TEST BANK FOR HUMAN DEVELOPMENT: A LIFE-SPAN VIEW 8TH EDITION ROBERT V. KAIL JOHN C. CAVANAUGH,100% CORRECT

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TEST BANK FOR HUMAN DEVELOPMENT: A LIFE-SPAN VIEW 8TH EDITION ROBERT V. KAIL JOHN C. CAVANAUGH TEST BANK FOR HUMAN DEVELOPMENT: A LIFE-SPAN VIEW 8TH EDITION ROBERT V. KAIL JOHN C. CAVAN... AUGH ISBN-10: 1337554839 ISBN-13: 9781337554831 Table Of Contents 1. The Study of Human Development. Part I: PRENATAL DEVELOPMENT, INFANCY, AND EARLY CHILDHOOD. 2. Biological Foundations: Heredity, Prenatal Development, and Birth. 3. Tools for Exploring the World: Physical, Perceptual, and Motor Development. 4. The Emergence of Thought and Language: Cognitive Development in Infancy and Early Childhood. 5. Entering the Social World: Socioemotional Development in Infancy and Early Childhood. Part II: SCHOOL-AGE CHILDREN AND ADOLESCENTS. 6. Off to School: Cognitive and Physical Development in Middle Childhood. 7. Expanding Social Horizons: Socioemotional Development in Middle Childhood. 8. Rites of Passage: Physical and Cognitive Development in Adolescence. 9. Moving Into the Adult Social World: Socioemotional Development in Adolescence. Part III: YOUNG AND MIDDLE ADULTHOOD. 10. Becoming an Adult: Physical, Cognitive, and Personality Development in Young Adulthood. 11. Being With Others: Forming Relationships in Young and Middle Adulthood. 12. Work, Leisure, and Retirement. 13. Making It in Midlife: The Biopsychosocial Challenges of Middle Adulthood. Part IV: LATE ADULTHOOD. 14. The Personal Context of Later Life: Physical, Cognitive, and Mental Health Issues. 15. Social Aspects of Later Life: Psychosocial, Retirement, Relationship, and Societal Issues. 16. The Final Passage: Dying and Bereavement. 1. The scientific study of human development can best be described as *a. multidisciplinary b. focused on groups rather than individuals c. non-theoretical d. emphasizing stability over change 2. Which term does not belong in this group? a. experiential b. nurture c. environmental *d. hereditary 3. Dr. Kim takes a strong nature position with regard to the origins of intellectual disabilities. Therefore, she would most likely hypothesize that her son’s intellectu al disability (formally known as mental retardation) is due to a. her parenting style *b. his genes c. his exposure to a toxic chemical prior to birth d. his exposure to Rubella prior to birth 4. The notion that development is best described in terms of a series of abrupt s hifts in behavior best fits with the approach. a. nature b. nurture c. continuity *d. discontinuity 5. Cleo, a director of a daycare, uses terms like “pre-K,” “K-3,” and the “upper-ele mentary.” These ideas are most compatible with a view. a. context-specificity b. hereditary c. continuity *d. discontinuity 6. Dr. Fletcher is attempting to determine whether adult criminals were rule-break ers throughout their childhood or whether they suddenly turned to a life of crime. Her research is most concerned with which issue of human development? a. nature versus nurture b. universal versus context-specific development c. biological versus sociocultural forces *d. continuity versus discontinuity 7. Mustafa is interested in determining whether children develop virtually the sa me way in Algeria as they do in other parts of the world. Mustafa’s research deals primarily with the issue of human development. a. psychological versus biological forces *b. universal versus context-specific development c. nature versus nurture d. continuity versus discontinuity 8. When Clarisse says, “It doesn’t matter if they are French, Swedish, or Chinese, kids are kids,” she is espousing a position concerning human development. a. discontinuous *b. universal c. nurture d. context-specific 9. Viviana notices that children seem to mature socially much faster in Costa Ric a than in the Canada. Viviana is most likely to support a position regarding h uman development. a. nature b. discontinuous *c. context-specific d. continuous 10. Lotte is listening to a lecture in which her professor states, “Genetic and cult ural factors are important, but they alone cannot explain the development of hum an beings.” Lotte’s professor seems to be supporting the *a. biopsychosocial framework b. position that development is continuous c. notion of universality d. concept of discontinuity 11. Because Dr. Bryant is interested in researching how people of different ages are affected by events, it would be most accurate to say that Dr. Bryant is most in terested in studying forces. a. psychological b. biological *c. life-cycle d. sociocultural 12. When asked why her sister Yvonne ended up in jail, Penny says, “She was al ways a mean, aggressive person. She really liked hurting people.” Penny is relying on forces to explain Yvonne’s development. a. sociocultural b. normative age-graded c. normative history-graded *d. psychological 13. Benoit is interested in studying the effects of various biological forces on hu man development. Which topic is probably of least interest to him? *a. cognition b. brain maturation c. menopause d. exercise 14. The field of gives us information about how the four developmental force s interact with each other. a. biology *b. neuroscience c. anthropology d. sociology 15. Which item does not constitute a “psychological force”? a. perception b. intelligence c. personality *d. heredity 16. Julianna is interested in studying how family relationships affect development. Julianna is probably most interested in studying influences. a. psychological *b. sociocultural c. non-normative d. biological 17. Daisy and Rose are identical twins who were separated at birth. Daisy was rai sed in the United States, whereas Rose spent her childhood in Austria. Which forc e would likely explain most of the differences between their behaviors as teens? a. psychological b. nature-based c. biological *d. sociocultural 18. Your friend David has decided to start studying human development because he hates studying biology. According to your text, will David find happiness in his new area of interest? a. Yes, because he can focus on psychological factors and ignore sociocul tural and biological factors. b. Yes, but only if he enjoys studying sociocultural factors. *c. No, because studying biological influences is a necessary component i n understanding development. d. No, because normative age-graded influences are all biological. 19. What is a problem encountered by researchers assessing the effects of socio cultural forces? a. the lack of genetic distinction between individuals from different racial b ackgrounds b. culture appears to have little impact on cognitive development *c. changing ethnic labels (e.g., black American to African American) d. the inability to apply results to the population being studied 20. Marcelia has been promoted and is moving her family to a new city in a differ ent part of the country. Though four-year-old Fernando is very happy and makes th e transition easily, 12-year-old Jorge is unhappy and has a very difficult time adjus ting to the move. Both children generally adapt well to change. Which single set of factors best explains the different responses of Fernando and Jorge to the move? a. biological factors b. sociocultural factors c. personality factors *d. life-cycle factors 21. When Alfonso says, “It would have been tough to be a father at age 21, but b eing one at age 28 is super,” he is noting the important role that factors play in human development. a. biological *b. life-cycle c. sociocultural d. psychological 22. Which statement best exemplifies the basic premise of life-cycle forces? a. Biological forces play a small role once a person reaches puberty. b. Unconscious desires are the basis for most human behavior. *c. Early experiences may influence behavior throughout one’s developme nt. d. The forces that influence human behavior are too complex to identify th rough empirical research. 23. Jamaal is a second-grade teacher who notices that his students behave diffe rently from the fourth-graders during recess. He comes up with several connected ideas to explain why the two groups behave differently. Jamaal ’s ideas would bes t be described as a(n) . a. experiment *b. theory c. study d. mesosystem 24. Psychodynamic theories place the least emphasis on the portion of the biopsychosocial framework. a. life-cycle b. psychological c. sociocultural *d. biological 25. When asked to explain why teenage gang membership is rising, Dr. Yale resp onds, “Generally speaking, these children are driven by conflicts between what th ey wish to do and what society wishes them to do.” It is most likely that Dr. Yale would be a proponent of theory. *a. psychodynamic b. social cognitive c. ecological d. cognitive-developmental 26. Who is most associated with psychosocial theory? *a. Erikson b. Bandura c. Watson d. Freud 27. The epigenetic principle is a key component of theory. a. social cognitive b. ecological c. information-processing *d. psychosocial 28. Nemo wishes to leave home and begin an adventure that will challenge his s kills as a person and lead to a better understanding of himself. According to Erik Erikson, Nemo is in which stage of psychosocial development? a. generativity vs. stagnation *b. identity vs. identity confusion c. autonomy vs. shame d. basic trust vs. mistrust 29. The argument that each psychosocial strength has its own special age period of specific importance is the cornerstone of theory of development. a. Bandura’s *b. Erikson’s c. Skinner’s d. Vygotsky’s 30. How would Erik Erikson respond to the statement, “A midlife crisis is a norma l part of the human life-cycle”? *a. He would agree. b. He would disagree and point out that there is no “normal” progression o f human development. c. He would disagree and point out that “crises” are not a normal part of h uman development. d. He would say nothing since he focused on development between birth a nd adolescence. 31. The basic premise of is that the consequences of a behavior determine the likelihood of the behavior being repeated in the future. a. the life-span perspective b. the epigenetic principle c. universal development *d. operant conditioning 32. After completing his history assignment, Nico is excused from having to wash the dishes, a task he detests. Nico’s parents are attempting to use to increa se Nico’s studying. a. positive reinforcement b. punishment c. extinction *d. negative reinforcement 33. Lynne always wants to visit her grandparents because they give her new toys when she visits. The grandparents have her visiting behavior. *a. reinforced b. extinguished c. punished d. extinguished 34. In operant conditioning theory, reinforcement is to punishment as *a. increasing is to decreasing b. giving is to taking c. unwanted is to wanted d. good is to bad 35. Zhang is attempting to alter the behavior of his son by controlling the conseq uences of his son’s actions. Zhang is practicing a. social learning theory b. negative reinforcement *c. operant conditioning d. ecological theory 36. An effective punishment a. causes some physical pain b. follows a reinforcer *c. reduces the likelihood that a behavior will occur in the future d. eventually becomes ineffective 37. Morticia finds that whenever she talks to her daughter about her obnoxious b ehavior, the obnoxious behavior increases in frequency. Apparently, Morticia’s talk s are her daughter’s obnoxious behavior. a. punishing *b. reinforcing c. suppressing d. having no effect on 38. Dr. Gauche likes to make fun of student comments in class. She finds that e very time she does this, students make fewer comments the rest of the class peri od. Apparently, Dr. Gauche’s jokes are the students for talking in class. *a. punishing b. negatively reinforcing c. positively reinforcing d. imitating 39. Imitation is most closely related to the concept of a. positive reinforcement b. life-cycle forces c. selective optimization *d. observational learning 40. Even though Bonita was never reinforced directly for doing so, she increased the frequency of her studying after she saw her friend Hemma get a lot of attentio n when she studied. This is most likely an example of *a. observational learning b. operant conditioning c. punishment d. self-efficacy 41. Melissa is doing a study in which lacrosse players are interviewed about their role on the team and perceived capabilities for playing in Saturday’s game. Meliss a seems to be assessing the of the lacrosse players. a. life-cycle forces b. exosystems c. internal maturational plans *d. self-efficacy 42. Alberto believes he can successfully ski down a steep mountain. Most likely Alberto has a. reached formal operations *b. high self-efficacy c. resolved the industry vs. inferiority stage d. been negatively reinforced 43. Dr. Link tries to help his students learn how to be independent learners by ha ving them watch how other students can be successful by researching answers to possible test questions on their smartphones. Dr. Link is using principles of to help his students. *a. social learning theory b. operant conditioning c. cognitive-developmental theory d. psychosocial theory 44. Who would most likely explain a child’s maladaptive behavior by saying, “They probably saw some TV character do that”? a. Blake, who is a behaviorist *b. Adam, who is a social learning theorist c. Alicia, who is a Freudian theorist d. Gwen, who is a Piagetian theorist 45. Dr. Sefky says, “Sure, reinforcement and punishment are important, but how people interpret reinforcement and punishment is even more important.” Given thi s statement, Dr. Sefky’s view is most likely to agree with a. operant conditioning *b. social cognitive theory c. psychosocial theory d. psychodynamic theory 46. Social cognitive theory and operant conditioning are similar in that they both a. view the individual as an active processor of information *b. believe that experience is important in determining behavior c. place a greater emphasis on nature than on nurture d. stress discontinuity 47. Whose theory of development is best exemplified by the idea that children co nstruct their own knowledge and that this constructed knowledge changes with ag e/experience? *a. Piaget b. Bronfenbrenner c. Erikson d. Skinner 48. Brandon’s developmental psychology teacher believes human development is best conceptualized as progressing discontinuously through several qualitatively d ifferent stages of thinking. His instructor is likely a(n) *a. Piagetian b. social learning theorist c. ecological theorist d. behaviorist 49. What is the correct order of Piaget’s stages of development? a. sensorimotor, concrete operational, preoperational, formal operational b. preoperational, formal operational, concrete operational, sensorimotor *c. sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational d. preoperational, sensorimotor, formal operational, concrete operational 50. When describing the development of his son Pitt, Brad says, “The best way to describe it is in terms of a slow computer with a small memory getting a faster pr ocessor and more storage space.” This type of description would suggest that Bra d adheres to a(n) approach to development. a. operant conditioning b. ecological theory c. Piagetian *d. information-processing 51. Rutger believes that, rather than progressing through a sequence of stages, mental processes gradually get more complex and efficient. Rutger is most likely a proponent of a. Piaget’s theory b. Kohlberg’s theory *c. information-processing theory d. Erikson’s theory 52. What type of theorist would most likely describe human cognitive developmen t using the analogy of “mental software”? *a. an information-processing theorist b. a Freudian theorist c. an operant conditioning theorist d. a social learning theorist 53. Dr. Bach is a developmental psychologist who is interested in Vygotsky’s the ory. What sort of forces are probably of most interest to Dr. Bach? a. biological b. psychological c. life-cycle *d. sociocultural 54. Who would have the least amount of interest in children’s thinking? a. an information-processing theorist *b. a Skinnerian theorist c. a Vygotskian theorist d. a Piagetian theorist 55. The biggest difference between Vygotsky’s approach to development and that of Piaget and the information-processing approach is that Vygotsky placed more e mphasis on *a. the impact of culture b. stages of development c. thinking d. unconscious thoughts 56. When Dr. R. Carson is asked to explain troubled adolescents, she says, “The only way to explain the problems of adolescents is to study them in relation to the ir parents and the culture that surrounds them.” Dr. R. Carson is most likely a pro ponent of theory. a. psychodynamic b. cognitive developmental *c. ecological d. social cognitive 57. Which theorist is best associated with an ecological approach to human deve lopment? a. Freud b. Piaget c. Erikson *d. Bronfenbrenner 58. Mary has only one child, three-year-old Shelly, and she has stayed home for most of Shelly’s life. From an ecological perspective, Mary is best thought of as p art of Shelly’s a. mesosystem b. exosystem c. macrosystem *d. microsystem 59. According to ecological theory, the people closest to a developing child repre sent his or her *a. microsystem b. macrosystem c. mesosystem d. exosystem 60. Louis discovers that the experiences he has in his developmental psychology class help him to deal with the children he works with at a daycare center. This rel ationship is best described by Bronfenbrenner’s notion of a(n) *a. mesosystem b. exosystem c. macrosystem d. microsystem 61. A researcher who wants to study how state welfare programs influence paren ting behaviors would be primarily studying a. microsystems *b. exosystems c. mesosystems d. operant conditioning 62. Police shootings have dramatically influenced race relations in the early 21st century. From an ecological perspective, this influence is best thought of as part o f the culture’s a. mesosystem b. exosystem *c. macrosystem d. microsystem 63. Tina is given a huge salary increase and is now able to get things for her chil dren that they have always needed and move into a nicer home. Bronfenbrenner w ould state that this increase in the mother’s salary is an example of the impact of the children’s *a. exosystem b. mesosystem c. macrosystem d. microsystem 64. Millie finds herself unable to adjust to her new job because she doesn’t see m to have the work skills necessary to keep her strict boss happy. Millie’s predica ment would probably best be explained by a. psychosocial theory b. Bronfenbrenner’s ecological theory *c. the competence-environmental press theory d. Kohlberg’s theory of moral development 65. Whose theory is best associated with a life-span perspective emphasizing res earch on adult development? a. Bandura *b. Baltes c. Bronfenbrenner d. Piaget 66. Marcia is 80 years old and is learning how to speak French and play the guita r for the first time. This new skill development is a good example of a. multiple causation b. historical context *c. plasticity d. multidirectionality 67. Eddie’s knowledge of guitar playing has grown over the years, while at the sa me time his ability to play guitar has deteriorated. Eddie’s experience best exempl ifies a. multiple causation b. historical context c. plasticity *d. multidirectionality 68. Multidirectionality, plasticity, historical context, and multiple causation are all key features of the perspective. *a. life-span b. cognitive-developmental c. psychosocial d. ecological 69. The fact that a teen growing up when Pearl Harbor was attacked will develop i n a different manner from a teen growing up when the World Trade Center was att acked is best explained in terms of a. multidirectionality b. multiple causation c. plasticity *d. historical context 70. Lisa is getting ready to apply for graduate school. To focus on this goal, she i s resigning from her posts as editor of the campus newspaper and president of h er sorority. These changes in Lisa’s life are examples of a. compensation *b. elective selection c. loss-based selection d. self-efficacy 71. The selective optimization with compensation model is primarily associated w ith the perspective. a. cognitive-developmental b. ecological c. psychodynamic *d. life-span 72. Professor Linwood always makes a point of learning the names of all the stu dents in her class. She used to be able to do this in her head but has recently fou nd that she needs note cards to help her remember. This change in behavior is b est described as a. loss-based selection b. elective selection *c. compensation d. the epigenetic principle 73. Orlaith is interested in studying the impact of growing up during the Great Rec ession on the saving and spending habits of individuals. Orlaith’s perspective is b est described as a perspective. *a. life-course b. life-span c. social cognitive d. psychosocial 74. Harry wonders if the Cubs winning the World Series in 2016 will impact the c areer goals of individuals who were adolescents at the time of the Cubs victory. T his kind of question is one that best reflects a(n) perspective. a. cognitive-developmental *b. life-course c. social cognitive d. operant conditioning 75. Which research study would you most expect to see from a researcher with a life-course perspective? a. the effect of smoking on neurotransmitter systems and memory b. how memory processes change from infancy to old age *c. growing up in the 1960s and its influence on political activism in middl e adulthood d. sex differences in marital satisfaction 76. The fact that 45-year-old George is worried about how the election of the new U.S. president will impact his current job status is best associated with *a. individual timing of life events in relation to external historical events b. the synchronization of individual transitions with collective familial ones c. the impact of earlier life events on current conditions d. history determining the outcome of life 77. The notion of “balancing” work and home responsibilities is best associated with a. individual timing of life events in relation to external historical events *b. the synchronization of individual transitions with collective familial one s c. the impact of earlier life events on current conditions d. history determining the outcome of life 78. Patti studies the behavior of preschool children by watching them play at a lo cal daycare center. While doing this, she is careful to find a spot where she will b e completely unnoticed by the individuals she is observing. Patti is most likely usi ng a approach to studying the children. a. structured observation b. correlational c. self-report *d. naturalistic observation 79. Carrie is most interested in studying adolescent behavior occurring at a high school prom. Which method is most likely to help her accomplish this goal? a. structured observation *b. naturalistic observation c. self-report d. experiment 80. Which research method must always occur in a real-life setting? a. experiment b. structured observation *c. naturalistic observation d. systematic observation 81. Liat takes notes on the behaviors exhibited by college students attending a fr at party. This study would best be described as a. longitudinal *b. systematic observational c. experimental d. sequential 82. Dr. Piro Knesis stages a fire drill at the elementary school in order to study h ow children respond to potential emergency situations. Dr. Knesis’s method would best be described as a(n) *a. structured observation b. naturalistic observation c. self-report d. experiment 83. Dr. Rubeus is studying how teenagers think about high school by asking them to answer several questions related to their classroom experiences. It is most like ly that Dr. Rubeus’s research involves a(n) method. a. naturalistic observation b. structured observation c. experiment *d. self-report 84. Which method of measuring behavior is most likely to be used in combination with other behavioral measures? *a. physiological measures b. self-reports c. naturalistic observation d. sampling behavior with tasks 85. Which method of measuring behavior is most effective at directly studying bra in activity? *a. physiological measures b. self-reports c. naturalistic observation d. sampling behavior with tasks 86. Dr. Nuriama is interested in studying the way people spend their time when t hey are in their homes alone. Which method is Dr. Nuriama most likely to use for this study? a. physiological measures b. naturalistic observation c. structured observation *d. self-reports 87. Dr. Simpson’s students were rightfully upset when he used very accurate wei ght scales (assessing the poundage of each pupil) to determine their grades in a developmental psychology class. This is partially because his method of assessm ent lacked a. a sufficient sample size b. reliability *c. validity d. the ability to identify practice effects 88. Harold is upset with his grade on his developmental psychology test and says, “I bet if I would’ve taken that test at another time, I would have done much bette r.” Harold’s complaint deals most directly with the questionable of the test. a. validity b. sample *c. reliability d. population 89. Validity is to reliability as a. study is to experiment b. cause is to correlation c. positive is to negative *d. accuracy is to consistency 90. Which research finding supports the idea that a new intelligence test is valid? a. Individuals earn the same score on the test every time they take it. b. Individuals score higher on the test when they are older than when they were younger. *c. Scores on the new intelligence test correlate with scores on another v alid intelligence test. d. Most individuals score high on the new intelligence test. 91. Virtually all studies done in psychology rely on studying people representative of a larger group. The groups of people who participate in these studies are most commonly known as *a. samples b. populations c. mesosystems d. independent variables 92. Population is to sample as a. small is to large b. reliability is to validity c. micro is to macro *d. set is to subset 93. In a correlational study, variables are always studied *a. as they exist naturally b. after some manipulation c. during an experiment d. at the population level 94. Harvey is interested in doing a study to determine whether a relationship exis ts between participating in college athletics and self-efficacy for academic work. B ecause Harvey is not interested in determining a cause-and-effect relationship, he would be best advised to do a(n) study. a. cross-sectional *b. correlational c. experimental d. naturalistic observation 95. Based on a study that finds that self-esteem is negatively correlated with coll ege grades, which person would you predict would have the highest grades? a. Michael, who has very high self-esteem b. Davey, who has average self-esteem *c. Peter, who has very low self-esteem d. Lisa, who refuses to answer the study questions 96. You read a research article that concludes that the higher a student’s self-es teem, the worse he performs in school. This sort of relationship would best be ch aracterized as *a. a negative correlation b. no relationship c. positive correlation d. cause and effect 97. Which correlation coefficient value indicates the strongest relationship? a. -.23 b. .57 c. .15 *d. -.82 98. The value of a(n) can range from -1.0 to 1.0. *a. correlation coefficient b. dependent variable c. independent variable d. sample 99. Mario is going to do a correlational study dealing with playing video games an d intelligence. Because he is using this particular method, he will not be able to a. measure the variables quantitatively b. determine the direction of the relationship between these two variables c. determine the magnitude of the relationship between these two variable s *d. determine whether changes in one of these variables causes changes in the other 100. Shuntelle is interested in studying the relationship between self-esteem and school grades. She wants to be able to quantify this relationship but wants to avo id any ethical concerns regarding the manipulation of these variables. What sort o f method is the best option for Shuntelle? *a. correlational b. natural observation c. experiment d. physiological 101. Dr. Ann Daround is conducting a study to determine whether fidget spinning causes a reduction in stress. In this experiment, fidget spinning is the a. control group *b. independent variable c. dependent variable d. cohort effect 102. In an experiment designed to determine whether taking vitamin A before att ending a social event improves self-esteem, what is the dependent variable? a. vitamin A b. the social event *c. the level of self-esteem d. the age of the participants 103. A researcher has a hypothesis that hostility toward women is created by vie wing pornography. If the researcher does an experiment to test this, what would b e the independent variable? a. scores on a “hostility toward women” scale b. being placed in a control group *c. the viewing of pornography d. the sex of the subjects 104. You are doing a study to determine whether vaping nicotine prior to taking a psychology test affects performance on that test. What is the independent variabl e in your study? a. the psychology test b. the participants in your study *c. vaping nicotine d. It depends on where the study is conducted. 105. A publishing company does a study to determine whether using a study guid e for a textbook improves performance on psychology exams. In this study, grade s on the psychology exams would constitute the variable. a. correlational b. independent c. manipulated *d. dependent 106. Qualitative research differs from quantitative research because it a. is conducted in the laboratory *b. seeks to gain an understanding of what governs behavior c. is non-correlational d. relies heavily on statistical analysis 107. Dr. Feldman is studying sibling rivalry. Each of his participants has been ass essed every five years since 1970. Dr. Feldman’s overall research design is best classified as a. cross-sectional b. experimental *c. longitudinal d. sequential 108. Dr. Mitchell is very interested in how individual participants’ behaviors chang e over time. If she wants to study this, she’ll have to do a(n) study. a. naturalistic observation b. cross-sectional c. experimental *d. longitudinal 109. Which problem is least associated with longitudinal research? *a. It is difficult to generalize results to the larger population. b. Participants may improve on the tests by taking them multiple times. c. It is expensive to keep collecting data on a large number of participants. d. Participants may choose not to continue. 110. Michael studies developmental differences in extroversion by testing 9-, 19-, 39-, and 59-year-old subjects at the same time. Michael is performing a(n) s tudy. a. sequential b. longitudinal c. experimental *d. cross-sectional 111. The fact that Tatiana likes to watch reality television and her grandfather pre fers watching 1960s television westerns is probably best explained by a. age effects b. non-normative factors *c. cohort effects d. time-of-measurement effects 112. Smita studies two different cohorts over a 50-year period, testing each subj ect every five years. Smita is using a design. a. longitudinal b. cross-sectional *c. sequential d. microgenetic 113. Greta wants to do a study on how self-efficacy changes over the life span. Her primary con cerns are economic – she needs to do the study in the way that will cost the least in terms of time and money. Given these concerns, she is probably going to be best served doing a(n) study. a. longitudinal *b. cross-sectional c. sequential d. experimental 114. The advantage of the design is that it allows a researcher to synthesize data from numerous studies. a. longitudinal *b. meta-analysis c. cross-sectional d. qualitative 115. Kelly is doing research on the effect of birth order on personality. Rather tha n collecting data on a new set of subjects, she is analyzing hundreds of studies th at have already been done on this topic and is going to attempt to come up with a n overall estimate of what all these other studies have found. What sort of study i s Kelly doing? a. experiment *b. meta-analysis c. correlational d. longitudinal 116. Which statement is not consistent with ethical research? a. Subject responses should be confidential. *b. Never tell subjects if they’ve been deceived. c. Minimize risks to subjects. d. Give subjects the right to withdraw from the research without penalty. 117. According to the American Psychological Association, researchers must a. eliminate all risk to participants *b. minimize risk to participants c. use deception if there are risks to participants d. pay participants if they are put at risk 118. Results from individual research participants should be *a. confidential b. public c. coded by name d. ignored 119. After completing their study, researchers send a copy of their findings to a s cientific journal in hopes of having it published. This reflects which step of the res earch process? a. developing hypotheses b. analyzing the data *c. communicating research results d. applying the results of research 120. As a result of reading several research articles on the long-term effects of d aycare, a state legislature passes a new law mandating that all daycare providers modify their practices to be in concordance with this research. This action reflects *a. how research can affect social policy b. the benefits of doing meta-analytic research c. the importance of longitudinal studies d. why correlational research is superior in some ways to experimental res earch 121. Children’s judgments of the emotions depicted in photographs may be less accurate than they would be in real life because the photographs are a. faces of strangers *b. faces that are not moving c. black and white d. outdated 122. The universal and context-specific developmental issue concerns wh ether there is just one path of development or several. *a. True b. False 123. If you believe in continuity, you believe that development is best characterized as following a smooth progression. *a. True b. False 124. The influence of ethnic factors on your behavior would be consider ed a sociocultural force. *a. True b. False 125. Neuroscience is the study of the brain and the nervous system in t erms of brain-environmental relationships. a. True *b. False 126. The sequence of stages in Erikson’s theory is based on the epigene tic principle. *a. True b. False 127. Compared to punishment, reinforcement tends to result in quicker a nd longer-lasting learning. *a. True b. False 128. Piaget believed that children begin to construct knowledge in new ways at a few critical points in development. *a. True b. False 129. Information-processing theory rejects the notion of conceptualizin g humans as having mental hardware and software. a. True *b. False 130. Vygotsky’s key insight was to view development as an apprenticeshi p in which children develop as they work with skilled adults. *a. True b. False 131. When explaining an individual’s behavior, proponents of ecological theory would say that you have to consider factors outside of the indiv idual. *a. True b. False 132. Competence-environmental press theory emphasizes that to understan d people’s functioning, it is essential to understand the systems in wh ich they live. *a. True b. False 133. Plasticity refers to the fact that as we develop, some of our skil ls grow and others decline. a. True *b. False 134. According to the life-span perspective, human development can only be understood within the scope of a single framework. a. True *b. False 135. In a structured observation, a researcher creates a setting that i s likely to bring out the behavior of interest. *a. True b. False 136. Determining whether a form of measurement is measuring what it is supposed to be measuring is determining its reliability. a. True *b. False 137. A sample is a subset of the population of interest. *a. True b. False 138. The strength of correlational research lies in its ability to dete rmine cause. a. True *b. False 139. Qualitative research relies on numerical data and statistical test s as the bases for reporting results. a. True *b. False 140. An advantage of cross-sectional studies is that they cannot be inf luenced by cohort effects. a. True *b. False 141. Outcomes of developmental research can have important implications for social policy. *a. True b. False 142. A new developmental theory of personality emerges. This new theory states that ad ult personality is markedly different from personality in childhood, is completely determin ed by the environment, and develops the same across cultures. Describe the three recurr ing issues in human development and explain where this new theory stands in relation to these three issues. 143. Use the biopsychosocial framework to describe four factors that could be important in the development of parenting skills. 144. Two developmental psychologists are discussing the factors that are important in e xplaining one’s behavior. One is a proponent of operant conditioning and the other suppor ts a social learning approach. Select a famous person and describe one way these two p sychologists may agree and one way they may disagree in their explanation of the celebrit y’s behavior. 145. Define the four levels of the environment as described in Bronfenbrenner’s ecologic al theory. How do these levels relate to the biopsychosocial framework? 146. Jordy, a high school history teacher, is 55 years old and having a hard time balanci ng the demands of his recent promotion to half-time assistant principal and half-time cla ssroom teacher. Describe the three key features of the selective optimization with compe nsation (SOC) model. Explain how the key features could apply to Jordy being successful i n his new position at the high school. 147. You and a partner are given an assignment to conduct a study using systematic ob servation of children playing. You want to conduct the study using naturalistic observation, however your partner wants to conduct the study using structured observation. Write a p osition statement that supports the use of naturalistic observation for the assignment an d argues against the use of structured observation. 148. A researcher is going to do a longitudinal study of cognitive development in elemen tary school children. What problems may this researcher have that could be avoided if sh e were to do a cross-sectional study instead? 149. A student researcher comes to you for advice regarding ethical guidelines for her st udy. Describe four guidelines common in professional ethical codes that you think would be important for this student to know. 150. Saleh has decided to do a correlational study on the relationship between the amo unt of time spent playing video games and body weight. How might this research be cond ucted? What are the major disadvantages of this type of research approach? 1. The threadlike structures in the nucleus of a cell that contain genetic material are call ed *a. chromosomes. b. germ discs. c. ectoderms. d. phenotypes. 2. The first pairs of chromosomes are called autosomes and the pair are c alled sex chromosomes. a. 2; 3rd b. 10; 11th *c. 22; 23rd d. 46; 47th 3. Gene is approached by a mad geneticist who says he will pay Gene either $100 for e ach pair of his autosomes or $500 for each pair of his sex chromosomes. Assuming Gen e wants to make as much money as possible, which offer should he take? *a. $100 for each pair of autosomes b. $500 for each pair of sex chromosomes c. Either one, because Gene will make the same amount with both offers d. Neither one, because humans have neither autosomes nor sex chromosomes 4. When looking through a microscope at an entire set of human male chromosomes, h ow would you be able to differentiate an autosome pair from a sex chromosome pair? a. The sex chromosome pair would be about 10 times larger than the autosome pair. b. The circular-shaped cells would be the autosomes and the square shapes wo uld be the sex chromosomes. c. There would be three cells in the autosome “pair” and two cells in the sex chr omosome “pair.” *d. The shape of the sex chromosomes would differ, whereas each autosome pa ir would look identical. 5. A sperm cell contains a total of 22 a. genes. b. chromosomes. *c. autosomes. d. sex cells. 6. What combination would result in a boy? a. A 17th pair of chromosomes with one X and one Y *b. A 23rd pair of chromosomes with one X and one Y c. A 17th pair of chromosomes with two Xs d. A 23rd pair of chromosomes with two Xs 7. ThThe functional units of heredity are *a. genes. b. neurotransmitters produced in the brain. c. phenotypes. d. basic chemical compounds that form the single helix of a DNA molecule. 8. Human DNA is composed of a total of different nucleotide bases. *a. 4 b. 23 c. 444 d. 30,000 9. Genes provide the cell with a specific set of instructions. a. hormonal *b. biochemical c. in vitro d. bioelectric 10. The average child has approximately genes. a. 25 *b. 25,000 c. 25,000,000 d. 25,000,000,000 11. Kyoko is 5 feet, 11 inches tall, plays tennis, and is an all-around nice person. This i s a description of Kyoko’s a. allele. b. genotype. c. homozygosity. *d. phenotype. 12. Genotype is to phenotype as a. homozygous is to heterozygous. b. nurture is to nature. c. DNA is to deoxyribonucleic acid. *d. chromosome pattern is to physical, behavioral, and psychological features. 13. Which process can best be explained by alleles? a. The fact that phenotypes produce genotypes b. The formation of identical twins through the splitting of a fertilized egg *c. The instructions for hair color come from two sources on the chromosome d. The teratogenic effects associated with fetal alcohol spectrum disorder (FASD) 14. Linda has one allele for curly hair and another for straight hair. Linda’s alleles are a. polyzygotic. b. dizygotic. c. homozygous. *d. heterozygous. 15. How would you create an individual who will definitely have blue eyes? *a. Make sure he has a pair of homozygous chromosomes for blue eyes. b. Make sure he has a pair of heterozygous chromosomes for eye color. c. Make sure he has a pair of alleles for eye color. d. Make sure he has one recessive gene for blue eyes. 16. Kirk is heterozygous for cheek dimples but is born with big dimples in both cheeks. Apparently, the allele for cheek dimples is *a. dominant. b. sex-linked. c. recessive. d. polygenetic. 17. If tallness is dominant and designated as “T,” and shortness is recessive and desig nated as “s,” who would likely be short? a. Blake, who is “sT” b. Adam, who is “Ts” *c. Alicia, who is “ss” d. Miley, who is “TT” 18. Which best exemplifies the concept of incomplete dominance? a. An individual with two alleles for baldness who has long hair b. An individual with two alleles for shyness who is shy *c. An individual with one allele for obesity and another for thinness who is of av erage weight d. An individual with a single allele for aggression who is violent 19. Which statement concerning the sickle-cell trait is true? a. Individuals with the trait have the dominant phenotype but possess the recess ive genotype. *b. Individuals with the trait have both a dominant and recessive allele for the di sorder. c. Individuals with the trait are genetically predisposed to the disorder but canno t display any symptoms. d. Individuals with the trait tend to have the most severe form of the disease. 20. Dr. Fry has just been informed that his son has sickle-cell trait. As a knowledgeable physician, Dr. Fry would realize that his son’s body is most likely to experience a. excess levels of body fat. *b. serious oxygen deprivation. c. decreased lung capacity. d. blindness. 21. Janaka’s two-year-old daughter is intellectually disordered (formerly known as menta lly retarded) due, in part, to a diet that included fish, bread, and dairy products. The most likely diagnosis for Janaka’s daughter is that she has a. Turner’s syndrome. b. Huntington’s disease. c. Tay Sachs disease. *d. Phenylketonuria (PKU). 22. Huntington’s disease is an unusual genetic disorder in that it is a fatal disease caus ed by dominant alleles that *a. impact late enough in life so that the individual can reproduce. b. are controllable through diet. c. both must come from the mother. d. strike only males. 23. Which physical characteristic is most indicative of an individual with Down syndrome? a. An enlarged head *b. A fold of skin over each eyelid c. A long neck d. A larger nose than same-age peers 24. As a geneticist, you found that afetus has 47 chromosomes. What would be the mo st likely conclusion drawn from this information? *a. The child has Down syndrome b. The child has sickle-cell anemia c. The child has phenylketonuria (PKU) d. This is a normal number of chromosomes 25. Because of his accurate knowledge of genetics and disorders, Benson knows that hi s newborn son has no chance of having *a. Turner’s syndrome. b. Kleinfelter’s syndrome. c. Huntington’s disease. d. Down syndrome. 26. As a behavioral geneticist, Juan would most likely be studying a. the maze-learning behavior of rats. b. the evolution of eyesight over the life span. *c. the inheritance of behavioral and psychological traits. d. the physiological structure of a gene. 27. Which statement best exemplifies the basic premise of behavioral genetics? a. “Your personality is all in your genes” b. “Your personality is all in your environment” c. “People are either very open to new experiences or avoid new experiences at all costs” *d. “Openness to new experience is not an either/or proposition, but represents a wide range of reactions” 28. If a physician informed you that your speech disorder was the result of problems on chromosomes 4, 7, and 15, you would rightly conclude that the disorder is always classifi able as a. recessive. *b. polygenetic. c. dominant. d. sex-linked. 29. John and Wayne have the exact same genes. This indicates that they must be a. dizygotic twins. *b. monozygotic twins. c. heterozygous. d. co-dominant. 30. As dizygotic twins, Maya and Naomi a. are genetically identical. b. must have come from the same fertilized egg. c. share all phenotypes. *d. share about half of their genes. 31. José, who was adopted at birth, is found to have personality characteristics more si milar to his biological mom than to his adoptive mom. How should you interpret this data? a. Personality appears to be a polygenetic characteristic. b. Personality characteristics are learned. *c. Personality characteristics are influenced by genes. d. Personality characteristics appear to be recessive. 32. Which result would not support the idea that genes play a significant role in behavior? *a. Finding dizygotic twins to be more similar than monozygotic twins b. Finding children to be more similar to their biological parents than to their ado ptive parents c. Finding similarities between biological siblings d. Finding monozygotic twins to be more similar than pairs of unrelated individual s 33. The concept that genotypes are not the only things that control traits involves the fa ct that a. dizygotic twins are virtually genetically identical. *b. each genotype can produce a variety of phenotypes. c. recessive genes are more commonly expressed than dominant genes. d. the environment has little impact on behavior. 34. After creating a child’s DNA profile, behavioral geneticists can then look to see *a. if the genotype is associated with behavior phenotypes. b. if the DNA links the child to a certain geographic location. c. if the child is going to be cared for by adoptive parents. d. if the child ranks high or low eugenically. 35. Heredity and environment *a. interact dynamically throughout development. b. act independently throughout development. c. interact dynamically in childhood and independently in adulthood. d. act independently in childhood and interact dynamically in adulthood. 36. As a behavioral geneticist, Professor Klink is most likely to calculate the extent to w hich depression is inherited using a coefficient. a. nonshared b. DNA c. polygenetic *d. heritability 37. A heritability coefficient of means about 50 percent of the difference between p eople on a specific characteristic is the result of heredity. *a. 5 b. 5 c. 50 d. 500 38. occurs when an individual intentionally seeks out an environment that ma tches characteristics driven by his or her genes. a. Passive gene-environment interactions b. Incomplete dominance *c. Niche-picking d. Polygenetic inheritance 39. Which individual with a genetic predisposition toward being extroverted is demonstra ting successful niche-picking? *a. Wink, who is a game-show host b. Wilbur, who is a horse trainer c. Sebastian, who is a hermit who lives in a cave by himself d. Dexter, who spends a lot of time studying in the library 40. Nonshared environmental influences involve forces that make siblings a. act in virtually identical ways. b. homozygous. c. dizygotic twins. *d. different from one another. 41. Jack and Jill are twins. Because he is a boy, Jack’s parents encourage him to run. H owever, they discourage Jill from engaging in athletic activity. As a result, Jack is much fa ster at running up a hill than Jill. The difference in Jack and Jill’s behavior is best explaine d by *a. nonshared environmental influences. b. active gene-environment relations. c. polygenetic effects. d. niche-picking. 42. Which period is not considered part of prenatal development? a. Period of the fetus b. Period of the zygote *c. Period of the neonate d. Period of the embryo 43. Prenatal development begins a. with sperm production. b. with ovulation. *c. at conception. d. at implantation into the uterus. 44. The period of the lasts for approximately two weeks. a. embryo *b. zygote c. fetus d. neonate 45. The uniting of the egg and sperm (conception) typically takes place in the a. uterus. b. testes. *c. fallopian tube. d. ovary. 46. If Agnieszka found out that she was conceived through in vitro fertilization, she woul d know for certain that *a. she was conceived in a Petri dish. b. she was conceived inside a fallopian tube. c. her biological parents were not the same as the parents who reared her. d. the woman who carried her as a baby was not the woman who reared her. 47. Which event occurs following in vitro fertilization? *a. A fertilized egg is placed directly into the uterus. b. A sperm is injected directly into the fallopian tube. c. A fertilized egg is directly placed in the ovary. d. A single sperm is injected directly into a fertilized egg. 48. Which statement concerning preimplantation genetic screening (PGS) is false? a. It is usually used with couples known to be at risk for genetic disorders. *b. It cannot be used to determine if a child-to-be is male or female. c. If parents are not pleased with the test results, they can have a fertilized egg discarded. d. It can be used to determine a child-to-be’s hair color. 49. Whose behavior best exemplifies eugenics? a. Dr. Green, who uses an in vitro fertilization technique *b. Dr. Black, who allows only certain individuals to mate c. Dr. White, who studies the effects of thalidomide on prenatal development d. Dr. Brown, who closely monitors the nutrition of expectant mothers 50. A developing human that is traveling from a fallopian tube to the uterus would most accurately be described as a(n) a. embryo. b. fetus. *c. zygote. d. amnion. 51. What began as a single fertilized egg has just separated into two distinct eggs. This indicates the formation of twins that has occurred during the period of develop ment. a. fraternal; zygotic b. fraternal; embryonic *c. identical; zygotic d. identical; embryonic 52. The point at which a zygote burrows into the uterine wall is referred to as a. fertilization. *b. implantation. c. niche-picking. d. dilation. 53. A physician has just informed pregnant Moesha that the human organism developin g inside of her has just begun to show differentiation of its cells. As a knowledgeable stu dent, you would know that such an organism is technically called a(n) a. embryo. *b. zygote. c. fetus. d. neonate. 54. Mi Lei is pregnant and her body is currently experiencing the event that triggers hor monal changes that will prevent further menstruation. This event is called *a. implantation. b. conception. c. dilation. d. effacement. 55. The is the cluster of cells in the center of the zygote that will eventually develo p into the baby. a. Amnion b. stem cell *c. germ disc d. placenta 56. The is the structure through which a mother and an embryo exchange waste an d nutrients. a. amnion b. stem cell c. germ disc *d. placenta 57. The developing human organism that has just become completely embedded in the wall of the uterus is called the a. amnion. b. fetus. c. zygote. *d. embryo. 58. At five weeks after conception, a developing human is most accurately called a(n) *a. embryo. b. zygote. c. fetus. d. neonate. 59. Hair and the nervous system develop during the embryonic period from cells contain ed in the layer. a. mesoderm b. endoderm c. placenta *d. ectoderm 60. Damage to cells in the embryo’s layer would be most likely to result in the deve lopment of a defective digestive system. *a. endoderm b. placenta c. ectoderm d. mesoderm 61. Dr. Swift tells Taylor that her developing embryo is showing distortions in the develo pment of its circulatory system. As a knowledgeable student of human development, Tayl or should realize that the problem is within cells of the layer. a. placenta *b. mesoderm c. ectoderm d. endoderm 62. Ectoderm is to endoderm as a. heterozygous is to homozygous. b. fraternal is to identical. *c. outer is to inner. d. bone is to muscle. 63. While observing a special monitor, a physician tells an expectant mother, “As you ca n see, the legs and arms have just begun to emerge.” From this description, you should r ealize that the two are looking at a(n) a. zygote. b. fetus. *c. embryo. d. germ disc. 64. The sac in which the embryo resides is called the a. ectoderm. *b. amnion. c. germ disc. d. placenta. 65. One key purpose of the amniotic fluid is to a. provide the embryo with nutrients. b. stimulate development of neurotransmitters. c. screen the flow of blood between mother and embryo. *d. 66. The houses the blood vessels that join the embryo and its mother. *a. umbilical cord b. amnion c. germ disc d. mesoderm 67. The placenta a. directly connects the bloodstream of the embryo to the bloodstream of the mo ther. b. contains amniotic fluid. c. helps the fetus to maintain a constant temperature. *d. allows for an exchange of nutrients and waste. 68. The fact that the embryonic head develops before the body illustrates the princi ple. *a. cephalocaudal b. incomplete dominance c. proximodistal d. niche-picking 69. A doctor could best illustrate the proximodistal principle by discussing the fact that a. male fetuses develop faster than female fetuses. b. identical twins tend to be smaller than fraternal twins. c. the outside portion of the amniotic sac is thicker than the inside portion. *d. a baby can control its shoulder before it can control its fingers. 