decomposers play a major roie in regulating energy flow.
(D) More energy flows through carnivores than through plants.
(E) The availability of oxygen is a limiting factor.
66. Tundra is different from taiga in that the.
(A) Tundra subsoil remains permanently frozen.
(B) Tundra has more rainfall.
(C) Tundra has more trees. .
(D) Taiga has a lower mean annual temperature.
(E) Taiga has long, wet summers.
67. Which of the following structures offers the same advantages to plants that the shell of an egg offers to reptiles
and birds?
(A) Flower.
(B) Xylem.
(C) Cork cambium.
(D) Seed coat.
(E) Spore capsule.
Dr. Khaled Elshamanhory 11 01005030033
REAL TEST 1
Starfish Shark Frog Snake Cat Monkey Human
68. In the phylogenetic classification diagram above, node 1 separates organisms at which of the follow
taxonomic levels?
(A) Kingdom.
(B) Species.
(C) Phylum.
(D) Domain.
(E) Class.
69. Zygops rufitorquis, a slow-moving weevil, has the same markings as a flesh fly, a fast-flying insect that is
difficult for predators to catch. This is an example of which of the following biological phenomena?
(A) The founder principle.
(B) Allopatric speciation.
(C) Adaptive radiation.
(D) Directional selection.
(E) Mimicry.
70. The statement "humans and chimpanzees are evolutionarily related" means that.
(A) Humans evolved from chimpanzees.
(B) Chimpanzees evolved from humans.
(C) A chimpanzee mutated into a human at some time in the past.
(D) Humans and chimpanzees both evolved from a common ancestor.
(E) Humans and chimpanzees have the same similarities as any other pair of mammals.
71. The ability of an organism to survive in its environment and to produce viable offspring is best described as
which of the following?
(A) Diversity.
(B) Niche.
(C) Phenotype.
(D) Fitness.
(E) Homeostasis.
72. The Blue Hills Shale in Kansas and the Fox Hills Shale in Montana contain similar ammonite fossils. This
indicates that
(A) Ammonites are not subject to evolutionary change.
(B) Ammonites can withstand cold winters.
(C) The ecologies of Kansas and Montana are currently similar.
(D) These two geologic formations are of similar ages.
(E) Shale typically contains ammonite fossils.
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