70. During prenatal development, the arm develops before the fingers. This most illustra tes the principle. a. Premack b. coefficient c. cephalocaudal *d. proximodistal 71. Which organism can truthfully state, “It is during my time that all body parts and orga ns are first put into place?” a. The neonate b. The zygote c. The fetus *d. The embryo 72. Marsha’s doctor informs her that her child is just entering the longest period of pren atal development. About how long has Marsha been carrying her unborn child? a. 1 day b. 3 weeks *c. 9 weeks d. 28 weeks 73. Which event is characteristic of the period of the fetus? a. The first beat of the heart b. The first neural activity in the neocortex *c. The significant growth in the cerebral cortex d. The attachment of the umbilical cord to the placenta 74. The thick, greasy substance that covers the fetus around five to six months after co nception is called a. placenta. *b. vernix. c. amnion. d. endoderm. 75. Currently, the earliest “age of viability” occurs around weeks after conception. a. 14 *b. 22 c. 30 d. 38 76. Just after the birth of her son Nelly, mom Kelly is informed that little Nelly’s neural t ube did not properly close during his prenatal development. This would mean that Nelly wi ll be diagnosed with *a. spina bifida. b. muscular dystrophy. c. cerebral palsy. d. sickle-cell anemia. 77. A knowledgeable nutritionist would tell a pregnant mother that, in order to reduce th e risk of having a baby born with spina bifida, mom needs to make sure that she is inges ting an adequate amount of a. vitamin A. b. iron. c. vitamin E. *d. folic acid. 78. Maternal stress is most likely to negatively impact a developing embryo/fetus when that stress is a. intermittent and extreme. b. intermittent and moderate. *c. prolonged and extreme. d. chronic and moderate. 79. The main reason for why teenage mothers tend to give birth to less healthy infants t han mothers in their 20s is that they *a. tend not to receive good prenatal care. b. take too many vitamins. c. have more genetically defective eggs. d. are more likely to smoke while pregnant. 80. Halley is 40 years old and she and her daughter Berry, 20, are both currently pregna nt. Which statement with regard to these two mothers is most accurate? a. Berry has a greater risk of giving birth to a baby with sickle-cell anemia. b. Halley is twice as fertile as Berry. c. Berry’s odds of having a baby with Down syndrome are three times higher than Halley’s. *d. Halley has a greater risk of having a miscarriage. 81. A teratogen is any agent that *a. results in abnormal prenatal development. b. enhances the flow of oxygen across the placental barrier. c. decreases the chances of having a child with a genetic disorder. d. inhibits the impact of drugs on the developing embryo. 82. Whose mother most likely took thalidomide while pregnant? a. Dean, who has a heart defect *b. Martin, who has deformed arms and legs c. Jerry, who is deaf d. Lewis, who is severely intellectually disordered 83. How many of the following are potential teratogens: aspirin, nicotine, cocaine, and c affeine? a. one b. two c. three *d. four 84. What effect is not associated with fetal alcohol spectrum disorder (FASD)? a. Slow growth b. Slowed intellectual growth *c. Blindness d. Misshapen face 85. Bryant’s teacher notices that Bryant has unusual facial features (e.g., short nose an d wide-set eyes) and shows signs of mental retardation. Due to her training in developme ntal psychology, Bryant’s teacher realizes that Bryant’s mom likely while she was pre gnant. *a. consumed alcohol b. injected heroin c. smoked marijuana d. consumed an excessive amount of caffeine 86. A woman who consumes alcohol has the greatest risk of giving birth to a baby with fetal alcohol spectrum disorder (FASD). a. lightly and sporadically b. moderately and sporadically c. lightly and consistently *d. moderately and consistently 87. Both AIDS and genital herpes *a. can be passed along to an infant as it passes through the birth canal. b. typically result in blindness. c. cannot be transmitted to a fetus through the placenta. d. can be eliminated by maternal inoculation. 88. Which statement concerning teratogens is false? a. They impact different genotypes differently. b. They impact specific aspects of development. c. Their effects may not emerge until later in life. *d. Their effects are the same regardless of the time when the individual is expo sed. 89. The key lesson learned by the fact that thalidomide showed no impact when tested on prenatal rabbits but led to birth defects in prenatal humans is that *a. teratogens impact different genotypes differently. b. teratogens impact specific aspects of development. c. teratogen effects may not emerge until later in life. d. teratogen effects are the same regardless of the time when the individual is e xposed. 90. What was the most critical lesson about teratogens learned from studies on the use of the drug diethylstilbestrol (DES) by pregnant women? a. Sometimes what appear to be teratogens actually are harmless drugs. b. Infants in the late fetal period appear to be the most at risk for impact from dr ug-related teratogens. *c. Sometimes the effects of teratogens are not apparent until long after exposu re. d. Females appear to be at much greater risk from teratogens. 91. Exposure to a teratogen during the period is most likely to result in a spontane ous abortion. a. implantation *b. zygotic c. embryonic d. fetal 92. As there is a history of hereditary disease in the families of Tim and Faith, they have arranged a meeting with a specialist at which a family tree concerning the odds of them h aving a child with a birth defect will be constructed. This event would most accurately be described as a. amniocentesis. b. chorionic villus sampling. c. teratogenic. *d. genetic counseling. 93. Whitney is very concerned about the prebirth position of the child she is carrying. Wh ich technique would be the best for determining whether Whitney’s concerns are warrante d? a. Genetic counseling *b. Ultrasound c. Chorionic villus sampling d. Amniocentesis 94. Which prenatal assessment technique results in a picture of the fetus? a. Genetic screening *b. Ultrasound c. Chorionic villus sampling d. Amniocentesis 95. The sample taken during an amniocentesis comes from a. the lining of the uterus. b. inside the body of the fetus. *c. the fluid surrounding the fetus. d. the umbilical cord. 96. Regan is a medical student who is learning a procedure in which fetal cells are sam pled from the mother’s bloodstream. What technique is he most likely learning? a. Amniocentesis *b. Noninvasive prenatal testing (NIPT) c. Chorionic villus sampling d. Ultrasound 97. Mia and her doctor need to know as quickly as possible (hopefully within 24 hours) whether the child she has been carrying for only nine weeks possesses any genetic abnor malities. Which technique is Mia’s doctor most likely to employ? *a. Chorionic villus sampling b. Ultrasound c. Amniocentesis d. Genetic counseling 98. Troy is very interested in the field of fetal therapy. Given this, he would most likely b e fascinated by a book titled a. Afterbirth Care and You. b. The Benefits of Healthy Eating Before Pregnancy. *c. Fixing Birth Defects Before Birth. d. The Importance of Childhood Inoculations. 99. Physicians are currently able to correct spina bifida at around the seventh or eighth month of pregnancy using a. genetic engineering. *b. fetal surgery. c. chorionic villus sampling. d. ultrasound. 100. The experimental CRISPR process, in which the genome is edited by replacing allel es, is an example of work in which field? a. Amnio engineering. *b. Genetic engineering c. Audio engineering d. Niche engineering 101. Because it involves prolonged physical effort, the process of childbirth is often refe rred to as involving stages of *a. labor. b. parturition. c. travail. d. pursuit. 102. By the time Lexi arrived at the hospital to deliver her child, the child had entered th e vaginal opening. This means that Debbie was in the stage of labor. a. first *b. second c. third d. fourth 103. When her physician mentions the term “crowning,” Angelina, who is giving birth, sh ould realize the term “crowning” means that her a. cervix has just fully dilated. b. uterine contractions are about to start. *c. baby’s head has just reached the vaginal opening. d. placenta is about to be delivered. 104. What is expelled during afterbirth? a. Fetus *b. Placenta c. Cervix d. Ova 105. Lucy is afraid of the pain involved in delivering her baby. Are prepared childbirth cla sses likely to help her? *a. Yes, because women who take these courses report experiencing less pain t han women who do not. b. Yes, because women who take these courses qualify for painkilling medicatio ns they would not usually receive. c. No, because childbirth courses only make people more knowledgeable about t he birthing process and can have no effect on pain. d. No, because individuals who know most about the birthing process experience the most pain. 106. Which is not a typical childbirth class technique for reducing the pain associated wi th delivery? a. Teach deep breathing to reduce muscle tension. b. Teach visual imagery focusing on pleasant scenes or experiences. c. Teach a “coach” to attend to mother and help her cope with pain. *d. Teach that medications are the first rank of pain intervention in the delivery r oom. 107. For healthy pregnant women, when a trained healthcare professional is present to assist, *a. home delivery can feel more relaxing than hospital delivery. b. hospital delivery is much safer than home delivery. c. home delivery is safer than hospital delivery. d. the home delivery versus hospital delivery risk factors are unknown. 108. Postpartum depression a. occurs in about 50 percent of new mothers. b. is more common following planned pregnancies than unplanned pregnancies. c. is a purely psychological phenomenon (i.e., has no physiological basis). *d. may be reduced via breast-feeding. 109. After learning that his newborn son’s birth involved hypoxia, Sven (a knowledgeable nurse) would most likely ask, a. “How long until my wife’s scar heals?” *b. “How long was the baby not receiving adequate oxygen during the birthing pr ocess?” c. “Did the cervix ever dilate?” d. “Is such a premature birth normal?” 110. A Cesarean section is best thought of as a. vaginal childbirth. b. a technique for determining possible birth defects in an embryo. c. a common form of teratogen. *d. the surgical removal of a fetus. 111. Mona has decided to have a Cesarean section rather than a vaginal delivery. While this decision will reduce some risks, it will increase the risk of a. hypoxia. b. spina bifida. *c. maternal infection. d. low birth weight. 112. By definition, premature infants are born prior to weeks after conception. a. 42 b. 40 c. 38 *d. 36 113. The cutoff between normal and low birth weight is about pounds. a. 7.7 *b. 5.5 c. 3.3 d. 2.2 114. Because her birth weight was 1200 grams (about 3 pounds), Kia would be correctly classified as having a(n) birth weight. a. normal b. low *c. very low d. extremely low 115. Born 39 weeks after conception, Sasha weighs in at around 2 pounds. Given this i nformation, Sasha is best defined as a. full-term and normal birth weight. b. preterm and normal birth weight. c. preterm and very low birth weight. *d. full-term and extremely low birth weight. 116. Jamal was born 34 weeks after he was conceived and weighed 6 pounds. Jamal is best described as a. full-term and normal birth weight. *b. preterm and normal birth weight. c. full-term and low birth weight. d. preterm and low birth weight. 117. Longitudinal research on Hawaiian children indicated that problems associated wit h low birth weight a. were typically lifelong. b. had no impact on social or cognitive abilities. c. were only found in males. *d. could be overcome if the child was raised in a stable family environment. 118. Infant mortality rate is defined as the percentage of infants who die a. before birth. b. during birth. *c. before their first birthday. d. before their second birthday. 119. Which parent should most realistically fear her child dying before reaching their firs t birthday? *a. Alfie, who is in Afghanistan b. Charleene, who is in the Czech Republic c. Fran, who is in Finland d. Jen, who is in Japan 120. Low birth weight can most effectively be prevented through *a. regular prenatal care. b. avoiding teratogens. c. maternal inoculations. d. chorionic villus sampling. 121. A typical fertilized egg contains a total of 22 pairs of chromosom es. a. True *b. False 122. Your phenotype includes physical, psychological, and behavioral fe atures. *a. True b. False 123. When the chromosomes in a pair are the same, they are said to be h eterozygous. a. True *b. False 124. While characterized as a progressive and fatal disorder, symptoms of Huntington’s disease can be eliminated through a special diet. a. True *b. False 125. Monozygotic twins come from a single egg. *a. True b. False 126. A heritability coefficient is used to calculate the extent to whic h a characteristic is the result of genetics. *a. True b. False 127. Nonshared environmental influences tend to make siblings in a fami ly more similar to each other. a. True *b. False 128. The correct order of prenatal development is zygote to embryo to f etus. *a. True b. False 129. Implantation occurs when the zygote burrows into the placenta. a. True *b. False 130. Hair and skin originally develops in the ectoderm layer of a zygot e. *a. True b. False 131. The embryo is connected to the uterus via the fallopian tube. a. True *b. False 132. The period of the fetus is the longest period of prenatal developm ent. *a. True b. False 133. The modern age of viability begins at 16 weeks. a. True *b. False 134. Pregnant women who fail to consume enough vitamin A are at risk fo r giving birth to a baby with spina bifida. a. True *b. False 135. Common symptoms of s spectrum disorder (FASD) include facial defor mities, deafness, and intellectual disability (formally known as mental retardation). a. True *b. False 136. Damage from teratogens is sometimes not evident until later in lif e. *a. True b. False 137. An ultrasound uses sound waves to create an image of a fetus. *a. True b. False 138. Research has demonstrated that childbirth techniques designed to r educe pain during labor do not work. a. True *b. False 139. The condition of hypoxia involves a reduction in the flow of oxyge n to the brain. *a. True b. False 140. Cephalocaudal development proceeds from your extremities toward yo ur body. a. True *b. False 141. The first 22 pairs of chromosomes are called . Correct Answer(s): a. autosomes 142. DNA is short for acid. Correct Answer(s): a. deoxyribonucleic 143. A(n) allele is ignored when it is combined with a dominant allele. Correct Answer(s): a. recessive 144. An individual with phenylketonuria is born without a key enzyme r equired for normal development. Correct Answer(s): a. liver 145. A new genetic disorder called “ HARID disease is found to involve heterozygous alle les, is recessive, and is characterized by incomplete dominance. Discuss the implication s of this description concerning the inheritance of this disorder. 146. Discuss the relationship between genotype and phenotype. Provide an example of each to support your analysis. 147. Down syndrome and Turner’s syndrome are two genetic disorders that involve abno rmal chromosomes. Identify the exact chromosomal aberration and the impact of the abe rration on development for each syndrome. 148. Jen is 20 years old, pregnant, and eats well, but she is under a lot of prolonged, ex treme stress. Her friend Angelina, who is also pregnant, is 42 years old and has a very p oor diet, but is under little stress. What prediction could you make concerning the postbir th health of each of these women’s babies? 149. Identify one disease, one drug, and an environmental hazard that is known to nega tively impact prenatal development. Be sure to describe the specific impact of each terat ogen. 150. Alisha is in for her weekly prenatal check-up. Her OB/GYN physician is going over s ome potential environmental threats to her baby. Describe any three principles the doctor might discuss with Alisha that govern how teratogens could affect her baby’s developmen t. 151. Beth is 12 weeks pregnant and concerned that her fetus may have a genetic disord er. Describe two techniques that a physician could use to determine whether Beth’s conc erns are warranted. Also, discuss how fetal therapy could be used to deal with a disorder if one is identified. 152. Describe the three basic stages of childbirth in terms of time, purpose, and sympto ms. 153. Your friend Min Yan is currently pregnant and attempting to learn about common bi rth complications and/or whether or not homebirth is a good option for her. She is 25 ye ars old, in good health, and expecting her first child. Help her by first describing two birth complications and then discuss why a home delivery may be a viable option in her case. 154. Length of gestation (i.e., number of weeks in utero) and weight at birth are both rel ated to birth risk. Demonstrate your awareness of key related concepts by discussing the concepts of prematurity, low birth weight, and extremely low birth weight. 155. Describe why in vitro fertilization and eugenics represent controversial issues in hu man development. 1. A is best described as any unlearned response triggered by a specific for m of stimulation. *a. reflex b. thought c. theory of mind d. memory 2. Cody slips his little finger into the hand of his newborn infant, who immediatel y grasps onto it. The infant is exhibiting the reflex. a. Moro b. stepping c. rooting *d. Palmar 3. If you were going to check for the Babinski reflex in a newborn, which part of th e newborn’s body would you be observing? a. Eyes b. Arms c. Mouth *d. Toes 4. Two-month-old Chucky does not exhibit the Moro reflex. What kind of problem will he most likely exhibit? a. He will be less able to grasp objects. b. He will be less able to eat. *c. He will be less able to cling to his mother. d. His eyes will not be well protected. 5. Winchester notices that every time he touches his newborn son’s cheek, the in fant turns his head and tries to suck. This behavior demonstrates the reflex. a. withdrawal b. Moro *c. rooting d. Babinski 6. Dr. Gribble has completed an Apgar assessment of newborn baby boy Noah. Noah’s father is informed by Dr. Gribble that the Apgar assessment score is a 7. As a person who understands the scoring system, he would most likely a. panic, as this may indicate that his son is in a life-threatening state an d needs immediate medical attention. b. be somewhat concerned, as this score would indicate at least some mi nor distress. *c. be very happy, as a 7 indicates a baby in good physical condition. d. be confused, as Apgar scores must fall between -1.0 and +1.0. 7. In order to assess newborn June with the NBAS, Dr. Lee is determining how lo ng she stays awake. Which system is Dr. Lee assessing? a. Social *b. State c. Motor d. Autonomic 8. Two-month-old Mulan is lying quietly with her eyes wide open and appears very interested in a toy dangling in front of her face. Mulan is exhibiting *a. alert inactivity. b. crying. c. waking activity. d. nonREM sleep. 9. Amanda’s baby is awake and squirming around, oblivious to anything happenin g around her. Amanda’s baby is most likely in the state. a. alert inactivity b. crying *c. waking activity d. REM 10. Newborn crying typically involves a. agitation and coordinated movements. b. calm and coordinated movement. *c. agitation and uncoordinated movements. d. calm and uncoordinated movement. 11. Five-day-old Max has his eyes closed and a breathing pattern that alternates between regularity and irregularity. This indicates that he is currently in the n ewborn state. a. alert inactivity b. waking activity c. crying *d. sleeping 12. Pain cries can usually be differentiated from basic or mad cries by their a. intensity. *b. sudden onset. c. time of occurrence. d. relationship to REM. 13. Experts define a mad cry as a a. less intense version of a pain cry. b. more intense version of a pain cry. c. less intense version of a basic cry. *d. more intense version of a basic cry. 14. What differentiates a basic cry from a mad cry? *a. Mad cries are more intense. b. Basic cries are more intense. c. Mad cries have a more sudden onset. d. Basic cries have a more sudden onset. 15. Lucia swaddles her baby in a blanket.. Luciaa is probably trying to a. stimulate the intellectual skills of her baby. b. prevent alert inactivity. c. prevent waking activity. *d. get her baby to stop crying. 16. A friend hears that you are in a developmental psychology course and asks y ou how long his newborn daughter is supposed to sleep. Being a very bright stude nt, you would give the correct answer of a. “8-10 hours a day.” *b. “16-18 hours a day.” c. “12-14 hours a day.” d. “20-22 hours a day.” 17. Which statement concerning co-sleeping is accurate? a. It is most effective in cultures that value child self-reliance. *b. It can facilitate breastfeeding. c. It seems to negatively affect child-parent bonding. d. It is done exclusively with mom. 18. Three-week-old Lux is in a sleep state characterized by arm movements and grimaces. This would suggest that Lux is in sleep. *a. rapid-eye-movement (REM) b. regular c. nonREM d. alert inactivity 19. Benji is a 4-year-old who has a very difficult time falling asleep at night. Accor ding to the textbook, what is the best remedy for this problem? a. Make sure that Benji eats something soothing before going to bed. b. Keep Benji up later to make sure he’s tired before going to bed. c. Engage Benji in rigorous exercise immediately before bedtime to make sure he’s tired before going to bed. *d. Develop a regular bedtime routine. 20. Who is at greatest risk of falling victim to sudden infant death syndrome? *a. Someone who is 3 months old b. Someone who is 9 months old c. Someone who is 2 years old d. Someone who is 5 years old 21. The “Back to Sleep” campaign was aimed at reducing *a. SIDS. b. nightmares. c. co-sleeping. d. malnutrition. 22. Why are African American and Native American babies more likely to die from SIDS? a. Possibly because theyhey are more genetically predisposed to the dise ase. b. They are more likely to have blood diseases that predispose them to SI DS. c. Their parents are more likely to co-sleep with the baby. *d. Possibly because they are more likely to be put to bed on their stomac hs. 23. Dr. Ramone is interested in studying how babies are different in terms of thei r behavior toward other people, how energetic they are, and how easily they are u pset. It is most likely that Dr. Ramone is studying a. SIDS. *b. temperament. c. theory of mind. d. waking activity. 24. While doing a study of temperament, Dr. Taylor is studying how toddlers react when toys they are playing with are removed from their reach and placed on a hig h shelf. What dimension of temperament is Dr. Taylor most likely assessing? a. Activity level b. Persistence c. Inhibition *d. Negative affect 25. Carla is researching temperament by determining the extent to which different babies can fo cus attention and not be distracted. Which dimension of temperament is Carla assessing? a. Negative affect *b. Effortful control c. Inhibition d. Persistence 26. Even though he is only 20 days old, Cherokee appears to be very happy and v ocal around other people. How would a theorist use the concept of temperament t o explain his behavior? a. A temperament theorist would argue that Cherokee is high in activity lev el. b. A temperament theorist would argue that Cherokee is high in negative a ffect. *c. A temperament theorist would argue that Cherokee is high in surgency /extraversion. d. Temperament theory cannot explain his behavior. 27. Julio and Kari are babies who are the same age but very different from each other. Julio has the ability to focus his attention on a task, while Kari is very easily distracted. Julio and Kari diffe r on which dimension of temperament? a. Activity b. Negative affect *c. Effortful control d. Surgency 28. Which statement regarding temperament is false? a. Toddlers in Asia often have lower levels of positive emotion. b. Toddlers in Asia often have more effortful control. *c. Toddlers in Asia often have less effortful control. d. The confidence level of mothers is related to temperament. 29. If Zade is shy when he is 2 years old, he is more likely to be when he is 4 years old. a. highly sociable b. happy c. argumentative *d. shy 30. Maria is a typical healthy 1-year-old who weighs 24 pounds. Which is the bes t estimate of her birth weight? a. 4 pounds *b. 8 pounds c. 12 pounds d. 16 pounds 31. Siroun is informed that both of her 1-year-old twin daughters are of “normal” weight. She is then informed that one weighs 16 pounds and the other weighs 26 pounds. How is this possible? a. One of the twins likely has Down syndrome. b. The daughters were likely misweighed. *c. The “normal” weight range of 1-year-olds is very wide. d. The initial “normal” information was incorrect. 32. Which person is most likely experiencing the most rapid physical growth? *a. Jose, who is 18 months old b. Sean, who is 6 years old c. Rudolf, who is just reaching puberty d. Elias, who is 19 years old 33. Which child is most likely to be the shortest? a. Kristin, who has a tall father and a short mother b. Megan, who has a short father and a tall mother c. Kara, who has a tall mother and a tall father *d. Melissa, who has a short father and a short mother 34. If a baby is breastfed, it is more likely to *a. transition to solid food more easily. b. be constipated. c. be ill. d. be exposed to contaminants. 35. Which piece of advice is most appropriate for individuals in developing nation s who are considering bottle-feeding? *a. Be careful, as the water used to prepare formula is often contaminate d. b. Go for it, as there are very few risks associated with bottle-feeding. c. Great choice, as bottle-feeding is associated with less malnutrition. d. It doesn’t matter whether you breastfeed or bottle-feed, as each techni que impacts the child in an identical manner. 36. UNICEF, WHO, and The World Bank (2016) collectively estimate that about on e in children under age 5 suffers from malnutrition. *a. four b. six c. eight d. ten 37. What criterion is used to indicate malnourishment in children under age 5? a. Mental retardation b. Lack of motor skills *c. Small size d. Large head 38. Malnutrition seems to be most damaging if it occurs during a. adulthood. b. childhood. c. adolescence. *d. infancy. 39. Along with an improved diet, research indicates that is also necessary t o foster a malnourished child’s development. a. surgery *b. parent training c. behavior modification d. medication 40. Yvette is a malnourished child. If her parents are typical, they will probably a. become upset with Yvette’s hyperactivity. *b. interact less with Yvette because she is so lethargic. c. take more responsibility for making sure Yvette grows socially and psyc hologically. d. stop trying to feed Yvette. 41. Transmitter is to receiver as a. dendrite is to cell body. *b. axon is to dendrite. c. dendrite is to axon. d. cell body is to axon. 42. Terminal buttons are located on which part of a neuron? a. The end of the dendrite b. Cell body c. Neurotransmitter *d. The end of the axon 43. Where are neurotransmitters stored until they are released? *a. Terminal buttons b. Cell bodies c. Myelin d. The neural plate 44. Each neuron contains many but only one . a. dendrites; terminal button *b. dendrites; cell body c. terminal buttons; dendrite d. cell bodies; dendrite 45. As a result of surgery, Graeme’s left and right cerebral hemispheres are no lo nger connected. Which part of Graeme’s brain was most likely the focus of the sur gery? a. The cerebral cortex b. The dendrites c. The frontal cortex *d. The corpus callosum 46. Sheila is recovering from a serious stroke that damaged her frontal cortex. W hich outcome is most likely? a. Sheila’s left hemisphere will no longer be able to communicate with her right hemisphere. b. Sheila will have a difficult time breathing and seeing. *c. Sheila’s personality will be different. d. Sheila will have no more axons. 47. Which item is least associated with the frontal cortex? a. Sadness *b. Vision c. Happiness d. Planning 48. While viewing a picture of a 3-week-old embryo, Dr. Pecoraro points to somet hing and says, “This flat structure will soon become a tube from which the brain a nd spinal cord will develop.” Dr. Pecoraro is pointing at *a. the neural plate. b. the corpus callosum. c. the frontal cortex. d. an axon. 49. The neural plate ultimately forms the *a. brain and spinal cord. b. spinal cord and the nervous system. c. nervous system and the skull. d. skull and the brain. 50. Prior to birth, all layers of the major brain are formed. *a. 6 b. 60 c. 600 d. 6,000 51. is (are) a fatty substance that surrounds the axon of a neuron. a. The corpus callosum b. The neural plate c. Cones *d. Myelin 52. Which best describes the impact of myelin on a neuron? a. It increases the number of dendrites it produces. *b. It helps speed neural transmission. c. It prevents synaptic pruning. d. It enhances action in the terminal buttons. 53. Whose brain is most likely to have the most synapses? a. Jerry, who is a newborn *b. Elaine, who is 1 year old c. Kramer, who is 7 years old d. George, who is 14 years old 54. While observing brain activity, Dr. Ogama proclaims, “This brain is definitely e xperiencing a downsizing in the number of connections between neurons.” This in dicates that the brain Dr. Ogama is studying is undergoing *a. synaptic pruning. b. motion parallax. c. cephalocaudal development. d. dendritic expansion. 55. If Nurse Ratched indicates that the procedure that is about to be performed o n infant Ramon involves the use of metal electrodes, you would expect that the pr ocedure is a(n) a. amniocentesis. b. functional magnetic resonance imaging. c. Apgar. *d. electroencephalogram. 56. Gina is studying how blood flows through the brain when people listen to diffe rent kinds of music. Which sort of research tool is she most likely using in her stu dy? a. Electroencephalography b. Positron emission tomography *c. Functional magnetic resonance imaging d. Synaptic pruning 57. Your psychology professor asks you to assist her in her experiment. She is st udying brain activity by monitoring blood flow to different areas of the brain. This i ndicates that your professor is most likely using in her study. a. an electroencephalogram *b. functional magnetic resonance imaging c. a visual cliff d. a neural plate 58. During an experiment, you record the brain activity of a child using an EEG. A s a result of reading your text, you would predict that the left hemisphere would ex hibit the most electrical activity when the child is a. looking at different faces. *b. listening to someone talk. c. recognizing that her mother is angry. d. pushing a toy over her bed. 59. Rory works with people who have suffered brain damage, helping them as the y try to use different areas of the brain to perform the functions previously perfor med by the now-damaged areas. Rory’s specialty would be best described as *a. brain plasticity. b. synaptic pruning. c. neural plate studies. d. motor skills. 60. Which phenomenon is the best argument against the notion that the organiza tion of the brain is predetermined genetically? a. Synaptic pruning b. Development of the neural plate c. The left hemisphere specializing in language processing *d. Brain plasticity 61. The fact that brain wiring is organized by experiences common to humans is r eferred to as a. altered inactivity. b. experience-dependent growth. *c. experience-expectant growth. d. waking activity. 62. Which best exemplifies experience-expectant growth? *a. The fact that all infants hear language sounds, which leads to languag e development b. The fact that eating high-fat foods leads to obesity c. The fact that abused children often experience depression d. The fact that by age 2, most children are about three feet tall 63. How would 12-month-old Kenley locomote? a. She would say her first word. *b. She would crawl around the room. c. She would cry when touching something hot. d. She would display eye movement while sleeping. 64. Bridget is excellent at walking, running, climbing, and kicking balls. This woul d suggest that Bridget has good a. neuroplasticity. *b. motor skills. c. temperament. d. sociability. 65. What would be the best example of a fine motor skill? a. Crawling *b. Feeding yourself with a spoon c. Running in a race d. Climbing to the top of a large hill 66. Parker is a typical 7-month-old. In terms of locomotion, the best he is able to do is to a. creep. b. walk. *c. sit alone. d. roll from back to front. 67. Naomi, who has not seen her niece Wynonna since she was born, is surprise d to see the 12-month-old standing upright and taking a few steps. In view of this accomplishment, Naomi realizes that Wynonna is now considered a(n) a. neonate. b. infant. *c. toddler. d. preschooler. 68. Twelve-month-old Callum is barely able to walk a few steps before losing his balance and falling down. What is the term that best describes Callum’s current a bility to move around? a. Neuroplasticity b. Fine motor skills c. Differentiation *d. Toddling 69. If Tori is a proponent of dynamic systems theory, then you know that she is most interested in a. the cerebral cortex. *b. crawling and stepping. c. language development. d. temperament. 70. Studies of infant stepping behavior on a treadmill demonstrated that *a. the pattern of alternating of steps on each leg precedes the ability to walk. b. even very young infants can walk without assistance. c. infants cannot judge the speed of movement of a moving object (e.g., t he treadmill). d. infants will refuse to attempt to walk if held upright. 71. Infants are more likely to cross a bridge when it is wide and has a rigid handr ail than when it is narrow and has a wobbly handrail.Which statement best explain s this behavior? a. Infants use cues in the environment to judge whether a surface is suita ble for walking. b. Infants use integration to judge whether a surface is suitable for walkin g. *c. Infants use differentiation to judge whether a surface is suitable for w alking. d. Infants use retinal disparity to judge whether a surface is suitable for w alking. 72. Which is the best example of differentiation? a. Jimmy’s legs have matured to the point where he is capable of walking. *b. Tommy learns how to grasp a spoon before he can successfully use it to eat. c. Lisa combines reaching, grasping, and wrist rotation and successfully u ses a spoon to eat. d. Rebecca learns how to swim before she learns to walk. 73. Tomomi has mastered balancing, stepping, and the perceptual skills necessa ry to negotiate her way around. Putting all these skills together to enable her to w alk is a process called *a. integration. b. differentiation. c. retinal disparity. d. perception. 74. In an effort to lower the age at which his infant son will begin to walk, Mr. Si mmons puts eight-month-old Richard on a program that emphasizes leg strength. What is the most likely outcome of this intervention? a. It will have no impact. b. Richard will have superior leg strength but will not walk any earlier. c. Richard will have average leg strength but will not walk any earlier. *d. Richard will have superior leg strength and will walk earlier. 75. Which statement concerning culture and crawling is true? a. Most North American children are crawling at much younger ages than i n past decades. b. There are no known cultures that discourage motor development. c. Because it is genetically programmed, experience does not impact the r ate of the acquisition of crawling. *d. In some traditional African cultures, children receive training to sit and walk at younger ages than in Europe and North America. 76. Caleb is 4 months old. If he is like others his age, when he grasps a rattle, h e will grasp it with a. his fingers and thumb. b. his thumb only. *c. his fingers only. d. one finger from each hand. 77. Although they are often unsuccessful in getting the food into their mouths, m any children first begin to experiment with finger foods around age a. 2 months. *b. 6 months. c. 10 months. d. 14 months. 78. Because Akosua is a typical 9-month-old, she is most likely to use a. her right hand. b. her left hand. *c. her right and left hands interchangeably. d. her feet rather than her hands. 79. What response would you expect if you attempted to hand toys to a typical 1 3-month-old infant? a. They would kick at the object before attempting to grasp it. b. They would first grasp the object with their left hand. *c. They would first grasp the object with their right hand. d. They would make no attempt to grasp the object. 80. Stewart is a 10-year-old boy growing up in England, and Moe is a 10-year-old boy growing up in the United States. What difference in handedness would you ex pect? a. It is most likely that Stewart is right-handed and Moe is left-handed. b. It is most likely that Stewart is left-handed and Moe is right-handed. *c. Both are likely to be right-handed. d. Both are likely to be left-handed. 81. What is the best evidence for the notion that sociocultural forces play a role i n handedness? a. Only 10 percent of the population is left-handed. b. Right-handed parents tend to have right-handed offspring. *c. When societal attitudes change, the incidence of left-handedness cha nges. d. In American culture, most desks and scissors and golf clubs are made f or right-handers. 82. The process by which the brain receives, selects, modifies, and organizes inc oming nerve impulses is referred to as *a. perception. b. sensation. c. imagination. d. expansion. 83. Which best describes a newborn’s sense of smell? *a. Highly developed b. Crude but effective c. Exists but is not very useful d. Nonexistent 84. Goldie offers her 10-day-old daughter, Kate, a taste of some juices she is sa mpling in the grocery store. Based on the fact that Kate is a typical infant, you wo uld suspect that Kate preferred a. bitter to sweet and sour tastes. b. sour to sweet and bitter tastes. *c. sweet to bitter and sour tastes. d. bitter and sour tastes to sweet. 85. The Babinski reflex is evidence that infants a. can smell. b. are able to hear low-pitched sounds. c. experience pain. *d. perceive touch. 86. Nathan suddenly lets out a high-pitched cry, lowers his eyebrows, and purses his lips. You would be safest in assuming that Nathan is a. happy. b. cold. *c. experiencing pain. d. playing peek-a-boo. 87. Infants a. cannot experience pain. b. don’t react to pain-inducing stimuli. *c. produce a distinct “pain cry.” d. are much more sensitive to pain than teenagers. 88. How would you respond to an expectant mother who claims that her 8-month- old fetus gets excited every time her unusually loud cellphone plays a custom ring tone of her recorded voice? *a. “You may be correct, because by that age, the fetus may actually be h earing your voice.” b. “It is likely gas, since fetuses can’t hear until they are out of the womb.” c. “If what you say is true, you are likely carrying a female because they de velop a sense of hearing before males.” d. “Since fetuses have no memory, there is no way they would only respon d to a specific phrase.” 89. Infants tend to be able to a. hear tones lower than the human speech range better than adults. b. hear tones higher than the human speech range better than adults. *c. pick out a sound from background noise, though not as skillfully as ad ults. d. all of these are correct 90. Marcie sings the same lullaby to her infant son every night because she belie ves he has learned to recognize it. Does recent research support her claim? a. No. Her son may recognize her voice, but not a particular song. b. No. Research indicates he would not recognize Marcie’s voice or the so ng she’s singing. *c. Yes. Her son would be able to recognize a particular lullaby. d. Yes. But only if her child is genetically predisposed to excel in music. 91. Traditional eye tests in which a person is shown a chart with a set of letters i n a line that gets progressively smaller near the bottom of the chart are designed to directly assess *a. visual acuity. b. depth perception. c. color blindness. d. field of vision. 92. Dr. Quillan is measuring the point at which an infant can no longer differentia te between a striped-patterned stimulus and a gray square. Dr. Quillan is probably attempting to measure the infant’s a. depth perception. b. retinal disparity. *c. visual acuity. d. ability to perceive different pitches. 93. Which approach is used to help researchers assess infants’ visual acuity? a. Multi-colored objects b. Solid colored objects *c. Striped objects d. Moving objects 94. Dr. Snellen is planning a demonstration on infant visual perception for her de velopmental psychology class. In order to demonstrate the sharpness of an infant’ s vision at 20 feet, Dr. Snellen should have students look at an object about feet away. *a. 200–400 b. 100–150 c. 40–50 d. 15–20 95. Which child’s visual acuity would have most recently matched that of an adult with 20/20 vision? a. John., who is 1 month old *b. George, who is 1 year old c. Paul, who is 3 years old d. Pete, who is 6 years old 96. Bruce and Kaitlin are expecting a baby girl, and are shopping for decorations for the nursery. Kaitlin is concerned about making sure that they buy colored deco rations that will stimulate their newborn daughter’s *a. cones. b. rods. c. kinetic cues. d. retinal disparity. 97. Newborns a. are incapable of perceiving color. *b. can perceive few colors. c. can perceive color as well as adults. d. can perceive more colors than most adults. 98. About how old will an infant be when it can perceive the same colors adults p erceive? a. 2 weeks old *b. 4 months old c. 1 year old d. 6 years old 99. After a one-year checkup, your physician comments, “There has been virtually no development of the cones in your daughter’s visual system.” What impact woul d this have? a. Your daughter would be blind. b. Your daughter would have no depth perception. c. Your daughter would have trouble tracking moving objects. *d. Your daughter would have difficulty distinguishing colors. 100. Dr. Helmholtz is studying the sensing of color by researching the structure a nd development of cones. Where does she need to look to find these structures? *a. The retina of the eye b. The frontal lobes of the brain c. The rear lobes of the brain d. The pupil of the eye 101. What infant response did Gibson and Walk (1960) measure in their visual cli ff research? *a. Heart rate b. Visual acuity c. Muscle tone d. Visual fixation 102. You are being placed on a large piece of glass with a checkerboard-patterne d platform underneath it. Your mother walks to the other side of this platform and calls for you to crawl to her. Many years later, you will discover that this was all p art of an experiment to test your a. visual acuity. b. ability to recognize your mother. c. motor development. *d. depth perception. 103. A visual cliff is designed to assess a. gross-motor skills. b. rapid eye movement. c. cone development. *d. depth perception. 104. When Mia uses motion to determine the depth of an object, she is using a _ cue. a. pictorial b. retinal disparity *c. kinetic d. visual expansion 105. Ichiro’s mother is trying to teach him how to catch a ball. As the ball approa ches Ichiro, it takes up more and more space on Ichiro’s retinas. Ichiro perceives the change in size to mean that the ball is getting closer to him rather than percei ving it to mean the ball is getting larger. Which term does the best job of describin g this phenomenon? a. Texture gradient b. Linear perspective c. Motion parallax *d. Visual expansion 106. If asked to identify a kinetic cue to depth, you should say, *a. “visual expansion.” b. “retinal disparity.” c. “linear perspective.” d. “experience-expectancy.” 107. A judgment of depth using motion parallax relies heavily on the of an o bject. a. color *b. speed c. size d. shape 108. Which 1-year-old would not be able to utilize binocular disparity to perceive depth? a. Bingo, who was born color blind *b. Bango, who was born blind in one eye c. Bongo, who was born one month premature d. Irving, who has the acuity of a typical six-month-old 109. If the image of a person is identical on the retinas of a child, but the image of a dog is much different on the left retina than it is on the right, this means that the child will perceive the *a. dog to be closer than the person. b. person to be closer than the dog. c. person and the dog to be very close. d. person and the dog to be far away. 110. Which is considered a pictorial cue to depth? a. Visual expansion *b. Texture gradient c. Retinal disparity d. Motion parallax 111. Wendell can tell that the trees on the mountain are very far away, because r ather than being able to see individual trees and the spaces between them, he ju st perceives a big green patch. Which depth cue best describes this? a. Linear perspective b. Visual expansion *c. Texture gradient d. Motion parallax 112. Gina perceives the car to be far away because the sides of the road upon w hich it is moving seem to come together to be no wider than the car itself. This is an example of the cue to depth. a. visual acuity b. texture gradient c. retinal disparity *d. linear perspective 113. Recent research indicates that newborns have a natural attraction for tracki ng *a. a moving face. b. all face-like stimuli. c. only the faces of their biological mothers. d. faces of certain types of animals (e.g., dogs, cats). 114. The fact that 6-month-olds will look for long periods of time at toys they prev iously had only been able to touch suggests that infants a. demonstrate visual acuity. b. demonstrate the use of retinal disparity. *c. are able to integrate visual and tactile information. d. cannot integrate tactile sensations as readily as auditory sensations. 115. What is an example of intersensory redundancy? a. Noticing the shirt your mother is wearing while listening to a portable C D player *b. Observing your mother while listening to her talk c. Brushing your mother’s hair while you talk to her d. Listening to several voices at the same time 116. The fact that an infant’s perception of a stimulus is best if it stimulates mor e than one sense simultaneously is best described as a. SIDS. b. differentiation. *c. intersensory redundancy. d. theory of mind. 117. Nou Ka is putting red marks on the noses of infants and placing them in fro nt of a mirror to see how they respond. What is Nou Ka most likely researching? a. Visual acuity b. Motional parallax *c. Self-awareness d. Retinal disparity 118. Evan is a normal subject in a self-awareness study who has just begun to re cognize himself in mirrors and pictures. It is most likely that Evan is about ol d. a. 3 months b. 6 months c. 12 months *d. 18 months 119. If Donna is a normal 3-year-old, her definition of herself will consist largely o f her a. beliefs. b. feelings. c. family. *d. possessions. 120. At about the age of 4, children begin to realize that a person’s actions are of ten connected to the thoughts that he or she has. What kind of task is often used to determine when children grasp this concept? a. Intersensory redundancy tasks b. Synaptic pruning tasks c. Dynamic systems theory tasks *d. False-belief tasks 121. Jeffrey is a 3-year-old diagnosed with Autism Spectrum Disorder who does n ot make connections between people’s thoughts, intentions, and behaviors. Jeffer y may be experiencing *a. mindblindness b. temper blindness c. color blindness. d. inattentional blindness. 122. Reflexes are learned responses. a. True *b. False 123. Waking activity means that a baby is awake, calm, and attentive. a. True *b. False 124. Infant crying is typically accompanied by agitated and uncoordinat ed movement. *a. True b. False 125. A mad cry is a more intense version of a basic cry. *a. True b. False 126. Co-sleeping tends to be more common in cultures who value interdep endence. *a. True b. False 127. REM sleep becomes significantly more common between birth and age 2 years. a. True *b. False 128. Encouraging parents to have newborns sleep on their backs has led to a significant reduction in the incidence of sudden infant death synd rome. *a. True b. False 129. A child with high effortful control is able to maintain focus and is less distractible. *a. True b. False 130. Infants typically triple their body weight by the time of their fi rst birthday. *a. True b. False 131. Breastfed babies are ill less often than bottle-fed babies. *a. True b. False 132. Body size is the key determinate of malnutrition in infancy. *a. True b. False 133. Synaptic pruning significantly increases the number of neural conn ections in the brain. a. True *b. False 134. The neural plate develops into the brain and spinal cord. *a. True b. False 135. Experience does not influence brain development. a. True *b. False 136. To locomote means to move. *a. True b. False 137. According to dynamic systems theory, once motor skills are origina lly organized, they do not change. a. True *b. False 138. In some traditional African cultures, children receive training to sit and walk at younger ages than in Europe and North America. *a. True b. False 139. Of all the senses, the sense of smell is probably the least develo ped in infants. a. True *b. False 140. The fact that coarser objects are perceived as further away than m ore solid objects forms the basis of the concept of linear perspective. a. True *b. False 141. Between the ages of 2 and 5, children develop a theory of mind; ho wever, many children with autism spectrum disorder may be experiencing mindblindness. *a. True b. False 142. Compare and contrast the Babinski and Moro reflexive responses. 143. Bruce and Wayne are twins. They are both assessed with Rothbart’s three dimensi ons of temperament. Bruce scored low on surgency/extroversion and Wayne scored high. Bruce scored low on negative affect and Wayne scored high. Bruce scored high on effortf ul control and Wayne scored low. Given this information, how would you describe the char acteristics displayed by each of the twins.? 144. The debate between bottle-feeding and breastfeeding has raged for decades. Desc ribe the advantages and disadvantages of each of the options. 145. Describe changes in the physiology of the brain during the first year of a baby’s life. 146. Describe how the seemingly contrary concepts of brain plasticity and synaptic pruni ng are both beneficial to development. 147. Use differentiation and integration in describing how an infant might learn to walk. 148. Describe early motor skill development by focusing on the topics of grasping and h andedness. 149. Describe the notion of intersensory redundancy. How might knowledge of this be u seful to the parent of a new infant? 150. Describe how developmental psychologists determine whether infants have a sens e of self. 151. Describe Wellman’s phases of theory of mind and provide an example that illustrat es the behaviors associated with each phase. 1. Piaget described a scheme as a psychological structure that *a. organizes experience. b. is used in language but not thought. c. we lose as we age. d. is only found in those with a set of personal values. 2. Between early and later childhood, schemes tend to have more propertie s. a. functional b. conceptual c. object-based *d. abstract 3. Piaget used the term to describe the process by which new experiences are easily incorporated into existing schemes. a. accommodation b. scaffolding *c. assimilation d. secondary 4. Nolan has a scheme for throwing baseballs that he can apply successfully to t hrowing small rocks or other types of balls. This successful application would bes t be described as *a. assimilation. b. animism. c. accommodation. d. egocentrism. 5. Sylvester has just learned how to pick up his cat named Chester, who likes to be picked up and does not put up any struggle. Later, Sylvester tries to pick up an other cat named Thai, who scratches when held. The fact that Sylvester learns to leave Thai alone after he has been scratched provides a good example of a. animism. b. habituation. c. centration. *d. accommodation. 6. Salvador has a scheme for drawing with a crayon that had to be changed in or der to learn how to paint a picture with a brush. This adaptation is an example of a. animism. b. egocentrism. c. assimilation. *d. accommodation. 7. Piaget saw equilibration as a balance between a. primary and secondary circular reactions. *b. assimilation and accommodation. c. thought and language. d. social and cognitive skills. 8. To overcome a state of disequilibrium, a child must a. engage in hypothetical deductive reasoning. b. become more egocentric. *c. reorganize his or her schemes. d. develop a strong orienting response. 9. When first attempting to learn English as a second language, Olga spent a gre at deal of time converting similar English sounds into Russian equivalents. Later, she spent more time generating new, non-Russian language ideas. Piaget would d escribe this change as involving *a. equilibration. b. the one-to-one principle. c. habituation. d. implosion. 10. Dr. Eco has a strong belief that global warming is a theoretical myth. In recen t years, however, the increased rate of polar ice cap melt has forced him to alter his theory, and he is now a strong advocate against greenhouse pollutants. A Piag etian would most likely describe Dr. Eco’s theoretical conversion in terms of a. the one-to-one principle. b. overextension. *c. equilibration. d. abstract thinking. 11. According to Piaget, which statement is true regarding the stages of thinking? a. Sensorimotor and preoperational thinking must be completed before th e concrete operational stage, but not before formal operational thinking. b. Sensorimotor and preoperational thinking must be completed before th e formal operational stage, but not before concrete operational thinking. c. Thinking alternates between stages throughout development. *d. All stages must be accomplished in the correct order. 12. Bob is a normally developing 18-month-old. According to Piaget, Bob is most likely in the period of cognitive development. a. formal operational *b. sensorimotor c. concrete operational d. preoperational 13. Piaget argued that the first reactions by newborns were a. indicators of an innate understanding of appearance as reality. b. abstract. c. indicators of an innate understanding of object permanence. *d. reflexive. 14. Piagetians believe that an average child would first demonstrate the onset of intentional behavior when he or she is approximately a. 18 hours old. b. 8 weeks old. *c. 8 months old. d. 18 months old. 15. Baby Lee has just discovered that banging on a big pot produces a loud soun d. He then decides to bang on a small pot to see what happens. A Piagetian woul d predict that such active experimentation with the environment would be most lik ely to first emerge in a child who is a. 24 hours old. b. 24 days old. *c. 12 months old. d. 24 months old. 16. The phrase “out of sight, out of mind” best exemplifies the Piagetian concept of a. tertiary circular reaction. b. the one-to-one principle. c. fast mapping. *d. object permanence. 17. Six-month-old Teddy is playing with his favorite toy, a stuffed bear. Suddenly a blanket falls off the shelf and covers his bear. According to Piaget, Teddy would most likely a. both reach for and search for the bear. *b. neither reach for nor search for the bear. c. reach for but not search for the bear. d. search for but not reach for the bear. 18. Tonka is actively playing with his toy truck when his mom accidentally drops a towel she is carrying directly on top of the vehicle. As soon as the vehicle is cover ed, Tonka turns his head away and calmly begins playing with another toy. Tonka’ s reaction best illustrates a lack of *a. object permanence. b. accommodation. c. reversibility. d. inner speech. 19. Adam waves “bye-bye” when he leaves the room and pretends to eat imagina ry food. In other words, Adam is *a. using symbols. b. exhibiting a primary circular reaction. c. exercising reflexes. d. exhibiting a secondary circular reaction. 20. As a Piagetian, Avery would consider the highest accomplishment of the sensorimotor period of development. a. exercising reflexes b. egocentrism *c. using symbols d. experimentation 21. According to Piaget, which normally developing child would most likely have ju st begun to engage in preoperational thinking? a. A 12-month-old *b. A 24-month-old c. A 36-month-old d. A 48-month-old 22. Preoperational thinker Blake has edged his way close to the top rim of the Gr and Canyon. His mother then asks him, “What do you think someone at the botto m of the canyon looking up would see?” Given the egocentric nature of his though t, Blake’s most likely response would be a. “the sky.” *b. “the same thing I see.” c. “a bunch of little people looking down at me.” d. “I have no idea.” 23. Piaget used the three-mountain problem to assess a child’s level of a. object permanence. b. scaffolding. c. animism. *d. egocentrism. 24. When Noam bumps into a table, he says to it, “You bumped into me because you’re mean.” Noam is exhibiting a. the cardinality principle. *b. animism. c. irreversibility. d. egocentrism. 25. When asked to describe why storm clouds travel so slowly in the sky, Sirius g ives several interesting answers. Which of her answers provides the best example of animism? *a. “Since they have no legs, they have to crawl.” b. “If they were going the other way, they would go faster.” c. “Because the wind does not blow as high way up in the sky.” d. “The dark parts of the cloud are heavier and slow it down.” 26. In the children’s television show Pee-wee’s Playhouse, the floor, globe, and chair could talk, move, and had their own personalities. The fact that many young children view such objects as be ing “alive” is consistent with the Piagetian concept of a. intonation. b. irreversibility. c. observational learning. *d. animism. 27. The defining characteristic of centration is thought. a. abstract *b. narrowly focused c. a lack of object permanent d. overextension 28. Donny’s mother has just poured two glasses of orange juice, one for Donny a nd one for his sister. After they are poured, Donny becomes very upset that he go t less juice than his sister. Their mother points out that while Donny’s glass is sh ort, it is also wider, and thus both children have the same amount. Donny continu es to protest, arguing that his juice is shorter, thus he has less juice. Piaget woul d explain Donny’s behavior as being the result of a. animism. *b. centration. c. intonation. d. a primary circular reaction. 29. The conservation of liquid task directly assesses a child’s level of a. intelligence. b. habituation. c. animism. *d. centration. 30. During a power outage, Blair does not want to finish eating her vanilla ice cre am because, as she puts it, “When the lights went out, the ice cream turned blac k, and I don’t like black ice cream!” Blair is in the stage of development. a. concrete operational b. formal operational c. sensorimotor *d. preoperational 31. Michael, who is a preoperational thinker, watches as a movie character appe ars to turn from a nice teenager into a werewolf. What is Michael’s most likely rea ction? a. Laughter, since he realizes that it is all a fake b. Nothing, since he would likely not notice the change *c. Terror, since he likely believes that the individual has actually become a werewolf d. Confidence, since he now realizes that, despite the apparent physical c hange, it is still the same nice individual 32. Marina is visiting her dad’s office on a take-your-child-to-work day. Just after t hey arrive, an executive bursts into the room and screams at Marina’s father abou t a poorly written report he submitted. All the time that he is being berated, Marin a’s dad keeps smiling. Once the executive has left, Marina turns to her dad and s ays, “You really must like it when your boss hollers at you.” Marina’s lack of under standing that one’s internal state may not match an external state is best explain ed by the concept of *a. appearance as reality. b. egocentrism. c. expressive style. d. autobiographical memory. 33. Which is not a Piagetian-based implication for teaching? *a. Teachers should provide answers rather than letting students find the m on their own. b. The best teaching experiences are those slightly ahead of a child’s curr ent level of thinking. c. In order to promote learning, teachers should provide materials with whi ch students can make their own discoveries. d. Letting students make mistakes is okay, as cognitive development tend s to occur when children become aware of errors in their own thinking. 34. One criticism of Piaget’s theory is that it a. overestimates the cognitive abilities of both infants and adolescents. b. underestimates the cognitive abilities of both infants and adolescents. c. overestimates the cognitive abilities of infants and underestimates the abilities of adolescents. *d. underestimates the cognitive abilities of infants and overestimates the abilities of adolescents. 35. Which is a legitimate criticism of Piaget’s theory? a. Too much emphasis on unconscious thoughts b. Too much emphasis on children as “computing machines” (complete wit h software) *c. Not enough emphasis on sociocultural influences d. Not enough emphasis on stages of development 36. Which child does Piaget’s theory have the most difficulty explaining? a. Ivy, who has mastered the conservation and three-mountain tasks b. Rose, who fails both the conservation and three-mountain tasks *c. Daisy, who has mastered the conservation task but fails the three-mo untain task d. Flora, who not only has mastered the conservation and three-mountain tasks but can explain the intricacies of these tasks to others 37. The theory that human infants are born with a rudimentary knowledge of the world and they use their experience to expand this knowledge underlies the hypothesis. a. egocentric b. overgeneralization c. tabula rasa *d. core knowledge 38. Which best exemplifies the core knowledge hypothesis? *a. The fact that 3-week-old Gene appears to innately understand that thr ee objects are more than two objects. b. The fact that 10-year-old Paul has the math skills of a 30-year-old. c. The fact that 5-month-old Ace loves to kiss his mother but not his fathe r. d. The fact that 6-year-old Peter’s early music abilities have not improved i n spite of intensive training. 39. Research with “possible” and “impossible” events has led to the conclusion t hat infants a. are born with object permanence. *b. develop an understanding of object permanence at a younger age than was predicted by Piaget. c. develop an understanding of object permanence at the exact age that w as predicted by Piaget. d. develop an understanding of object permanence at an older age than w as predicted by Piaget. 40. Four-week-old Dixie appears to understand that when you push a cup over th e edge of a table, the cup will fall to the ground. Such an understanding would pro vide support for the concept of *a. naive physics. b. animism. c. the stable-order principle. d. overregularization. 41. Houdini is a normally developing 1-year-old watching a magic act. The magici an he is observing has just rolled a ball into what looks like a solid wall. However, when the ball reached the wall, the ball appeared to roll through it. According to re search findings by Baillargeon, one would expect that Houdini’s most likely reactio n would involve a. disinterest and immediate looking away. b. surprise, yet immediate looking away. c. disinterest, yet the infant will stare at the spot the ball appeared to go t hrough the wall. *d. surprise, and the infant will stare at the spot the ball appeared to go t hrough the wall. 42. Seven-month-old LeBron appears to possess a sense of “naïve physics.” Whi ch of LeBron’s actions would indicate that he does possess this sense? a. His surprise when he sees a basketball go through a hoop b. His surprise when he drops a ball and it falls to the floor c. His surprise when he hears his dad cheering while watching a basketba ll game on television *d. His surprise when a basketball appears to be hanging in mid-air when it is not attached to a string or other supporting device 43. How many of the following beliefs would be part of the “naïve biology” of a typ ical preschooler: understanding that things grow, understanding realizing that chil dren often resemble parents, understanding that some illness can be inherited, u nderstanding that the insides of animals are different than the insides of inanimat e objects? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 *d. 4 44. Most preschoolers believe that a. both animate (e.g., a puppy) and inanimate (e.g., a stuffed cat) objects can only be repaired by humans. b. both animate (e.g., a puppy) and inanimate (e.g., a stuffed cat) objects can repair themselves. *c. animate objects (e.g., a puppy) can heal themselves, but inanimate ob jects (e.g., a stuffed cat) need to be repaired by humans. d. inanimate objects (e.g., a stuffed cat) can repair themselves, but anima te objects (e.g., a puppy) need to be healed by humans. 45. Del believes that Sonny, his toy robot, does not eat or grow, is made by hum ans, and can break. Del’s beliefs are characteristic of a. essentialism. b. habituation. c. naïve theories of physics. *d. naïve theories of biology. 46. When 5-year-old Monarch says, “Butterflies exist to make the world more bea utiful for people to look at,” she is providing a great example of a. the core knowledge hypothesis. *b. a teleological explanation. c. an orienting response. d. intersubjectivity. 47. Which statement best exemplifies the concept of essentialism? a. “The purpose of popcorn is to make kids happy when they are at the m ovies.” b. “If your parent says ‘no,’ then you should not do it.” c. “A monkey raised by people will become a human.” *d. “Fish have a special ‘fishiness’ that allows them to breathe underwate r.” 48. As an information-processing theorist, Dr. Tonic is most likely to conceptualiz e human cognitive development as a(n) a. butterfly that evolves from one qualitative level of processing to the nex t. *b. computer that develops a larger “hard drive memory” and a “faster cen tral processing unit.” c. iceberg in which little processing can be seen, but a great deal is occurr ing at the unconscious level. d. mechanical calculator, unaffected by biological factors. 49. An information-processing theorist would most likely conceptualize all built-in neural structures that assist the operations of the mind as *a. mental hardware. b. private speech. c. mental software. d. psychodynamic mechanisms. 50. By definition, attention determines a. general intelligence. b. the attainment of formal operational thought. *c. which sensory information receives additional cognitive processing. d. the belief in animism. 51. Although the sound is unfamiliar, when 6-month-old Cagney sees the flashing lights on the police car, she keeps her eyes locked on the lights. She also begins to show a decrease in heart rate. Which concept best explains Cagney’s reaction? a. Operant conditioning *b. An orienting response c. Habituation d. The stable-order principle 52. can be defined as a diminished response to a familiar stimulus. a. Orienting response b. Centration *c. Habituation d. Attention 53. Which is the best example of habituation? a. Turning your head to listen to a passing jet b. Tasting sushi for the first time and liking it c. Focusing your eyes on one of those “3-D” art pictures until the 3-D imag e pops into view *d. Being bothered by the feel of a watch the first time it is on your wrist a nd then getting so used to it that you forget it’s there 54. Meltzoff and Moore’s controversial finding that 3-week-olds would stick out th eir tongues to match an adult performing the same act has been used to support the notion of early life. *a. imitation. b. centration. c. orienting response. d. habituation. 55. One-year-old Peyton notices that when his dad, Archie, is watching football on television, he shouts at the screen. The next time a football game come on, Peyto n shouts at the screen. Peyton’s behavior best exemplifies a. a lack of object permanence. b. operant conditioning. c. habituation. *d. imitation. 56. Memory research suggests that *a. at 3 months, infants start to successfully remember events that occur red several days before. b. infants seldom forget past events over time. c. “reminders” do not enhance infant memory. d. at 6 months, infants start to successfully remember events that occurr ed several days before. 57. While visiting a zoo, 5-month-old Leo is frightened by a roaring lion and starts to cry. By the time Leo is 1 year old, he appears to have forgotten this event and actually enjoys movies with lions. Based on memory research, how might you get Leo to exhibit the original fear response? a. Show him a picture of a lion. *b. Bring him back to the zoo. c. Have one of his brothers roar like a lion. d. There is nothing you can do to generate the pervious reaction. 58. Improvements in infant memory that occur around six months after birth may be the result of development in the area of the brain. *a. hippocampus b. frontal cortex c. hypothalamus d. occipital lobe 59. A memory for some significant life event is called a(n) memory. *a. autobiographical b. general knowledge c. intonation d. semantic 60. Which is the best example of a question designed to assess autobiographical memory? a. What is the capital of Wisconsin? *b. Who taught you how to ride a bike? c. Where is the queen initially located on a chessboard? d. When was Abraham Lincoln elected president? 61. Theory on the emergence of autobiographical memory suggests that in order t o improve the autobiographical memory skills of his or her child, a parent would m ost likely a. give the child multivitamins that include vitamin B. *b. begin to encourage the child to talk about what happened at school ea ch day. c. emphasize the importance of the one-to-one principle. d. teach children how to solve conservation tasks. 62. Why do children in Asian countries like China or Japan tend to recall less fro m their early years than children from North American countries? a. They are actively encouraged to not dwell on their pasts. *b. They are not given the same amount of opportunities to talk with pare nts about past events. c. They have slightly different brains that are less effective at autobiograp hical memory but superior in procedural memory. d. They have a less “rich” childhood since they come from such poor count ries. 63. What can be done to improve the credibility of the testimony of a child? a. Question the child many times to make sure the child is convinced of th e events. b. Convince the child that the people asking her questions are important p eople who are only trying to help her remember what happened. *c. Use questions that test a number of different explanations concerning the event. d. There is no need to improve credibility, since the memories of children are actually less fragile than the memories of adults. 64. Research shows that infants as young as can differentiate two objects fr om three objects. a. 1 month old *b. 6 months old c. 1 year old d. 2 years old 65. Eleven-month-old Oreo loves cookies. One day he sees his mother putting co okies into cups for a party. As he is watching, his mom puts one cookie into the fi rst two cups, two cookies into the next two cups, and three cookies into the last t wo cups. If Oreo is a normally developing 10-month-old who likes cookies, he wou ld most likely reach for a. the cup located nearest his left hand. b. the first cup in which he saw a cookie being placed. *c. a cup with three cookies. d. the darkest-colored cup. 66. The following 3-year-olds are asked to count the number building blocks (five each) placed in front of them. Which of the following responses best illustrates th e one-to-one principle? a. Howie, who says, “1, 4, 2!” b. Heidi, who says, “5, 3, 1, blastoff!” c. Tyra, who says, “One hand has five fingers.” *d. Simon, who says, “1, 2, C, D, F.” 67. The principle of counting states that number names must be counted in the same sequence. a. one-to-one *b. stable-order c. habituation d. cardinality 68. While counting four objects, Yoshiko says “1, 2, 4, 8” one time and “2, 1, 4, 8” the next time. This demonstrates that Yoshiko has failed to master the pr inciple of counting. *a. stable-order b. cardinality c. one-to-one d. habituation 69. According to the principle of counting, the last number in a counting seq uence differs from previous numbers and denotes the total number of objects bei ng counted. a. stable-order *b. cardinality c. one-to-one d. habituation 70. Tayvyn is asked to count the toes on his left foot and report the total. Tayvyn says, “1, 4, 5, 2, 3. There are three!” Tayvyn is demonstrating the principle of counting. a. one-to-one b. stable-order c. organization *d. cardinality 71. Which number illustrates the fact that in English, numbers do not all follow a regular naming pattern, thus making learning to count more difficult in English tha n in some other number systems? a. 1 *b. 11 c. 21 d. 31 72. How did Piaget and Vygotsky view the “journey” of cognitive development? a. Both saw children as making the journey alone. b. Piaget saw the journey as involving an apprenticeship driven by collabor ation with others, while Vygotsky saw children as making the journey alone. *c. Vygotsky saw the journey as involving an apprenticeship driven by colla boration with others, while Piaget saw children as making the journey alone. d. Both saw the journey as involving an apprenticeship driven by collaborat ion with others. 73. Which best exemplifies intersubjectivity? a. The fact that identical twins sometimes appear to know what the other twin is thinking b. The fact that most students who are good at math are also good at Eng lish *c. The fact that all members of the soccer team know that the main point is to kick a ball into a goal d. The fact that culture influences thought and thought influences culture 74. According to the principle of guided participation, cognitive growth results fro m a. biological maturation. *b. interactions with a more skilled individual. c. independent learning. d. application of operant conditioning principles. 75. How would a parent utilize guided participation to improve the math skills of her child? a. Encourage him or her to play a math-based computer game. b. Buy him or her a study guide on math. c. Encourage him or her to find and solve math problems in everyday life (e.g., the number of eggs in a carton). *d. Have him or her play a series of math games with a more math-skilled sibling. 76. Francesca does a pretty good job of completing spelling problems but does m uch better if she is given direction by her teacher. The difference between what Fr ancesca can do alone and with assistance is best defined in terms of her a. orienting response. b. animism. c. one-to-one principle. *d. zone of proximal development. 77. Dr. McCoy is attempting to determine the zone of proximal development for Ji m when Jim works on complex mazes. In order to do so, Dr. McCoy must measure Jim’s personal performance on the maze and a. Jim’s performance on several other Piagetian tasks. *b. Jim’s maze performance when assisted by a skilled helper. c. Jim’s peers’ performance on the same maze. d. how well Jim performed on the same maze earlier in his life. 78. If you believed in the concept of the zone of proximal development, what advi ce should you give to a child who is attempting to learn how to throw a ball? a. Tell the child to do it by him- or herself. *b. Tell the child to ask a friend who knows how to throw well to help him or her out. c. Tell the child how easy the task is (even if it is hard). d. You would say nothing, as advice will simply confuse the child. 79. Scaffolding involves a teaching style in which assistance is always a. from peers. b. nonverbal. c. done in informal settings. *d. based on the level of the learner’s needs. 80. Federer is trying to implement a scaffolding style into his teaching of tennis t o Venus, who is having difficulty, and to Serena, who is doing very well. To do this, Federer must a. be sure to praise both students for their effort, not for their successes. b. discourage private speech in both students. *c. give Venus more assistance and give Serena less assistance. d. promote cooperation rather than competition between the two students. 81. Jasmine is trying to teach her younger sister Saffron how to shoot a jump sho t. Before they start, Jasmine reminds herself that Saffron will need a lot of directi on at first, but it is critical to not give more help than is needed. Jasmine’s plan pr ovides an excellent example of the strategy of *a. scaffolding. b. overextension. c. orienting response. d. the one-to-one principle. 82. While attempting to correctly answer this question, you notice that you are m entally commenting to yourself about its level of difficulty. Vygotsky would refer to these internal mental remarks as *a. private speech. b. scaffolding. c. an orienting response. d. overextension. 83. According to Vygotsky, speech is another term for thought. a. private *b. inner c. telegraphic d. tertiary 84. Which child (identified here by player name) is most likely using private speec h while playing a video game? a. n0thing, who is practicing a very easy level in the game b. autimatic, who is not making any mistakes and successfully completing more challenging levels in the game. *c. Stewie2k, who is playing a new, difficult level for the first time d. Skadoodle, who is already replaying the game to see how fast it can be completed. 85. In what way are newborns more linguistically sophisticated than the average adult? *a. They can auditorily distinguish between more phonemes. b. They can produce more phonemes. c. They do not habituate to new phonemes. d. Newborns have no linguistic advantages over adults. 86. Which is a key cue used by infants when attempting to identify whether a sou nd represents a word? a. They focus on sounds that repeat (e.g., gaga). *b. They focus on sounds that are stressed during speech. c. They focus on the sound with the least number of phonemes. d. They focus on the sounds made by other infants. 87. Barry walks up to his 9-month-old son and says (very slowly and with major fl uctuations in his voice’s pitch and loudness), “Ohhhhhhhhh, are you Daddy’s little baaaaaaaby?” Barry is illustrating a. scaffolding. b. telegraphic speech. c. overextension. *d. infant-directed speech. 88. When dealing with young infants, why is infant-directed speech preferred over normal adult speech? a. Infants have an easier time producing infant-directed speech. *b. Infants pay more attention to infant-directed speech. c. Infants prefer the rapid pace of infant-directed speech. d. Infants like infant-directed speech because it lacks the confusing chang es of pitch found in normal adult speech. 89. When 3-month-old Rosita says “ahhhhhhhh,” she is a. producing telegraphic speech. *b. cooing. c. babbling. d. producing infant-directed speech. 90. Which best describes a linguistic babble? a. Contains neither a vowel nor a consonant sound b. Contains only a vowel sound c. Contains only a consonant sound *d. Contains both a vowel and a consonant sound 91. When 6-month-old Gabby says “tatatata,” she is a. cooing. b. using telegraphic speech. *c. babbling. d. engaging in private speech. 92. Linguistic intonation is best described as a variation in sound *a. pitch. b. meaning. c. length. d. comprehension. 93. Infant Timmy has been babbling for several months. What is his next likely lin guistic milestone? a. Cooing b. Telegraphic speech *c. First word d. Intonation 94. Thirteen-month-old Olaf has begun to raise the pitch of his voice at the end o f a babble. If Olaf is being raised by English-speaking parents, his behavior may re flect the precursor of his ability to *a. ask a question. b. produce infant-directed speech. c. make a declarative statement. d. coo. 95. The processes in which children acquire new words at such a speed that they cannot be considering all meanings for the new word is called a. telegraphic speech. b. quick time. c. habituation *d. fast mapping. 96. Two-year-old Ariel’s parents recently bought her an aquarium and have begun to point at the moving animals and call them “fish.” Despite having only heard the word “fish” a few times, Ariel appears to realize that the term refers to those little moving things in the tank. Ariel’s behavior is best explained by a. infant-directed speech. b. the one-to-one principle. *c. fast mapping. d. the cardinality principle. 97. Samsung is trying to get his grandson to learn the word “apple.” His attempt i nvolves showing his grandson an image of an apple on his smartphone, making s ure that his grandson is also looking, and then saying “apple.” Samsung’s effort t o teach his grandson is clearly based on a. infant-directed speech. b. the innate orienting response. c. fast mapping. *d. joint attention. 98. When 2-year-old Jaing is visiting his grandpa’s farm, he sees his first chicken. His grandpa points to the funny red growth on the chicken’s head and says, “It is called a comb.” What will Jaing’s most likely reaction be the next time he sees a c hicken? a. He will refer to all barnyard birds as “chickens.” *b. He will refer to the bird as a “comb.” c. He will refer to the bird as a “chicken.” d. He will refer to the crest on the bird’s head as a “comb.” 99. Three-year-old Hamid knows what the words “cat” and “dog” mean. One day h is babysitter comes in with a box of kittens and a hamster and says, “Isn’t he furr y?” Since Hamid does not know the words “hamster” and “furry,” he will most likel y a. classify the hamster as a “cat.” b. classify the hamster as a “dog.” *c. classify the hamster as a “furry.” d. be unable to come up with a label for the hamster. 100. Five-year-old Westly hears the sentence, “Westly, quit clowning around.” He knows all the other words, but he has never heard the word “clowning” before. The fact that he understands that the word “clowning” must be referring to what he is currently doing is best explained as involving cues. *a. sentence b. pictorial c. kinetic d. parallax 101. Which is the best example of underextension? a. Referring to a train as a “choo-choo” b. Referring to all vehicles having four wheels as “trucks” c. Using a single-word utterance (“car”) rather than telegraphic speech (“le t’s ride in the car”) *d. Referring to the family cat as a “kitty” but not using the same name for any other animal (including other cats) 102. While visiting her grandma, Buttercup becomes somewhat restless. In an att empt to comfort Buttercup, her grandmother says, “Why don’t you play with the do ll in my bedroom?” Buttercup goes to get the doll but returns crying and says, “Th at’s not doll. Doll has red hair and sleeps in my room.” Buttercup’s behavior is be st explained by a. the cardinality principle. b. the primary circular reaction effect. c. telegraphic speech. *d. underextension. 103. When a word is used too broadly, is taking place. a. scaffolding b. babbling c. equilibration *d. overextension 104. Ed knows what a horse is but has never seen nor heard of a camel. When E d sees his first camel, he says “horsey.” Ed’s reaction is best explained by the pro cess of *a. overextension. b. babbling. c. underextension. d. infant-directed speech. 105. What would be the most effective way to assess phonological memory in a 2-year-old? a. Say the name of a neighbor and ask her to name another neighbor. b. Ask her to spell the word “dog.” *c. Say the word “kitty” and have her immediately repeat the word. d. Ask her the name of her favorite toy. 106. Eighteen-month old Quentin’s large vocabulary appears to be due to his abili ty to recall and repeat any word that he just heard. This indicates that Quentin ha s an excellent memory. a. autobiographical *b. phonological c. episodic d. procedural 107. The best predictor of a large vocabulary in a young child is *a. exposure to a high-quality language environment. b. parental IQ level. c. the quality of a child’s motor skills. d. preschool attendance. 108. A child whose vocabulary is dominated by names of objects, actions, or pers ons is said to have a(n) style. a. nonsymbolic b. expressive *c. referential d. overextended 109. Two-year-old Sam’s limited vocabulary consists of words like “book,” “dog,” a nd “hat.” Apparently, Sam *a. has a referential style. b. is nonsymbolic. c. has an expressive style. d. is unable to use phonemes 110. Jeanne has just learned to talk and often says things like “I want it,” “Come here,” or “Where did he go?” Jeanne is exhibiting a. infant-directed speech. *b. an expressive style. c. a referential style. d. babbling. 111. Which statement by a young child would indicate that she is using an expres sive style? a. “Two plus two equals four.” b. “That animal is called a horse.” *c. “Let’s play.” d. “Baba dada.” 112. Preschoolers who watch the television show Dora the Explorer have been sh own to in kindergarten than children who have not watched the show. a. be less social b. be more violent *c. have larger vocabularies d. have less inner speech 113. Which statement by a 17-month-old best represents telegraphic speech? a. “Go.” *b. “Go store.” c. “I go to the store.” d. “Can we go to the store?” 114. Rather than saying the kitten fell in the bathtub, young Sylvester says, “Kitty wet,” which leaves Sylverster’s mother to wonder about the nature of the liquid on or coming out of the cat. This linguistic limitation is known as a. overextension. b. fast mapping. *c. telegraphic speech. d. referential style. 115. A grammatical morpheme is a word or word ending that makes a sentence g rammatically *a. correct. b. overextended. c. underextended. d. overregularized. 116. What is an example of a grammatical morpheme? a. “Fish” *b. “-ing” c. “Fishing” d. “Fisherman” 117. What is the best example of overregularization? a. Saying “horse” instead of “hose” b. Saying “houses” instead of “homes” c. Saying “flunked” instead of “failed” *d. Saying “runned” instead of “ran” 118. When discussing the acquisition of grammar, which type of theorist would b e most likely to say, “Context and genetics are overrated, what really matters is i mitation and reinforcement?” a. A social-interaction theorist *b. A behaviorist c. A cognitive theorist d. A linguistic approach theorist 119. Which evidence provides the strongest support for the “linguistic approach” t o grammar acquisition? a. The fact that nonhuman animals can be easily taught to use language b. The fact that there is no real “critical period” for language acquisition *c. The fact that the left hemisphere of the brain appears to be critical to l inguistic development d. The fact that bilingual children struggle with grammar 120. Which of the following is the best example of a preschooler using calibration in their message? a. A child who speaks to a 2-year-old the same way they speak to a paren t. *b. A child describing where to find a toy giving more detailed directions to a listener whose eyes were covered when the toy was hidden..” c. A child who speaks to a parent the same way they speak to a younger s ibling. d. A child telling a brand new friend at their house for the first time to get t he colors out of the “secret cubby,” believing their new friend knows where it is. 121. During accommodation, a new experience is incorporated into an exi sting scheme without modification. a. True *b. False 122. The sensorimotor period of thinking lasts from about age 2 to age 6 years old. a. True *b. False 123. Object permanence involves understanding that something exists eve n when it is out of our sensory awareness. *a. True b. False 124. The inability to see the world from any perspective but your own i s called egocentrism. *a. True b. False 125. Preoperational children often think in a manner consistent with th e idea that appearance is reality. *a. True b. False 126. Piaget is often criticized for overestimating the impact of socioc ultural factors on cognitive development. a. True *b. False 127. The core knowledge hypothesis is very compatible with notions of n aïve physics and naïve biology. *a. True b. False 128. A commitment to a teleological explanation means believing that al l living things exist for a purpose. *a. True b. False 129. Orienting responses are often triggered by either unfamiliar or st rong stimuli. *a. True b. False 130. Learning gender roles by watching TV is an example of imitation. *a. True b. False 131. Research shows that as early as 2 months of age, infants can recal l past events. *a. True b. False 132. The quality of an autobiographical memory can be influenced by cul ture. *a. True b. False 133. A good way to improve the eyewitness testimony of children is to m inimize the use of specific questions. *a. True b. False 134. A child using the one-to-one principle to count would always begin counting starting with the number one. a. True *b. False 135. An individual using guided participation would pair up a less skil led student with a more skilled student on some structured activity. *a. True b. False 136. Private speech is a form of verbal communication a child uses when talking to his or her best friend. a. True *b. False 137. Newborns appear to have the ability to hear the entire range of ph onemes for every language on earth. *a. True b. False 138. Coo sounds are composed of a single consonant sound. a. True *b. False 139. During underextension, a word is used too broadly. a. True *b. False 140. Phonological memory is defined as the ability to recall a visual i mage after the passage of time. a. True *b. False 141. An expressive style vocabulary consists of many names for people, objects, and actions. a. True *b. False 142. In English, “-ing” and “-ed” represent grammatical morphemes. *a. True b. False 143. According to the linguist perspective, children are born with some mechanism that simplifies the acquisition of grammar. *a. True b. False 144. Effective oral communication involves taking turns and paying atte ntion to other speakers. *a. True b. False 145. By 4 years of age, children sometimes realize that a message is va gue or confusing, but they often don’t ask speakers to clarify their in tent. *a. True b. False 146. Describe how the processes of assimilation and accommodation might come into p lay during a child’s thought process on a visit to a zoo. 147. Describe three guidelines for fostering cognitive development in children. 148. You work for a police department in a major city. A brutal crime has just been com mitted and the only witness is a 5-year-old boy. Discuss concerns that you might have ov er the accuracy of the boy’s testimony. Then describe ways that you might use to improve the accuracy of the child’s recollection. 149. Four-year-old Gustav appears to be talking to himself as he is building a tower of bl ocks. Describe Vygotsky’s take on this behavior (e.g., Is this normal behavior? Is this a h elpful behavior? Will this behavior go away?). 150. On her way to the United States for the first time from her home country, non-Engli sh-speaking Yasini has a baby aboard her sea transport vessel. Describe how Yasini’s ba by will be affected in language development by growing up in a country with a language th at is different than Yasini’s native language. 151. Discuss any three methods by which young children acquire the meaning of words. 152. Define and provide an example of overextension, underextension, a referential styl e, an expressive linguistic style, and telegraphic speech. 153. Compare and contrast the behaviorist answer, the linguistic answer, the cognitive a nswer, and the social-interaction answer to the question, “How do children acquire gram mar?” 154. Provide an example of how egocentrism, animism, centration, and appearance as r eality might affect the actions or thoughts of a child. 1. According to Erikson, what is the foundation of human development? a. Autonomy *b. Trust in self and others c. Initiative d. Identity 2. Which child has most successfully resolved the “basic trust versus mistrust” s tage of psychosocial development? a. Clark, who trusts everyone and everything completely b. Bruce, who mistrusts everyone, including himself c. Luis, who trusts himself but nobody else *d. Hal, who trusts most people but is still somewhat wary of others 3. After reading a book on Eriksonian theory, Farah would most likely describe he r trusting 1-year-old daughter as possessing a. will. b. generativity. *c. hope. d. purpose. 4. According to Erikson, how would parents establish trust in their 6-month-old? *a. Consistently responding to the child’s needs b. Utilize an authoritarian parenting style c. Encourage the immediate resolution of the Oedipal complex d. Avoid excessive displays of affection 5. Who would Erikson predict to have the greatest sense of will? *a. Fiona, who has developed autonomy but experiences some shame an d doubt b. Tara, who has developed autonomy and experiences no shame or doubt c. Bridget, who has developed autonomy and doubt but experiences no sh ame d. Maeve, who has not developed autonomy 6. Carmela is struggling in the “autonomy versus shame and doubt” stage of psyc hosocial development. What aspect of her psychosocial development will result fr om her successful resolution of this conflict? a. Hope b. Wariness *c. Will d. Purpose 7. Although Jamie has an enormous amount of initiative, he does not possess “p urpose.” According to Erikson, this is probably because Jamie *a. has not learned to cooperate with others. b. was never wary of other people. c. has no “will.” d. trusts too much. 8. Lili has begun to play “teacher,” “mommy,” “doctor,” and “pilot.” Lili is probably in which of Erikson’s stages of psychosocial development? a. Autonomy versus shame and doubt *b. Initiative versus guilt c. Intimacy versus isolation d. Basic trust versus mistrust 9. Dr. Beagle’s lecture on attachment concludes that babies express behavior th at makes it more likely they will form attachments to adults because, in the past, infants that expressed these behaviors were the infants who survived. Dr. Beagle is presenting a(n) approach to attachment. a. sociocultural b. psychological c. anthropological *d. evolutionary 10. Who would be most likely to argue that smiling is a common social response because over the history of humanity, individuals who smiled were liked more and allowed to have children? a. A cognitive psychologist b. A behavioral psychologist *c. An evolutionary psychologist d. A humanist psychologist 11. As an evolutionary theorist, Dr. Zorba is most likely to believe that *a. adaptive behaviors have a hereditary basis. b. cognitive issues are more important than social issues. c. an infant can only attach to its biological mother. d. trust underlies almost all human emotions. 12. Which individual is most responsible for today’s evolutionary view of attachm ent? a. Erikson *b. Bowlby c. Skinner d. Piaget 13. Dr. Wilson studies how children form lasting social-emotional relationships wi th adults. Dr. Wilson is most likely interested in studying a. gender roles. b. basic emotions. c. parallel play. *d. attachment. 14. Baby Hughie has singled out his mother as someone different from all others. When his mother takes him to a new place, Hughie is able to explore but looks b ack to his mother every once in awhile for reassurance. According to Bowlby, Hug hie is most likely in the phase of attachment. a. attachment in the making b. reciprocal relationships c. preattachment *d. true attachment 15. Eight-month-old Claire is able to crawl around a room on her own, looking bac k at her mother only occasionally. This indicates that Claire a. is not attached to her mother. b. has “purpose.” c. is in the “initiative versus guilt” stage. *d. trusts her mother. 16. How could a parent best encourage attachment in a 4-month-old? a. Show continuous interest whenever he or she is around the child *b. Respond predictably and appropriately to the baby’s needs. c. Let the child initiate all social interactions. d. There are no parental behaviors that would influence an infant that you ng. 17. Which normally maturing infant would be most likely to have just formed first true attachment? a. Calvin, who is 1 day old b. Warren, who is 4 months old *c. Woodrow, who is 8 months old d. Theodore, who is 18 months old 18. You typically spend more time playing with your daughter than doing the care taking, you prefer physical play over sitting and reading together with your daughte r, and you are less skillful at parenting your daughter than your partner. You are pr obably the child’s a. mother. b. teacher. *c. father. d. next-door neighbor. 19. Which statement on parent-infant early relationships is true? *a. Mothers tend to spend more time reading to infants. b. Infants are biologically programmed to attach to mothers. c. Mothers provide better early childcare than fathers. d. When in distress, infants prefer to interact with fathers. 20. Kelly and Mark are the parents of a new baby named Lola and are wondering whether Lola will attach to them. A developmental psychologist explains to them t hat if Lola is a typical baby, she will *a. attach to both Kelly and Mark. b. attach only to Mark. c. attach only to Kelly. d. not attach to either Kelly or Mark. 21. One-year-old Chatava is not upset when her mother leaves the room, and wh en her mother returns, Chatava turns away from her. Chatava is exhibiting at tachment. *a. avoidant b. disorganized c. secure d. resistant 22. Elise’s father sat her on her blanket in front of the TV in the living room and l eft the room to answer a text message from work on his phone. Elise has been pl aying alone for a while on her blanket and has become upset. When her father ret urns, she is not comforted but seems angry with her father. Elise is most likely ex hibiting a(n) attachment. a. secure b. avoidant *c. resistant d. disoriented 23. When Faith’s mother leaves her alone in a room, she does not move and app ears a bit dazed. Faith is most likely exhibiting a(n) attachment. a. secure b. avoidant c. resistant *d. disorganized 24. Securely attached infants tend to show when reunited with a caregiver. a. fear b. rejection *c. a need for a brief interaction d. a need for an extended interaction 25. Which type of attachment is characterized by confusion in the infant when the mother leaves and when she returns? a. Secure b. Avoidant c. Resistant *d. Disorganized 26. In the Strange Situation test, a(n) remains alone in a room with an infan t. a. mother b. observer *c. stranger d. second infant 27. Attachment is most critical to completing which of Erikson’s stages of psycho social development? a. Autonomy versus shame and doubt *b. Trust versus mistrust c. Intimacy versus isolation d. Initiative versus guilt 28. Michiko was insecurely attached as an infant. Which behavior is least likely t o occur? *a. Michiko is usually calm when interacting with other children. b. Michiko does not have as many friends as most children. c. Michiko does not display adequate social skills with her peers. d. Michiko has a difficult time resolving conflicts with others. 29. A secure infant attachment predicts during later childhood. a. greater intelligence *b. more capable peer interactions c. greater independence d. nothing 30. Which baby is most likely to be insecurely attached? a. Joey, whose parents play with him frequently b. Monica, whose parents are very affectionate toward her *c. Phoebe, whose parents tend to not respond to her crying d. Chandler, whose parents often express happiness toward him 31. What advice should you give to a parent who wants his or her 2-month-old to form a secure attachment? *a. “Be responsive and caring.” b. “Avoid discipline.” c. “Just be yourself.” d. “Don’t bottle-feed.” 32. That twins Desi and Lucille have come to expect their mother, to be available when they need her means that they have both developed a. temperament. b. parallel play. *c. an internal working model. d. autonomy. 33. If 2-year-old Kelly had an internal working model, she would a. believe that inanimate objects have the ability to move and breathe. *b. expect her mom to respond when she is upset. c. talk to herself out loud. d. form an insecure attachment to her parents. 34. From an infant’s perspective, what is the most critical factor in establishing a secure attachment? a. Having no congenital birth defects *b. Having a dependable caregiver c. Having few sibling rivals d. Having a caregiver who loves him or her 35. Nathan is feeling guilty about sending his 18-month-old off to day care. Assu ming Nathan is sending his daughter to a quality day care center, should he be wo rried? a. Yes. Children younger than two who are in day care experience far more negative effects than positive effects. b. Yes, but only because his child is female. *c. No, as long as Nathan provides “good fathering” when he’s with the ch ild at home. d. No, because daycare makes children more cooperative. 36. Research indicates that sending a young child to a high-quality day care has effects on a toddler’s attachment to their mother and/or father. a. slightly negative b. devastating c. first adverse and then positive *d. no 37. Which aspect of a local daycare’s advertisement would be inconsistent with y our text’s description of quality day care? a. Low child-to-caregiver ratios b. Daycare workers are well trained *c. New, energetic staff each day d. High level of communication between daycare workers and parents 38. Which combination best predicts an insecure attachment? a. Insensitive mother and any day care *b. Insensitive mother and low-quality day care c. Sensitive mother and any day care d. Sensitive mother and low-quality day care 39. Which statement is true regarding basic emotions? *a. They are experienced by people in all cultures. b. They have a self-evaluative component. c. Most of them begin to develop after 12 months. d. They are not reflected in facial expressions. 40. What is not an element of a basic emotion? a. A subjective feeling *b. A thoughtful consideration c. A physiological change d. An overt behavior 41. You are studying the basic emotions of 11-month-olds from the United State s and China. What differences would you expect in how these basic emotions are expressed? *a. Chinese infants will cry and smile less than American infants. b. American infants will be less expressive than Chinese infants. c. Chinese infants will be more expressive of pain; American infants will b e more expressive of “joy.” d. Chinese infants are more likely to express disgust. 42. An increase in heart rate is a manifestation of an emotion. a. sociocultural b. subjective c. behavioral *d. physiological 43. After playing by himself for a while, young Luke smiles when he sees the face of his father. What term best describes this response? *a. Social smile b. Cooperative play c. Parallel play d. Social referencing 44. We would know that 2-month-old Brenda is exhibiting a social smile when sh e smiles in response to a. waking up from a nap. *b. seeing her mother’s face. c. finishing a meal. d. a cat’s tail brushing up against her. 45. Which normally developing child would be most likely to have just begun to ex perience the emotion of anger? a. Aaron, who is 5 days old *b. Eli, who is 5 months old c. Tom, who is 15 months old d. Cam, who is 5 years old 46. According to your text, which action would be the most likely cause of anger i n a 6-month-old? a. Showing them a picture of a stranger b. Introducing them to a new loud sound c. Having them smell a rotten egg *d. Restraining them from picking up a toy 47. Who has most likely just developed stranger wariness? a. Betsy, who just learned to roll over *b. Leon, who just learned to crawl c. Calvin, who just learned to walk d. Lisa, who just started school 48. Seven-month-old Gavin seems very content being held by his mother. When t he new neighbor from across the street comes over to greet Gavin, he turns his h ead away from the neighbor and starts to cry. What term best explains Gavin’s res ponse to the neighbor? a. Social smile b. Resistant attachment c. Social referencing *d. Stranger wariness 49. Pride, embarrassment, and guilt are all examples of a. insecure attachment. *b. complex emotions. c. constricting actions. d. basic emotions. 50. Complex emotions differ from basic emotions in that complex emotions requi re some understanding of *a. self. b. biology. c. waking states. d. purpose. 51. According to the textbook, by age 9 reasons for fear typically shift from fear o f the dark and fear of imaginary monsters to a. fears related to animals and insects. b. fears related to a stranger entering the room. c. fears related to a parent leaving the room. *d. fears related to school, health, and personal harm. 52. Who is most likely exhibiting a complex emotion? a. Christian, who expresses joy when being held by his mother b. Anastasia, who is angry at her mother c. Elliot, who is afraid of the neighbor’s pet dog *d. Kate, who is proud of her art project 53. Research results have provided evidence that the ability to distinguish facial f eatures associated with different emotions first develops as early as of age. a. 2 weeks b. 1 month *c. 4 months d. 8 months 54. One-year-old Kendra looks at her mother before entering a new room in a stra nge house. When her mother smiles, Kendra proceeds to enter the room. This is an example of a. a social smile. b. a complex emotion. *c. social referencing. d. stranger wariness. 55. One-year-old Mathieu is afraid of the dog because he saw his father react wit h fear to the same dog. Which term best explains why Mathieu is afraid? a. Stranger wariness *b. Social referencing c. Complex emotions d. Avoidant attachment 56. When Adam walks into the dark basement, he feels afraid but is able to calm himself down by saying to himself, “Don’t be afraid. There’s nothing down here tha t can hurt you.” Apparently, Adam is successfully a. engaging in solitary play. b. expressing complex emotions. *c. regulating his emotions. d. utilizing social referencing. 57. Juanita is a typical 6-month-old. How is she most likely to regulate her emoti ons if she sees a scary object? *a. She will look away from the object. b. She will make a sad face. c. She will stare back and try to frighten the object away. d. She will make no attempt to regulate her emotions. 58. Children who do not regulate their emotions well a. have less frequent conflicts with peers. b. have more satisfying peer relationships. *c. tend to have problems interacting with peers. d. make more adaptive adjustments to school. 59. Tony is playing with his ball, and Pepper is playing with her doll, but they are each watching what the other is doing. Tony and Pepper are most likely involved in a. cooperative play. *b. parallel play. c. simple social play. d. prosocial behavior. 60. Dick and Bruce are both playing with blocks. Though they are playing, they s mile at each other and trade blocks from time to time. It is most likely that Dick a nd Bruce are involved in a. cooperative play. b. parallel play. *c. simple social play. d. prosocial behavior. 61. Children typically begin to exhibit simple social play around months of a ge. *a. 18 b. 28 c. 38 d. 48 62. Patrick and Sandy are taking turns playing a memory game on Patrick’s comp uter tablet. This is an example of play. a. parallel b. prosocial *c. cooperative d. simple social 63. Franklin and Benjamin are pretending to be transformers. Franklin is pretendi ng to be Optimus, and Benjamin is pretending to be Megatron. What sort of intera ction does this exemplify? a. Parallel play *b. Cooperative play c. Simple social play d. Constricting actions 64. The themes and values reflected in the pretend play of European-American ch ildren tend to include adventure and fantasy, while the themes and values reflecte d in Korean-American children tend to include. a. success in business and sports. *b. family roles and everyday activities. c. adventure and success in business. d. fantasy and family roles. 65. Agnes is a preschooler who has an imaginary friend named Gru. According to recent research, it is most likely that Agnes a. is insecurely attached. b. has not received enough dispositional praise. c. has few “real” friends relative to other preschoolers. *d. is a typical preschooler. 66. Omero is a preschooler who has an imaginary friend. Which best describes O mero relative to his peers without imaginary friends? a. Emotionally disturbed *b. Sociable c. Few friends d. Low intelligence 67. Five-year-old Lou has a vivid imagination and an imaginary friend. How might t his cognitively affect Lou a. He is more likely than other children his age to believe that cartoon cha racters are “real.” b. He is more likely than other children his age to be unsociable. c. He is more likely to have difficulty making adjustments during adolesce nce. *d. He is likely to have a more advanced theory of mind. 68. Which sort of solitary play would most likely be unhealthy? *a. Watching other children play without joining them b. Sitting in a room, building an imaginary city out of plastic building block s c. Drawing and coloring d. Completing a series of puzzles in a puzzle book 69. As a typical prepubescent female, Rihanna will prefer to a. play with boys regardless of the game. *b. play with girls regardless of the game. c. play “house” with girls and football with boys. d. play “house” with boys and football with girls. 70. Which word would least likely be found in a description of “boys play?” a. Competitive *b. Cooperative c. Rough d. Intimidation 71. Paul is competing with Art in a game and attempts to win by saying, “If you try to do well, I will smack you!” What term best describes this statement? a. Parallel play b. Social referencing *c. Constricting action d. Enabling action 72. Which term does not fit with the notion of “constricting” during play? a. Exaggeration b. Threats c. Contradiction *d. Support 73. Michelle and Warren are building a playhouse. Michelle says to Warren, “How about I help you with your part, then you help me with mine?” This offer would be an example of *a. an enabling action. b. parallel play. c. a constricting action. d. altruism. 74. Concerning play, which statement best exemplifies enabling? *a. “You are doing great, keep going.” b. “You are in for a world of hurt if you win.” c. “I am so much better than you.” d. “I have never played that before.” 75. Which is true of childhood play? a. Both boys and girls tend to favor enabling over constricting. b. Both boys and girls tend to favor constricting over enabling. c. Boys tend to favor enabling and girls tend to favor constricting. *d. Boys tend to favor constricting and girls tend to favor enabling. 76. Which exemplifies the notion of parent as social director during play? a. A parent who likes to play directly with his or her child *b. A parent who actively encourages his or her child to play with others c. A parent who steps in to resolve disputes between his or her child and other children d. A parent who teaches his or her child skills that will make the child bett er at a game 77. Hulk often has to step in and solve disagreements between his son Bruce an d his daughter Betty. This action best reflects the idea of a parent as a a. playmate. b. social director. c. coach. *d. mediator. 78. Which statement best describes parental influence on play? a. All coaching is beneficial. b. Good coaching is never that good. *c. Bad coaching is worse than no coaching at all. d. Avoiding coaching is the best option. 79. Using scaffolding would be most beneficial for a preschool parent acting as a during play. *a. playmate b. social director c. mediator d. constrictor 80. All acts of altruistic behavior are also *a. prosocial behaviors. b. basic emotions. c. examples of dispositional praise. d. social roles. 81. Urvashi decides to help her friend find her lost cat because her friend is likely to let her play with the cat when they find it. This is an example of *a. prosocial behavior. b. altruism. c. empathy. d. simple social play. 82. Donald and Melania are riding past a homeless shelter in their limousine whe n they suddenly stop and place a large amount of cash into the hands of a needy- looking person who is standing next to the entrance of the shelter. What would m ake this an act of altruism? *a. Donald and Melania do not expect any reciprocation for their act. b. Donald and Melania were given a bag of cans in return. c. Donald and Melania feel pity for the person as they give him the cash. d. Donald and Melania have a habit of engaging in these types of activitie s. 83. Young Jim experiences the sadness of his friend Abdul when Abdul’s dog run s away. Jim is exhibiting *a. empathy. b. altruism. c. cooperative behavior. d. sympathy. 84. The fact that young children are so may interfere with their ability to eng age in altruistic behaviors. a. purposeful b. accommodating c. sympathetic *d. egocentric 85. Which child is most likely to act altruistically toward Gaston, who is having a very difficult time learning how to skate? a. Maurice, who is not very good at skating *b. Belle, who is feeling happy c. LeFou, who was yelled at by the rink attendant only minutes ago d. Agathe, who would have to miss her only ride home in order to help Gas ton 86. With which person is Michelle most likely to act altruistically? a. Jackie, whom Michelle has never met b. Claudia, who was in Michelle’s class last year *c. Pat, who is Michelle’s little sister d. Betty, who is a friend of Michelle’s mother 87. Which thought has been shown to increase the odds of a child engaging in an altruistic act? a. “I think that this will cost a lot, but it will be worth it.” b. “I think that doing this will make me feel better.” c. “I think that this will make me a better person.” *d. “I think I have what they need.” 88. Altruistic acts in children tend to occur when the cost of the act is *a. low. b. high. c. not known in advance. d. expected to be immediately recouped. 89. The most effective way for Zeus to get his young son Perseus to become mor e prosocial would be to a. act lazy himself so Perseus can see how unhelpful that behavior is. b. criticize Perseus for being so lazy and unhelpful. c. show Perseus bad things that happen to people who don’t help. *d. offer Perseus chances to help bring in the groceries. 90. Which is the best advice for parents wishing to socialize altruistic behavior in their child? a. Don’t model altruism. *b. Don’t force altruistic behavior by threat. c. Don’t provide opportunities to practice altruism. d. Don’t believe that parenting behavior can impact altruism. 91. One of the most effective ways for Dottie to get her child to engage in altruist ic behavior is for Dottie to a. avoid discipline. b. not dwell on or praise any spontaneous acts of altruism she observes i n her child. *c. model the behavior herself. d. do nothing and let the child’s natural altruistic instinct take over. 92. Parents who incorporate into their discipline are most likely to encourag e altruistic behavior. *a. reasoning b. parallel play c. ethology d. punishment 93. A social role is best described as a(n) *a. cultural guideline for interacting with other people. b. biosocial impact on behavior. c. individual attachment style. d. way of behaving that is not tied to culture. 94. On her way to visiting Rwanda for the first time, Dian wonders what the peopl e there will expect from her during their interactions. Dian is concerned about a. dispositional praise. b. prosocial behavior. c. altruism. *d. social roles. 95. Male and female social roles are a. virtually identical. b. inherited. *c. culturally defined. d. indistinguishable. 96. Gender-role stereotypes involve beliefs that a. are never true. b. are always true. c. are always true, but only in a specific culture. *d. are sometimes true. 97. Phil believes that all women are emotional, physically weak, and interested in cooking. Phil’s beliefs about women would best be described as a. a social role. b. altruistic. c. accurate. *d. a gender stereotype. 98. Which person is most likely using a gender stereotype to describe Erin? a. Elvis: “Erin is mean. I saw her throw Charlie’s cell phone into the recycli ng bin.” b. Graham: “Erin really likes playing lacrosse. Every week, she plays center for three different teams.” *c. Roddy: “Erin is like all females, intelligent and understanding.” d. Christopher: “Erin is different from anyone else I have ever met, she is r eally quiet.” 99. Gender stereotypes influence behavior by providing a. an explanation for biological differences between males and females. b. accurate sex-based information. c. the world with a set of universal guidelines. *d. a set of behavioral expectations. 100. If he is like most preschoolers, Dougie is likely to believe that girls are a. physically aggressive. b. strong and dominant. *c. verbally aggressive. d. capable of playing football. 101. Which description of the sex difference in spatial ability is the most accurate? a. Most boys perform better on tests of spatial ability than the brightest gi rl. b. Girls perform better on tests of spatial ability than boys. c. Girls and boys score equally on tests of spatial ability. *d. Average test scores of spatial ability are higher for boys than for girls. 102. With regard to social roles, female activities are typically more a. demanding. *b. solitary. c. strenuous. d. outside the home. 103. Which finding is not consistent with research studies of sex differences? a. Males are more aggressive. *b. Males are more likely to comply with the directions of adults. c. Females are less likely to have language-related problems. d. Females have larger vocabularies. 104. On average, boys are than girls. a. better able to express emotions b. less aggressive *c. better at spatial tasks d. more readily influenced by others 105. Katie is upset with her friend Leslie. In order to “get even” with her, she trie s to make Leslie’s other friends mad at Leslie by making up stories about her. Wh at is this sort of behavior called? a. Physical aggression b. Gender labeling *c. Relational aggression d. Verbal aggression 106. As a typical 10-year-old American female, Brianna is more likely to th an a same-age male counterpart. a. be aggressive b. have a smaller vocabulary *c. be emotionally expressive d. score highly on a test of spatial ability 107. Lexi and Rory have a young daughter and a young son. As typical parents, th ey most likely treat their children the same except when it comes to a. doing well in school. b. showing them affection. *c. rough-and-tumble play. d. encouraging them to be independent. 108. Billy is a 7-year-old boy who fidgets and pesters the students sitting next to him. Billy’s behavior shows low a. emotional sensitivity. b. relational aggression. c. spatial ability. *d. effortful control. 109. Lisa believes that she cannot play football because “I’m a girl, and girls are n’t supposed to play football.” This belief is most likely an aspect of Lisa’s a. insecure attachment. b. prosocial behavior. *c. gender identity. d. self-esteem. 110. Dwight’s statement, “I am a boy,” is an example of a. gender stability. *b. gender labeling. c. a gender-role stereotype. d. gender constancy. 111. The statement “girls always grow up to be women” provides an example of *a. gender stability. b. gender-role stereotyping. c. the one-to-one principle. d. a gender role. 112. When 3-year-old Juan, who is male, says “I’m going to grow up to be a mom my,” he is failing to demonstrate a sense of a. gender identity. *b. gender stability. c. gender labeling. d. will. 113. According to Kohlberg, when 3-year-old Sara thinks about herself, *a. she can label herself as a girl. b. she understands that sex is stable. c. she understands that gender does not change over situations and time. d. she knows that gender roles are flexible. 114. David is a 5-year-old who knows that he is a boy, and that he is a boy wheth er he’s playing with his toys or his sister’s toys. This indicates that David has dev eloped a. prosocial behavior. *b. gender stability. c. cooperative play. d. social roles. 115. Ben sees a group of girls playing in the sand and decides that playing in the sand is for girls. Ben’s behavior illustrates the concept of . *a. gender-schema theory. b. gender stability. c. gender identity. d. gender labeling. 116. After children understand gender, there are changes in their behavior toward more gender-specific preferences. Which preferences do not change during this p eriod of development? a. Preferences for certain TV programs b. Preferences for certain toys c. Preferences for certain activities *d. Preferences for certain foods 117. Which statement is FALSE with regard to gender-schema theory? a. The theory requires understanding of gender stability. b. The theory involves learning about gender-typical behavior. *c. Children who refer to themselves by gender play less often with gende r-stereotyped toys. d. Children who do not refer to themselves by gender play less often with gender-stereotyped toys. 118. Which quote is most reflective of the use of a gender schema? a. “I am a boy.” *b. “Is soccer for boys or for girls?” c. “You are a boy.” d. “Will you help me build this bridge?” 119. A gender-schema theorist would be most likely to argue that young children are a. born with a basic gender identity. b. uninfluenced by environmental experiences with gender-based behavior s. *c. constantly looking for cues about gender. d. uninterested in gender. 120. Tina is a girl who has congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH). This means that it is more likely that Tina will prefer more than other girls. a. playing with dolls b. playing with girls *c. masculine activities d. attaching to her mother 121. Results from the Family Lifestyles Project indicate that children raised by co unterculture parents are different from children raised by parents with more traditi onal values in that *a. they have few stereotypes regarding occupations. b. they play with same-sex peers. c. the boys enjoy physical play. d. the girls enjoy reading and drawing. 122. Erikson suggested that a proper balance between trust and mistrust can result in the acquisition of hope. *a. True b. False 123. Infants rarely become attached to their fathers. a. True *b. False 124. Babies who exhibit avoidant attachment are not upset when their mo thers leave the room. *a. True b. False 125. Fathers typically spend more time playing with their babies than t aking care of them. *a. True b. False 126. Internal working models involve expectations about parental respon siveness. *a. True b. False 127. Children attending high-quality daycare centers are less likely to be securely attached to their mothers than are children raised in their own homes. a. True *b. False 128. Pain is considered one of the basic emotions. a. True *b. False 129. Social smiles tend to be in response to seeing another human’s fac e. *a. True b. False 130. The expression of anger does not appear to vary by culture. a. True *b. False 131. When infants look to a parent to get cues about whether or not a n ew situation is safe, they are exhibiting social referencing. *a. True b. False 132. During parallel play, a child plays individually near other childr en. *a. True b. False 133. Older children are more likely to engage in cooperative play than younger children. *a. True b. False 134. Preschoolers with imaginary friends tend to be less sociable than other preschoolers. a. True *b. False 135. Altruistic behavior involves an expectation of a reward. a. True *b. False 136. When you experience the feelings of another person, you are experi encing empathy. *a. True b. False 137. Many scientists believe that prosocial behavior represents an evol utionary adaptation because helping others leads to being helped by oth ers and a greater likelihood of survival. *a. True b. False 138. Some gender stereotypes are false beliefs. *a. True b. False 139. As toddlers, girls tend to have smaller vocabularies than boys. a. True *b. False 140. Gender differences in math are negligible, but boys have an advant age in some types of spatial ability. *a. True b. False 141. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia results in alteration of the genita ls of male infants. a. True *b. False 142. Define Erikson’s notions of hope, will, and purpose. How do these relate to the first three stages of social development? 143. Describe the four major types of attachment. Then discuss how internal working m odels impact the quality of attachment. 144. You are opening a new day care center. Describe four actions you could take at you r center to foster secure attachments in the children who attend it. 145. Describe the differences between basic and complex emotions in terms of what th ey are, how they are assessed, and when they develop. 146. Chucky is a nasty boy who does not like to help other people. Describe three things Chucky’s parents could do to make it more likely that Chucky will help other people. 147. Phil and Lil are both playing with dolls in the same room. Use them in examples of parallel, simple social, and cooperative play. 148. Describe the benefits of, and cultural differences in, make-believe play. 149. Describe the actual differences between boys and girls that are supported by resea rch. 150. Describe the characteristics of helping others and factors that contribute to the gro wth of helping behavior. 151. Describe gender-schema theory and include two gender-related factors that have b e present. Give three examples that illustrate gender-schema theory in action. 1. Deena used to think that everyone else liked the same people she liked. She now realizes that different people have different opinions toward others. Piaget wo uld suggest that Deena has recently become a thinker. a. preoperational b. formal operational *c. concrete operational d. sensorimotor 2. As a Piagetian, Faye would believe that a concrete operational child’s ability to reverse thought is due to their acquisition of: a. language. *b. mental operations. c. self-efficacy. d. convergent thinking. 3. Matthew notices that his son Damian is having a great time playing near the ki tchen sink. When Matthew asks Damian what he is doing, Damian responds, “It is fun to look at two different-size glasses, imagine water pouring back and forth bet ween them, and knowing that the amount of water stays the same even though th e glass shapes differ.” Piaget would describe Tate’s comments as indicating that he has acquired: a. animism. b. egocentrism. c. irreversibility. *d. a mental operation. 4. The main limitation of concrete operational thinking is that such thought is limi ted to: a. hypothetical situations. *b. tangible, real-life examples. c. emotional issues. d. long-term memories. 5. Which phrase reflects a basic ability available only to a formal operational thin ker? a. “Realistically speaking ...” *b. “Hypothetically speaking ...” c. “Speaking from experience, I ...” d. “Speaking on behalf of others, I ...” 6. A formal operational thinker and a concrete operational thinker are both prese nted with three beakers containing red liquid and are told that some combination of the liquids will produce a green liquid. How would the manner in which the form al thinker solves the problem MOST likely differ from that of the concrete thinker? a. Formal thinkers would do the problem entirely in their head and not act ually pour any liquid. b. The formal thinkers’ approach would be significantly more haphazard. c. Formal thinkers would apply both animism and centration when solving the task. *d. Formal thinkers would be more systematic when combining the liquids and eliminating combinations. 7. Who is MOST likely to be a formal operational thinker? a. Linda, who thinks nickels are worth more than dimes because they are bigger b. Sonia, who has just mastered conservation c. Bob, who is capable of using and understanding symbols *d. Luis, who can use combinatorial reasoning 8. Will won tickets to the Country Music Expo by listing all the possible words th at could be created from the words “COUNTRYRULES.” This is an example of: *a. combinatorial reasoning. b. animism. c. functional fixedness. d. object permanence. 9. A concrete operational thinker and a formal operational thinker are given the f ollowing logical statements: (1) If you drop a 20-pound bowling ball on your foot, it will tickle. (2) You drop a 20-pound bowling ball on your foot. What reaction would you expect? a. Only the concrete operational thinker would conclude that “your foot wo uld tickle.” *b. Only the formal operational thinker would conclude that “your foot woul d tickle.” c. Both would conclude that “your foot would tickle.” d. Both would conclude that “your foot would never tickle” after having a 2 0-pound bowling ball dropped on it. 10. Which describes one of the major criticisms of Piaget’s theory concerning for mal operational thought? a. Adolescent thinking is not as irrational as Piaget predicted. b. The belief that only males could think abstractly was sexist. *c. Adolescents do not appear as cognitively competent as Piaget thought. d. Piaget argued that cognitive development continues to advance into old age, while research has found little change after age 20. 11. What is one of the more questionable aspects of Piaget’s theory? a. It places too much emphasis on biology as the mechanism of change. *b. It does not account for variability in performance. c. It overestimates the intelligence of adults. d. It overvalues the influence of the sociocultural environment. 12. Who would be MOST likely to emphasize the important role that changes in m emory efficiency plays in cognitive development? a. Jerry, who is a social-learning theorist b. Elaine, who is a socio-biologist c. George, who is Piagetian *d. Newman, who is an information-processing theorist 13. Working memory is BEST described as being: *a. temporary and limited in capacity. b. permanent and limited in capacity. c. temporary and unlimited in capacity. d. permanent and unlimited in capacity. 14. If you are reading this test question for the first time, it is: a. currently stored in sensory memory. b. currently stored in long-term memory. *c. currently stored in working memory. d. not currently stored in any memory system. 15. Which MOST accurately describes long-term memory? a. Temporary and limited capacity b. Permanent and limited capacity c. Temporary and unlimited capacity *d. Permanent and unlimited capacity 16. When 80-year-old Marques is asked about his life, he is able to vividly recall his high school graduation party that occurred 60 years ago. Where was this infor mation stored just before it was recalled by Marques? a. Sensory memory b. Working memory c. Short-term memory *d. Long-term memory 17. The first memory strategy acquired by MOST children is: a. chunking. b. use of abstraction. c. verbal elaboration. *d. rehearsal. 18. Metamemory is defined as an individual’s: *a. intuitive understanding of memory. b. level of semantic memory. c. sensory memory speed. d. short-term memory capacity. 19. Birgit is really into women’s soccer and is able to remember all of the profess ional teams because she has mentally sorted them by division. This indicates tha t Birgit is using to help her recall the information. a. divergent thinking *b. organization c. abstract thinking d. rehearsal 20. During , information is always embellished. a. rehearsal *b. elaboration c. metacognition d. combinatorial reasoning 21. Long-term memory is to working memory as is to . a. organized; unorganized *b. permanent; temporary c. weigh station; destination d. biology; psychology 22. Francisco is having a hard time remembering that Madison is the capital of W isconsin. He also knows that his dad will be upset if Francisco flunks his test of s tate capitals. Suddenly, Francisco sees a connection between these two events a nd realizes that he can recall the capital of Wisconsin by remembering that his da d will be mad at him if he can’t remember (mad at son = Madison). In this exampl e, Francisco is clearly using to aid in his memory. a. rehearsal b. centration *c. elaboration d. irreversibility 23. The BEST example of metamemory would involve knowing that: a. whales are mammals, not fish. *b. a 10-word list of unfamiliar foreign words will be harder to recall than a 20-word list of familiar words. c. 10 + 20 = 30. d. foreign words come from another country. 24. Theresa has just come to realize that in order to learn, she must focus her at tention on her teacher, not her classmates. This indicates an advance in Theresa’ s skills. a. divergent thinking b. scaffolding c. sensory memory *d. metacognitive knowledge 25. and are key elements of effective metacognitive knowledge. a. Egocentrism; convergent thinking b. Centration; animism *c. Goal selection; strategy monitoring d. Divergent thinking; a lack of object permanence 26. Eugene has discovered that in order to be successful in college, he must bot h pay attention to his instructor and take good notes. If Eugene is successful at e ngaging in both of these behaviors, he is demonstrating effective: a. abstract thinking. *b. cognitive self-regulation. c. over-regularization. d. one-to-one principle understanding. 27. Which provides the BEST example of cognitive self-regulation? a. Having a short-term memory for a phone number you just heard b. Realizing that some inanimate object may be capable of self-movement *c. Deciding that using flashcards helps memorization of vocabulary terms d. Knowing that 4 + 4 = 8 28. Which behavior is LEAST associated with a cognitive self-regulation process? a. Selecting effective strategies for learning spelling words *b. Relying on the same strategies one used in third grade for a sixth-grad e social studies test c. Identifying goals for studying for an upcoming math test d. Monitoring one’s own learning strategies 29. When asked to describe his specialization, Alfred says, “I am mainly intereste d in developing ways of measuring intelligence and personality factors.” Given this description, Alfred is MOST likely a: a. classical conditioning theorist. b. Freudian. *c. psychometrician. d. social-learning theorist. 30. If a person believes in “general intelligence,” then he or she believes that: *a. some people are smart, no matter the situation, task, or problem. b. whether people are smart depends on the situation, task, or problem. c. intelligence cannot be assessed psychometrically. d. fourth-graders will be smarter than third-graders. 31. Which BEST describes the hierarchical view of intelligence? a. It consists entirely of general intelligence. b. It consists entirely of broad categories of intelligence. c. It consists entirely of specific skills. *d. It consists of general intelligence, categories, and specific skills. 32. Who is BEST associated with a theory of “multiple intelligences?” a. John Carroll b. Alfred Binet *c. Howard Gardner d. Jean Piaget 33. Tyree is extremely good at identifying the motivations and intentions of the pe ople he meets. According to Gardner, Tyree would MOST likely score very well on a test of intelligence. a. intrapersonal b. bodily-kinesthetic c. logical-mathematical *d. interpersonal 34. Which of these is NOT a recommendation by Gardner for schools? a. Schools should foster all intelligences. b. Teachers should capitalize on the strongest intelligences of individual c hildren. *c. Schools should focus on the idea that general intelligence is a single f actor, is stable, and will not change due to environmental influences. d. Instruction should try to engage as many different intelligences as poss ible to gain a much richer understanding of the topic by all students. 35. Ginny is an architect commissioned to design a renovation plan for a decrepit, medieval-themed, private school set in a rural environment. She is excellent at pi cturing what an existing building would look like with certain modifications. This a bility is probably MOST reflective of a high level of intelligence. a. personal b. bodily-kinesthetic *c. spatial d. intrapersonal 36. Omega scored very high on a measure of emotional intelligence. This means that Omega would definitely: a. score high on a traditional test of general intelligence. b. be described as very dysphoric. *c. have the ability to effectively use his emotions to help solve problems. d. score low on a test of naturalistic intelligence. 37. According to Sternberg, ability is MOST heavily focused on problem anal ysis. *a. analytical b. creative c. practical d. familial 38. Which cooking-related behavior is the BEST indicator of a high level of analyti cal ability? *a. Knowing that the reason a cake did not turn out well could be the lack of a key ingredient, the stove being too hot, or bad eggs b. Being able to create a cake flavor that has never before existed c. Realizing that if you follow the directions on a cake box, the cake will tu rn out okay d. Visualizing what a cake will look like before it is baked 39. The ability to deal adaptively with novel situations and problems is BEST ass ociated with ability. a. analytical *b. creative c. practical d. familial 40. Albert just thought of a novel way to consider the relationship between matter and the speed of light. According to Sternberg, this action BEST exemplifies ability. a. familial b. practical *c. creative d. analytic 41. ability involves the realization that a solution will actually work. a. Analytical b. Creative *c. Practical d. Familial 42. Julia loves to cook. While she is capable of reciting a large number of comple te recipes and she often comes up with flamboyant dishes, the truth of the matter is that none of her recipes ever tastes very good, and she is always putting the un eaten leftovers in the refrigerator after evening dinners with her family. This indica tes that on this task, Julia would rate poorly in ability. a. analytical b. creative *c. practical d. intrapersonal 43. Binet and Simon developed the first objective intelligence test in order to: a. rank-order the intellectual capacities of different races. *b. identify children who would need special help in school. c. help the military select soldiers for important tasks. d. test their theory of intelligence. 44. Binet and Simon originally developed the concept of “mental age” as a criteri on for helping them distinguish: a. children with high IQs from children with low IQs. *b. children who would be able to learn in school from those who needed special instruction. c. white children from black children. d. economically disadvantaged children from the “select few” who previous ly attended school. 45. Newt has a mental age of 10. That means Newt: a. is 10 years old. b. has an IQ of 100. c. is a genius. *d. passed test problems that an average 10-year-old would pass. 46. Whose intelligence test was the first to use the concept of an intelligence qu otient? a. Alfred Binet b. Howard Gardner c. Jean Piaget *d. Lewis Terman 47. Tabitha’s intelligence quotient is 100. She is 12 years old, so her mental age must be . a. 6 b. 10 *c. 12 d. 24 48. If the following children all have a mental age of 10, who has the highest IQ? *a. Sheldon, who is 5 years old b. Leonard, who is 10 years old c. Rajesh, who is 20 years old d. Penny, who is 25 years old 49. On modern tests of intelligence, IQ scores are determined: *a. by comparing a child’s score with the average score of other children o f the same age. b. by using the same IQ calculation as on the original Stanford-Binet exam. c. based on a child’s gender and race. d. by subtracting a child’s chronological age from their mental age. 50. The typical correlation between a child’s IQ test score and their classroom gr ade is about . a. +.2 b. +.4 *c. +.6 d. +.8 51. IQ scores are: *a. good predictors of school success and occupational success. b. good predictors of school success but bad predictors of occupational s uccess. c. bad predictors of school success but good predictors of occupational s uccess. d. poor predictors of school success and occupational success. 52. Self-discipline is , but than IQ test scores. a. good predictor of school success; not a better predictor of school succe ss *b. good predictor of school success; often an even better predictor of sc hool success c. poor predictor of school success; a better predictor of occupational suc cess d. poor predictor of school success; a better predictor of school success 53. The basic premise of a hereditary view concerning the nature of intelligence i s that: *a. the more closely related two individuals are, the more positively correl ated their scores will be. b. the correlation between biological sibling’s IQ scores will be about 0.0. c. parents’ IQ scores are not very predictive of children’s IQ scores. d. experience plays a major role in determining a person’s IQ score. 54. Which data suggest the strongest link between heredity and intelligence? *a. Identical twins whose IQ scores correlate at the +.9 level b. Fraternal twins whose IQ scores correlate at the +.9 level c. Biological siblings whose IQ scores correlate at the +.9 level d. Adoptive siblings whose IQ scores correlate at the +.9 level 55. Which evidence BEST demonstrates an environmental impact on intelligence? a. A high correlation between the IQ scores of identical twins b. A low correlation between the IQ scores of strangers *c. The rapid increase in average WISC scores seen during the past 25 ye ars d. The stability of WISC scores seen during the past 25 years 56. The fact that children with higher IQ scores tend to come from homes that pr ovide them with cognitively challenging materials such as puzzles and books BEST supports the theory that: a. intelligence and poverty are highly positively correlated events. *b. environmental factors impact intelligence. c. genes determine intelligence. d. identical twins are more intellectually similar than any random set of sib lings. 57. In the United States, Americans tend to score highest on intelligence te sts. a. European b. African *c. Asian d. Hispanic 58. Which statement concerning ethnicity and intelligence is MOST accurate? a. The recent discovery of a “smart gene” has led most to believe that inte lligence has a strong genetic component. *b. Even if ethnic groups differ significantly in intelligence, the difference c ould be the result of environmental factors. c. Being economically disadvantaged is related to ethnicity but not to intell igence. d. If intelligence differences within an ethnic group are due to genetics, th en intelligence differences between the group and other ethnic groups mus t be due to genetics. 59. Which of these is NOT an example of how test-taking skills can have a negati ve effect on test scores? a. Tests underestimate a child’s intelligence if a child’s culture encourage s children to solve problems by collaborating with others and discourages t hem from excelling as individuals. b. Many economically disadvantaged children are wary of questions posed by unfamiliar adults and often answer test questions by saying, “I don’t kno w,” a strategy that guarantees an artificially low test score. *c. Asking an economically disadvantaged child to answer a question usin g Raven’s Progressive Matrices results in lower test scores because of diff erential cultural values. d. When given extra time to feel at ease with an examiner, economically di sadvantaged children respond less often with “I don’t know” and their test scores improve. 60. Dr. Azikiwe is devising an intelligence test containing items that relate to exp eriences common to all people around the world. Dr. Azikiwe is MOST likely attem pting to develop a(n): a. test of multiple intelligences. b. intelligence quotient. c. spatial intelligence test. *d. culture-fair intelligence test. 61. The term “stereotype threat” is BEST associated with the concept of: *a. the self-fulfilling prophecy. b. convergent thinking. c. cognitive dissonance. d. obedience. 62. Morris, a 17-year-old African American, is taking an intelligence test during hi s senior year of high school. Which of his current thoughts would indicate that he i s experiencing stereotype threat? a. “I wonder if my Asian friends do better than everyone else.” b. “If I don’t do well, my mom and dad will be very disappointed.” c. “As an athlete, a good score on this will open up a lot of scholarship op portunities, so I must do well even though I am not that smart.” *d. “If I do badly on this test, they may think that all black kids are stupid, and this thought is making me nervous and negatively impacting my perfor mance.” 63. By traditional definition, how many of these eight-year-old children would be c onsidered “gifted”: Naomi, IQ  100; Heidi, IQ  120; Kate, IQ  140; Al, Gisele  1 60? a. one *b. two c. three d. four 64. In recent years, the definition of “gifted” has: a. broadened to include all IQ tests. *b. broadened to include areas like dance and music. c. narrowed to include only those in the top 5 percent of their graduating c lass. d. narrowed to include only scores from the Stanford-Binet test. 65. Exceptional talent is the product of: *a. both nature and nurture. b. nature. c. nurture. d. education. 66. Which is NOT a prerequisite for exceptional talent in childhood? a. Support from parents b. Child’s passion for the subject c. Early instruction *d. Talented parents 67. Alicia is a “gifted” child. Compared to her peers, Alicia MOST likely: a. is more socially inept. b. is physically larger. *c. has fewer emotional problems. d. is less mature. 68. Intelligence is to creativity as is to . *a. correct thinking; divergent thinking b. componential; contextual c. spatial intelligence; musical intelligence d. universe; stars 69. Which characteristic is LEAST associated with gifted children? a. Divergent thinking b. Passion about learning c. Above average cognitive ability *d. Physical strength 70. Which child is MOST likely to be gifted? a. Julie, a 2-year-old, who chooses the birthday party gift bag with the mos t toys. b. Geri, a 7-year-old, who scores 100 on intelligence tests. *c. Sarah, a 5-year-old, who is smart and loves to learn. d. Piper, a 10-year-old, who is emotionally troubled. 71. A child with outstanding divergent thinking skills would definitely have a lot of: a. anxiety. *b. originality. c. knowledge. d. friends. 72. Who would MOST likely do the BEST job of playing a game in which the goal was to list as many novel ways to use a banana as possible? *a. Apa, who is a very good divergent thinker. b. Phurba, who is a very good convergent thinker. c. Lhakpa, who is a preoperational thinker. d. Edmund, who is a concrete operational thinker. 73. Which activity BEST exemplifies a test of divergent thinking? a. Naming all the state capitals *b. Listing the possible uses of a marshmallow c. Identifying the exact distance from the Earth to the Moon d. The test question you are currently reading 74. What advice would you give to a teacher trying to encourage creativity in their students? a. “Emphasize rote memorization.” b. “Provide them with items from standardized IQ tests and help them wor k through each problem.” *c. “Encourage them to explore possibilities and not worry about getting th e correct answer.” d. “Since creative ability appears to be innate, there is not a lot you can d o.” 75. By definition, intellectual disability involves both below-average intelligence a nd: a. low standardized IQ scores. b. a known genetic defect. *c. poor adaptive behaviors. d. emotional problems. 76. By traditional definition, how many of these 16-year-old children could be clas sified as “intellectually disabled” (Note: all IQ scores based on Stanford-Binet test results.): Hikaru, IQ  120; Leonard, IQ  100; Pavel, IQ  80; James, IQ  60? *a. one b. two c. three d. four 77. Which statement BEST describes the impact of various factors (e.g., biomedi cal, social) on intellectual disability? a. Some factors affect intellect and other factors affect daily functioning. b. These factors affect adults with intellectual disabilities differently than children with intellectual disabilities. c. Certain factors guarantee an intellectual disability and others just contri bute to its severity. *d. No individual factor guarantees an intellectual disability, but the risk fo r intellectual disability grows as more of these factors are present. 78. Which child MOST likely has a learning disability? *a. Charlie, who has difficulty learning to read. b. Paula, who has experienced a poor learning environment. c. Andrew, who has Down syndrome. d. Glen, who has Muscular Dystrophy. 79. The definition of a “learning disability” always includes: a. mild intellectual disability. b. attention deficit. c. a sensory problem. *d. normal intelligence. 80. Yaakov has a problem. Though he is of normal intelligence and does well in most classes, he struggles tremendously in math. Yaakov is MOST likely suffering from: a. an intellectual disability. b. attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder. *c. a learning disability. d. Down syndrome. 81. Many children with developmental dyslexia have problems converting: a. spoken sound into memories. b. memories into words. c. numbers into letters. *d. printed letters into sound. 82. What is the MOST common type of learning disability? a. Mathematical *b. Developmental dyslexia c. Down syndrome d. ADHD 83. Children with developmental dyslexia benefit from two kinds of instruction. W hich of these reflects one of these types of instruction? *a. Training in phonological awareness b. Instruction in vocabulary c. Training in memory development d. Instruction in social skills 84. Which characteristic appears to be one of the MOST critical elements underly ing mathematical learning disabilities in youngsters? a. Mild intellectual disability b. Visual impairments c. Undetected reading problems *d. An impairment in counting and retrieving arithmetic facts from memory 85. If asked to list key symptoms for ADHD, you should avoid saying: *a. “inarticulation.” b. “hyperactivity.” c. “inattention.” d. “impulsivity.” 86. Which action BEST exemplifies an impulsive child? a. Not concentrating on their homework *b. Shouting out an answer when they are supposed to raise their hand b efore answering c. Fidgeting in their chair while eating d. The inability to read a simple book despite significant intervention 87. Which statement concerning the diagnosis of ADHD is TRUE? a. About 20% of school-age children are diagnosed with ADHD. *b. Boys are more likely to be diagnosed with ADHD than girls. c. Racial minority status is a good predictor of being diagnosed with ADHD. d. Most children “outgrow” symptoms of ADHD. 88. What is the causal relationship between food additives, sugar consumption, and ADHD? a. Both have been shown to be major causes of ADHD. b. Only food additives have been shown to be a major cause of ADHD. c. Only sugar consumption has been shown to be a major cause of ADHD. *d. Neither are major causes of ADHD. 89. One myth concerning ADHD is that: *a. it is typically “outgrown” in adolescence. b. its symptoms can be treated using stimulants. c. it can involve both hyperactivity and impulsivity. d. it is currently significantly underdiagnosed. 90. The drug Ritalin, which is often prescribed for children with ADHD, is a type of: a. antidepressant. *b. stimulant. c. antipsychotic. d. hallucinogen. 91. Who is MOST likely to be diagnosed with, and treated for, ADHD? a. African American children b. Hispanic American children *c. European American children d. There are no racial/ethnic differences in the rate of diagnosis. 92. In reading, the process of identifying a unique pattern of letters is called: a. intonation. b. phonological awareness. *c. word recognition. d. divergent thinking. 93. Takeo is a Japanese individual trying to learn English. The first time he sees t he word “psychology,” he has no idea what this combination of letters means. Tak eo’s difficulties are BEST described as centering on: a. divergent thinking. *b. word recognition. c. intonation. d. syntax. 94. In reading, is defined as the ability to extract meaning from a sequence of words. a. phonological awareness b. animism c. intonation *d. comprehension 95. is defined as the ability to hear the distinctive sounds of letters. *a. Phonological awareness b. Elaboration c. Syntax d. Comprehension 96. A native English speaker is given the following sentence, “Cat at makeup pot ato breath.” Which aspect of reading BEST explains the difficulty the speaker is M OST likely to experience when reading the sentence? *a. A lack of comprehension b. A lack of phonological awareness c. A lack of word recognition d. A lack of object constancy 97. If you lacked phonological awareness, you would have great difficulty in: a. believing that a rocking chair cannot move on its own. b. writing the word “cat” even if you knew how it was spelled. c. understanding that words are symbolic representations of objects. *d. hearing the difference between the words “putt” and “butt.” 98. Which child is BEST characterized as having a phonological awareness disord er? a. Willie, who squirms around in his seat and does not pay attention to wh at his teacher is saying. *b. Korie, who has trouble understanding her teacher because many of th e words she says sound alike. c. Sadie, who is deaf in her left ear. d. John, who is slightly intellectually disordered. 99. Two big challenges to learning English versus other languages lie in the: a. large number of letters in the English alphabet and the inconsistent way letters are pronounced. *b. inconsistent way letters are pronounced and the same sound is spelle d. c. inconsistent way the same sound is spelled and long length of the aver age English word. d. long length of the average English word and the large number of letters in the English alphabet. 100. Beginning readers tend to: a. only use the “sound it out” method. b. only use the “retrieve the word directly from memory” method. c. use the “retrieve word from memory” strategy first and the “sound it ou t” method second. *d. use the “sound it out” strategy first and the “retrieve word from memor y” method second. 101. Researchers identified several factors that contribute to improved reading c omprehension in children. Which factor was NOT on their list? a. Increased capacity of working memory b. Increased general knowledge c. Increased effectiveness in monitoring of comprehension *d. Increased levels of divergent thinking 102. Knowledge-telling and knowledge-transforming are types of strategies. a. reading b. speaking c. spelling *d. writing 103. Who would be MOST likely to use a knowledge-telling strategy when working on a school paper? *a. Mary, who is in second grade b. Barry, who is in eighth grade c. Teri, who is a high school junior d. Kari, who is a college senior 104. Which BEST describes a knowledge-telling strategy? a. Write anything and then check back to find main points. b. Write down themes first and facts second. *c. Write down anything on the topics as it pops into memory. d. Decide on key information and write it first. 105. When considering the theme paper his teacher just assigned, Theodore say s to himself, “Before I start writing, I need to decide what I am going to write abou t and come up with a general organizational plan.” Given this description, Theodor e appears to be using a strategy in planning his theme. a. componential subtheory b. knowledge-telling c. phonological awareness *d. knowledge-transforming 106. Which behavior indicates that Mandy is using a knowledge-transforming stra tegy when writing her psychology term paper? a. When she sounds out the letters to words that she does not know how to spell b. When she begins by writing down any ideas about psychology that pop i nto her mind *c. When, before she writes anything, she decides that the point of the pa per would be to show the differences and similarities between classical co nditioning and operant conditioning d. When she considers how fun it would be to skip the paper and head to the beach 107. Which strategy tends to be MOST common in young writers? a. Read a little, write a little, revise a lot b. Write a lot, revise a little, write a lot c. Write a little, revise a lot, write a little *d. Write a lot, revise nothing 108. One successful program for teaching writing, the Self-Regulated Strategy De velopment in Writing program, tells students that is a trick that good writers use. a. SOAP + STONE b. BIG + SMALL c. WORD + WORDS *d. POW + TREE 109. Which statement concerning math and culture is TRUE? a. American children score near the top on international tests assessing math. *b. Japanese students spend significantly more time in school and have more homework than do children in the United States. c. American parents tend to set higher academic achievement standards t han Asian parents. d. Japanese parents more likely tend to believe that heredity (not hard wor k) leads to mathematic success. 110. Which statement is FALSE with regard to the difference in academic achieve ment between American and Asian children? a. Japanese students spend significantly more time in school and spend more of that time on academic content. b. American students have less homework to do than Japanese students. *c. American parents tend to set higher academic achievement standards than Asian parents. d. Japanese parents are more likely to believe that hard work leads to aca demic success. 111. Which characteristic is NOT typical of a school that produces high-achieving students? a. Highly involved parents b. Effective monitoring of teachers’ performance c. A well-defined goal of academic excellence *d. A heavy emphasis on nonacademic activities 112. You are a principal who is interviewing potential teachers for your school. Be cause your highest priority is student achievement, you should be MOST concerne d that the teachers you hire: a. de-emphasize “hands-on” experience in the classroom. b. earned high grades in college. *c. have good classroom management skills. d. discourage the practice of peer tutoring. 113. A good teacher: *a. takes responsibility for what their students learn. b. does not push for “mastery” of subject matter. c. will not repeat past material. d. relies on handouts and not lecturing. 114. If Fiona is a typical 6-year-old, she would MOST likely: *a. weigh about 45 pounds and be about 45 inches tall. b. weigh about 60 pounds and be about 45 inches tall. c. weigh about 45 pounds and be about 60 inches tall. d. weigh about 60 pounds and be about 60 inches tall. 115. Which statement concerning sex differences in height at age 11 is MOST ac curate? *a. At age 11, females tend to be slightly taller than males. b. At age 11, females and males are exactly the same size. c. At age 11, males tend to be slightly taller than females. d. At age 11, males tend to be significantly taller than females. 116. You are the parent of a normal-size 9-year-old boy. As such, how many calor ies should you ensure that your child consumes each day so that he maintains a normal rate of development? a. 600 calories b. 1,200 calories *c. 2,400 calories d. 4,800 calories 117. Which task would an average elementary school-age girl perform better than an average elementary school-age boy? a. Jumping over a bar *b. Writing her name in cursive c. Hanging from the monkey bars d. Throwing a softball 118. In which physical activity would the average 11-year-old prepubescent boy h ave a distinct advantage over an 11-year-old prepubescent girl? a. Tumbling b. Catching a ball c. Jumping rope *d. Hanging from a bar by their hands 119. Children who are active physically have better health, better self-esteem, and: *a. better achievement in school. b. better musical abilities. c. better attention abilities. d. better caring attitudes toward others. 120. Which statement about youth sports is TRUE? a. Participating in sports and cheerleading seems to significantly decrease involvement in delinquent behaviors. b. When teens find a sport “stressful,” they tend to compensate with great er effort. c. The greatest benefit of involvement is found with coaches who rely heav ily on criticism and punishment. *d. Sports involvement can lead to improved self-esteem. 121. Concrete operational thinkers are unable to reverse their thinking. a. True *b. False 122. When engaging in deductive reasoning, one draws conclusions from f acts. *a. True b. False 123. When engaging in elaboration, one embellishes on information in or der to make it more memorable. *a. True b. False 124. Goal identification and effective strategy selection are examples of cognitive self-regulation. *a. True b. False 125. Psychometricians specialize in the biology of the brain. a. True *b. False 126. Gardner’s types of intelligence include intrapersonal, naturalisti c, and musical. *a. True b. False 127. Sternberg argues that instruction is MOST effective when it is gea red to a child’s weaknesses. a. True *b. False 128. Binet originally introduced the concept of the intelligence quotie nt: IQ = MA/CA x 100. a. True *b. False 129. The correlation between a child’s IQ and those of their biological parents gets stronger as the child gets older. *a. True b. False 130. Culture-fair tests contain numerous items that refer to cultural c oncepts. a. True *b. False 131. Stereotype threat is the self-fulfilling prophecy in which knowled ge of stereotypes leads to anxiety and reduced performance. *a. True b. False 132. By definition, a child with a learning disability must have some k ind of sensory impairment. a. True *b. False 133. The three key symptoms of ADHD are hyperactivity, impulsivity, and inattention. *a. True b. False 134. By sounding out novel words, children store information about word s in working memory that can be used for direct retrieval. a. True *b. False 135. Increases in working memory size can positively impact reading com prehension. *a. True b. False 136. The knowledge-transforming strategy involves a determination of ho w best to organize your written project to convey a point. *a. True b. False 137. Japanese parents are more likely than American parents to believe that genetic factors determine mathematical ability. a. True *b. False 138. Good teachers value tutoring, emphasize mastery of topics, and eff ectively manage their classrooms. *a. True b. False 139. During their elementary school years, the average child gains abou t eight pounds and two to three inches a year. *a. True b. False 140. Several studies have linked participation in sports with antisocia l and delinquent behavior. *a. True b. False 141. The Smiths have two children. Their son Will is a 10-year-old concrete operational t hinker. Their daughter Jada is a 14-year-old formal operational thinker. Describe three diff erent situations in which Will and Jada would respond differently based on their current st ages of thinking. Be sure to describe both the situation and the responses. 142. Describe the development of memory strategies, metacognition, and self-regulation during the early childhood years. 143. A local school board is holding a public hearing on a proposed plan to implement m andatory intelligence testing for all students. Write a statement to present to the board in favor of the proposed plan. Next, write a statement to present to the board against the pr oposed plan. 144. A newspaper headline reads, “IQ scores of Asian students superior to those of stu dents from the United States. Difference appears to be the result of differential educatio n.” Respond to the headline by describing data concerning both ethnic differences in intel ligence and differences in educational practices between the United States and countries in Asia. 145. As an elementary school teacher, you are assigned a group of gifted students. You are asked to develop a plan that meets their learning needs. Describe three practices yo u would include in your daily activities to meet the needs of gifted students. 146. Describe why the statement “Children with ‘learning disabilities’ are identical to tho se with ‘intellectual disability’” is false. In doing so, be sure to provide definitions of both cognitive categories. 147. What are the main symptoms of ADHD? What causes this disorder and how is it M OST effectively treated? 148. Describe the skills that elementary school-age children develop as they learn to rea d, comprehend, and write effectively. 149. You have been asked to serve on a committee charged with providing a school dist rict with advice on how to build the most effective school that will have the most effective teachers. What specific advice on these two topics would you provide to this committee? 150. As the parent of a third-grader, you are growing concerned about your daughter’s le vel of fitness and are considering putting her into an organized sports program. If your da ughter is a typical American child, why would your concern over lack of fitness likely be w arranted? Also, what are the pros and cons of placing a child into organized sports? 1. Liam is learning the values, behaviors, and roles of his culture. In other words, Liam is experiencing: a. direct instruction. b. counterimitation. c. authoritative parenting. *d. socialization. 2. Today most theorists view families from a perspective. *a. contextual b. parenting c. narrow d. genetic 3. According to the systems view of families, how many of these factors influenc e a child’s development: neighborhood, school, work, religious organizations, and extended family? *a. five b. three c. one d. none of these are correct 4. Janet is a researcher who believes that to understand childrearing, you must g et beyond looking solely at how parents treat their children and look at the behavi or of the children, the behavior of their siblings, the behavior of the parents towar d each other, and the neighborhood in which the child lives. It is most likely that J anet supports a view of childrearing. a. psychodynamic b. blended family *c. systems d. counter-imitation 5. The two main dimensions of parental behavior are: a. dominance and counterimitation. b. counterimitation and warmth. *c. warmth and control. d. control and dominance. 6. Will and Grace want their children to work hard. They have rules and expect th eir children to obey them without question. Will and Grace are most likely par ents. a. uninvolved *b. authoritarian c. authoritative d. permissive 7. When 13-year-old Ki-Jana asks his parents if he can go to an R-rated movie, hi s parents say no, but sit down and explain to him the reasoning behind their deci sion. His parents express affection toward him and tell him that they may conside r the matter at some later time. Which parenting style BEST describes Ki-Jana’s p arents? a. Authoritarian b. Permissive c. Uninvolved *d. Authoritative 8. Jimmy and Marcella are quick to express affection toward their son, Andrew, a nd accept most of his behavior. In fact, Andrew has never once been punished. Ji mmy and Marcella are exhibiting a(n) style of parenting. a. authoritative b. authoritarian c. uninvolved *d. permissive 9. When all of his buddies call home to tell their parents they will be getting home late fr om the game, Dieter doesn’t bother, saying, “My mom and dad are too busy to care abou t me. They don’t care how late I’m out—in fact, they never even ask where I’m going.” If D ieter is right, his parents are most likely exhibiting a(n) parenting style. *a. uninvolved b. authoritarian c. permissive d. authoritative 10. Because they have a permissive parenting style, you would predict that Alan and Sue’s son would: a. earn high grades in school. *b. have limited self-control. c. be self-reliant. d. have control over his behavior. 11. Children who are aggressive tend to come from families with or p arenting styles. a. authoritarian; authoritative *b. uninvolved; authoritarian c. authoritative; permissive d. permissive; uninvolved 12. Matthew’s parents are very warm and exert a moderate amount of control ove r his life. Matthew’s parents are most likely: a. Latin American. b. Chinese. *c. European American. d. immigrant Chinese. 13. As a typical parent in Latin America, Maria would place great emphasis on de veloping a strong sense of in her children. a. self-reliance *b. family ties c. emotional restraint d. free-thinking 14. What basic premise underlies Chinese parenting? a. Love is more important than control. b. Scream but never hit. *c. Keep your emotions in check. d. Children are not responsible for their actions. 15. Which parenting style tends to be MOST common for American parents of low er socioeconomic status? a. Permissive b. Authoritative *c. Authoritarian d. Uninvolved 16. Families and parenting are that evolved to provide for children until the y mature. a. economic systems b. cultural institutions *c. adaptations d. support systems 17. Research on identical twins as parents shows that they are more similar than fraternal twins in the amount of their children. a. nutritional resource they provide for b. direction they give to *c. warmth they express toward d. self-directed choice they allow 18. occurs when a parent tells a child what to do, when to do it, and why it should be done. a. Counter-imitation b. Punishment c. Infant-directed language *d. Direct instruction 19. Rather than simply ordering his son to mow the lawn, Ahmad says, “Son,mow the lawn now. It’s really long and we’re having company over tomorrow, so I’ll nee d help getting the lawn ready.” Ahmad’s statement is an example of: *a. direct instruction. b. counterimitation. c. disinhibition. d. negative reinforcement trap. 20. Which technique is always based on modeling? a. Negative reinforcement trap *b. Counterimitation c. Instrumental aggression d. Direct instruction 21. Sophie watches her older sister Catherine getting yelled at after she throws a n apple across the kitchen. Sophie is now less likely to throw an apple across the kitchen herself. This kind of learning through observation would be BEST describe d as: a. time-out. b. direct instruction. *c. counterimitation. d. a negative reinforcement trap. 22. Julie watches her sister squirt dish soap all over the kitchen floor and sees h er get punished by her parents for that behavior. Consequently, Julie learns not to squirt dish soap all over the kitchen floor. Which term BEST describes this scenari o? a. A negative reinforcement trap *b. Counterimitation c. Indulgent parenting d. Direct instruction 23. Whenever Roger says “please,” his father gives Roger what he asks for. This i n turn increases Roger’s use of the word “please.” Giving in to Roger’s requests a ppears to be a form of: *a. reinforcement. b. punishment. c. counterimitation. d. inhibition. 24. After his mother hears him swear, Conrad gets a time-out. If this led to reduc tion in Conrad’s swearing, his mom’s strategy would be described as a form of: a. counterimitation. b. reinforcement. *c. punishment. d. negative reinforcement trap. 25. Which pairing is MOST likely to fall victim to the “negative reinforcement trap”? a. Mother and daughter *b. Mother and son c. Father and daughter d. Father and son 26. Ian’s mother tells him to stop watching TV and do his homework. Ian then be gins to whine about wanting to watch more TV to the point that his mother gives i n and lets him watch more TV as long as he stops whining. Consequently, Ian’s w hining behavior increases in frequency. This sequence is BEST described as: a. punishment. b. counterimitation. c. direct instruction. *d. a negative reinforcement trap. 27. Simon spanks his son Paul in order to get him to stop acting aggressively. W hich outcome is LEAST likely in the long term? a. Paul will become fearful of Simon. b. Paul will become more aggressive. *c. Paul will stop being aggressive. d. Paul will not internalize the social rules concerning aggressive behavior. 28. Which statement about time-out is TRUE? a. It is based on modeling. b. It is a reinforcement technique. *c. It bypasses many of the pitfalls of punishment. d. It produces disinhibition. 29. When Esther misbehaves, her mother makes her go sit by herself in a small, quiet, unstimulating area of the house. Esther’s mother is probably using: a. direct instruction. b. socialization. *c. time-out. d. an indifferent parenting style. 30. Parental conflict: a. usually has no negative effects on children. *b. can make a child feel that the family is unstable. c. often has positive effects on a child’s development. d. is not a normal part of most marriages. 31. Which statement about marital issues and child development is TRUE? a. Chronic parental conflict seldom spills over into child-parent relationshi ps. b. Parental conflict cannot positively impact a child. c. Children’s self-esteem typically increases when a parent becomes une mployed. *d. Parents who lead stressful work lives parent less successfully.. 32. Which statement BEST describes the relationship between parenting styles a nd children’s temperaments? a. Parenting styles cause temperaments. *b. Parenting styles may develop as the result of temperament. c. Temperaments develop as the result of parenting styles. d. Temperament and parenting styles are unrelated. 33. Which 6-year-old is most likely to be distressed by the fact that she has a ne w baby brother? *a. Annabella, whose parents pay less attention to her b. Noni, who has two older sisters c. Monique, who has one older brother d. Patsy, whose dad has become more involved in parenting 34. Once the youngest sibling gets to be about , they will start talking more t o older siblings than to mom. a. 6 months old b. 1 year old c. 2 years old *d. 4 years old 35. Which pair of siblings is most likely to get along very well? a. William (a boy) and Beth (a girl) b. Mary (who is temperamentally emotional) and Lisa (who is not tempera mentally emotional) *c. Ruth (a girl) and Greta (a girl) d. Sam (who is temperamentally emotional) and Trevor (who is also tempe ramentally emotional) 36. Which advice should be given to parents who are trying to reduce their childre n’s sibling conflict? a. “Admit that you have a ‘favorite.’” *b. “Try to keep your marital problems to yourself.” c. “Next time try and not have your children so close together in age.” d. “It would be helpful if you didn’t have all girls.” 37. Research on sibling relationships in African American families indicates that t hese relationships are MOST positive when children have: a. many siblings. b. high IQs. c. sisters. *d. a strong sense of ethnic identity. 38. In which way are adopted children different from children living with their biolo gical parents? a. They have different temperaments. b. They have more maladjusted mother-infant attachments. *c. They are more likely to have problems adjusting to school. d. They are delayed in terms of cognitive development. 39. Which adopted child is likely to have the MOST problems? a. Steve, who was adopted right after birth b. Chuck, who was adopted when he was 2 years old c. Ann, who was adopted when she was 4 years old *d. Lydia, who was adopted when she was 8 years old 40. In recent years, adopted children (and their adoptive families) are more likely to communicate with the children’s birth family, an arrangement known as a(n): a. co-adoption. b. de-adoption. c. surrogate parenting. *d. open adoption. 41. Priscilla is pregnant. She and her husband Elvis have very high expectations f or this child and will be more affectionate, but also more punitive, toward this chil d than they will toward any other. This is most likely this couple’s baby. *a. first b. second c. third d. fourth 42. As the third child born in his family, Fletcher should expect that his parents w ill than they did with his oldest sibling. a. use stiffer disciplinary methods b. set higher academic goals c. be more affectionate *d. be more relaxed in their discipline 43. Which child is MOST likely to succeed academically and go to college? *a. Teri, who is firstborn b. Martha, who is second born c. Dorothy, who is third born d. Vanessa, who is the youngest child 44. Which is TRUE of only children relative to children with siblings? a. They are more likely to be “spoiled brats.” b. They are more selfish. c. They are more egotistical. *d. They are smarter and more mature. 45. In China, only children are MOST accurately described as: a. “rejected.” b. “little emperors.” c. “great wall flowers” *d. “similar to kids with siblings.” 46. The impact of being a child of divorced parents often persists into adulthood and includes the greater likelihood of: a. never marrying. b. marrying at a young age. *c. being depressed. d. being more optimistic about marriage. 47. Anjali’s parents are divorced. Anjali spends weekends with his father and the rest of the week with his mother. In legal terms, this arrangement is an aspect of what is known as: a. an indifferent-uninvolved parenting style. b. direct instruction. c. a blended family. *d. joint custody. 48. Which is the MOST effective way for parents to reduce the negative impact of divorce on a child? a. Reinforce the idea that in life you cannot control what happens to you. b. Make sure that only one parent is actively involved with the child’s life. c. Ask the child to help mediate disputes between them. *d. Don’t view the child’s love as a competition between them. 49. Brooke’s family consists of her biological mother, biological sister, and stepfa ther. This kind of unit is known as: a. a clique. b. a negative reinforcement trap. *c. a blended family. d. joint custody. 50. Which BEST exemplifies a “blended family?” a. A family with two parents and one child, where one parent is Caucasian and the other is African American b. A family with two adopted children, where one child is Caucasian and th e other is African American c. A family in which parents have joint custody of at least one child *d. A family in which a divorced mom with three daughters marries a wido wed dad with three sons 51. Doreen is a single, divorced mother of a 5-year-old boy. Will remarrying be go od for her son? a. No, as he will more likely feel rejected by his mother b. No, as stepfathers are typically a burden for the boy *c. Yes, if the stepfather is warm and involved d. Yes, no matter what the stepfather is like 52. Olivia was divorced three years ago and has custody of her preadolescent chi ldren (one boy and one girl). Olivia is now planning to remarry. Who will have the most difficulty adjusting to this new blended family? a. Olivia’s son *b. Olivia’s daughter c. Olivia d. The new stepfather 53. Concerning blended families, a. children in blended families tend to experience fewer incidences of depr ession, but more of anxiety. b. the likelihood of divorce is slightly lower than for first marriages. *c. children often fear that the stepparent will disturb their relationship wit h the biological parent. d. noncustodial fathers tend to maintain closer contact with their children. 54. Authorities will sometimes find children near death due to the fact that their parents have not fed them or protected them from environmental conditions such as the weather. These children are most accurately labeled as victims of: a. physical abuse. *b. neglect. c. psychological abuse. d. negative reinforcement trap. 55. By far the MOST frequent sort of child abuse would be categorized as: *a. neglect. b. sexual. c. physical. d. psychological 56. Which social condition appears to foster maltreatment of children? a. Fragile-X syndrome *b. Poverty c. Alcoholism d. ADHD 57. How many of these children would be at risk for child abuse: a stepchild, a si ck child, and a child with a parent deployed in a combat zone? a. None b. One c. Two *d. Three 58. The odds of increase in a person who has been abused as a child. a. divorce *b. attempting suicide c. being an authoritative parent d. high academic performance 59. Which statement best exemplifies ego resilience? a. “I am a good person.” b. “Parents should be able to discipline their children any way they see fi t.” *c. “Even though I have never been in this situation before, I can handle i t.” d. “It is hard for me to take the point of view of someone who thinks differ ently than I do.” 60. What has research shown to be useful in preventing child abuse? a. Jail time and censure of abusive parents *b. Early childhood intervention programs c. Encouragement of parents to use more physical punishment d. Removal of the father from the lives of the children 61. Which aspect of friendship tends to be new to children aged 8–11? a. Sharing activities *b. Trust c. Sharing toys d. Mutual liking 62. Marcia’s parents frequently tell her she is “an idiot” and often make her look foolish in front of her friends. This sort of abuse would BEST be described as: *a. psychological. b. physical. c. socialization. d. neglect. 63. As a new stepfather, Jackson should: *a. show interest, but not get too involved in the lives of his new stepchild ren. b. establish clear boundaries with both his step- and biological children. c. establish himself as the authority with both his step- and biological chil dren. d. show affection first toward his children, then his new spouse. 64. Five-year-old Badia’s parents are not taking care of his medical needs. Badia is suffering from: a. physical abuse. b. psychological abuse. *c. neglect d. hostile aggression. 65. When George gets angry with his children, he cannot control his emotions an d he often strikes them, causing bruises and even broken bones. George is guilty of his children. a. sexually abusing b. neglecting c. psychologically abusing *d. physically abusing 66. Who is MOST likely to spank her child? a. Rose, who is a Swedish parent *b. Tulip, who is an American parent c. Lilly, who is a Japanese parent d. Blossom, who is a Chinese parent 67. Who is MOST likely to abuse his child? a. Louis, who relies on the time-out technique to punish his children b. Derek, who was never abused when he was a child *c. Joe, who is socially isolated from friends and relatives d. Scott, who is wealthy 68. A child who is able to respond resourcefully in a new situation is said to have high levels of: *a. ego resilience. b. instrumental aggression. c. counterimitation. d. co-rumination. 69. Which action would likely lead to a significant drop in the incidence of physica l child abuse? a. Having the entire world adopt an attitude toward childrearing like that s een in the United States *b. Wiping out poverty c. Eliminating government intervention into parenting issues d. Encouraging parents to adopt an authoritarian style 70. The statement, “we share our feelings” is MOST likely to be made by a: a. 3-year-old. b. 5-year-old. c. 10-year-old. *d. 15-year-old. 71. Pablo is a troubled 8-year-old. He is very upset about the fact that he lost his cap. Pablo is most likely to seek support from: a. his teacher. b. his close friends *c. his mother. d. a police officer. 72. Tito would be more likely to have friends of a different race if: *a. he lived in a diverse neighborhood. b. he attended a segregated school. c. his friends were older. d. his friends had different attitudes than his own. 73. Who possesses a characteristic that makes them LESS likely to be a friend w ith 12-year-old Isabel, who is Mexican American? a. Donny, who is also 12 years old b. Lonny, who is also a female c. Ronny, who is also Mexican American *d. Bonny, who views school differently 74. The fact that friends spend a lot of time discussing personal problems is refe rred to as: *a. co-rumination. b. ego resilience. c. dominance hierarchy. d. the negative reinforcement trap. 75. Glenna hangs around two other friends who are the same sex and have simil ar attitudes and interests. This group of friends would most accurately be describ ed as a: a. group. b. crowd. c. gang. *d. clique. 76. A friendship is both: a. mandatory and independent. b. mandatory and mutual. c. voluntary and independent. *d. voluntary and mutual. 77. Clive says that Erik is his best friend because “we like to play with each other, and Erik always lets me use his soccer ball.” It is most likely that Clive is ye ars old. a. 2 *b. 5 c. 12 d. 16 78. Girls are more likely to be concerned about the faithfulness of their friends b ecause their friendships are more likely based on: a. socialization. b. helping each other. *c. intimacy. d. common interests. 79. Laura is 14 years old, and is extremely upset about the fact that someone m ade fun of her in class. Laura is most likely to seek support from: a. her teacher *b. her close friends. c. her mother. d. her father. 80. Which statement indicates that co-rumination is occurring? a. “I like ice cream.” b. “I think that being by myself and drinking this malt is about the best thi ng I can do for me.” *c. “I know that you are also having trouble staying slim.” d. “When I go out to dinner and order a salad, I always ask for cottage che ese.” 81. Crowd is to clique as is to . *a. set; subset b. friend; rival c. black; white d. attitude; behavior 82. Sixteen-year-old Yvonne is a member of the “Math-elites,” the highest status crowd at school. It is most likely that Yvonne has: a. low self-esteem. b. average self-esteem. *c. high self-esteem. d. no friends. 83. In a group based on a dominance hierarchy, you can expect: a. increased internal conflict. b. equal status for all members. *c. a single leader. d. few active members. 84. Yuri is the leader of a group called “The Wannabes.” All the other members k now that Yuri is in charge, and they respect that. What is the BEST term to descri be this type of group structure? a. Clique b. Crowd *c. Dominance hierarchy d. Friendship 85. There is a group in town called “The Killer Tees,” made up of girls who like gol f. The leader of the group is MOST likely to be: *a. Annika, who is the best golfer in the group. b. Michelle, who has the most outgoing personality. c. Sella, who is the wealthiest person in the group. d. Grace, who is the best student in the group. 86. What single factor appears to be MOST influential in determining whether an adolescent will “cave in” to peer pressure? *a. The degree to which appropriate standards of behavior are clear-cut b. The degree to which you can get into trouble for engaging in the act c. The degree to which parents oppose the act d. The degree to which the act requires effort 87. Which child is BEST described as an “average child”? a. Georgie, who is well liked by most of her classmates *b. Natalya, who has some classmates that like her somewhat and others that dislike her somewhat c. Yuri, who is ignored by his classmates d. Donald, who is disliked by most all of his classmates 88. Clyde is quite a character. He is very well liked by some people in his class, b ut is very much disliked by some others. Clyde is a good example of a(n) chil d. a. popular b. rejected c. average *d. controversial 89. Angelica is well liked by most of her classmates. She would be BEST describ ed as: a. average. b. neglected. c. controversial. *d. popular. 90. As a “neglected” child, Juno should expect to be by her peers. a. bullied b. disliked *c. ignored d. feared 91. What is the BEST advice you could give to an adolescent trying to gain popula rity among their school peers? a. “Be quiet.” *b. “Be nice.” c. “Be subservient.” d. “Be aggressive.” 92. What type of child is disliked by the majority of their peers? *a. Rejected b. Controversial c. Neglected d. Average 93. In which culture would shyness be a predictor of peer popularity? a. Israel b. Canada *c. China d. Shyness is not valued in any culture. 94. Eric’s classmates don’t particularly hate him; they just never pay any attentio n to him. Eric would probably be BEST described as: a. controversial. b. rejected. *c. neglected. d. average. 95. Children who are rejected by their peers have often been: *a. disciplined inconsistently by their parents. b. raised in environments that lacked a sense of intimidation. c. raised by parents with an authoritative style. d. the victims of time-out procedures. 96. Rita is incredibly aggressive on the hockey rink, but is very nice to everyone w hen she isn’t competing. What term best describes Rita’s “on-ice” aggression? a. Relational aggression b. Hostile aggression c. Neglect *d. Instrumental aggression 97. Sinead is a 1-year-old. Which behavior would you MOST likely see her display? a. Relational aggression b. Hostile aggression *c. Instrumental aggression d. Prejudice 98. Casey is a chronic victim of bullies. What is one way research suggests to de crease the likelihood that Casey will continue to be victimized? a. Try to externalize the fear experienced while being bullied. b. Increase his own hostile aggressiveness. *c. Help him make more friends. d. Put him in time-out. 99. Mabel likes to hit other children for no other purpose than to see them get hu rt and feel scared. What term BEST describes Mabel’s behavior? *a. Hostile aggression b. Instrumental aggression c. Relational aggression d. Counterimitation 100. Randy is a 7-year-old who exhibits a high degree of hostile aggression. What is he MOST likely to be like when he is in high school? a. More hostile aggressive but not greater in instrumental aggression than his same-age peers b. About as aggressive as his same-age peers *c. More aggressive than his same-age peers d. More instrumentally aggressive but not greater in hostile aggression tha n his same-age peers 101. Does watching TV violence really affect the behavior of children? a. No, it has no effect on overt violent behavior. b. Not really. It may make them a little scared for a while but has no long-t erm effects. c. It might if the children are ADHD before they watch the violence. *d. Yes, it tends to be associated with more aggressive behavior. 102. Playing violent video games while identifying with aggressive characters in th e game aggressive behavior. a. is inversely correlated with *b. is positively correlated with c. is unrelated with d. reduces the incidence of 103. If he is a typical child, when 5-year-old Tonka hears a commercial that says, “This is the best toy in the whole world!” he: a. would not understand what it means. b. knows that the company is simply trying to sell something. c. believes that the company is lying. *d. believes the commercial is telling the truth. 104. One of the problems with relying on prosocial television programs to encour age prosocial behaviors in children is that: a. prosocial programs have no effect on behavior. b. children do not like programs that promote prosocial behavior. c. prosocial programs only affect the behavior of girls. *d. prosocial programs are far outnumbered by violent programs. 105. Children who watch more on TV seem better prepared to enter school t han preschoolers who watch less frequently. a. news *b. Sesame Street c. cartoons d. commercials 106. Hiroko watches shows that display and encourage being friendly and helpful to other people. After watching this, Hiroko is more likely to: *a. act friendly. b. act aggressively. c. be depressed. d. act the same way she always has. 107. What would be the MOST effective way to increase the impact of prosocial t elevision programs on children’s behavior? a. Put more cartoons on the air b. Eliminate commercials *c. Put more prosocial programs on the air d. Eliminate adult-oriented programs 108. Which statement is MOST accurate regarding the cognitive impact of watchi ng television? a. Television causes children to have short attention spans. *b. There is no strong evidence that TV watching by itself has negative cog nitive impact on children. c. Children who watch television become lazy thinkers. d. Watching television leads to increased activity levels and stifles the cre ativity of children who watch it. 109. Children who play video games such as Tetris and Star Fox frequently impro ve their: a. vocabularies. *b. spatial skills. c. short-term memories. d. leadership skills. 110. Roughly percent of youth get “hooked” on video games. a. 5 *b. 10 c. 15 d. 20 111. Teenage girls send and receive about 40 texts a day, boys about 20 texts a day. Overall, such communication leads most teens to feel more their frien ds. *a. connected with b. knowledgeable of c. bullied by d. socially distant from 112. Cyberbullying refers to repeated, deliberate actions, actions for which a victi m is basically . a. offended b. embarrassed c. saddened *d. defenseless 113. Six-year-old Yoko’s description of her friend Gretchen is MOST likely to inclu de which adjective? *a. Mean b. Understanding c. Funny d. Tall 114. People’s use of in their descriptions of people tends to increase as the y age. a. general information *b. personality traits c. possessions d. concrete features 115. Amy describes her friend Duffy by saying, “She’s fun to be around because s he’s funny and has good ideas, but she’s often insensitive to how others feel.” A my is MOST likely about years old. a. 2 b. 7 c. 10 *d. 16 116. Helen is upset because she thinks that her teacher views her argument with Mary as being silly. According to Selman, Helen is MOST likely in the stage o f perspective-taking. *a. third-person b. societal c. undifferentiated d. self-reflective 117. Recursive thinking improves steadily during the elementary school years due to the combined effects of increased language skill and greater: a. working memory. b. social experience. *c. executive functioning. d. sensory awareness. 118. Prejudice is BEST described as: a. a limitation placed on a person because they belong to some group. b. hating oneself because of who one is. *c. a negative view of others based on their group membership. d. the ability to put oneself into the “shoes” of another person. 119. Once Jim finds out that Henri is from France, he immediately dislikes him be cause he thinks French people are not trustworthy. What term best describes Jim’ s view of Henri? a. Relational aggression b. Hostile aggression c. Socialization *d. Prejudice 120. During adolescence, as preference for your own group intensifies, the likelih ood of prejudice: *a. gets higher. b. gets lower. c. stays the same. d. reduces to zero. 121. What advice should be given to a parent who is trying to discourage prejudic e in their child? a. “Simply put your child in contact with individuals from other groups and let things occur on their own.” *b. “Have your child role-play being members of another group.” c. “Work on strengthening your child’s feelings toward his or her own grou p.” d. “Let things alone, as attempts to reduce prejudice almost always result in increased prejudice.” 122. Authoritarian parents usually produce children who are the best ad justed. a. True *b. False 123. Parenting styles vary both across cultures and within cultures. *a. True b. False 124. Direct instruction involves telling a child when, what, and why th ey should do something. *a. True b. False 125. The key to effective use of time-out lies in placing a child in an overstimulating environment. a. True *b. False 126. A child’s temperament can affect the type of parenting style exhib ited by the parent. *a. True b. False 127. Firstborn children score higher on intelligence tests than later-b orn children. *a. True b. False 128. Divorce is more difficult for adolescent children than for prescho ol children. *a. True b. False 129. A “blended” family must consist of at least two people from differ ent racial/ethnic backgrounds. a. True *b. False 130. Child abuse is more prevalent in the United States than in countri es that do not condone physically punishing children. *a. True b. False 131. Poverty is a risk factor for child maltreatment. *a. True b. False 132. Friendship involves mutual and voluntary liking. *a. True b. False 133. Children whose friends are all members of the opposite sex are mor e likely to be well-adjusted than children whose friends are all member s of the same sex. a. True *b. False 134. Controversial children are well liked by some of their classmates. *a. True b. False 135. Hostile aggression is provoked. a. True *b. False 136. Children who play video games have lower spatial abilities. a. True *b. False 137. Children’s descriptions of other people tend to get more conceptua l as they get older. *a. True b. False 138. In Selman’s initial stage of perspective-taking, children appear u nable to understand why someone would want to do something different th an they want to do. *a. True b. False 139. Members of high-status groups are more likely to be prejudiced. *a. True b. False 140. The concept of “she thinks that he thinks that” is best associated with egocentric thinking. a. True *b. False 141. Prejudice is having a negative view of others based on their membe rship in a specific group. *a. True b. False 142. Describe how marital relationships, a child’s age, and a child’s temperament all co ntribute to the manner in which a parent “parents” a child. 143. Contrast the following terms: negative reinforcement trap, punishment, and time-ou t. Which technique seems to be the most effective? 144. Describe parental and environmental risk factors for child maltreatment. Then disc uss factors that appear to mediate the impact of abuse. 145. Clive is a developmentally typical child. Give examples of how the description of his best friend might differ when Clive is 3, 10, and 16 years old. 146. Use your own school experiences to provide examples of school-based cliques and crowds and the concept of dominance hierarchy. If you cannot think of a specific instance, make one up. 147. Compare popular, rejected, controversial, and neglected children. Explain how pare nting style contributes to the development of these groups of children. 148. Describe a negative and a positive effect on children from playing video games. 149. Describe one positive and one negative effect of social media use by children. 150. Use the dimensions of warmth and control to describe the four major types of pare nting. Which style seems to promote the best development in children? Explain. 151. What is the difference between instrumental, hostile, and relational aggression? Al so, who are most likely to be victimized by such bullies? 1. is best defined as physical changes that mark the transition from childhood to y oung adulthood. *a. Puberty b. Menopause c. Primary circular reactions d. Secondary circular reactions 2. The two general types of physical development associated with puberty include: a. lower self-esteem and bodily changes. *b. physical changes and sexual maturation. c. sexual maturation and formal operational thinking. d. formal operational thinking and lower self-esteem. 3. From whom would you expect the biggest gains in height and weight over the next thr ee years? a. Ginger, who is 2 years old b. Grant, who is 6 years old *c. Tina, who is 11 years old d. Louise, who is 14 years old 4. Who would be most likely to have just achieved close to her full adult stature? a. Meg, who is 12 years old *b. Beth, who is 15 years old c. Josephine, who is 18 years old d. Amy, who is 21 years old 5. In a typically developing adolescent experiencing puberty, you would expect that his or her would be the last body area to grow. a. head b. feet c. legs *d. trunk 6. A sex difference during puberty involves the fact that is greater for girls than boy s. a. muscle development *b. body fat c. lung capacity d. heart capacity 7. During adolescence: a. both brain myelination and synaptic pruning first begin. b. brain myelination first begins and synaptic pruning nears completion. c. brain myelination nears completion and synaptic pruning first begins. *d. both brain myelination and synaptic pruning near completion. 8. The maturation of the during adolescence lags behind the maturation of . a. systems that are sensitive to reward; systems responsible for self-control *b. systems responsible for self-control; systems that are sensitive to reward c. systems responsible for synaptic pruning; systems for myelination d. systems for myelination; systems responsible for synaptic pruning 9. Primary sex characteristic changes are those directly impacting: *a. reproduction. b. height. c. intelligence. d. personality. 10. Which adolescent is experiencing a change in his primary sex characteristics? a. Truman, who now has facial hair *b. Hank, who has begun to produce sperm c. Stanley, who has begun to talk in a deeper voice d. Olaf, who now has broader shoulders 11. During puberty, changes in physical maturity that are not directly linked to reproducti on are referred to as sex characteristics. a. primary *b. secondary c. tertiary d. instrumental 12. How many of the following are considered secondary sex characteristics: growth of f acial hair in boys, development of a functional uterus in girls, voice change in boys, and b roadening of shoulders in girls? a. one b. two *c. three d. four 13. Menarche is best described as the onset of: a. puberty. b. pubic hair. *c. menstruation. d. body growth. 14. Who is experiencing the first indicator of the onset of puberty in a typical female? a. Mary, whose pubic hair has started to grow b. Carrie, who has just begun to menstruate *c. Geri, whose breasts have started to grow d. Terri, who has just begun to ovulate 15. Who is experiencing the first indicator of the onset of puberty in males? *a. Theon, whose testes have started to grow b. Jamie, whose pubic hair has started to grow c. Tyrion, who is experiencing a growth spurt d. Jon, whose penis has started to grow 16. Which event defines spermarche? a. The production of sperm *b. The ejaculation of sperm c. The original meiosis of sperm d. The implantation of sperm into an egg 17. Which statement concerning the timing of puberty in males and females is true? a. The onset of menarche in females typically occurs a few years prior to the typi cal onset of spermarche in males. b. The onset of menarche in females typically occurs a few years after to the typi cal onset of spermarche in males. *c. The onset of menarche in females typically occurs around the same time as the onset of spermarche in males. d. The onset of menarche in females typically occurs almost a decade after the t ypical onset of spermarche in males. 18. Menarche is to spermarche as is to . *a. onset of menstruation; ejaculation b. egg production; sperm production c. ovulation; testes growth d. fertilization; conception 19. A key physical component of puberty is the gland, which regulates pubertal cha nges by signaling other glands to secrete hormones. a. thyroid b. adrenal *c. pituitary d. pineal 20. Estrogen is directly released by the: a. pituitary gland. *b. ovaries. c. adrenal gland. d. testes. 21. If asked to identify where the hormone that causes the maturation of the genitals in females comes from, you should say: a. “the pituitary gland.” *b. “the ovaries.” c. “the fallopian tube.” d. “the adrenal gland.” 22. Estrogen is to androgen as is to . a. sperm; egg *b. ovary; testis c. male; female d. ejaculation; menarche. 23. Which statement is TRUE? a. Estrogen is found only in females, and androgens are found only in males. b. Estrogen is found only in males, and androgens are found only in females. c. During puberty, estrogen and androgens are released at the same levels in ad olescent males and females. *d. During puberty, estrogen and androgens are released at different levels in ad olescent males and females. 24. Robin is a 13-year-old who is currently experiencing puberty. During the past few mo nths, his testes have released a small amount of estrogen. What is the most likely outco me of this hormonal activity? a. Robin will begin to ovulate. b. Robin will begin to have enlarged testicles. *c. Robin will begin to experience some breast development. d. Robin will show no impact because testes are incapable of producing estroge n. 25. Which factor seems to be strongly involved in the timing of menarche? a. Parenting skills *b. Nutrition c. Education d. Birth order 26. Which statement best describes the connection between environmental stress and maturation in girls? *a. Puberty occurs earlier in girls who have experienced chronic stress. b. Puberty occurs later in girls who have experienced chronic stress. c. The onset of puberty in girls is determined genetically, thus stress has no effe ct on the timing of puberty. d. The effects of stress on maturation in girls are unknown. 27. Which best describes the typical response to body image during puberty? a. Females worry more about appearance, but males are more dissatisfied with t heir appearance. b. Males worry more about appearance, but females are more dissatisfied with t heir appearance. c. Males worry more about appearance and are more dissatisfied with their appe arance. *d. Females worry more about appearance and are more dissatisfied with their a ppearance. 28. Upon experiencing spermarche, most boys: *a. rarely tell parents or friends about this new development. b. usually tell their mothers. c. usually tell their friends. d. are unaware of what a spontaneous ejaculation means. 29. Dontee is a typical teenager. Research has indicated that the moodiness that he is exhibiting is most likely due to: a. raging hormone levels. *b. changes in social settings and activities. c. negative verbal interactions with his parents. d. concern over his changing body. 30. Who is most likely to suffer the most negative psychological consequences as a res ult of the timing of maturation? a. Josh, an early-maturing male *b. Robin, an early-maturing female c. Patty, a late-maturing female d. Arthur, a late-maturing male 31. Early maturation has been shown to increase in females. *a. smoking and drinking b. popularity c. happiness d. self-confidence 32. The negative effects associated with being an early-maturing female have been foun d to be offset by: a. hormone replacement therapy. *b. having supportive parents. c. possessing a strong personal fable. d. hanging around with older males. 33. Early-maturing boys are more at risk for: a. being pressured into sex. b. requiring hormone replacement therapy. c. attention deficit disorder. *d. depression. 34. A typical teenage girl should consume approximately calories each day. a. 1,200 b. 1,700 *c. 2,200 d. 2,700 35. Concerning hemoglobin levels, during the teen years: a. boys need more and girls need less. b. girls need more and boys need less. *c. both boys and girls need more. d. both boys and girls need less. 36. As a typical U.S. teen, Amber is most likely consuming: a. too few calories and too little iron. *b. too many calories and too little iron. c. too few calories and too much iron. d. too many calories and too much iron. 37. Currently, in the United States, about one in adolescents is overweight. a. three *b. five c. six d. nine 38. Concerning weight, the abbreviation BMI stands for: a. base metabolic indices. b. body metabolic indices. c. base mass index. *d. body mass index. 39. Overweight teens are most at risk for developing later in life. a. osteoporosis b. sickle-cell disease c. Huntington’s disease *d. diabetes 40. Orson is 13 years old and classified as overweight. Which statement is most likely t o be TRUE? *a. Orson is unpopular with his peers. b. Orson has high self-esteem. c. Orson has little risk for medical problems. d. Orson has a faster-than-normal basal metabolic rate. 41. Fifteen-year-old Kristi was adopted when she was an infant. Her adult weight is best predicted by the: a. weight of her adoptive parents. b. average weight of individuals in her age-cohort group. *c. weight of her biological parents. d. average weight of her adoptive siblings. 42. Parents may contribute to the likelihood of their children becoming obese by: a. encouraging them to get 9–10 hours of sleep each night. b. encouraging them to be more physically active. *c. encouraging them to rely on external eating signals. d. encouraging them to rely on internal cues to eat. 43. Which characteristic is LEAST associated with child and adolescent obesity? a. High blood pressure b. Diabetes *c. Popularity d. Having overweight parents 44. Genetic influence on obesity can cause some adolescents to be: a. more influenced by television ads *b. less able to convert fat to fuel. c. far thinner than their parents. d. estrogen deficient. 45. Programs that effectively assist obese children in losing weight tend to: a. emphasize the need to follow external cues when deciding when to eat. b. encourage children to become more sedentary. c. totally eliminate meat from their diets. *d. focus on changing children’s eating habits and encouraging them to become more active. 46. Which parental action would be the most effective to discourage obesity in his or her children? a. Teach them the importance of avoiding meat b. Downplay the taste of food c. Encourage them to lose weight quickly *d. Help them set realistic goals 47. Carrie exhibits anorexia nervosa. When she looks in a mirror, she is most likely think ing: a. “I’m really starting to get thin!” *b. “I’m so fat!” c. “I’m beautiful compared to those ugly women on television!” d. “I’m going to have to start eating a little more!” 48. is one of the defining characteristics of anorexia nervosa. *a. The persistent refusal to eat b. A cyclic binge-and-purge pattern c. A rational fear of obesity d. An inhibited basal metabolic rate 49. What is a defining characteristic of anorexia nervosa? a. Binge eating b. Increased body mass index c. Purging through vomiting *d. An irrational fear of being overweight 50. The defining characteristic of bulimia nervosa involves: *a. a binge-purge eating pattern. b. weight loss. c. a distorted body image. d. an irrational fear of obesity. 51. Which teenager is at the greatest risk for developing anorexia or bulimia? *a. Ivy, who has internalized the thin body image that is often thought to be ideal in Western cultures b. Rose, who is intellectually gifted and enjoys outdoor activities like hiking and r ock climbing c. Daisy, who never worried about dieting when she was young d. Petunia, who has a grandmother with bipolar disorder 52. How many of these are risk factors for teenagers developing either bulimia or anorex ia: being overly concerned about body image, heredity, adverse life experiences, high sel f-esteem, frequently watching television shows with overweight characters? a. one b. two *c. three d. four 53. About 1 in individuals diagnosed with an eating disorder is male. a. 3 b. 5 *c. 10 d. 20 54. You are asked to develop an effective prevention program concerning eating disorde rs in teens. What approach should you take? a. Utilize psychoactive medication. b. Avoid teaching about specific diets. c. Create a highly structured environment in which the teens have little personal input. *d. Teach the importance of resisting the social pressure to be thin. 55. One way to reduce the incidence of obesity in adolescence is to have teens engage i n “regular activity.” Which of these defines such activity? a. Exercise must last for at least 60 minutes, two times per week. b. Exercise must occur at least five times a week. c. Exercise must burn at least 250 calories. *d. Exercise must last for 30 minutes, three times per week. 56. Lindsey is hesitant about letting her teenage daughter Davenport participate in sport s because she has heard that most youth who participate in sports end up injured. What is the most accurate assessment of Lindsey’s thoughts? a. She is absolutely right, because about 70% of young athletes are injured and r equire medical attention. b. She is kind of correct, because about 40% of young athletes are injured and r equire medical attention. *c. She is fairly incorrect, because about 15% of young athletes are injured and r equire medical attention. d. She is totally wrong, because only about 1% of young athletes are injured and require medical attention. 57. Anabolic steroids are most chemically similar to: a. cocaine. b. estrogen. *c. testosterone. d. Ritalin. 58. In order to enhance his baseball performance, Lyle has been taking steroids. In rece nt months, he has begun to experience some medical problems. Which of his problems w ould be LEAST likely to be the result of steroid use? a. Cancer b. Cardiovascular disease c. Mental health problems *d. Osteoporosis 59. In the United States, about out of every 2,000 adolescents dies each year. *a. 1 b. 5 c. 10 d. 25 60. Based on statistics, which of these is most common cause of death to a teenager? *a. An accident involving a motor vehicle b. Incidents involving firearms c. Incidents involving suicide d. A cancer diagnosis 61. Typical American teenagers tend to: a. underestimate the danger of most risky behaviors and overestimate the likelih ood that they will experience these consequences. b. overestimate the danger of most risky behaviors and underestimate the likelih ood that they will experience these consequences. *c. underestimate the danger of most risky behaviors as well as the likelihood th at they will experience these consequences. d. overestimate the danger of most risky behaviors as well as the likelihood that they will experience these consequences. 62. The illusion of invulnerability is best demonstrated by: a. postconventional thinking about sex. *b. unprotected sex by teens. c. a girl’s first menstrual cycle. d. male masturbation. 63. The illusion of invulnerability is best defined by the phrase: *a. “it won’t happen to me.” b. “slow and steady wins the race.” c. “once bitten, twice shy.” d. “nothing is worth the risk of dying.” 64. Which statement BEST describes the neurological explanation for risk-taking behavio r in teens? a. Myelination of the temporal lobe results in poor decision-making. b. Due to neurotic pruning, the pleasure centers of the brain become “super-char ged.” c. Estrogen and testosterone act like “cocaine” in the brain. *d. The pleasure areas develop prior to the areas that control behavior. 65. Which statement concerning cognitive development in adolescence is TRUE? a. Working memory and processing speed are more childlike than adultlike. b. Working memory becomes adultlike, but processing speed remains childlike. c. Processing speed becomes adultlike, but working memory remains childlike. *d. Working memory and processing speed are more adultlike than childlike. 66. Which concept describes the development of processing speed between ages 8 and 18? a. Time needed to respond decreases at a consistent rate. *b. Time needed to respond decreases for the first years and then levels off. c. Time needed to respond is constant for the first years and then decreases sig nificantly. d. Time needed to respond increases at a consistent rate. 67. Which concept is best associated with increased content knowledge? *a. Increased ability to identify strategies appropriate for a specific task b. Increased memory capacity c. Increased processing speed d. Increased metacognitive skills 68. Heuristics tend to be very: a. sophisticated. *b. fast. c. accurate. d. analytical. 69. Chris is 17 and his brother Liam is 10. When trying to pick the winner of a violent co mpetition: *a. Chris will be more analytic, and Liam will be likely to use a heuristic. b. Liam will be more analytic, and Chris will be likely to use a heuristic. c. Chris will be more likely to use postconventional thinking, and Liam will be like ly to use a universal ethical principle. d. Liam will be more likely to use postconventional thinking, and Chris will be like ly to use a universal ethical principle. 70. Adolescents develop reasoning, which allows them to find weaknesses in argu ments. a. heuristic *b. logical c. egocentric d. inflative 71. In reasoning, adolescents recognize the hazards in making generalizations fro m extremely small samples. *a. scientific b. heuristic c. logical d. formal operations 72. While spending a day at Funtasia amusement park with their family, Polly (age 5) an d her sister Dinah (age 15) met Funder Dog, the theme park mascot, who gave them bot h a hug and waited patiently for both girls to take selfies with him. When drawing conclusi ons about theme park mascots: a. both Polly and Dinah will conclude that all theme park mascots are friendly. b. both Polly and Dinah will be wary of concluding that all theme park mascots ar e friendly. c. Dinah will conclude that all theme park mascots are friendly, and Polly will be wary of concluding that all theme park mascots are friendly. *d. Polly will conclude that all theme park mascots are friendly, and Dinah will be wary of concluding that all theme park mascots are friendly. 73. Fourteen-year-old Jean-Claude, an avid video game player, reads a flawed study sho wing that video game players are smarter than most people. Then he reads a second stu dy with similar flaws proposing that video game players are poor leaders. What would you predict will happen? *a. He would overlook the flaws in the first study and dismiss the findings of the second study. b. He would now believe that video game players are poor leaders. c. He would now believe that video game players are both smarter and poor lead ers. d. He would dismiss the findings of the first study and overlook the flaws in the second study. 74. As a typical young teen, Maurice would be best at detecting flaws in arguments. a. heuristic *b. logical c. post operational d. egocentric 75. What would you predict would happen when Walt, a white supremacist teen, reads a scientific study indicating that Asians have higher IQs than whites? a. He would begin to reconsider his anti-Asian stance. *b. He would dismiss the study as being flawed. c. He would now view Asians as more intelligent. d. He would now view Asians as even less intelligent. 76. What technique did Kohlberg use to assess moral thinking? *a. He presented participants with moral dilemmas. b. He observed moral behavior in laboratory experiments. c. He observed moral behavior in real-life experiments. d. He reviewed newspaper accounts on acts of bravery and acts of violence. 77. In the Victor Hugo story Les Misérables, a character named Jean Valjean steals a lo af of bread to feed a starving child. How would psychologist Lawrence Kohlberg describe t his act? a. Kohlberg would not be surprised because he saw humans as morally corrupt. *b. Kohlberg would argue that the act of theft is not in and of itself immoral, dep ending on the rationale for the theft. c. Kohlberg would have expected the theft if the child were Valjean’s, but not if t he child belonged to someone else. d. Kohlberg would have expected the theft, but only if Valjean were operating at t he lowest level of moral reasoning. 78. According to Kohlberg: a. there is only one correct response to any moral dilemma. b. religious arguments concerning moral issues are the strongest. *c. the reason underlying a moral decision is more important than the action tak en. d. moral reasoning is too complex to be accurately assessed. 79. What basic moral question underlies the Heinz dilemma? a. Are humans naturally violent or passive? *b. Can stealing be justified? c. Is there a God? d. Is there a basis for the concept of race? 80. According to Kohlberg’s original theory, there are levels of moral reasoning, eac h containing stages. a. two; two *b. three; two c. two; three d. three; three 81. Kohlberg used the label when referring to the first level of moral reasoning. a. preoperational b. prepositional *c. preconventional d. prepubertal 82. Preconventional moral reasoning is based on forces. a. internal b. biological c. innate *d. external 83. When asked how he makes moral judgments, 15-year-old Solomon says, “I do what my father says is right.” This comment indicates that he is in the level of moral think ing. *a. preconventional b. conventional c. postconventional d. unconventional 84. A person in the first stage of preconventional moral reasoning relies heavily on when making a moral judgment. a. adherence to laws b. adherence to a personal moral code *c. obedience to authority d. random guessing 85. Moral reasoning based on instrumental orientation tends to occur at the level o f moral thinking. *a. preconventional b. conventional c. postconventional d. unconventional 86. When considering the Heinz dilemma, Joaquin says that he would not steal the drug because his mommy told him that stealing was wrong, and people who steal get into trou ble. This consideration indicates that Joaquin is most likely in Kohlberg’s stage of m oral development. *a. first b. second c. third d. fourth 87. When considering whether or not to be nice to a classmate, Christina says, “If I am nice to Kelly,, she might reply the next time I take a snap and send it to her.” This type of logic best exemplifies thinking at Kohlberg’s stage of moral reasoning. a. first *b. second c. third d. fourth 88. When considering the Heinz dilemma, Barney says that he would steal the drug beca use then his wife might bake him a cake to repay him for saving her. This thinking indicat es that Barney is most likely in Kohlberg’s stage of moral development. *a. second b. third c. fourth d. fifth 89. When discussing the Heinz dilemma, a decision based on would indicate that a person is at the instrumental orientation stage of moral reasoning. a. current laws concerning stealing b. a universal moral code c. obedience to an authority figure *d. how stealing the drug might create inconveniences to one’s self 90. Jackson’s statement, “My moral compass is based on the simple premise that one must always adhere to social norms” indicates that he is operating at the level of m oral reasoning. a. preconventional *b. conventional c. postconventional d. unconventional 91. Which of Kohlberg’s levels places the greatest emphasis on morality as a function of the expectations others hold toward you? a. Preconventional *b. Conventional c. Postconventional d. Unconventional 92. The phrase “good girl and good boy” is best associated with Kohlberg’s stage o f moral thinking. a. first b. second *c. third d. fourth 93. Karen thinks she should go out with Blane, an unattractive, social misfit, because “If I don’t go out with him, people will think I’m really mean.” Karen is most likely in Kohlber g’s level of moral reasoning. a. preconventional *b. conventional c. postconventional d. unconventional 94. When Dwayne and Vin are debating whether or not to steal a cool car they just found, Dwayne says, “It’s wrong to steal the car because there are laws against stealing, and n o one is above the law.” This type of thinking best fits with Kohlberg’s level of moral thinking. a. preconventional *b. conventional c. postconventional d. unconventional 95. When discussing the Heinz dilemma, Lindsey says, “I wouldn’t steal the drug becaus e I would not want anyone thinking of me as a thief.” This type of logic best fits with Kohl berg’s stage of moral reasoning. a. first b. second *c. third d. fourth 96. Morality based on adherence to societal law and order is best associated with Kohlb erg’s stage of moral thinking. *a. second b. third c. fourth d. fifth 97. Postconventional moral thinking is characterized by judgments made according to a (n): *a. personal code of behavior. b. set of society's laws. c. list of parental “do’s and don’ts.” d. egocentric self-schema. 98. When discussing the Heinz dilemma, Nancy says, “I would steal the drug, because w hen they marry, a husband promises to love, cherish, and protect his wife until death do t hey part. Thus, it is his social responsibility to steal the drug to help his wife.” This type o f response best fits with the stage in Kohlberg’s model of moral development. a. second b. third *c. fourth d. fifth 99. Moral reasoning based on social contracts is best identified with Kohlberg’s st age of moral reasoning. a. third b. fourth *c. fifth d. sixth 100. When considering the Heinz dilemma, Jefferson says, “You cannot justify theft, bec ause if you do, it will lead to social anarchy.” This statement best matches the logic of so meone at Kohlberg’s level of moral development. a. preconventional b. conventional *c. postconventional d. unconventional 101. According to Kohlberg, abstract notions of justice or equity are examples of: a. preconventional thought. b. social norms. *c. universal ethical principles. d. social contracts. 102. When considering the issue of euthanasia, Jack says, “I know that killing is wrong, but I believe that compassion is sometimes more important than the law.” This statemen t suggests that Jack is thinking at Kohlberg’s level. a. preconventional b. conventional *c. postconventional d. unconventional 103. In Kohlberg’s stage of moral development, principles like compassion and just ice come to underlie moral decision making. a. third b. fourth c. fifth *d. sixth 104. According to Kohlberg’s model of moral reasoning: a. morality based on obedience to authority is superior to that based on living up to expectations of others. b. morality based on living up to others’ expectations is superior to that based o n adherence to a valid social contract. *c. morality based on following rules to maintain social order is superior to that based on nice behaviors being exchanged for future favors. d. morality based on following rules to maintain social order is superior to that b ased on a personal moral system reliant on abstract principles. 105. The story of Oskar Schindler provides an interesting personal example of moral dev elopment. In Schindler’s case, his change in motivation from one of profit to one of savin g lives represents a change that Kohlberg would say moves from thinking to thi nking. a. preconventional; conventional *b. preconventional; postconventional c. postconventional; conventional d. postconventional; preconventional 106. Kohlberg believed that moral reasoning was consistent. Research has revealed tha t moral reasoning is: *a. inconsistent. b. consistent. c. universal across cultures. d. consistent in adults but not children. 107. Research indicates that most individuals’ progression through Kohlberg’s stages is . a. haphazard. *b. in sequence. c. gender-specific. d. dependent on self-esteem. 108. At which age are most people operating at the postconventional level of mor al reasoning? a. Adults b. Adolescents c. A good portion of adolescents and adults develop this level of thinking. *d. Adolescents and adults may both operate at this level depending on c ultural influences. 109. Kohlberg proposed that stages of moral reasoning: a. do not predict moral behavior. *b. form an invariant sequence. c. predict one’s general level of intelligence. d. vary greatly from culture to culture. 110. Support for Kohlberg’s theory of moral development includes data indicating that: *a. external forces have a greater impact on the moral behavior of those o perating at the lower stages of moral reasoning. b. females are superior on moral dilemmas that focus on nurturing. c. older individuals tend to regress to lower levels of moral thinking. d. the development of moral reasoning does not follow any specific seque nce. 111. There is little evidence to support Kohlberg’s claim that the stages of moral reasoning are: a. measurable. *b. universal. c. unconscious. d. biological. 112. Kohlberg’s emphasis on has not been supported by cross-cultural rese arch. *a. individual rights and justice as the basis for moral reasoning b. the biological nature of morality c. racial differences in morality d. IQ scores as a predictor of moral thinking 113. Joe has lived all of his life in the United States, while Apu was raised in the Hindu faith in India. When presented with a dilemma concerning the morality of st ealing: a. Joe would be much more likely to make a care-based decision. *b. Apu would be much more likely to make a care-based decision. c. both Joe and Apu would likely make care-based decisions. d. both Joe and Apu would likely make justice-based decisions. 114. Groups of Hindu adults and children from India and non-Hindu adults and ch ildren from the United States are read a dilemma in which a person is forced to c hoose between breaking the law to help out a friend or not breaking the law but di sappointing the friend. What results would you expect? a. No group chose to break the law. b. The adults chose to break the law. *c. Those from India chose to break the law. d. All groups chose to break the law. 115. Children and adolescents in many cultures begin reasoning about moral dile mmas at: a. stage five or six. b. stage four or five. c. infancy. *d. stage two or three. 116. Research has indicated that the most effective way to foster moral develop ment in adolescents is to: a. avoid allowing them to voice amoral opinions. b. encourage direct observation of immoral behavior. c. sign a social contract. *d. discuss moral issues. 117. Research suggests that adolescents involved with are positively influen ced in moral reasoning and moral behavior. a. after-school sports *b. religious youth groups c. part-time work d. domestic chores 118. Which activity is LEAST likely to raise Chelsea’s moral reasoning to a more s ophisticated level? *a. Making decisions based on social norms b. Participating in a church youth group c. Watching a peer stand up for another regardless of the consequences d. Discussing moral dilemmas with her parents 119. Girls tend to begin puberty before boys. *a. True b. False 120. Myelination of the brain increases during adolescence. *a. True b. False 121. All regions of the brain mature at the same time. a. True *b. False 122. The pituitary gland regulates puberty changes by signaling other g lands to release hormones. *a. True b. False 123. The onset of puberty can be influenced by one’s environment. *a. True b. False 124. The moodiness often seen in teenagers is best explained in terms o f “raging hormones.” a. True *b. False 125. Early maturation tends to have negative effects for males. *a. True b. False 126. Body mass index is based on both weight and height. *a. True b. False 127. Adolescents who do not sleep enough tend to gain weight. *a. True b. False 128. A defining characteristic of anorexia nervosa is an uncontrollable binge-purge pattern. a. True *b. False 129. In the United States, most teenage girls die in motor vehicle acci dents or by natural causes. *a. True b. False 130. Most teenagers achieve adult-like levels of processing speed durin g adolescence. *a. True b. False 131. The adolescent brain tends to have more mature pleasure-seeking sy stems and less advanced systems for controlling behavior. *a. True b. False 132. Increases in content knowledge during adolescence result in advanc es in the ability to identify strategies appropriate for solving specif ic tasks. *a. True b. False 133. Adolescents tend to rely less on heuristics and more on analytical problem-solving. *a. True b. False 134. Adolescents’ beliefs can interfere with effective thinking. *a. True b. False 135. Interpersonal norms are found at Kohlberg’s postconventional level of moral reasoning. a. True *b. False 136. In Kohlberg’s model, stage three moral reasoning involves universa l ethical principles. a. True *b. False 137. In the Hindu religion, a great emphasis is placed on responsibilit y to others. *a. True b. False 138. Most people view puberty as a strictly biological event. Describe both physiological and environmental factors that influence the process of puberty. 139. The exact timing of puberty varies. Discuss psychological advantages and disadvan tages of early and later puberty for both females and males. 140. Discuss the benefits and potential drawbacks of allowing a child or teen to particip ate in organized sports. 141. Describe common causes of death for teens in the United States. Be sure to discu ss how the illusion of invulnerability contributes to the way teens die. 142. Design a study to determine if the working memory and speed of processing is diff erent between 8-year-olds and 18-year-olds. 143. Describe the six stages of Kohlberg’s theory of moral development. 144. Describe how culture may impact moral decision-making and use the Hindu religion to illustrate this. 145. George’s moral decision making is at the conventional level, while his wife Angie’s i s at the postconventional level. Describe how these differences would impact a decision t hat they might make concerning a binge-drinking episode by their daughter Carmen. 146. You are working on a research paper and are considering plagiarizing the assignme nt by downloading a paper from the Web. Describe three reasons, one for each level of K ohlberg’s model of moral development, as to why you would not plagiarize the paper. Nex t, describe three reasons, one for each level of Kohlberg’s model of moral development, as to why you would plagiarize the paper. 147. You are the parent of twins, one male and one female, who are entering puberty. D escribe to them the primary and secondary sex characteristics that they will each be acqu iring over the next few years. 1. The attitudes, behaviors, and values that we believe make us unique individuals are c alled our: a. self-esteem. b. self-recognition. c. self-efficacy. *d. self-concept. 2. Marlin wants to learn more about identity formation in adolescents. Given this interes t, he would be BEST served by reading the works of: *a. Erikson. b. Ainsworth. c. Piaget. d. Gibson. 3. According to Erikson, the key adolescent crisis involves: a. generativity versus stagnation. b. intimacy versus isolation. *c. identity versus role confusion. d. integrity versus despair. 4. According to Erikson, a teenager is MOST likely to achieve their identity by: a. becoming more egocentric. b. using learned helplessness. c. becoming crystallized. *d. using hypothetical reasoning skills. 5. Erikson hypothesized that adolescents achieve an identity by: a. doing only what their parents tell them to do. *b. testing a few identities to see which one fits them best. c. unconsciously relying on their genetic makeup. d. simply progressing naturally from their preteen years. 6. In the stage of identity status, an individual is overwhelmed yet does little to acc omplish the task of identity formation. *a. diffusion b. moratorium c. foreclosure d. achievement 7. When asked, “What do you want to be when you grow up?” ten-year-old Sanjay says, “My dad says I should be a doctor, so I guess that’s what I’ll be.” According to Marcia, Sa njay is best thought of as being in a state of identity: a. diffusion. b. moratorium *c. foreclosure. d. achievement. 8. While in the identity status stage, a person is examining numerous alternatives but finds none totally satisfactory. a. diffusion *b. moratorium c. foreclosure d. achievement 9. After exploring a number of career options, Antonio chooses to become an accountan t. According to Marcia, what level of identity status is Antonio exhibiting? a. Diffusion b. Moratorium c. Foreclosure *d. Achievement 10. Which individual is exhibiting a moratorium in the process of developing an identity? a. Greg, who refuses to consider different career paths b. Jan, who is doing what her parents want her to do *c. Cindy, who has changed careers several times d. Bobby, who has been in the same career for 25 years 11. Adolescent egocentrism is characterized by excessive: a. convergence. b. achievement. *c. self-absorption. d. depression. 12. Sixteen-year-old Paris’s motto is, “It’s all about me!” This belief fits well with the con cept of adolescent: *a. egocentrism. b. learned helplessness. c. secular growth. d. foreclosure. 13. Which statement BEST describes the thought process underlying adolescent egocen trism? a. Adolescents cannot believe that others have different perspectives than them. *b. Adolescents are much more interested in their own feelings than those of ot hers. c. Adolescents believe that everyone is ignoring them. d. Adolescents tend to do whatever their parents say. 14. Abby is 16, and Andy is 5. Both exhibit egocentrism. How is this egocentrism MOST likely to differ between them? a. Andy is going to exhibit more self-interest. b. Abby has reached achievement in most areas. *c. Abby knows that other people have different perspectives than her own. d. Andy is more likely to exhibit the illusion of vulnerability. 15. The phenomenon whereby an individual believes that he or she is like an actor on a stage, who is under constant watch by others, is referred to as: a. the personal fable. *b. the imaginary audience. c. learned helplessness. d. diffusion status. 16. Aniston’s decision to stay home from school because she thinks everyone will notice a pimple she recently discovered on her chin serves as an excellent example of: *a. an imaginary audience. b. role confusion. c. a personal fable. d. hypothetical-deductive thinking. 17. The defining feature of the personal fable is a feeling of: a. superiority. *b. uniqueness. c. helplessness. d. diffusion. 18. Aaron is upset because his state tournament qualifying tennis doubles teammate Cl ay just transferred to a new high school across town that has a top-flight tennis program. When his coach attempts to console Aaron, he tells him, “It’s no use—you couldn’t possi bly know how I feel. No one knows how I feel!” Aaron’s statement is an example of: a. an imaginary audience. *b. a personal fable. c. moratorium. d. learned helplessness. 19. The belief that misfortunes only happen to others is referred to as the illusion of: a. foreclosure. b. helplessness. c. crystallization. *d. invulnerability. 20. Sixteen-year-old Felix is ready to skydive and standing at the open door of the plane with his instructor next to him. He thinks to himself, “Only dummies have problems with t heir parachutes, and I am no dummy, so I will skydive even though I am not sure it’s saf e.” Felix’s thoughts BEST exemplify the concept of: a. an imaginary audience. b. a personal fable. *c. an illusion of invulnerability. d. learned helplessness. 21. Which parents are MOST likely to raise a teenager with strong identity achievement status? *a. Jill and Tim, who encourage autonomy in their children b. Lois and Hal, who encourage conformity in their children c. Gloria and Jay, who discourage experimentation in their children d. Frankie and Mike, who continue to strictly enforce childhood rules 22. Cersei sets random rules for her children to follow and enforces them without explan ation. This parenting style will MOST likely result in Cersei’s teenage children displaying a (n) identity status. a. diffusion *b. foreclosure c. moratorium d. achievement 23. About one- of adolescents/young adults living in the United States are membe rs of an ethnic minority group. a. half *b. third c. quarter d. fifth 24. Learning about one’s culture and heritage sets the foundation for a person’s id entity. *a. ethnic b. crystallized c. index d. imaginary 25. Shoni is Native American and has absolutely no interest in learning anything about h er family’s Navajo culture. Shoni is MOST likely to: a. have authoritative parents. b. have higher self-esteem than most of her peers. *c. be a young adolescent. d. have a well-developed ethnic identity. 26. Which statement indicates that Margareta is in the initial stage of ethnic identity dev elopment? *a. “Who cares if I am Latino?” b. “My ancestors were in America before white settlers.” c. “I am Hispanic and proud of it.” d. “I would like to go to the fine arts center because this evening it is featuring d ancers from my family’s heritage.” 27. The emphasis in the second phase of ethnic identity formation is on: *a. exploring one’s heritage. b. moving away from one’s heritage. c. finding a new heritage. d. developing a distinct ethnic self-concept. 28. Which statement BEST exemplifies the second phase of ethnic identity achievement? a. “I don’t need to listen to the tape on Scottish legends.” b. “I feel a strong sense of Scottish heritage.” c. “I don’t want to be considered a Scottish American; I just want to be an Ameri can.” *d. “I wonder what kinds of events take place at a festival celebrating Scottish h eritage.” 29. The third phase of ethnic identity achievement involves: *a. creating a distinct ethnic self-concept. b. rejecting one’s heritage. c. deciding to not explore one’s ethnic roots. d. wondering about one’s ethnic heritage. 30. Which statement BEST indicates that a teenager is in the third stage of ethnic identi ty development? a. “I am curious about where my ancestors lived.” b. “I’ll think about my ethnicity when I am older.” *c. “I see myself as a Dutch-Asian American.” d. “I need to match my identity to that of all others in my ethnic group.” 31. Jinfa was born in the United States. His father is African and his mother is Japanese. If he is in the third state of ethnic identity development, he would MOST likely consider h imself as an: a. American. b. African American. c. Japanese. *d. American with roots in both Africa and Japan. 32. What is the BEST description of the relationship between strength of ethnic identity and self-esteem? a. Spurious correlation *b. Positive correlation c. Negative correlation d. No correlation 33. When immigrant parents maintain strong feelings of ethnic identity that their childre n don’t share: *a. problems can develop when their children embrace their new culture. b. their children assimilate into the new culture more quickly. c. their children see them as problems for their new culture. d. they are less happy in their new culture than their children. 34. Which statement concerning ethnic identity development is TRUE? a. A sense of ethnic identity does not appear to correlate to school performance. b. Identification with a mainstream culture weakens one’s ethnic identity. *c. Adolescents who have achieved an ethnic identity tend to have greater self-e steem. d. Biracial identities do not exist in our modern-day world. 35. Who is MOST likely to have the highest self-esteem? *a. A 4-year-old b. An 8-year-old c. A 12-year-old d. A 16-year-old 36. Which BEST summarizes research findings about the development of self-esteem? a. Boys tend to have lower self-esteem than girls. b. School transitions appear to have little impact on self-esteem. *c. Developmental changes in self-esteem vary by domain. d. Boys have higher levels of self-esteem than girls across all domains. 37. The drop in self-esteem often found when children first enter middle school appears to be due to: a. the acquisition of concrete operational thinking. *b. peer comparisons. c. changes in ethnic identity. d. the illusion of invulnerability. 38. A child who believes that they are good at science will MOST likely: a. perform well at science. *b. have a positive academic self-concept concerning science. c. hold a positive academic self-concept toward all academic domains. d. have an extremely differentiated self-concept. 39. Which elementary-school-age child would likely have the highest level of self-esteem? a. Ruby, who is African American *b. Opal, who is European American c. Topaz, who is Hispanic American d. As ethnicity does not impact self-esteem, all of these children would have the same level of self-esteem. 40. Which adolescent would likely have the highest level of self-esteem? *a. Aniyah, who is African American b. Reba, who is European American c. Camila, who is Hispanic American d. As ethnicity does not impact self-esteem, all of these adolescents would have similar levels of self-esteem. 41. When Molly hears that several people in her geometry class think she’s great, it is li kely to: *a. increase her self-esteem. b. decrease her self-esteem. c. have no effect on her self-esteem. d. alter her ethnic identity. 42. Which statement concerning self-esteem is TRUE? a. Adolescents’ levels of self-esteem do not vary by context. b. Parental rules lead to lower levels of self-esteem in adolescents. c. Levels of parental affection are inversely related to self-esteem levels in adole scents. *d. A harmonious child-parent relationship tends to lead to higher levels of self- esteem in adolescents. 43. Consider the following factors: doing well in school, having parents who discipline, a nd being liked by one’s peers. How many contribute to an adolescent’s level of self-estee m? a. none b. one c. two *d. three 44. The text characterized the notion of adolescence’s being a time of great “storm and stress” as a: a. trend. b. fact. *c. myth. d. certainty. 45. Cross-cultural studies of adolescent self-perception indicate that: *a. most teenagers feel good about themselves. b. teenagers in industrialized nations have the highest rate of self-dissatisfactio n. c. females feel significantly better about themselves than males. d. most teenagers feel bad about themselves. 46. James is a typical adolescent. You would expect that he: a. does not feel loved by his parents. *b. relies on his parents for advice. c. has low self-esteem. d. is conflicted with regard to gender identity. 47. Which group of adolescents report that they are usually happy? a. None b. Only those adolescents in Western nations c. Only those adolescents in Eastern nations *d. Most adolescents around the world 48. Why do Asian-American and Latino-American teens tend to begin dating at a later ag e than European-American teens? a. Fewer available partners *b. Stronger family ties c. Less disposable income d. Greater need for social isolation 49. Teenagers are less likely to engage in sexual activity when parents: a. actively encourage sexual activity. *b. monitor their activities. c. remain emotionally detached. d. encourage independence. 50. A typical American teenage male is MOST likely to describe his first sex partner as: a. his love. *b. a casual date. c. a stranger. d. his steady girlfriend. 51. Nicholas and Alexandra are typical American teenagers. How would their description s concerning their first sexual experience MOST likely differ? a. Nicholas would be more likely to describe his first partner as someone whom he loves. b. Nicholas would be more likely to feel guilty about his first sexual experience. *c. Alexandra’s peers would be more likely to express some disapproval concern ing her behavior. d. Alexandra would be more likely to view the experience in terms of recreation r ather than romance. 52. Which sexually transmitted disease is caused by a viral infection? *a. Herpes b. Chlamydia c. Syphilis d. Gonorrhea 53. Which STD is MOST prevalent in the United States? a. HIV *b. Genital herpes c. Gonorrhea d. Chlamydia 54. Which of these STDs is caused by bacteria? a. Genital herpes b. HIV c. Hepatitis B *d. Gonorrhea 55. Which statement is TRUE? *a. HIV typically leads to AIDS. b. AIDS typically leads to HIV. c. HIV and AIDS are the same disorder. d. AIDS and HIV are unrelated. 56. Young adults are especially susceptible to acquiring AIDS because compared to olde r adults, they are: a. more likely to be homosexual. *b. more likely to use intravenous drugs. c. less likely to engage in unprotected sex. d. less likely to possess functional immune systems. 57. About one in adolescent American girls becomes pregnant each year. a. two b. four c. six *d. eight 58. Statistically speaking, which of these female members of an ethnic group has the lo west risk of teenage pregnancy? a. a teenage African American b. a teenage Hispanic American *c. a teenage European American d. The risk for all is the same as ethnicity is unrelated to teen pregnancy rates. 59. The MOST effective pregnancy prevention programs focus: a. exclusively on abstinence. b. exclusively on teaching about biological reproduction. c. exclusively on teaching about responsible sexual behavior. *d. on the biological aspects of sex and sexual responsibility. 60. Who has the LEAST effective plan for decreasing the probability of teenage pregnanc y in a school population? a. Ira, who says, “We need to convince our young people that teenage pregnancy can happen to them.” b. Denise, who says, “Teenage women should be more informed about how diffic ult it is to be a teenage parent.” c. Afi, who says, “We must do a better job of informing our students about contr aception.” *d. Dmitri, who says, “To eliminate teenage pregnancy, we must limit access to contraceptives.” 61. Sixteen-year-old Karl has recently identified himself as gay. Which statement is MOS T likely to be TRUE? a. Karl had a domineering mother. b. Karl was the eldest child who took responsibility for his siblings. c. Karl had a weak father. *d. Karl may begin to show interest in gender-atypical behaviors. 62. Which statement concerning the origins of sexual orientation is TRUE? a. A “lesbian gene” has been found. *b. Lesbian attraction to other females tends to occur later than gay male same- sex attraction. c. Gay males tend to reject anything that they classify as “feminine.” d. Interest in the same sex tends to occur much later in males. 63. Twenty-one-year-old Martina lists her sexual orientation as “lesbian.” Given the curr ent state of research on the origins of sexual orientation, which statement is MOST likely to be TRUE? a. Martina probably had a close female relative (e.g., aunt, mother) who was als o a lesbian. b. Martina’s brothers are “at risk” for being homosexual. c. Martina is likely attracted to several women. *d. The origin of Martina’s, and all sexual-minority youth’s, sexual orientation is poorly understood. 64. Transgender youth were once thought to be confused about their gender identity and they received treatment to: a. strengthen their transgendered sexual identity. b. neutralize their sexual identity. c. change their biochemistry to align with their gender identity. *d. align their gender identity with their biological sex. 65. While there are different types of dating violence, threats are an example of vio lence. *a. emotional b. physical c. sexual d. spiritual 66. Which factor is thought to increase the risk of a male or female perpetrating dating v iolence? a. Having a brother *b. Being exposed to violence at home c. Being in depression d. Being popular among same-age peers 67. Which of these is NOT a contributing factor in teen dating violence? a. Antisocial behavior b. Aggressive behavior *c. Success at school d. Drug use 68. The “Families for Safe Dates” program can BEST be described as a: *a. parent–teen-based prevention program designed to limit dating abuse. b. chaperone program designed to limit dating abuse. c. school-based prevention program involving teens to limit dating abuse. d. parent education program designed to limit dating abuse. 69. Newer dating violence prevention programs take a: a. male teen-based approach. *b. community-based approach. c. female teen-based approach. d. parent-based approach. 70. Which of these is NOT an outcome associated with participation in the One Act progr am to reduce dating violence? a. Students are less tolerant of dating violence. b. Students are more willing to intervene in dating violence situations. *c. Potential dating violence offenders take a pledge to stop dating violence befo re it starts. d. Students are better able to intervene in dating violence situations. 71. Which theorist proposes that identity is a primary force in an adolescent’s choice of a career? a. Erikson b. Marcia *c. Super d. Holland 72. Crystallization involves using one’s emerging identity as the basis for assessing: a. intelligence. b. risk for mental illness. c. self-esteem. *d. possible careers. 73. While counseling a friend who is having trouble with his girlfriend, 13-year-old Frasier decides that he has a talent for helping people deal with their problems and decides that he should pursue a career as a clinical psychologist. Frasier’s response matches Super’s stage of career development. a. implementation b. specification c. realistic *d. crystallization 74. According to Super, a key element of the specification phase of career development involves: *a. starting to obtain required training. b. taking the job. c. setting no limits. d. a feeling of uniqueness. 75. Seventeen-year-old Orion develops an interest in astronomy. If he is in Super’s speci fication stage of career development, his next step would MOST likely involve: a. taking a full-time job at an observatory. *b. signing up for a course in basic astronomy. c. determining whether he has a personality type suited for work as an astronom er. d. trying to get a handle on other aspects of his life (e.g., relationships). 76. During the implementation phase of career development, a person: a. first begins to think about career options. b. selects the career of their parents. c. becomes more educated about career options. *d. takes a job and learns firsthand about a career. 77. Which statement BEST describes the basic premise of Super’s implementation phas e of career development? *a. “I’ll take the job and see what happens.” b. “I am going to visit the career service office.” c. “I might make a good mortician.” d. “Who cares about work?” 78. After carefully examining which careers might be best for him, Stanley takes a job wi th a plumbing company. Though he likes the money, he is not ready for the kinds of resp onsibilities often asked of regular employees. Stanley is probably in Super’s stage of career development. a. specification *b. implementation c. crystallization d. investigative 79. According to Holland’s theory, the key factor in determining whether a job will b e fulfilling is how the important features of the job fit your personal characteristics. *a. personality-type b. Piagetian c. sociocultural d. cognitive-developmental 80. The main assumption of Holland’s theory is that people: a. develop career goals at different rates. *b. will be happiest in work environments that match their personalities. c. should take tests to determine which career is best for them. d. should choose a career based on economic needs and not in order to fulfill th eir lifelong goals. 81. Nan is an individual who enjoys working outside, taking care of park lands, planting t rees, and building forest trails. Which of Holland’s types BEST describes Nan’s interests? a. Investigative b. Conventional c. Social *d. Realistic 82. Yasmine has excellent verbal skills and relates well on an interpersonal level. Accor ding to Holland, Yasmine likely has a(n) personality type. a. investigative b. conventional *c. social d. realistic 83. A person with a(n) personality type would be described as someone who is high ly task-oriented and who enjoys abstract thinking. *a. investigative b. conventional c. social d. realistic 84. Zeke enjoys expressing himself on unstructured tasks. This description indicates th at Zeke most likely has a(n) personality type. a. investigative b. conventional c. realistic *d. artistic 85. Nell can’t decide if she should pursue a career as a bank teller or as an accountant. Holland would suggest that Nell will find these career choices MOST fulfilling if she has a (n) personality type. *a. conventional b. investigative c. enterprising d. social 86. According to Holland, who is BEST matched with their career type? a. Scientist Jerrod, who has a realistic personality b. Poet Bobby, who has an investigative personality *c. Real estate agent Maxine, who has an enterprising personality d. Social worker Nekeisha, who has an artistic personality 87. According to Holland, who is MOST poorly matched with their career type? a. Guidance counselor Dela, who has a social personality b. Nuclear scientist Dave, who has an investigative personality c. Accountant Dana, who has a conventional personality *d. Plumber Dagmar, who has an enterprising personality 88. When an individual’s personality type and job match, they tend to be: *a. more productive in the short run and have more stable career paths in the lo ng run. b. less productive in the short run but have more stable career paths in the long run. c. more productive in the short run but have less stable career paths in the long run. d. less productive in the short run and have less stable career paths in the long run. 89. According to social cognitive career theory, progress toward a vocation rests on: *a. self-efficacy. b. personal interests. c. individual levels of motivation. d. parental and peer influences. 90. Research has indicated that when a high school student begins to work over h ours a week at a part-time job during the school year, academic problems may arise. a. 5 b. 10 *c. 15 d. 20 91. Teens with part-time jobs in excess of 15–20 hours per week tend to be: a. more sociable than their peers. b. less susceptible to schizophrenia than their peers. c. less prone to violence than their peers. *d. more likely to experience depression and anxiety than their peers. 92. Why is part-time work among teens associated with unrealistic expectations about h ow income can be allocated? *a. Parents customarily pay for many of the essential expenses, leaving working adolescents with a higher percentage of their income available for discretionary s pending. b. The high pay they receive at these jobs sets up unrealistic expectations about “real” pay. c. They tend to save significantly more during these times than after they get a f ull-time job. d. The money that teens make today is worth less than the same amount will be worth in the future. 93. Which statement concerning part-time work and teenagers is TRUE? a. The negative impacts of part-time employment are more severe in males. b. Teens who save money from working have a worse relationship with their pare nts. c. The number of hours worked does not appear to matter. *d. Jobs that require the use of some skill tend to enhance self-esteem. 94. According to the textbook, which statement concerning summer employment and tee nagers is TRUE? *a. Following a summer of full-time employment, many high school students do better in school. b. Following a summer of full-time employment, many high school students are more likely to be involved in criminal activity. c. Following a summer of full-time employment, many high school students do n ot feel rested and ready for school to begin. d. Following a summer of full-time employment, many high school students are l ess interested in school and more interested in the world of work. 95. Which drug do high school seniors use most? a. Marijuana b. Cocaine *c. Alcohol d. LSD 96. percent of U.S. high school seniors report drinking alcohol in the previous year, and about report having been drunk. a. Fifty; one-fifth *b. Fifty; one-third c. Seventy-five; one-fifth d. Seventy-five:one-third 97. Fifteen-year-old Otis’s parents are social drinkers who often stop at a bar after work. Research suggests that Otis is: a. likely to become an alcoholic. b. unlikely to begin drinking (teens tend to avoid mimicking parents). *c. more likely to start drinking than his friend whose parents do not drink. d. unlikely to be influenced by his parents’ behavior. 98. Seventeen-year-old Alice drinks alcohol to deal with all the things that are difficult in her life. Which approach is MOST likely to decrease her alcohol use? *a. Engaging in therapy to learn more effective means of coping with stress. b. Learning about alcohol use in school c. Practicing strategies to resist peer pressure d. Having her parents take parenting classes 99. Which statement concerning cigarette smoking is TRUE? a. Compared with the rest of the world, American teens are heavy smokers. b. Most teens begin to smoke when they are in tenth or eleventh grade. c. Authoritative parenting tends to increase the risk of teen smoking. *d. Teens will tend to start smoking if they believe that it is okay to smoke. 100. Marcel’s parents often ask about his day at school, set reasonable rules, and provi de guidance when he is having difficulty in school. How likely is Marcel to smoke cigarett es? a. Very likely, as he needs to set up his own value system b. Somewhat likely, as he is curious about what smoking feels like *c. Less likely than average, because his parents are authoritative d. Not at all likely, because he fears his parents 101. The text indicates that many teenagers who smoke are convinced that cigarette sm oking is harmless for healthy adolescents. Which concept does the BEST job of explainin g this phenomenon? a. Crystallization b. Depression *c. Illusion of invulnerability d. Imaginary audience 102. Which of these is NOT a risk of smoking for adolescents? a. Problems with lung growth *b. Depression c. Future abuse of other drugs d. Respiratory illnesses 103. Effective interventions for teenage smoking include several components. Which is L EAST likely to work? a. Telling students, staff, and school visitors they cannot smoke on school groun ds b. Providing information on the health and social consequences of smoking *c. Enforcing a strict anti-tobacco discipline system throughout the school d. Teaching skills to respond to peer pressure 104. Which of these is NOT included in effective antismoking interventions in schools? a. Providing information to students about short- and long-term health and social consequences of smoking *b. Increasing the penalties for smoking on school grounds c. Providing students with effective ways to respond to peer pressure to smoke d. Implementing school programs alongside community initiatives 105. Some teenagers experience negative life events and do not become depressed. W hich teenager is LESS likely to become depressed when she experiences a negative life e vent? a. Crystal, who does not regulate her emotions effectively. b. Cameron, who tends to blame herself when things go wrong. c. Celia, whose parents are critical of her. *d. Carmine, who has no history of depression in her ancestry. 106. An effective non-drug intervention for teenage depression focuses on: a. instilling a sense of learned helplessness. b. suppressing adolescents’ feelings toward their parents. c. mapping the genetic history of the adolescent. *d. teaching them to replace negative thoughts with more positive thoughts. 107. What is the third leading cause of death in U.S. adolescents? a. Car accidents b. Homicide *c. Suicide d. Cancer 108. Which group of teenage boys has by far the highest suicide rate? a. European Americans *b. Native Americans c. African Americans d. There are no ethnic-based differences in suicide rates for teenage boys 109. If an individual gets the feeling that a friend is showing signs of being suicidal, they should: a. have a few laughs with them and try to cheer them up. *b. take it seriously and seek help immediately by calling 911 or contacting a m ental health professional. c. suggest several books about suicide and its effects for them to read. d. ignore them, because asking them about it could make them more inclined to commit a suicide. 110. What is the defining characteristic of adolescent-limited antisocial behavior? a. Consistently engaging in violent acts b. Engaging in minor criminal acts over a long period of time c. Consistently engaging in a specific sex act *d. Engaging in minor criminal acts over a short period of time 111. What percentage of youth meet the criteria for life-course persistent antisocial beh avior? a. One *b. Five c. Eight d. Ten 112. Which biological factor is NOT known to contribute to aggressive behavior? a. Temperament *b. Circadian rhythms c. Hormones d. Heredity 113. Which parental behavior is LEAST likely to encourage aggressive and antisoc ial behavior? a. Disciplining adolescents in a harsh manner b. Intermittent monitoring of adolescents’ behavior c. Seeing parental conflict and stress *d. Enforcing many rules with supporting reasons 114. Programs to prevent adolescent violence and antisocial behavior target: a. character development in elementary-school children. *b. academic and social skills in elementary-school children. c. academic and social skills in middle-school children. d. character development in middle-school children. 115. As a middle-school student, Chrissy often shoplifted cosmetics and music C Ds. By the time she was a senior in high school, Chrissy had mended her ways an d no longer shoplifted. Chrissy’s pattern of behavior is BEST described as: a. a life-course persistent antisocial behavior. b. learned helplessness. *c. adolescent-limited antisocial behavior. d. chronic status offenses. 116. At age 5, Pat set a neighbor’s house on fire. At age 10, he burned down a b arn. At age 20, he sets his old high school on fire. Pat’s behavior BEST exemplifie s: *a. life-course persistent antisocial behavior. b. learned helplessness. c. adolescent-limited antisocial behavior. d. chronic status offenses. 117. Which statement concerning antisocial/delinquent behavior and biology is T RUE? *a. Inherited temperament may increase risk for aggressive behavior. b. Chromosome 17 contains a gene that controls violence. c. Twin studies indicate that aggression is inherited. d. Diminished levels of hormones like testosterone often lead to violence. 118. Which teenager is MOST “at risk” for engaging in delinquent behavior? a. Bert, who spends a lot of supervised time at home b. Ernie, whose parents utilize very consistent discipline techniques *c. Kermit, who is unable to interpret other people’s intentions d. Grover, whose parents and other close relatives seldom display aggres sive behavior 119. Adolescents from lower socioeconomic classes are more likely to become d elinquent because: *a. they are more commonly exposed to crime and violence. b. they are overinvested in their school performance. c. they are less intelligent. d. they are better able to exhibit self-control. 120. The Fast Track program for preventing violent behavior: a. uses aversive conditioning techniques and the “scared straight techniqu e.” *b. attempts to nip the problem in the elementary years. c. encourages children to consider the “imaginary audience” that they are attacking. d. argues that aggressive play can be an effective substitute for reducing r eal violence. 121. Erikson’s theory has been very influential in helping us understan d identity formation in adolescence. *a. True b. False 122. During the diffusion phase of identity status, a person’s identity is determined by adults rather than by personal exploration. a. True *b. False 123. According to Marcia, the highest level of identity status is forec losure. a. True *b. False 124. Adolescent egocentrism is characterized by a lack of self-absorpti on. a. True *b. False 125. In the first phase of ethnic identity, a child actively begins to explore their heritage. a. True *b. False 126. Self-esteem levels tend to vary by domain (e.g., social, academic). *a. True b. False 127. Adolescents’ self-worth is greater when they believe that their pe ers think highly of them. *a. True b. False 128. Most teenagers enjoy happy and satisfying relationships with their parents. *a. True b. False 129. Feelings of “love” concerning their first sex partner do not vary for boys and girls. a. True *b. False 130. Transgendered youth were once thought to be confused about their g ender identity and they received treatment designed to align their gend er identity with their biological sex. *a. True b. False 131. Herpes and hepatitis B are each caused by a virus. *a. True b. False 132. Same-sex attraction tends to be less understood in males than in f emales. a. True *b. False 133. Dating violence can lead to depression in the victims. *a. True b. False 134. Research results indicate that dating violence is more common in s chools that condone dating violence. *a. True b. False 135. During the specification phase of vocation choice, a person takes a job and gains hands-on information about the career. a. True *b. False 136. Holland’s theory focuses on the important connection between perso nality, career selection, and career fulfillment. *a. True b. False 137. Investigative personality types enjoy thinking about abstract rela tionships. *a. True b. False 138. Working more than 20 hours a week is associated with lower grades and higher levels of depression in adolescents. *a. True b. False 139. Depression is characterized by pervasive feelings of low self-este em and sadness. *a. True b. False 140. Suicide is the leading cause of death in American teens. a. True *b. False 141. Describe how the four levels of Marcia’s identity status could be exemplified by Mal com, who wants to be a doctor. 142. Describe the primary issues of adolescence according to Erikson. Be sure to comm ent on issues like adolescent egocentrism, the imaginary audience, personal fables, and an illusion of vulnerability. 143. How do the phases of achieving ethnic identity compare to the phases of career de velopment as described by Super? 144. In the United States, about a half-million babies are born to teenagers each year. I n many cases, these mothers and children face a hard road. First, discuss reasons for th e high rate of teen pregnancy in the United States. Second, describe characteristics of ef fective teen pregnancy prevention programs. 145. Identify the groups that fall under the title Sexual-Minority Youth, and discuss the d ifferent pathways characteristic of males and females developing their identification with collective groups. 146. Discuss the factors your text describes that are related to dating violence. What fa ctors increase the chance that adolescents will engage in violence? 147. Pick a career that you are considering for yourself. Which three of Holland’s person ality types do you think would be most satisfied in that career? Explain. 148. Describe three major reasons why an adolescent should not work long hours while in school. Why do so many adolescents work in spite of these consequences? 149. Describe factors that increase the risk of teenagers drinking alcohol and smoking c igarettes. Then discuss methods of reducing these behaviors. 150. Describe the role of environmental and biological factors in adolescent depression. 151. Describe the Fast Track juvenile delinquency reduction program and evaluate the c osts and benefits of such programs. 1. Kalya considers herself more than an adolescent but not yet fully an adult. This would qualify her as being in the state known as adulthood. a. tween b. passage *c. emerging d. formal 2. Role transitions always: a. occur at the same age for individuals within a given cultural population. b. involve family relationships. c. lead to significant increases in stress. *d. involve the acquisition of new responsibilities. 3. Yacef suddenly finds himself newly married and out of school with a new job. Yacef is experiencing: *a. role transition. b. reflective judgment. c. possible selves. d. fluid intelligence. 4. Which markers BEST describe the transition into adulthood in most Western societies? *a. Markers that are loosely defined and can consist of any number of events b. No markers, as adulthood is not viewed as unique time of life in most Wester n cultures c. Markers that are specific and tied to marriage and/or having children d. Markers that are differ by sex, with female transition clearly defined and male transition loosely defined 5. In most non-Western developing cultures, is the most important determinant of adult status. a. completing college *b. marriage c. getting a job d. having a child 6. As a female growing up in a Latino culture, Luanna will likely experience on her fifteenth birthday. *a. quinceanera b. confirmation c. marriage d. legal adulthood 7. A rite of passage is BEST classified as a(n): a. implicit stereotype. b. biological event. c. reflective judgment. *d. ritual. 8. The youngest age at which most colleges label an individual as a returning adult stud ent is . *a. 25 b. 35 c. 45 d. 55 9. Which of 26-year-old Tonya’s characteristics would qualify her as being a “returning a dult student?” a. The fact that she is leaving a job *b. Her age c. The fact that she is the first in her family to go to school d. Her sex 10. The is not fully developed until the mid-twenties. a. hippocampus b. thalamus *c. prefrontal cortex d. amygdala 11. The desire to live life more fully by experiencing physically and emotionally threateni ng situations is known as: a. multidimensionality. b. a rite of passage. *c. edgework. d. plasticity. 12. Nicola is 18 years old and engages in many risky behaviors. For example, she drives very fast and recklessly, and does not use any protection when having sex. If Nicola is a t ypical adolescent, these behaviors will when she gets older. a. significantly increase in frequency b. slightly increase in frequency c. remain at the same frequency level *d. decrease in frequency 13. In what way do men differ from women in edgework? *a. Men use less rehearsal b. Women use less rehearsal c. Men are less confident d. Women have fewer qualms 14. Who would Erikson say is MOST capable of true intimacy? a. Cindy, who is overdependent on her boyfriend b. Burt, who will go out with different people but finds it scary to go out with som eone more than a couple of times *c. Aileen, who has a clear sense of identity d. Harrison, who is 16 years old 15. Which individual has likely resolved intimacy issues before identity issues? a. A high school student who is picking out a college at 17 b. A man who joined the work force at 18, and got married at 25 *c. A woman who married at 22, had children, and went to college at 30 d. A woman who joined the military at 20 16. Research on Erikson’s theory of identity and intimacy produced which conclusion? a. There are set pathways to achieving both identity and intimacy. b. There are several ways to achieve identity, but only one way to achieve intima cy. c. There is only one way to achieve identity, but there are several ways to achiev e intimacy. *d. There are multiple pathways to achieving identity and intimacy. 17. One of the MOST common markers of adulthood in the United States is: a. the initiation into a fraternity or sorority. b. getting a driver’s license. c. confirmation. *d. completing one’s education. 18. Which of these is NOT documented as evidence of student development while in coll ege? a. Advances in intellectual development b. Advances in social identity *c. Advances in emotional concerns d. Advances in personal development 19. Who is MOST likely experiencing a “quarter-life crisis?” a. 82-year-old Dominica, whose spouse just died b. 62-year-old Kitt, who just retired c. 42-year-old Lucia, who just had a baby *d. 22-year-old Aruba, who just graduated from college 20. Which of these statements is FALSE? a. Many formal rites of passage are associated with religion. b. Shedding of formal rites of passage leaves less clarity to the point at which a young person becomes an adult. c. Defining oneself as an adult rests on one’s perception of whether personally r elevant key criteria have been met. *d. Achieving adulthood is faster today than in the past. 21. Which statement by 25-year-old Flossie, who is typical for a person of her age, is m ost likely FALSE? a. “I am as strong as I will ever be.” *b. “I am a lot less coordinated than I used to be.” c. “My reflexes are as fast as they will ever be.” d. “My height has likely reached its peak.” 22. The MOST likely sensory change between ages 25 and 50 would involve: a. the loss of ability to taste sour foods. b. a diminished ability to experience pain. c. having trouble seeing things that are near. *d. the inability to hear high-pitched sounds. 23. Young adult men aged 25 to 34 are: *a. 2.5 times as likely to die as women of the same age. b. 5 times as likely to die as women of the same age. c. half as likely to die as women of the same age. d. just as likely to die as women of the same age. 24. Based on statistics, which of these 30-year-old adults is MOST likely to die within a year? a. Buster, a European American male *b. Tamarick, an African American male c. John, an Asian American male d. Nik, a Native American male 25. Smoking represents a major medical problem in the United States, with about people each year dying from smoking-related disorders. a. 4,000 b. 40,000 *c. 400,000 d. 4,000,000 26. Which statement concerning secondhand smoke is TRUE? a. There is no evidence that secondhand smoke leads to any health problems. *b. Secondhand smoke exposure can lead to death. c. Less than one-fifth of Americans have been exposed to secondhand smoke. d. Nonsmokers exposed to secondhand smoke are more likely to die from lung c ancer than from cardiovascular disease. 27. All four of these people successfully quit smoking. Which person’s method was MOS T typical of successful quitters? a. Monett, who went to a treatment center b. Chuck, who went to a psychologist c. Mark, who went to his minister *d. Wendy, who quit on her own 28. People who quit smoking after smoking for a long time: a. may not get worse, but their overall health will remain bad. *b. show significant improvements in their health. c. will continue to deteriorate but at a slower rate. d. will remain at risk for heart attack but not for cancer. 29. In the United States, about percent of young adults ages 25 to 44 consume al cohol occasionally. a. 90 *b. 65 c. 30 d. 15 30. Gallo drinks exactly two glasses of wine per day. As a result, Gallo can expect to: a. end up in a treatment center for alcoholism. b. be at risk for cardiovascular disease. c. be labeled a binge drinker. *d. experience some health-related benefits from his actions. 31. Jimmy goes to a party with his college buddies and has six beers in a row. Jimmy’s b ehavior would be BEST classified as: a. alcoholism. b. light drinking. *c. binge drinking. d. purge drinking. 32. Which of these people could be classified as being a binge drinker? a. Sarah, who drank three shots of tequila in a row within the past two weeks *b. Susan, who drank four beers in a row within the past two weeks c. Scott, who drank four shots of scotch in a row within the past two weeks d. Sarah, Susan, and Scott all reach the criterion for binge drinking. 33. Who is MOST likely to be a binge drinker? a. Jamaal, who is very emotionally expressive *b. Ryan, who is a member of a fraternity c. Leslie, who works part-time d. Emily, who studies approximately five hours per day 34. Which approach to diminishing binge drinking on college campuses is NOT considere d among the most effective strategies? a. Student involvement in designing the intervention program b. Programs that focus on social norms c. Changing the campus climate concerning alcohol consumption *d. Efforts based on limiting access to alcohol 35. Amanda is physically dependent on alcohol and experiences withdrawal symptoms w hen she doesn’t drink. Amanda’s experience with alcohol would be BEST described as: *a. alcohol use disorder. b. a rite of passage. c. binge drinking. d. healthy behavior. 36. At a chemical level, alcohol addiction results in chemical changes that: *a. cause the body to crave alcohol. b. destroy all GABA receptors. c. reduce levels of serotonin and dopamine within the brain. d. increase cellular development in the medulla oblongata. 37. Which of these is NOT among the three main treatment options for alcohol abuse? a. Mutual-support groups *b. Incarceration c. Behavioral treatments d. Medications 38. Bernice is very interested in studying how the energy needs of the human body chan ge through the life span. In other words, Bernice is interested in studying: a. cholesterol. *b. metabolism. c. lipoproteins. d. addiction. 39. Sixty-year-old Norbert says, “When I was a teenager, I could eat five big meals a day and still feel hungry. Now a couple of snacks can get me through the day.” What BEST ac counts for this age-related change? *a. Lower metabolic rate b. Higher blood sugar c. Drop in thiamine level d. Addition of muscle mass 40. Richard has just been told by his physician that he should cut back on the amount o f fat in his diet. His physician is MOST likely concerned about the high amount of in Richard’s blood. a. vitamin D b. high-density lipoproteins *c. low-density lipoproteins d. carbohydrates 41. Low-density lipoproteins: a. clear fat deposits from arteries. b. create sickle-shaped blood cells. *c. cause fatty deposits that can lead to blocked arteries. d. are found in high concentrations in many green vegetables. 42. help keep arteries clear. a. Trans fats b. Serotonin *c. High-density lipoproteins d. Steroids 43. Which statement BEST describes the relationship between LDLs and HDLs? a. LDLs break down HDLs. *b. HDLs break down LDLs. c. LDLs transform into HDLs. d. HDLs transform into LDLs. 44. Who is at the greatest risk of a heart attack? *a. Forrest, who has high levels of LDLs and low levels of HDLs b. Tucker, who has low level of LDLs and high levels of HDLs c. Sawyer, who has low levels of both LDLs and HDLs d. Gump, who has high levels of both LDLs and HDLs 45. A doctor is MOST likely to recommend that a patient consume higher levels of t o increase their HDL level. *a. fiber b. fat c. sodium d. yogurt 46. Sheryl’s physician Dr. Crow has just indicated that she needs to begin to take statin s. If Dr. Crow is competent, he would know that Sheryl: a. suffers from clinically depression. b. has just been diagnosed with ADHD. c. suffers from alcoholism. *d. has a high level of LDL. 47. A doctor is attempting to determine how healthy her patient is. She uses a formula t hat contains information regarding the patient’s height and weight. What is she most likel y measuring? a. LDL *b. BMI c. HDL d. ADA 48. An individual with a BMI of or less is considered healthy. *a. 24 b. 34 c. 44 d. 54 49. Based solely on their BMI, how many of these individuals are at risk for health-relate d diseases: Dick, BMI = 20; Flick, BMI = 40; Hick, BMI = 60; Nick, BMI = 80? a. One b. Two *c. Three d. Four 50. Socioeconomic status and are the two MOST important social influences on he alth. *a. education b. occupation c. marital status d. religious status 51. Who is likely to be the LEAST healthy? *a. Thales, who lives in poverty b. Jose, who is a college graduate c. Luzia, who is African American d. Fabio, who is very wealthy 52. Who has the lowest risk of dying from a chronic disease? a. Gomez, who is a high school dropout b. Morticia, who is a high school graduate c. Wednesday, who is a college dropout *d. Fester, who is a college graduate 53. In the United States, the poorest health conditions are found in those living i n: *a. inner-city neighborhoods. b. the South. c. ethnic neighborhoods. d. nursing homes. 54. Kali has a theory of intelligence that views it as being a combination of sever al factors such as fine motor skills, cognitive ability, and emotional control. Kali’s theory is: a. multidirectional. *b. multidimensional. c. conventional. d. a life-span construct. 55. The biggest point of contention among theories who view intelligence as multi dimensional concerns the debate over: *a. the number of abilities that underlie intelligence. b. the degree to which race determines intelligence. c. which single aspect of intellect specifically defines intelligence. d. whether an individual’s level of intelligence can be measured. 56. Intellectual multidirectionality is based on the premise that: a. no two people develop the same way intellectually. b. there is more than one kind of intelligence. c. most aspects of intelligence cannot be modified. *d. with age, some aspects of intelligence improve while others may decli ne. 57. The fact that Molly’s spatial performance has declined while her verbal abiliti es have improved is support for the notion that intelligence is: a. conventional. b. multidimensional. *c. multidirectional. d. a life-span construct. 58. The fact that a specific aspect of intelligence can be modified at any time dur ing the life span exemplifies the concept of: a. interindividual variability. *b. plasticity. c. multidimensionality. d. primary mental abilities. 59. Lai and Mei are sisters. As they have gotten older, Lai’s cognitive skills have improved while Mei’s have declined. This is evidence for the of abilities. a. multidimensionality b. multidirectionality *c. interindividual variability d. Plasticity 60. Evidence for interindividual variability in intelligence is BEST demonstrated wh en: a. a single test of intelligence is based on assessing many different abiliti es. b. the same individual shows improvement in language skills while showin g declines in math skills. c. an individual’s singing improves after taking singing lessons. *d. one individual’s reasoning skills improve with age while another’s decli ne with age. 61. A baseball coach tells a pitcher, “With a little training, I think that you could le arn to throw a knuckleball.” This provides a good example of a belief in the o f an ability. a. multidimensionality *b. plasticity c. multidirectionality d. fluid nature 62. The approach studies how interrelationships among intellectual abilitie s are organized. *a. psychometric b. organic c. emergent d. reflective 63. Dr. Ique has organized her lecture on intellectual ability around different skills that she has placed into meaningful groups. What would be the BEST title for Dr. I que’s lecture? a. Plasticity Forever *b. You and Your Primary Mental Abilities c. Rites of Passage Around the World d. Avoiding Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome 64. Which is NOT a “primary mental ability?” a. Number b. Inductive reasoning c. Spatial orientation *d. Fluid intelligence 65. Dr. Merchant points to a picture of elephants and asks a patient to describe what they see in the picture. Dr. Merchant is probably assessing: a. verbal meaning. b. number. *c. word fluency. d. inductive reasoning. 66. Mr. Vanderlay’s talents as an architect are mostly due to his ability to visualiz e buildings in three dimensions as they are being designed. This suggests that Mr. Vanderlay has outstanding abilities. a. inductive reasoning *b. spatial orientation c. word fluency d. number 67. Cam has never seen an American football game. After watching about 20 pla ys, however, he is able to accurately describe the general premise of the game. T his ability suggests that Cam is skilled at: *a. inductive reasoning. b. number interpretation. c. verbal meaning. d. spatial orientation. 68. Schaie’s influential study on intellectual change over time utilizes the re search design he invented. a. cross-sectional b. longitudinal *c. sequential d. postformal 69. According to Schaie’s research, the fact that most 60-year-olds today would s core higher on an intelligence test than a group of 60-year-olds would have in 194 0 is BEST explained by a cohort effect involving: a. age. *b. educational experience. c. heredity. d. drop-out rate. 70. The ability to extrapolate from particular facts to general concepts is called: a. deductive reasoning. *b. inductive reasoning. c. word meaning. d. factual knowledge. 71. Primary mental ability is to secondary mental ability as is to . a. crystallized intelligence; fluid intelligence b. child; adult *c. specific; general d. conventional; postconventional 72. Which statement is TRUE? *a. Secondary mental abilities are measured indirectly. b. Primary mental abilities subsume secondary mental ability. c. Secondary mental abilities develop in childhood, and primary mental abi lities develop in adulthood. d. Primary mental abilities develop in childhood, and secondary mental abi lities develop in adulthood. 73. Fluid intelligence consists of abilities that: *a. allow for more flexible and adaptive thinking. b. are acquired throughout the life span. c. are considered primary mental abilities but not secondary mental abiliti es. d. include verbal skills but not inductive or abstract thinking. 74. Which type of task is BEST suited to assessing fluid intelligence? a. A trivial contest *b. A timed maze completion c. A test of cultural norms d. A vocabulary test 75. Crystallized intelligence is: *a. acquired across one’s life. b. best exemplified by sensory integration. c. not very useful in solving real-life tasks. d. best assessed on timed, standardized IQ tests. 76. Webster loves playing any game in which he can show off the large vocabular y that he has acquired. A competent psychologist would suggest that this skill pro vides the BEST example of: *a. crystallized intelligence. b. postconventional thought. c. fluid intelligence. d. preconventional thought. 77. Someone who knows the answers to all the questions on a quiz show would be exhibiting: a. fluid intelligence. *b. crystallized intelligence. c. postformal thought. d. reflective judgment. 78. Even though Jennings is only 22 years old, he is already the “king of trivia.” If Jennings is typical, his ability to do well in trivia games will MOST likely: a. decline with age. b. remain the same throughout his life. *c. increase with age. d. increase until he is about 40, then decline dramatically. 79. Crystallized intelligence is to fluid intelligence as is to . *a. vocabulary size; assembling a puzzle b. a quiz; an exam c. genius; smart d. math; language 80. If you wanted to show that age decreases a certain type of intelligence, you s hould focus on testing participants’: a. general intelligence. *b. fluid intelligence. c. crystallized intelligence. d. primary intelligence. 81. At what point in an average woman’s life would her crystallized intelligence sc ores be MOST significantly greater than her fluid intelligence scores? a. Birth b. Puberty (around age 13) c. Menopause (around age 43) *d. Retirement (around age 63) 82. One of the MOST likely reasons for the typical developmental path for crystall ized intelligence is that: *a. practice tends to improve performance. b. inherited skills tend to remain steady across the life span. c. neuron pruning leads to a significant reduction in mental flexibility. d. modern nutrition is better today than at any point in history. 83. Research suggests that higher intelligence in young adulthood: *a. is related to lower mortality in middle age. b. does not provide a health advantage over the course of one’s life. c. is related to neuron pruning that significantly reduces mental flexibility. d. does not impact the organization of brain structures. 84. The theory that proposes that intelligence comes from a distributed and integ rated network of neurons in the parietal and frontal lobes of the brain is called: *a. parieto-frontal integration theory. b. parietal distribution theory. c. lobe integration network theory. d. neuron network distribution theory. 85. The neural efficiency hypothesis states that: a. intelligent people show stronger neural activations in a larger number of brain areas than less intelligent people. b. intelligent people show weaker neural activations in a larger number of brain areas than less intelligent people. c. intelligent people show stronger neural activations in a smaller number of brain areas than less intelligent people. *d. intelligent people show weaker neural activations in a smaller number of brain areas than less intelligent people. 86. Postformal adult thinkers differ from adolescent formal operational thinkers i n that the adults are more likely to: a. use deductive logic. *b. consider situational circumstances. c. be swayed by their own experience. d. make quick decisions on complex problems. 87. What constitutes the highest level of thinking in adulthood? a. Conventional thought b. Sensorimotor thought *c. Postformal thought d. Hypothetical-deductive thought 88. In order to qualify as a “postformal thinker,” one must be able to accept: a. egocentric thought as a necessity. b. the existence of a single truth. c. experience as the source of all knowledge. *d. contradiction as normal. 89. When Satoru ponders the question, “How can light be both a wave and a parti cle?” he is engaging in: a. a role transition. b. a rite of passage. *c. reflective judgment. d. multidirectionality. 90. When Lorenzo ponders the question, “How can women remain in abusive rela tionships?” he is engaging in: a. a role transition. b. a rite of passage. *c. reflective judgment. d. multidirectionality. 91. Jason believes that gun control is absolutely wrong and that the right to poss ess guns is an absolute right. Jason would probably be closest to the stage of reflective judgment. *a. initial b. halfway c. later d. last 92. Ralphie believes that following school rules is important because a teacher’s authority should not be questioned. Ralphie would probably be closest to the stage of reflective judgment. *a. initial b. halfway c. later d. last 93. The statement, “Nothing in life can be known for certain” is MOST likely to be uttered by someone at the stage of reflective judgment. a. initial b. second *c. halfway d. last 94. When making a court decision, Judge Ito says, “I try to come to reasonable s olutions based on the best arguments that I have available.” Judge Ito appears to be in the stages of reflective judgment. a. initial b. second c. halfway *d. later 95. Mature thinkers tend to: a. view personal experience as the most critical element in decision makin g. b. view rules as absolute. *c. integrate emotion and logic in decision-making. d. realize that tolerance and ambiguity have no place in decision making. 96. Which individual is MOST likely to effectively integrate emotion into their think ing? a. A female high school student b. A male college student c. A female in her mid-thirties *d. A male in his mid-forties 97. The believing that a statement like “marriage is more important than a caree r” is an absolute is MOST prevalent among which age group? a. Children b. Adolescents *c. Young adults d. Older adults 98. Which of these BEST describes the way middle-aged people think about a yo ung couple who eloped over their parents’ objections? a. They emphasize the role that the parents should play in the situation. b. They focus on respecting the parents in this situation. *c. They emphasize the pragmatic factors, such as age, in this situation. d. They focus on the importance of love in this situation. 99. Neuroimaging evidence indicates the integration of emotion and logic takes p lace in the and the . a. anterior cortex; parietal cortex *b. prefrontal cortex; anterior insula c. temporal cortex; pituitary gland d. dopamine pathways; limbic system 100. Research indicates emotional intelligence: a. decreases with age. b. would reflect a U-shaped curve across the life span. *c. increases with age. d. is not affected by age. 101. Regarding impression formation: a. young adults modified their impressions less when additional negative i nformation was presented. b. older adults make their impression based on the most recent informati on they have. *c. young adults make their impression based on the most recent informa tion they have. d. older adults modified their impressions more when additional negative i nformation was presented. 102. A life-span construct represents a: *a. unified sense of one’s past, present, and future. b. multidimensional conceptualization of intelligence. c. fear that when people act in negative ways expected by others, they are doing a disservice to all members of their sex. d. personal timetable concerning when someone else should experience s ome event. 103. Pepper has a firm sense of her childhood, who she is as a person today, an d how she will live her life in the future. This constitutes Pepper’s: a. possible selves. b. fluid intelligence. *c. life-span construct. d. scenario. 104. Omar is thinking about a time to come when he will be married and have a f amily. This is an example of: a. an implicit stereotype. b. a life story. c. reflective judgment. *d. a scenario. 105. Harouna is thinking about graduating from graduate school and finding a job in which he can use his skills. This is an example of: a. an implicit stereotype. b. a life story. *c. a scenario. d. reflective judgment. 106. Darren wants to be out of graduate school by age 25, married by age 30, and retire d by age 50. This is an example of a: a. life-span construct. b. personal control belief. c. life story. *d. social clock. 107. Gina is 40 years old and often reflects on her life. Special memories of child hood, high school, college, and her vision of retirement all seem to fit together. T his is Gina’s: *a. life story. b. life-span construct. c. scenario. d. possible selves. 108. According to McAdams, a person’s developing personality is BEST reflected by: *a. the emotions conveyed in his or her life story. b. a score on a standardized personality measure (e.g., MMPI). c. the ability to engage in postformal thought. d. the degree to which this person becomes reliant on rites of passage. 109. Which of these would BEST reflect a life story goal of communion? a. Being a powerful CEO b. Winning a Nobel prize *c. A lifelong love d. Being your own person 110. How many of these items could be elements of someone’s life story: emotio ns, main characters, and a legacy? a. none b. one c. two *d. three 111. According to McAdams, a person’s life story is: a. set in a single direction and uninfluenced by culture. b. set in a single direction and influenced by culture. c. fashioned, refashioned, and uninfluenced by culture. *d. fashioned, refashioned, and influenced by culture. 112. Gabriella often thinks of herself as a mother and dreams of herself as an ac tress, but is afraid she’ll end up suffering from alcoholism. These are examples of: a. stereotype threats. *b. possible selves. c. reflective judgments. d. life-span constructs. 113. What requires the creation of possible selves? a. Postformal thought b. Reflective thinking c. Crystallized intelligence *d. Projecting yourself into the future 114. Research on possible selves development has shown that: a. older adults believe that becoming both the hoped-for and the feared s elf is under their control. *b. younger adults believe that becoming both the hoped-for and the feare d self is under their control. c. older adults believe that becoming the hoped-for self is under their cont rol, but they have little control over the feared self. d. younger adults believe that becoming the hoped-for self is under their c ontrol, but they have little control over the feared self. 115. tends to be the MOST important domain for hoped- and feared-for self in older age. a. Intelligence b. Wealth c. Love *d. Health 116. Who is MOST likely to believe that she will achieve her hoped-for self? *a. Allie, who is 25 years old b. Alison, who is 50 years old c. Ashley, who is 65 years old d. Abby, who is 85 years old 117. Kate thinks that no matter what she does, she will not be able to do well in her developmental psychology class. This perception is a sample of Kate’s: a. rite of passage. b. life story. c. crystallized intelligence. *d. personal control beliefs. 118. Merlin believes that he can get what he wants if he tries hard enough. This i ndicates that he has sense of personal control. a. no b. a low c. a moderate *d. a high 119. Jim believes that he can improve his financial situation by getting a second j ob. Jim is exercising: *a. primary control. b. secondary control. c. implicit stereotyping. d. skill acquisition. 120. Which statement BEST exemplifies the concept of secondary control? *a. “When my job gets tough, I will succeed with effort.” b. “You can buy your way out of any situation.” c. “My friends help me when I need assistance.” d. “Always look to professionals for help.” 121. Emerging adulthood officially begins when you have your first chil d. a. True *b. False 122. Cultures in the developing world tend to have specific practices f or marking the transition from adolescence to adulthood. *a. True b. False 123. The “quarter-life crisis” involves challenges faced by individuals in their twenties. *a. True b. False 124. Most individuals do not reach their physical peak until their mid- thirties. a. True *b. False 125. Lung, mouth, bladder, and cervical cancer are all linked to smokin g. *a. True b. False 126. Moderate drinkers have higher risks for cardiovascular disease tha n abstainers and heavy drinkers. a. True *b. False 127. Limiting access to alcohol appears to be the most effective means of reducing the incidence of binge drinking in college students. a. True *b. False 128. Low-density lipoproteins cause fatty deposits to accumulate in the arteries. *a. True b. False 129. Poverty and racism are key reasons for the poor health conditions found in inner-city neighborhoods. *a. True b. False 130. The fact that your abilities can be altered with experience underl ies the concept of plasticity. *a. True b. False 131. Secondary mental abilities subsume primary mental abilities. *a. True b. False 132. Fluid intelligence is acquired through life experience. a. True *b. False 133. The parieto-frontal integration theory proposes that emotional mem ory comes from a distributed and integrated network of neurons in the p arietal and frontal areas of the brain. a. True *b. False 134. Most children use reflective judgment when reasoning out real-life dilemmas. a. True *b. False 135. Postformal thinking requires the acceptance of multiple solutions. *a. True b. False 136. Emotional intelligence is measured by the number of different emot ions a person expresses. a. True *b. False 137. Scenarios consist mostly of interpretations of a person’s past. a. True *b. False 138. According to McAdams, a life story helps organize the past events in a person’s life into a coherent sequence. *a. True b. False 139. Possible selves become more numerous and varied the older a person gets. a. True *b. False 140. An individual with a high sense of personal control believes that his or her actions are controlled by environmental forces. a. True *b. False 141. Describe “emerging adulthood” and how the “rite of passage” from adolescence int o adulthood differs for people in Western and non-Western societies. 142. Discuss the special conflict that Erikson believed marked young adulthood. Then d escribe how an individual could best resolve this conflict. 143. Provide supporting evidence for the statement, “Physical abilities peak in one’s twe nties.” Be sure to discuss specific physical/sensory abilities, rates of death, and how the lifestyle factor of smoking impact health in middle age. 144. Alcohol consumption represents a major risk to health. First, describe how the amo unt of alcohol consumed influences its impact on health. Second, discuss the topic of bi nge drinking. Be sure to describe both its impact and ways of reducing this behavior. 145. Lee is a 30-year-old poor, uneducated, African American male. His friend DJ is a 3 1-year-old wealthy, college-educated Caucasian male. How would you expect that their so cioeconomic status, ethnicity, and education would impact their health statuses? 146. Describe why the terms multidimensional, multidirectional, interindividual variability, and plasticity may be the most accurate way to describe intelligence in adulthood. 147. Compare and contrast primary versus secondary intellectual abilities and fluid vers us crystallized intelligence. Then discuss the developmental path of each between adoles cence and older adulthood. 148. Kristen is devastated from her break-up with Robert and is discussing her feelings about the break-up with her grandfather Stewart. Describe how age-related differences in emotional intelligence could influence Kristen’s feelings and her grandfather’s efforts to c onsole her. 149. Recent high school graduate Danny is in an argument with his grandmother Fannie over capital punishment. Describe a possible perspective taken on capital punishment by Danny and a possible position of disagreement taken by Fannie. Discuss how the support for their positions may differ based upon their age differences. 150. Discuss your own development using the concepts of a life-span construct scenari o, a social clock, a life story, and possible selves. 1. Most friendships are based on: *a. choice and high reciprocity. b. choice and low reciprocity. c. strict rules and high reciprocity. d. strict rules and low reciprocity. 2. Friendship relationships differ from love relationships in that they are: *a. less emotionally intense and less sexual. b. less emotionally intense and more sexual. c. more emotionally intense and less sexual. d. more emotionally intense and more sexual. 3. The initial stage in friendship development is called: a. buildup. b. continuation. *c. acquaintanceship. d. deterioration. 4. Penn and Teller have been friends for many years. In the past few months, ho wever, they seem to have less in common, and Teller has been thinking more abo ut hanging out with a potential new friend. Penn and Teller appear to be in the _ stage of friendship development. a. buildup b. continuation c. acquaintanceship *d. deterioration 5. People tend to have the MOST acquaintances/friends during: *a. young adulthood. b. middle adulthood. c. late adulthood. d. latest adulthood. 6. Sanford’s friendships tend to be based on self-disclosure and intimacy. This e xemplifies the component of friendship. a. contextual b. sociability c. shared *d. affective 7. How could Gene’s relationship with Peggy reflect the communal component of adult friendship? a. He could view her quirky personality as a source of amusement. *b. He could support her interest in skydiving by going along with her on a jump. c. He could disclose his love for her. d. He could indicate loyalty by defending her even though she is wrong. 8. The fact that Bert’s friend Ernie keeps him amused by telling funny stories BE ST illustrates the dimension of friendship. a. shared b. affective *c. sociability d. communal 9. A relative strength of online friendships involves the ability of the user to: a. know exactly who they are dealing with. *b. control the level of intimacy in the relationship. c. ensure compatibility. d. meet in a less anonymous manner than in face-to-face friendships. 10. Sibling friendships are influenced by: a. socioeconomic status. b. age. *c. degree of relatedness. d. level of education. 11. Calliope is a typical woman who works in an office and likes to play handball. Who is MOST likely to be her friend? a. Athena, who also likes to play handball b. Hera, who works in the same office *c. Aphrodite, who is someone in whom Calliope can confide d. Venus, who likes to party 12. The text authors suggest that women’s same-sex friendships are based in pa rt on: a. control. b. shared activities. c. shared interests. *d. corumination. 13. Hansel (a male) and Gretel (a female) are best friends. If their cross-gender fr iendship is typical of most, Hansel’s biggest misperception concerning Gretel wou ld likely be: *a. overperceiving Gretel’s level of sexual interest in him. b. overperceiving Gretel’s need for emotional intimacy in the friendship. c. underperceiving Gretel’s intelligence. d. underperceiving Gretel’s jealousy. 14. Which is NOT one of the three components of love, according to Sternberg? a. Intimacy *b. Sociability c. Commitment d. Passion 15. Rose wants Jack physically, and she wants him badly! Rose is MOST likely ex periencing: a. intimacy. *b. passion. c. commitment. d. companionate love. 16. When discussing his new girlfriend, Mickey says, “I can tell her everything ab out myself.” Mickey clearly feels toward his girlfriend. a. commitment b. passion c. infatuation *d. intimacy 17. The phrase, “till death do you part,” which is often said during marriage servic es, offers a good example of: a. passion. b. romantic love. *c. commitment. d. consummate love. 18. Rhett and Scarlet have a relationship characterized by a lifetime of marriage characterized by little physical desire and no sharing of thoughts or feelings. This relationship is BEST described as one of strong: a. intimacy. b. passion. *c. commitment. d. infatuation. 19. While Victor and Victoria have very strong sexual feelings for each other, they have little interest in intimacy or commitment. This type of relationship is BEST de scribed as: *a. infatuation. b. friendship. c. consummate love. d. companionate love. 20. Over time, good relationships tend to: *a. deepen. b. become more passionate. c. increase in physical intimacy. d. become more intense. 21. According to Kahlil Gibran, author of The Prophet, the two sides of love are: a. passion and intimacy. b. fear and friendship. *c. ecstasy and pain. d. sex and caring. 22. When deciding on a potential mate, Fletcher says, “I just need to find someo ne a lot like me.” This statement fits very well with theory. a. sociocultural *b. assortative mating c. crystallization d. blended family 23. Kalmijn and Flap (2001) found that tended to promote strong homogam y in relationships. a. meeting other members of one’s family b. living in the same neighborhood *c. meeting in school d. seeking a mate with different characteristics than one’s own 24. Surveys indicate that nearly couples in the United States meet online. *a. one in every 5 b. one in every 10 c. one in every 15 d. one in every 20 25. Emerging research indicates virtual dating sites offer problems in terms of: a. available dating candidates. b. access to an Internet connection. c. lack of response from friend requests. *d. the accuracy of personal descriptions. 26. Research suggests that casual sex is: *a. desired by both men and women and frequently regretted by both men and women. b. desired by men only and frequently regretted by women. c. desired by both men and women but only regretted by women. d. desired by women and frequently regretted by men. 27. According to research by Buss and colleagues, a(n) man looking for a pr ospective mate would be MOST concerned about the woman’s cooking competenc e and chastity status. *a. Chinese b. Italian c. Swedish d. British 28. Arnold is a highly educated, intelligent young man with a less-than-pleasing di sposition. As such, he is MOST likely to be viewed as an excellent potential mate: a. in every culture in the world. b. nowhere in the world. *c. in some cultures, but not in other cultures. d. only in the United States. 29. In their cross-cultural study of mate selection, Buss and colleagues found tha t the characteristic of showed the most variation as to whether it was import ant to mate selection. a. intelligence *b. chastity c. physical attractiveness d. social status 30. According to research cited in the text, approximately percent of marriag es in India are arranged. a. 5 b. 75 *c. 80 d. 95 31. Research on the biology of physical attraction suggests that neurochemicals r elated to underlie the feeling of exhilaration that often is experienced when o ne falls in love. a. barbiturates b. hallucinogens *c. amphetamines d. narcotics 32. When discussing his relationship with his wife Amber, Travis says, “I have thi s very strong sense of commitment and tranquility.” Researchers have suggested that the neurophysiological basis of this feeling may be due to brain chemicals rel ated to: a. cocaine. *b. morphine. c. alcohol. d. cannabis. 33. Research indicates that in men the hormone enhances their partner’s attractiveness compared to other females. *a. oxytocin b. dopamine c. GABA d. acetylcholine 34. The defining belief among individuals experiencing “battered woman’s syndro me” is that: a. the abuse is tied to a sense of personal high self-esteem. b. the abuse is not harmful to them. c. the abuser is acting out of unconditional love. *d. they are powerless to get away from the abuse. 35. LGBTQ community members are victims of violence from intimate partners at a rate women. a. higher than heterosexual men but lower than b. similar to c. higher than *d. lower than 36. Which of Deanna’s statements indicates that she is likely experiencing “batte red woman’s syndrome?” a. “I just hit my husband.” *b. “I cannot escape this abusive relationship.” c. “I often hit my husband.” d. “I am sometimes afraid of my husband.” 37. O’Leary (1993) presents a continuum of aggressive behavior in abusive relati onships anchored by on one end and on the other end. a. physical aggression; verbal aggression b. severe aggression; murder *c. verbal aggression; murder d. physical aggression; murder 38. Worldwide, about 10 percent to about percent of women report being ph ysically assaulted or raped. a. 25 b. 40 c. 55 *d. 70 39. The causes of aggressive behavior become more as the level of aggress ive behavior increases. *a. complex b. simple c. obvious d. external 40. According to O’Leary’s (1993) model, would have the largest number of potential underlying causes. a. verbal aggression b. physical aggression c. severe aggression *d. murder 41. Rates of abuse are higher in cultures that emphasize: a. female status. b. online dating. *c. family honor. d. casual sex. 42. Which statement concerning singlehood, marriage, and sex differences in the United States is TRUE? a. Males feel more societal pressure to marry. *b. Males marry at a later age. c. Females seldom have unresolved feelings about remaining single. d. Females tend to “marry down” to males with lower social and education al status. 43. Current projections indicate that percent of the millennial generation wi ll remain single until at least age . *a. 30; 40 b. 20; 50 c. 30; 50 d. 10; 20 44. Which statement concerning African Americans, European Americans, and Lat inos in America is TRUE? *a. African Americans are most likely to be single during young adulthood. b. Latinos are actively encouraged to avoid marriage in young adulthood. c. The main cause of singlehood for European Americans is a shortage of marriageable European-American males. d. The rate of singlehood in the United States is unaffected by ethnic fact ors. 45. Singlehood is: *a. increasing in African American and Latino American women. b. increasing in African American and decreasing in Latino American wome n. c. decreasing in African American and increasing in Latino American wome n. d. decreasing in African American and Latino American women. 46. For most people, the decision to remain permanently single is: a. made in the teenage years. b. due to the untimely death of their “one true love.” c. driven by economic factors. *d. the result of gradual circumstances, not a lifestyle choice. 47. Ken and Barbie are sexually active singles who are discussing the idea of mo ving in together. They are definitely contemplating: a. forming an extended family. b. homogamy. *c. cohabitation. d. assortative mating. 48. The happiest cohabiting couples are those who look very much like: a. couples that start having children early. b. financially well-off couples. *c. happy married couples. d. young upwardly mobile urbanites. 49. Many countries extend the same rights and benefits to as they do to m arried couples. a. separated couples b. divorced couples *c. cohabiting couples d. non-citizen couples 50. In which country is cohabitation most common? a. Vietnam b. South Africa c. India *d. Australia 51. Most marriages in the United States: *a. begin as cohabiting relationships. b. do not begin as cohabiting relationships. c. end as cohabiting relationships. d. are less successful than cohabitating relationships. 52. Part-time or limited cohabitation is usually undertaken because of: a. a strong desire to marry. b. religious reasons. *c. convenience or sexual accessibility. d. pregnancy. 53. Liz and Richard are 35-year-olds who have lived together for a long time. Afte r the birth of their first child, they decided to get married. Given this description, Li z and Richard’s cohabitation pattern suggests that they live in which country? a. United States b. Jamaica *c. Sweden d. China 54. Ole and Lena are a cohabitating couple in Norway, while Jack and Diane are a cohabitating couple in the United States. Cross-cultural research would predict th at: *a. Ole and Lena will only marry if they have children. b. Ole and Lena will believe that they are living in sin. c. Jack and Diane will be unlikely to ever marry. d. Jack and Diane will be at significantly less risk for divorce should they marry. 55. Al and Peg are a typical American couple who have cohabitated for many year s. If they later marry each other, they are likely to be than other married coup les who did not cohabitate. a. less at risk for divorce b. wealthier c. more religious *d. less happy 56. Gay and lesbian couples tend to differ from heterosexual couples in the degr ee to which partners: a. split household responsibilities. b. share power in the relationship. c. communicate effectively. *d. share the same demographic characteristics. 57. With the advent of legalized same-sex marriage, numerous issues that marrie d couples have are being confronted in the LGBTQ community. a. ignored b. given little consideration *c. long taken for granted d. never confronted 58. Currently, countries provide gay and lesbian couples with the same legal rights as heterosexual couples. a. no *b. few c. many d. most 59. How has the median age of first marriage in the United States changed since 1970? a. It has dropped by about four years. b. It has remained constant. *c. It has risen by about four years. d. It has risen by about eight years. 60. Each of these women has just married for the first time. Who is MOST likely t o get divorced? *a. Lucy, who is 17 b. Lacy, who is 23 c. Lanny, who is 29 d. Laurie, who is 35 61. Which of these is NOT considered a dimension of a successful marriage? *a. Longevity of the marriage b. High marital quality c. Sufficient marital adjustment d. Perceived marital satisfaction 62. When discussing their marriage, Meg and Ryan agree that what appears to k eep them together and happy is the fact that they share many of the same values. This exemplifies , which is a good predictor of marital success. a. monogamy b. singlehood *c. homogamy d. nesting 63. Elliot and Elizabeth are both politically liberal, vegetarian, like to socialize, an d are agnostic. Which concept BEST describes these similarities? a. Exchange theory *b. Homogamy c. Limited cohabitation d. Familism 64. Homogamy is to marital satisfaction. a. unrelated *b. positively related c. inversely related d. negatively related 65. According to exchange theory, the key factor in determining whether an excha nge will increase marital satisfaction is the: a. length of time the individuals have been married. b. age of the participants. c. potential monetary cost of the exchange. *d. perceived equity of the exchange. 66. Katie and Rob are seeing a marriage counselor, Dr. McMurray, to ask her adv ice about how to save their relationship. Dr. McMurray tells them that the reason they are having trouble is because “neither of you perceive that you are getting as much out of the relationship as you are putting into it.” This statement indicates t hat Dr. McMurray is a proponent of: a. homogamy. b. cohabitation. *c. exchange theory. d. the family life cycle. 67. According to Dey and Ghosh (2016), which of these is NOT a predictor of a s uccessful relationship? *a. Paying attention to weaknesses b. Respect for emotion c. Attitude toward marriage d. Expression of love 68. Which phrase BEST describes the typical pattern of marital satisfaction from honeymoon through retirement? *a. High to low to high b. High to medium to low c. Medium to high to low d. Low to medium to high 69. According to the vulnerability-stress-adaptation model of marriage, marital qu ality: *a. is a dynamic process resulting from a couple’s ability to handle stress. b. declines when couples are “too” alike. c. is predicted by the age of the couple at marriage. d. means there is one strong member of a couple and one weak member. 70. Which description LEAST exemplifies the early stage of most marriages? a. Husband and wives sharing activities *b. Husbands being very concerned with their wives maintaining close ties with friends c. Global adoration of a spouse’s qualities d. First marital stress involving monetary matters 71. Which statement concerning children and marital satisfaction is TRUE? a. Couples with children show a decline in marital satisfaction, while thos e without children show an increase. b. Couples who are child-free due to infertility tend to have high levels of marital satisfaction. c. African American couples tend to show little increased conflict due to th e birth of a child. *d. The birth of a child is usually viewed as a positive event, even though i t is associated with a decrease in marital satisfaction. 72. Heather is only moderately happy with her marriage. Because of that, she is t hinking about having a baby to make her marriage more satisfying. Is this a good i dea? a. Yes, because marital satisfaction increases with the birth of a baby. b. Maybe, because when both parents want a baby, marital satisfaction in creases after the birth of the baby. *c. No, as having a child typically decreases marital satisfaction. d. It is uncertain, as there is no specific relationship between marital satis faction and the birth of a child. 73. Which statement concerning marital satisfaction and having children is TRUE? a. Childless couples show no decline in marital satisfaction over time. b. The fussier the child, the less the drop in satisfaction as parents devot e more time to child care. *c. A decline in overall satisfaction is a common pattern for with-child and childless couples. d. Marital satisfaction following the birth of a child decreases in European Americans, but increases in African Americans. 74. Spouses who serve in combat areas on active duty assignment and who suff er from post-traumatic stress disorder are at: a. lesser risk for other spouse-directed aggression. *b. greater risk for other spouse-directed aggression. c. the same level of risk for other spouse-directed aggression as member s of the service that are not deployed. d. none of these are correct 75. Which couple is LEAST likely to maintain a happy marriage? a. Han and Leia, who are motivated to meet each other’s sexual needs b. Luke and Mara, who find ways to keep the romance in the relationship *c. Owen and Beru, who do not discuss their marital problems d. Ackbar and Mothma, who adapt to changing circumstances in the relati onship 76. To qualify as “emotionally divorced,” a couple must: a. experience a divorce. b. seriously consider divorcing. c. live in different locations. *d. fail to rebound in happiness. 77. Troy and Helen are both 55 and have been married for 20 years. However, th ey have grown apart and essentially live as housemates. Troy and Helen are best classified as: *a. emotionally divorced. b. empty nested. c. being in part-time cohabitation. d. being in a substitute marriage. 78. Which couple is probably the happiest? a. Henry and Anne, who have just had their first baby b. Hank and Alice, who have two adolescent children c. Harold and Abbey, whose children have just left home *d. Harvey and Amy, who have just retired 79. According to research presented in the text, what can be done to keep a marr iage happy for a long time? a. Be up-front about one’s issues with one’s spouse b. Do not intrude on one’s spouse’s private life *c. Be forgiving d. Confide in friends 80. What is the MOST common form of family in Western societies? a. Empty-nest family b. Extended family c. Stepfamily *d. Nuclear family 81. Marina and Kevin have two children, one boy and one girl, and the four of the m live together in one house. This type of family is called a(n): a. empty-nest family. b. extended family. c. step-family. *d. nuclear family. 82. Which arrangement would be considered a nuclear family? *a. Mary, who is a single mother and lives with her two children b. Sinead and Sean, who are a married couple c. Tammy and Rick, who live with their two children and Tammy’s parents d. Cleo, who lives alone 83. What is the MOST common type of family in the world? a. Nuclear family b. Blended family c. Interracial family *d. Extended family 84. Which constitutes an “extended family?” a. Two parents and one child b. Two parents and six children *c. Two parents, one child, and one grandfather d. Two cohabitating (but not married) adults 85. It is estimated that it will cost middle-income parents about to raise a c hild born in 2012 from birth through high school. a. $80,000 b. $180,000 *c. $240,000 d. $800,000 86. Alan and Darla are married and have decided not to have any children. They s hould expect to: a. be less wealthy than couples with children. b. have less freedom than couples with children. *c. be viewed negatively, especially by women. d. have more marital dissatisfaction than couples with children. 87. For women, increases the likelihood of remaining child-free. a. being an only child b. marrying for the first time between the ages of 25 and 30 c. living in poverty *d. higher levels of education 88. Ashley is 35 years old and just had her first baby. She is less likely to t han younger mothers. a. spend time with the baby *b. be anxious about being a parent c. be sensitive to her baby’s needs d. be affectionate toward her baby 89. Thirty-six-year-old Alexander and 25-year-old Jonathan are typical first-time fa thers. It would be expected that: *a. Alexander will spend more time with his child than Jonathan. b. Alexander and Jonathan will spend about the same amount of time with their children. c. Jonathan will spend more time with his child than Alexander. d. Jonathan will spend more time with his child if his child is male and Ale xander’s is female. 90. Who is LEAST likely to do household chores? a. Ronnie, an African American male b. Bonnie, an African American female *c. Donnie, a European American male d. Connie, a European American female 91. The strong sense of tribalism traditionally found in families tends to lea d to strong ties between children, parents, and grandparents. a. European American *b. Native American c. African American d. Latino 92. Which ethnic group tends to have fewer two-parent families? *a. Latino families b. European American families c. Asian families d. Ethnicity is unrelated to parent configuration 93. Which statement BEST describes familism? a. Go forth and multiply as often as possible. b. Specific family members are responsible for discipline. *c. Family needs are more important than individual needs. d. We want to remain childless. 94. Which statement concerning Latino families is TRUE? *a. Familism is a defining characteristic of Latino families. b. Latino families tend to view extended families in a negative light. c. Latino families are more likely to be two-parent households than are Eu ropean-American families. d. Due to their nature, Latino families tend to provide poor child care. 95. The opposite of familism is: a. homogamy. *b. individuality. c. nuclear. d. adoption. 96. Parents of multiracial children tend to than parents of single-race childre n. a. worry less about their children being rejected by others due to their race b. use authoritarian parenting methods c. experience less marital stress *d. provide more economic resources to their children 97. Studies of the parenting of multiracial children in the United States and New Zealand found that: a. a parent from a racial minority group played the largest role in guiding t he child’s development of his or her ethnic identity. *b. moms played the largest role in guiding the child’s development of eth nic minority identity, even when that child was not of that ethnic group. c. dads played the largest role in guiding the child’s development of ethnic minority identity, even when that child was not of that ethnic group. d. parents of these children tend to see their children through “ethnic blin ders” and do not typically attempt to instill their children with a sense of et hnic identity. 98. Many divorced single parents run into problems with: a. disposable income. b. familism. *c. dating. d. homogamy. 99. Which statement about single parents is TRUE? a. They are financially better off than their married counterparts. b. Trying to be a peer versus a parent has great benefits and few drawbac ks. c. Most single divorced parents wait at least two years before dating. *d. Financially, single mothers are hardest hit. 100. The greatest worry of most adoptive, foster, and stepparents is that the ado ptive child in their life will: a. not physically resemble them. *b. fail to bond with them. c. lack intelligence. d. be carrying some undetected genetic disorder. 101. Which statement is TRUE? a. Stepparents should encourage their stepchildren to avoid contact with t heir noncustodial parent. b. Children in blended families tend to have better mental health than chil dren in nondivorced families. *c. Stepparents need to be highly sensitive to the needs of a stepchild co ncerning contact with noncustodial parent(s). d. Adopted children should be discouraged from contacting their biological parents. 102. Due to the nature of their task, foster parents must: a. induce immediate attachments in infants with whom they have had mini mal contact. *b. be willing to allow for ambiguity in the attachment relationship betwee n themselves and their foster child. c. act as if every child that enters their home will eventually be their own. d. discourage any court-ordered visits from noncustodial parents. 103. Kiko is being raised by lesbian parents. How is this experience MOST likely t o impact her own sexual orientation? a. Her odds of having a lesbian orientation are 10 times greater than thos e for a girl being raised by heterosexual parents. b. Her odds of having a lesbian orientation are four times greater than tho se for a girl being raised by heterosexual parents. c. Her odds of having a lesbian orientation are twice that of a girl being rai sed by heterosexual parents. *d. Her odds of having a lesbian orientation are similar to those of a girl b eing raised by heterosexual parents 104. When compared to heterosexual fathers, gay fathers appear to be more con cerned with: a. ensuring that their children do not become gay or lesbian. *b. providing their children with a nonsexist, nurturing environment. c. raising physically strong daughters. d. encouraging their children to avoid sports and pursue the arts. 105. Many divorced single parents report complex feelings toward their children, such as: a. feeling a need to be overly strict with discipline. *b. feeling a need to be overindulgent. c. a loss of feeling love for their child. d. finding it difficult to enjoy spending time with their child. 106. Adopted children may wish to locate and meet their birth parents. Such sear ches can strain the relationships between these children and their adoptive paren ts, who may interpret these actions as: a. a form of rebellion. b. an act of aggression. *c. a form of rejection. d. an expression of repressed sorrow. 107. Which married couple is MOST likely to get divorced? a. Pierre and Christine, who are from South Africa b. Junko and Katja, who are Ukrainian *c. Beavis and Madonna, who are American d. Rosina and Carmelo, who are French 108. Lisa and Phil are more likely to end up divorced if they are: a. both European Americans. b. both Hispanic Americans. c. both African Americans. *d. from different ethnic backgrounds. 109. As a typical American male, which of Todd’s reasons for filing for divorce wo uld be the MOST typical? a. “I hate my in-laws.” b. “My wife is one of those Women’s Libbers.” c. “I drink too much.” *d. “My wife had an affair.” 110. Jillian and Nick often express negative emotions toward each other, which m eans they are MOST likely to experience: *a. early divorce. b. later divorce. c. marital satisfaction. d. infidelity. 111. The purpose of a “covenant marriage” is to make to occur. *a. divorce less likely b. divorce more likely c. marriage less likely d. marriage more likely 112. What statement indicates that a couple is considering a “covenant marriag e?” a. “We must both convert to the same religious faith before marriage.” *b. “Before getting this divorce, you should expect to wait through a two-ye ar separation period or prove that I am having an affair.” c. “This is a much easier route than the traditional ‘no-fault’ divorce.” d. “Remember that this is being done knowing that it will benefit the childr en.” 113. In most divorce cases: a. neither party feels disappointed or rejected. b. only the wife feels disappointed or rejected. c. only the husband feels disappointed or rejected. *d. both parties feel disappointed or rejected. 114. Dylan has been divorced for five years, but still is preoccupied with his form er spouse, has not developed any new friendships, and is an emotional mess. Dyl an is BEST described as having a “divorce .” *a. hangover b. fixation c. breakthrough d. covenant 115. Which factor seems to be the BEST predictor of healthy post-divorce relation ships? a. High income levels b. An inability to forgive the ex-spouse c. Having children *d. Low preoccupation with the ex-spouse 116. During middle age, if a woman initiates a divorce, she would MOST likely fee l: a. vulnerable. *b. optimistic. c. depressed. d. angry. 117. The chances for remarrying for a housewife in middle or late life are generall y the chances for remarrying when divorcing young. a. about the same as *b. worse than c. better than d. worse for men and better for women than 118. When mothers who have custody remarry, visits of children by noncustodial f athers usually: a. increase. b. become more frequent, but last for shorter lengths of time. *c. decline. d. decrease in frequency, but last for longer lengths of time. 119. The main purpose of the Collaborative Divorce Project is to: a. assist same-sex marriage partners when they “divorce.” b. encourage legislators to consider all divorces and being “no fault.” *c. address custody issues involving younger children. d. ensure that more couples stay married. 120. College-age students of divorced parents report: a. an increase in networking in their own lives. b. a decrease in use of illegal drugs and alcohol. *c. poorer relations with their parents. d. no discernable positive or negative effects. 121. Unless they are poor, women are than men. a. more likely to initiate a divorce and more likely to remarry *b. more likely to initiate a divorce and less likely to remarry c. less likely to initiate a divorce and more likely to remarry d. less likely to initiate a divorce and less likely to remarry 122. The fact that friends are a source of recreation exemplifies the a ffective dimension of friendship. a. True *b. False 123. Online environments are more conducive to people who are lonely. *a. True b. False 124. Sternberg’s love component of commitment focuses on the mutual sha ring of thoughts and actions with a partner. a. True *b. False 125. The theory of assortative mating is based on the concept that “opp osites attract.” a. True *b. False 126. Physical attractiveness matters less in online and speed dating co mpared to traditional dating. a. True *b. False 127. Female chastity is a highly desired trait in virtually all culture s. a. True *b. False 128. The rate of satisfaction of couples in arranged marriages is very low. a. True *b. False 129. An abusive relationship only requires violent actions by one membe r of the couple. *a. True b. False 130. Chinese Americans are highly likely to determine abuse in terms of psychological trauma. a. True *b. False 131. While common in the United States, cohabitation is very rare in ot her parts of the world, especially in Scandinavian countries. a. True *b. False 132. In general, the same factors predict long-term success of couples regardless of sexual orientation. *a. True b. False 133. Homogamy is the acceptance of differences and the adaptations made by couples in an intimate relationship. a. True *b. False 134. The birth of a child tends to lead to declines in marital satisfac tion. *a. True b. False 135. Latino families are less likely than European American families to be “two-parent” families. *a. True b. False 136. A unique element of foster parenting is the concern over the level of bonding that should take place between a child and the foster parent s. *a. True b. False 137. The majority of children raised by lesbian couples later self-iden tify as gay or lesbian. a. True *b. False 138. The display of negative emotions between spouses is a good predict or of divorce when it occurs early in a marriage. *a. True b. False 139. Collaborative divorce is a voluntary, contractually-based alternat ive dispute resolution process for a divorce. *a. True b. False 140. The effects of experiencing divorce tend to be very short-lived if the child involved is in college. a. True *b. False 141. Describe the course of a friendship as it goes through Levenson’s ABCDE model. 142. Culture can play a significant role in mate selection. Discuss this issue in terms of the success of arranged marriages and the types of dimensions that are viewed as “impo rtant” by various cultures. 143. Couple violence is a complex issue. Provide some insight into this topic by discussi ng some causes of aggressive behaviors and by the role that culture plays in violence in r elationships. 144. Discuss the issues now being raised with the legalization of same-sex marriages. 145. How does marital satisfaction tend to change over the course of a typical marriage? What factors influence this pattern? 146. Lola is thinking about having a child and asks you for advice. Use research present ed in the text to describe positive and negative aspects of having children and positive an d negative aspects of being childless. 147. Describe familism. How might it be related to parental values, cultural differences, and extended families? 148. Discuss cross-cultural and cross-ethnic group divorce rates. Then describe how ne gative emotional expression and the lack of expression of positive emotions are related t o divorce. 149. Julia and Robert are 45-year-olds who have a 6-year-old daughter and are getting di vorced. How will this action most likely impact Julia and Robert? How could collaborative divorce provide some solutions? 150. Describe Sternberg’s passion, intimacy, and commitment components of love. How do these components typically change during the lifetime of a relationship? 1. In his book The Prophet, Kahlil Gibran (1923) stated that “ is love made vi sible.” a. sex b. a smile *c. work d. birth 2. If Will is an average adult, the main reason for him working is so that he can: a. demonstrate creativity. *b. earn a living and experience personal growth. c. make new friends. d. exercise his authority over others. 3. According to researchers, which of these is NOT one of the four common mea nings people derive from work? a. Developing self *b. Economic independence c. Union with others d. Fulfillment 4. The concept called meaning-mission fit can be defined as the: *a. alignment between an executive’s personal intentions and their firm’s mission. b. alignment between the meaning that an individual gives a job and their self-perceptions. c. meaning that an individual derives from their work. d. alignment between the fulfillment an individual receives from their job a nd the financial rewards. 5. Which of these are NOT included in Hance’s three main categories of what coll ege students believe they will get from work? *a. Working to please a potential spouse b. Working to achieve social influence c. Working to achieve personal fulfillment d. Working because of economic reality 6. Which of these is characteristic of career construction theory? *a. Building careers through one’s own actions that result from the interfa ce of personal characteristics and the social context. b. Career choice is a result of the application of Bandura’s social cognitive theory, especially the concept of self-efficacy. c. People are located along a continuum of vocational maturity. d. Situations in which what you learn in the classroom does not always tra nsfer directly into the “real world.” 7. According to Holland, people choose occupations that optimize: a. income. b. socialization. *c. the fit with personality. d. intellect. 8. Holland categorizes occupations using the dimensions of: *a. interpersonal settings and lifestyle. b. lifestyle and income. c. income and education level. d. education level and interpersonal settings. 9. People tend to college courses and majors that fit their personalities. a. avoid *b. like c. dislike d. fail 10. Who would most likely be giving a speech titled ‘Understanding the Continuu m of Vocational Maturity’? a. John Holland *b. Donald Super c. Nancy Betz d. Jan Sinnott 11. Vocational maturity is best associated with: a. Piaget’s stages of cognitive development. *b. the amount of congruence between occupation behaviors and age. c. Freud’s psychosexual stages. d. the income level that one attains. 12. Which developmental task would most likely characterize Dave, who is in his mid-teens? a. Implementation b. Stabilization c. Consolidation *d. Crystallization 13. Super would predict that 23-year-old Sophie is most likely in the phase of developmental tasks. a. maintenance *b. implementation c. establishment d. deceleration 14. The selection of a specific occupation marks the beginning of the stage of occupational development. a. maintenance b. implementation *c. stabilization d. decline 15. Since being promoted to an executive position a few years ago, Alison contin ued to find ways to work her way up the corporate ladder. Alison is most likely in Super’s phase of developmental tasks. a. retirement *b. consolidation c. specification d. implementation 16. The concept of “career advancement” is best associated with the task. a. stabilization b. implementation c. crystallization *d. consolidation 17. Which statement concerning occupational development is TRUE? a. Research supports neither Super’s claims that it is a developmental pro cess nor Holland’s emphasis on the importance role of personal characteri stics. b. Research does not support Super’s claims that it is a developmental pr ocess, but does support Holland’s emphasis on the importance role of per sonal characteristics. c. Research supports Super’s claims that it is a developmental process, b ut not Holland’s emphasis on the importance role of personal characteristi cs. *d. Research supports both Super’s claims that it is a developmental proc ess and Holland’s emphasis on the importance role of personal characteris tics. 18. Contrary to most stereotypes, are no more egotis tical and are just as happy and satisfied as young adults in every generation. a. Generation Zers b. Baby Boomers c. Generation Xers *d. Millennials 19. Angela was a teacher who spent lots of time preparing lessons and grading p apers, but she hadn’t been expecting teaching to take so much of her time and e nergy. Her education had not prepared her for what teaching would really be like. I f she represents the average worker, her most likely reactions would involve: a. resolve to change the system. *b. reality shock. c. dropping her friendships. d. suing the company. 20. When Debra started her new job, she met Rosalind, an experienced worker w ho took Debra “under her wing.” Rosalind gave Debra many pointers and was alwa ys there when Debra had a question about what to do or why she needed to do it. Rosalind served as a for Debra. *a. mentor b. career plateau c. realistic type d. conventional type 21. Another term for mentor is: a. boss. *b. developmental coach. c. executive. d. inspirational leader. 22. Women who are mentored receive several benefits. Which benefit is most lik ely to occur? a. Fewer working hours b. Satisfaction with current roles c. Firing “bad” employees *d. Higher career expectations 23. Because it is important to match prospective mentors and mentees effectivel y, some organizations have created: a. automated call mentoring. b. mentoring websites. *c. speed mentoring. d. legal guidelines. 24. Hideki has recently relocated from Japan and is now employed at an America n business. To make sure that his mentoring relationship will be effective, it is im portant that his mentor is: a. also Japanese. b. not necessarily Japanese but Asian. *c. culturally conscious. d. a male. 25. How are mentoring and generativity related? *a. Mentoring is one avenue for achieving generativity. b. Generativity causes mentoring. c. Individuals who mentor are less likely to express generativity. d. Mentoring is done by the employee, and generativity is done by the emp loyer. 26. Julie is a female lawyer who has a mentor. Compared to her female colleague s who have no mentors, Julie is more likely to: a. consider changing occupations. b. experience more work-family conflict. c. be less intent to continue to practice law. *d. have better perceived career development. 27. Which statement with regard to mentors is TRUE? *a. A poor mentor is worse than having no mentor at all. b. The best mentors are given to, not chosen by, a protégé. c. A mentor of the opposite sex is a recipe for disaster. d. Any mentoring, even bad mentoring, can only help in one’s career. 28. Job satisfaction is defined as: *a. positive feelings resulting from appraisal of one’s work. b. any type of feeling resulting from appraisal of one’s work. c. a motor behavior taken to improve one’s job performance. d. any behavior engaged in to improve one’s job performance. 29. Job satisfaction in individuals with a good fit between themselves and their o ccupation tends to: *a. increase with age. b. remain stable across time. c. decrease with age. d. follow no clear pattern. 30. Which statement is TRUE regarding the predictors of job satisfaction cross-cu lturally? a. Predictors of job satisfaction are different across countries. b. The degree to which predictors predict job satisfaction depends on age. c. Predictors of job satisfaction are the same across countries. *d. Some predictors of job satisfaction transcend countries, while others do not. 31. Psychological capital theory states that: a. people are happiest when they are not working. b. only white-collar workers can achieve job satisfaction. *c. happiness fuels success. d. the higher your income, the happier you feel. 32. Which statement about the development of job satisfaction is TRUE? a. Blue-collar workers’ level of job satisfaction rises quicker than that of w hite-collar workers. b. Job satisfaction decreases when responsibility is increased. *c. Job satisfaction tends to increase gradually with age. d. When older workers begin to make work less of a focus in their lives, it takes more to keep them satisfied with work. 33. What is one significant change in the labor market that is also changing the n otion of job satisfaction? a. Increases in white-collar jobs and decreases in blue-collar jobs *b. Fewer prospects of having a long career in one organization c. Increases in older workers across occupations d. Increases in women across all occupations 34. A worker described as is most likely to feel devalued. a. burned out *b. alienated c. plateauing d. generative 35. Edsel is an autoworker on an assembly line. When asked to comment on his job, Edsel says, “First, I am a nothing to this company. Second, my ‘do-nothing’ jo b serves no purpose in the production of automobiles.” Edsel is best described as: a. burned out. b. generative. c. having poor occupational priorities. *d. alienated. 36. Which manager’s strategy for preventing alienation in company workers will pr obably work best? a. Judith’s, which is to cut salaries to increase the likelihood that workers will continue because they like their job, not because they make money b. Michael’s, which is to help alleviate job stress by making sure workers know nothing of the day-to-day operations of the company *c. Colleen’s, which is to include workers in the company’s decision-makin g process d. Dennis’s, which is to fire workers at random so that no one will ever kn ow if they are going to have a job tomorrow or not 37. The hot dog processing factory that Oscar works at recently instituted a total quality management program to better include workers in the planning process. T his was most likely done in response to workers’ complaints about: *a. alienation. b. career plateauing. c. age discrimination. d. a glass ceiling. 38. Beatrice simply has no energy left for her job. She is totally unmotivated and feels exploited by the company for which she works. She is best described as exp eriencing: a. alienation. *b. burnout. c. job satisfaction. d. vocational maturity. 39. Occupational burnout comes from excessive: *a. feelings of exploitation. b. disconnection from coworkers. c. underutilization. d. belief that one’s job really doesn’t matter to the company. 40. One way to avoid burnout in employees is to: a. increase expectations. b. de-emphasize identity. *c. foster harmonious passion. d. increase stress. 41. Which professions have the lowest percentage of women? a. Physicians and surgeons b. Architects and engineers *c. Electricians and plumbers d. Chefs and head cooks 42. According to the U.S. Department of Labor, in order for an occupation to be cl assified as “nontraditional for women,” women must comprise percent or les s of the total number of people employed in that occupation. a. 50 *b. 25 c. 10 d. 5 43. Candice drives big-rig trucks for a living. How is she likely to be viewed by oth er adults? *a. Males and females will view her negatively. b. Males will view her negatively; females will view her positively. c. Males will view her positively; females will view her negatively. d. Males and females will view her positively. 44. Research shows that men prefer to date women who are in careers. *a. traditional b. part-time c. nontraditional d. skilled trade 45. Devin was born in 1950. As such, he is best classified as part of the ge neration. a. lost *b. baby-boomer c. generation X d. millennial 46. How many of these individuals would be considered millennials: Billy, born in 1970; Jilly, born in 1980; Dilly, born in 1990; and Milly, born in 2000? a. one *b. two c. three d. four 47. The Millennial Generation will bring a high degree of into the workforce. *a. technological sophistication b. supplemental mentors c. nontraditional workers d. child care workers 48. Research on women working in the corporate world indicates that one reason professional women leave their jobs is that the common corporate structure does not value: *a. an interdependent worker. b. competence. c. self-sufficiency. d. competition. 49. Research on women working in the corporate world indicates that women prof essionals are most likely to leave that career because they: a. become income driven. b. need more education to be successful. c. are pressured to by their husbands or boyfriends. *d. find themselves not being rewarded for the relational skills they value. 50. A key reason for women leaving the workforce is that they feel: a. that employers demand too much collaboration. b. that employment is a masculine trait. c. technologically inept. *d. disconnected from the workplace. 51. Marisa (who is European American) and her female friend Destiny (who is Afri can American) are both pursuing careers in traditionally male occupations. How is their preparation likely to differ? a. Marisa will become more educated than is necessary for the position. *b. Destiny will become more educated than is necessary for the position. c. Marisa will not receive negative reactions to her decision. d. Destiny will not receive negative reactions to her decision. 52. The textbook defines gender discrimination as something that: *a. involves the denial of a job. b. only affects women. c. is very uncommon. d. is found only in ethnic minority populations. 53. Mr. French has been denied a job as a nanny solely because he is a male. Th is provides an example of: *a. gender discrimination. b. sexual harassment. c. burnout. d. alienation. 54. A “glass ceiling” is best described as a(n): *a. barrier preventing advancement in a company. b. sex-based form of rapid advancement in a company. c. example of the use of the reasonable woman standard. d. method for encouraging mentoring of ethnic minority workers. 55. Fran finds that no matter what she does or how well she performs, she canno t get promoted above a certain mid-management position in her company. Fran is most likely experiencing: a. burnout. b. alienation. c. role conflict. *d. a glass ceiling. 56. The “glass ceiling” for women is most pronounced in their inability to: a. attain a job in a traditionally male occupation. b. enter the job force at any level. c. keep a low-tier job. *d. rise to the highest level of management in a company. 57. You are the head of a company with a “glass ceiling.” If you would like to elim inate this problem, what should you do? a. Be less democratic with your employees. b. Reduce access to mentors. c. Employ a less diverse workforce. *d. Provide more feedback about promotions. 58. Lisa is an executive at her company, but her future in this position is uncertai n. What is she experiencing? a. Sexual harassment b. Age discrimination c. A glass ceiling *d. A glass cliff 59. Emma has been promoted to a managerial position where she manages fifty employees in a division that has a history of low product output. Her boss has ins tructed her that although she must now increase product output, she may not ma ke any changes in the ways things are run, may not fire anyone, and may not hire anyone. Emma is experiencing: a. a glass ceiling. *b. a glass cliff. c. sexual harassment. d. age discrimination. 60. Corrine has been promoted to a managerial position during a time when her c orporation is in crisis, but she is uncertain if she will be allowed to remain in that position. Corrine is experiencing: a. ethnic discrimination. b. a glass ceiling. *c. a glass cliff. d. feminist ideology. 61. According to Kolb, Williams, and Frohlinger (2010), which of these is NOT so mething women need to focus on when being assertive in getting their rightful pla ce at the table in the effort to eliminate the glass ceiling? a. Drilling deep into the organization so they can make informed decision b. Getting the necessary resources *c. Making stronger relationship connections with others d. Getting buy-in 62. Between 1979 and 2006, the pay difference between equally trained males a nd females has: a. grown slightly larger. *b. decreased slightly. c. decreased significantly. d. been eliminated. 63. Robert and Julia are employed in the same occupation. If pay for the two follo ws the pattern for the average American female and male, for every $100 earned by Robert, Julia could expect to earn: a. $95. b. $90. *c. $80. d. $70. 64. Pay equity specifically involves equal pay for: a. all jobs. *b. equivalent jobs. c. all ethnic groups. d. both sexes. 65. Assistant Manager Tina just found out that she earns $10,000 per year less than Jeff, another assistant manager with the same educational background and experience. Tina is a victim of: a. reality shock. b. work-family conflict. c. comparable worth. *d. pay inequity. 66. Which statement BEST describes the research on pay equity? a. Women make less than men for the same job only in traditionally male occupations. *b. Women make less than men for the same job, even in traditionally mal e occupations. c. There is a gap between what men and women are paid for the same job, but it emerges about 10 years after college. d. There is a gap between what men and women are paid for the same job, but it only occurs after a woman has taken time out of the workforce. 67. Sexual harassment tends to occur when there is a(n) difference betwee n two people. a. sex *b. power c. educational d. age 68. Sexual harassment complaints are filed most often by women, but about of workplace cases are filed by men. a. 5% *b. 17% c. 25% d. 33% 69. Who of these is NOT likely to be a negative effect of being sexually harassed at work? a. Depression b. Health problems c. Decrease in job performance *d. Job security 70. Troy is a 55-year-old worker who, despite having a very good work record, has been passed up for promotion many times in favor of younger workers with lesser records. Troy is most likely a victim of: a. the glass ceiling. b. pay discrimination. c. role conflict. *d. age discrimination. 71. Who has just reached the age at which he would receive protection under the U.S. Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1986? a. Kingsley, who is 30 *b. Luther, who is 40 c. Yasir, who is 50 d. Beasley, who is 60 72. A manufacturing company wants 55-year-old Neema to retire from her job, bu t she refuses. In response, the company changes her job so that instead of havin g to stack 80 20-pound packages an hour, she now has to stack 20 eight-pound packages. This best exemplifies: a. sexual harassment. *b. age discrimination. c. comparable worth. d. a glass ceiling. 73. Individuals who terminate employment at one point in time but return to work in the same organization at a future time are called employees. *a. boomerang b. comparable c. reasonable d. nontraditional 74. Martin, a middle-aged man, quit his job with benefits at Lawrence and Short, Inc. and later was rehired as a contract worker, Martin is a: a. victim of sexual harassment. *b. boomerang employee. c. “reasonable person.” d. victim of a glass cliff. 75. Which action BEST exemplifies the concept of self-initiated occupational chan ge? *a. Quitting a job to take on a more challenging job b. Losing one’ job in an economic recession c. Having a company send one’s job overseas d. Losing one’s job to technology 76. Getting a more extensive education is one benefit of: a. the reasonable person standard. b. the glass ceiling. c. role conflict. *d. changing occupations. 77. Which BEST exemplifies career plateauing? a. Taking on a new job in order to increase one’s salary b. Signing up for a college course that may help one get a promotion c. Experiencing a career dream *d. Deciding not to seek a promotion after many years at the same job 78. Although she is well-liked within the organization and in no danger of losing h er job, Tammy has not been promoted for some time due to the fact that she has not kept up with the technological advances in her field. Tammy is most likely exp eriencing: a. the glass ceiling. *b. a career plateau. c. burnout. d. vocational maturity. 79. Career plateauing would LEAST likely be the result of: a. a lack of challenge in one’s job. b. lack of promotion opportunity. c. a decision to not seek job advancement. *d. losing one’s job due to downsizing. 80. Jeremy has worked for the same marketing company for several years. Becau se he has not really put an effort into keeping his computer skills up to date, he r eally has no chance at advancing beyond his present position. Which term BEST d escribes what Jeremy is experiencing? a. Job satisfaction *b. Career plateauing c. The glass ceiling d. Alienation 81. In order to help their employees move from one job to another, and in order t o meet the challenges of a global economy, corporations must offer as part of their employee development programs. *a. retraining b. glass ceilings c. occupational priorities d. comparable worth 82. Oscar is very worried about losing his job. Felicia feels comfortable that her jo b is completely secure. Based on research on job insecurity, it is likely that Oscar is: a. less wealthy than Felicia. b. more vocationally mature than Felicia. *c. less physically well than Felicia. d. less intelligent than Felicia. 83. Research on stress and employment status has shown that: *a. individuals who believe that they will lose their jobs show similar stres s levels to those who have actually lost their jobs. b. the mere threat of unemployment has little impact on mental health. c. due to job demands, employed workers show more stress than unempl oyed workers. d. using emotional avoidance is an effective strategy for reducing stress r elated to the possibility of unemployment. 84. Which would be an emotion-focused coping mechanism concerning possible j ob loss? a. Retraining oneself to ensure getting a new job *b. Reducing the stress one is experiencing c. Confronting one’s employer about the job loss d. Suing the company for wrongful termination 85. The negative impact following unemployment can be eliminated through: a. career counseling. *b. reemployment. c. reeducation. d. career plateauing. 86. Loss of a job is most likely to negatively impact men who are: a. college-aged. b. early in their career. *c. middle-aged. d. retirement-aged. 87. Who is most likely to be negatively affected by losing his job? a. Nate, who is 23 years old b. Bill, who is 28 years old *c. Marty, who is 46 years old d. Bruce, who is 68 years old 88. Which of these is NOT an effect of job loss associated with middle-aged men? a. A greater vulnerability to negative effects of job loss than that felt by yo unger men b. A greater vulnerability to negative effects of job loss than that felt by ol der men *c. A greater feeling of an opportunity to change their life course positively d. A greater impact on their identity than that felt by younger and older me n 89. According to the textbook, risk increases the longer lasts. *a. suicide; unemployment b. divorce; job retraining c. job loss; work-family conflict d. loss of control; occupation tenure 90. The BEST advice for managing occupational transition is to: a. not approach the situation with a sense of healthy urgency. b. only consider next career moves if specific prospects are available. *c. be cautious of stop-gap employment. d. identify unrealistic goals first and realistic thereafter. 91. In the United States, roughly percent of two-parent households have two working parents. a. 20 b. 40 *c. 50 d. 80 92. Research has indicated that the most critical factors in determining whether a formerly employed woman with a preschooler returns to work are her financial n eed and her level of: a. vocational maturity. b. maternal instinct. *c. attachment to her job. d. self-esteem. 93. According to the textbook, which of these is NOT a key factor in selecting an appropriate care site for one’s children or parents? a. Hours of availability b. Price *c. Quality of care d. Distance from work 94. Which statement is TRUE? a. Caring for an older parent is less stressful than caring for a child. b. Caring for a child is less stressful than caring for an older parent. *c. Caring for a child or an older parent are both stressful. d. Neither caring for a child nor caring for an older parent leads to stress. 95. Research indicates that work-based child care is: a. uncommon in most countries, including the United States. b. uncommon in most countries, but becoming common in the United Stat es. *c. no better than nonwork-based childcare in terms of mothers’ transition back to work. d. better than nonwork-based childcare in terms of mothers’ transition bac k to work. 96. Gail is a work supervisor who is very supportive of her workers’ needs in rega rd to child care and other family issues. Because of this, it is likely that Gail’s wor kers will: *a. report more job satisfaction. b. report more job-family conflict. c. experience greater burnout. d. be more likely to alter their “reasonable person” standard. 97. How many of these employer working conditions are related to more optimal j ob performance by parents with children: job sharing, higher productivity demands, inflexible schedules, and autonomy? a. one *b. two c. three d. four 98. The 1993 Family and Medical Leave Act gave people the right to: *a. unpaid time off to care for dependents. b. sue for gender discrimination. c. paid day care for infants under the age of 18 months. d. sue for sexual harassment. 99. Roxburgh (2002) introduced the notion that parents of families dealing with ti me pressures feel: a. they experience negative impacts on career advancement. *b. much more stress. c. a and b are correct d. none of these are correct 100. A global study of parental leave showed that generous parental leave policie s: a. created parents who never returned to work. *b. lowered infant mortality rates. c. increased employees’ work involvement. d. increased work-based child care programs. 101. Carrie is a full-time physician and Ken is a full-time schoolteacher. Who likel y does most of the housework and childcare? *a. Carrie b. Ken c. Carrie and Ken probably do about the same amount of housework. d. Their children probably take on most of the housework and babysitting. 102. A movie producer is looking for someone to play the role of a domestic serv ant. She wants to cast someone who has significant experience with all kinds of h ousework in their everyday life. Based on this criterion, who is LEAST likely to get the role? a. Julie, a European-American female *b. Jed, a European-American male c. Matt, an African-American male d. Alonzo, a Hispanic-American male 103. The greatest discrepancy in household task performance in heterosexual co uples is found when males endorse gender roles for themselves. a. feminine *b. masculine c. androgynous d. no 104. Tim is in a terrible bind. He has promised his son that he would go to his co ncert but is now expected to meet a job candidate at the airport at the same time. Tim is experiencing: a. a glass ceiling. b. occupational priorities. c. career plateauing. *d. work-family conflict. 105. Which term BEST describes the typical relationship between occupational an d family roles? *a. Conflicting b. Similar c. Compatible d. Unilateral 106. Which activity indicates the MOST equitable division of labor between parent s? *a. Vacuuming the carpet b. Repairing the drain c. Responding to the doorbell d. Decorating the living room 107. Which couple is likely to be experiencing the MOST inter-role conflict? a. Willy and Tina, who do not have any children *b. Shaun and Joanna, who have two preschool-age children c. Karen and Jim, whose children are now in college d. Michelle and Kenny, who are both retired 108. Which dual-career conflict statement is TRUE? a. Dual-career couples tend to have the fewest work role conflicts. *b. Burnout from work and parenting has a greater impact on working wom en. c. The amount of time a couple spends together is the most important pre dictor of conflict. d. The United States is one of the few countries in which the division of la bor between men and women is so equitable that it does not lead to confli ct. 109. Work-family conflicts are arguably worse for couples in the United States be cause Americans work with fewer than any other developed country. a. less hours; promotions *b. more hours; vacation days c. more hours; years of education d. less hours; workers per supervisor 110. To qualify as “leisure,” an activity must: a. involve physical exertion. *b. be discretionary. c. involve some monetary payment d. be creative. 111. Who is LEAST likely involved in a leisure activity? *a. Kermit, who is bowling because his boss wants him to bowl b. Larry, who writes short stories for fun c. Brian, who listens to music to help him relax d. Glenn, who makes fishing lures as a creative hobby 112. A decline in the frequency of leisure activities is associated with: *a. depression. b. ADHD. c. an increase in household chores. d. perceived competence. 113. When Kid says, “I have thought about it for a long time, and I believe that I would be a great rock and roll star,” he is exhibiting: a. extrinsic motivation. b. work-family conflict. *c. perceived competence. d. docility. 114. Compared to middle-aged adults, young adults tend to participate in a: a. smaller range of activities and prefer those activities with a lower level of intensity. b. smaller range of activities and prefer those activities with a higher level of intensity. c. larger range of activities and prefer those activities with a lower level of intensity. *d. larger range of activities and prefer those activities with a higher level of intensity. 115. Longitudinal studies show that as one gets older, leisure activities tend to b ecome less: a. family-oriented. b. complex. c. sedentary. *d. physically challenging. 116. Which is NOT a benefit of leisure activities? *a. They enable us to forget about our past b. They distract us from negative events c. They can be used as a means of personal transformation d. They generate optimism about the future 117. Research has found that: *a. the positive impacts of a vacation can be eliminated by the workload c reated by the vacation. b. participation in leisure activities tend to weaken family attachments. c. there is a negative correlation between frequency of leisure activities an d social acceptance. d. the more extreme leisure activity a spouse chooses, the less likelihood of it creating family conflict. 118. What someone does for a living has a big impact on their need to d erive meaning from work. a. True *b. False 119. Holland believes that people choose occupations that best fit with their personalities. *a. True b. False 120. The implementation stage of vocational maturity begins with the se lection of a specific occupation. a. True *b. False 121. Super’s theory applies to individuals who enter and remain in the same career their entire life. *a. True b. False 122. Career construction theory proposes career choice is a result of t he application of Bandura’s social cognitive theory. a. True *b. False 123. Women tend to have a more difficult time finding adequate mentors. *a. True b. False 124. Job satisfaction is best predicted by age, as the older a worker i s, the higher the satisfaction. a. True *b. False 125. Alienated employees tend to view their work as meaningless. *a. True b. False 126. Burnout tends to result in an increase in occupational idealism. a. True *b. False 127. Harmonious passion results when individuals do not feel compelled to engage in an enjoyable activity. *a. True b. False 128. Professional working women are more likely to leave a corporation that does not value interdependence and collaboration. *a. True b. False 129. Research suggests that women have a greater need for mentors than men. *a. True b. False 130. Female workers are more likely than male workers to encounter a gl ass ceiling. *a. True b. False 131. The wage gap between males and females has been rapidly narrowing since the 1970s. a. True *b. False 132. Employment prospects for middle-aged people are lower than for you ng adults. *a. True b. False 133. When workers experience career plateauing, they may decide not to seek a promotion. *a. True b. False 134. People who believe that they are going to lose their job experienc e similar levels of stress as those who are actually unemployed. *a. True b. False 135. When workplace supervisors adopt a supportive stance regarding day care, employees have lower absenteeism and higher job satisfaction. *a. True b. False 136. As the result of recent changes in cultural attitudes, the divisio n of labor between heterosexual couples in the United States is now vir tually equal. a. True *b. False 137. Cross-cultural research in Japan and China has revealed lower job satisfaction with work-family conflicts. *a. True b. False 138. An individual’s leisure repertoire tends to be determined by that person’s perceived competence and psychological comfort. *a. True b. False 139. Discuss the process of occupational development by first describing what type of meaning people derive from their work and then by describing how well Holland’s theory a ids in our understanding of the relationship between personality and occupational choice. 140. First describe the concept of vocational maturity. Then discuss Super’s implementa tion, stabilization, and consolidation developmental tasks by outlining how these stages could play out for a person interested in business as they move from ages 20 to 40. 141. You are the head of a company considering instituting a mentoring program for new employees and have been asked by your board of directors to describe your plan. Do so by discussing how new employees benefit from mentors and how mentors benefit from m entoring. 142. Describe the unique factors that influence occupational selection and development for women. 143. Describe three ways the textbook addressed the impact of technological change in working and relaxing during young and middle adulthood. 144. Compare and contrast the glass ceiling and the glass cliffas they apply to women i n the world of work. 145. Twenty-five-year-old Claire and her uncle, 50-year-old Dane, are both about to lose their jobs. How will the impact on their lives and sense of self be similar? In what ways wi ll their reactions likely differ? 146. Dora is a full-time worker and mother of three. Describe the types of stressors that Dora will have to overcome. How can her employer help reduce her stress? 147. What is age discrimination, and how can it manifest itself in the workplace? 148. Many people say that they would like to lead a life of leisure. React to this stateme nt by defining leisure, describing developmental changes in leisure activities, and discuss ing the benefits of engaging in leisure activities. 1. Fifty-year-old Esmeralda has been a heavy smoker since her youth. In addition, she lives in a sunny climate and always has a deep tan. You would expect that sh e has than most other people her age. a. more gray hair b. a larger middle-aged bulge *c. more wrinkles d. less hair 2. The metabolic slowdown common to individuals in their early 30s and mid-50s will lead to in many males. a. gray hair *b. a middle-aged bulge c. wrinkles d. hair loss 3. As Dr. Benton is looking at an X-ray of bones in 20-year-old James’s leg, his c omment, , would indicate that James has reached skeletal maturity. *a. “I see that this is the longest your leg bone will ever be” b. “I see excessive encapsulation” c. “I see a significant decrease in density” d. “I see very little plaque” 4. Who is at the greatest risk of currently experiencing osteoporosis? a. Martha, who is a 20-year-old female b. George, who is a 30-year-old male *c. Mary, who is a 60-year-old female d. Abe, who is a 70-year-old male 5. Forty-five-year-old Marilyn, who is very concerned about osteoporosis, seeks m edical advice from her physician. Which advice would her physician be LEAST likel y to give? *a. “Let’s try increasing your alcohol consumption.” b. “Let’s try increasing your estrogen level.” c. “Let’s try increasing your exercise rate.” d. “Let’s try increasing your calcium consumption.” 6. The rate of osteoporosis is directly affected by the metabolism rate of vitamin . a. A. b. B. c. C. *d. D. 7. Connie is a knowledgeable individual, so when her physician tells her that she will be put on a biophosphonate, Connie realizes that she MOST likely has: a. menopause. b. high blood pressure. c. cancer. *d. osteoporosis. 8. Sixty-year-old Wendell is being examined by his physician. Wendell’s symptom s include joint pain that has gradually increased. When his doctor says, “Your pain is due to the damage to your cartilage caused by severe use over your lifetime,” y ou should correctly conclude that Wendell will be diagnosed with: a. the climacteric. b. rheumatoid arthritis. c. osteoporosis. *d. osteoarthritis. 9. Misha often experiences severe swelling and joint pain in her fingers and wrist s each morning. This pattern of symptoms is MOST likely due to: *a. rheumatoid arthritis. b. osteoarthritis. c. the climacteric. d. osteoporosis. 10. One difference between osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis is that: a. osteoarthritis is not painful. b. osteoarthritis typically occurs in adolescence. *c. there is more swelling of the joints in rheumatoid arthritis. d. women are more likely to be affected by rheumatoid arthritis. 11. Which statement concerning rheumatoid arthritis is TRUE? a. Individuals with rheumatoid arthritis need to avoid aspirin. b. Rheumatoid arthritis is inherited. *c. Symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis come and go. d. Rheumatoid arthritis affects large joints (e.g., hips) but not small joints (e.g., fingers). 12. The defining element of “the climacteric” involves the loss of: *a. the natural ability to produce children. b. cancer-fighting agents. c. emotional stability. d. blood flow through the circulatory system. 13. While at a checkup, 40-year-old Betty listens as her physician, Dr. White, des cribes Betty’s current health. Which of Dr. White’s statements would suggest that Betty is experiencing the climacteric? a. “Do genetic disorders run in your family?” *b. “I hope that you have all the children you want.” c. “The loss of memory will be slow but significant.” d. “Some of your blood cells have begun to alter their shape.” 14. As women reach the climacteric, their menstrual cycles: a. continue regularly for the remainder of their lives. *b. become irregular, and gradually stop altogether. c. become more and more irregular, but they never completely stop. d. stop all at once. 15. How are menopause and the climacteric related? a. Menopause typically ends right before the climacteric. b. The climacteric typically ends right before menopause. *c. Menopause occurs during the climacteric. d. Menopause and the climacteric are unrelated. 16. Shelly is a 46-year-old woman whose menstrual cycle has changed and is no w more irregular and infrequent. Which term BEST describes Shelly’s condition? a. Menopause b. Midlife crisis *c. Perimenopause d. Encapsulated 17. Which of these are hormonal-related symptoms of menopause? a. Poor respiration and hot flashes *b. Hot flashes and vaginal dryness c. Vaginal dryness and joint stiffness d. Joint stiffness and poor respiration 18. The primary reason that elderly women show a decline in sexual activity involv es: a. a normal physiological lack of interest. b. failure to achieve orgasm. *c. the lack of a willing or appropriate partner. d. pain associated with vaginal changes. 19. Serina is looking forward to menopause and aging. Based on this information, what is Serina’s ethnic background? a. Asian b. Middle Eastern c. European American *d. Mayan 20. Queen Mary is being treated with MHT by her gynecologist. Which of these is she MOST likely taking? a. Oxytocin b. Testosterone *c. Estrogen d. Androgen 21. Yasmin is told that she will be taking selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs). What medical condition is MOST likely being treated? a. High blood pressure *b. Menopause c. Breast cancer d. Rheumatoid arthritis 22. Tom has always wanted to be a father, but has not yet found an acceptable p artner. He is now 35 years old, healthy, and beginning to be concerned about how much longer he will remain fertile. When he asks his doctor about this, his doctor tells him that he will probably be capable of fathering a child: a. until he is about 45 years old. b. until he is about 65 years old. c. until he is about 85 years old. *d. for the rest of his life. 23. Some males experience an age-related decline in production, resulting i n menopause-like symptoms. *a. testosterone b. dopamine c. estrogen d. progestin 24. As a typical middle-aged male, Rasheed will MOST likely experience: a. a brief increase in sperm production. b. a shorter resolution phase. *c. a prostate gland that becomes enlarged. d. more perceived demand to ejaculate. 25. The loss of an available partner in older age: *a. is a factor in the decrease in sexual intercourse for both men and wo men. b. is a factor in the decrease in sexual intercourse for men, but not for wo men. c. is a factor in the decrease in sexual intercourse for women, but not for men. d. is not a factor in the decrease in sexual intercourse for men or women. 26. Compared to the average middle-aged man, the average middle-aged woman tends to rate stressful experiences: a. less negatively and to report more stress in family areas. *b. more negatively and to report more stress in family areas. c. less negatively and to report more stress in financial areas. d. more negatively and to report more stress in financial areas. 27. The stress and coping paradigm focuses on the interactive relationship betwe en: *a. a person and an event. b. mind and body. c. hormones and neurotransmitters. d. family and work. 28. Analyzing how a person thinks about her job and how that job situation ends up affecting the individual both psychologically and physically would be an exampl e of an application of the: a. encapsulation pattern. b. Type A behavior pattern. *c. stress and coping paradigm. d. generativity versus stagnation paradigm. 29. Joy reads a note on her desk that says, “Joy, come to my office immediately. Signed, The Boss.” Joy immediately interprets this message as a threat to her job and her livelihood and is not sure she can deal with it. Joy’s interpretation of this note exemplifies: a. coping. *b. an appraisal. c. stagnation. d. filial obligation. 30. Coping is defined as any: *a. attempt to deal with stress. b. attempt to deal with stress that is repeated on at least two occasions. c. rational attempt to deal with stress. d. successful attempt to deal with stress. 31. Heather is experiencing a great deal of stress. She has tried relaxation traini ng, thinking about life events in a different way, and even talking to her friends. All of these strategies are BEST classified as attempts at: a. repression. *b. coping. c. stagnation. d. appraisal. 32. Tabitha just had a conversation with her boss in which he told her that there would be some future layoffs due to budget cuts. Tabitha feels an increase in stre ss due to the conversation with her boss. She would be best described as experie ncing: *a. primary appraisal. b. secondary appraisal. c. reappraisal. d. post-appraisal. 33. What is the name for the process one experiences when evaluating one’s ow n ability to cope with a challenge? a. Post-appraisal *b. Secondary appraisal c. Primary appraisal d. Reappraisal 34. Stacy has lost her wallet with all of her cash, credit cards, and identification i n it. She asks herself, “What can I do about this?” Stacy is in the process. a. reappraisal *b. secondary appraisal c. post-appraisal d. primary appraisal 35. Jen has heard that Ben is cheating on her, but does not believe it. However, after being shown pictures of Ben interacting romantically with another woman, Je n allows herself to express anger and frustration over Ben’s cheating. Jen is exper iencing: *a. emotion-focused coping. b. post-menopausal mood swings. c. an unhealthy coping reaction to stress. d. secondary mindfulness-based stress reduction. 36. Sylvester is extremely anxious about an upcoming physics exam. He cancels his plans with his friends and stays home to study an extra day. Sylvester is pract icing: a. emotion-focused coping. b. appraisal. c. mindfulness-based stress reduction. *d. problem-focused coping. 37. Yoga and meditation are examples of: a. aerobic exercise. b. primary appraisal. *c. mindfulness-based stress reduction. d. secondary appraisal. 38. After being robbed at gunpoint at night, Chelsea is anxious and is afraid to le ave her house after dark. Chelsea is experiencing symptoms of: a. depression. *b. post-traumatic stress disorder. c. stress reduction. d. cardiovascular disease. 39. Exercise: a. is not related to physical health. *b. can significantly slow the aging process. c. is beneficial to health but does not affect the aging process. d. should be avoided by people over 50 years old. 40. Aerobic exercise is defined as a pulse rate between percent of a person’ s maximum rate. a. 40–70 b. 50–80 *c. 60–90 d. 70–100 41. A person’s maximum heart rate is calculated by subtracting their age from: a. 100 b. 160 *c. 220 d. 280 42. Max engages in regular aerobic exercise. Relative to those who do not exerci se, Max is likely to: a. be more depressed. *b. function better cognitively. c. show inhibited oxygen consumption. d. have higher blood pressure. 43. intelligence is defined as involving the skills and knowledge necessary f or adapting to one’s physical and social environment. a. Fluid b. Traditional *c. Practical d. Unexercised 44. Though Elsa does not score particularly high on traditional intelligence tests, she is very good at understanding income tax forms, can deal well with all differen t kinds of people, and is a good troubleshooter around the home and office. Elsa exhibits: a. concrete thinking. b. fluid intelligence. c. high unexercised ability. *d. practical intelligence. 45. Dr. Zorba is giving 44-year-old Annette an intelligence test. Annette finds that she really likes answering the questions because they seem to be based on her li fe experiences. Dr. Zorba is most likely attempting to assess Annette’s: *a. practical intelligence. b. generativity. c. ego resilience. d. fluid intelligence. 46. Which is the BEST example of a measure of practical intelligence? a. The MMPI b. The Stanford-Binet *c. Knowing how to balance a checkbook d. Knowing the square root of every number less than 100 47. Which statement is TRUE about real-life problems? a. People are not motivated to solve them. b. Personal experience is irrelevant. *c. They have more than one correct answer. d. They are very similar to traditional tests of intelligence. 48. Angelina is upset with the lack of manners her husband Brad displays while e ating, so she looks away or leaves the table each time her husband behaves this way. Dharma’s response is BEST classified as: a. a cognitive analysis. *b. passive-dependent. c. avoidant thinking. d. problem-focused action. 49. When confronted with a problem in his relationship with his wife, Frank scoffs it off, saying “Ahhh, that’s not really an issue...it will work itself out.” This is proba bly BEST classified as: a. cognitive analysis. *b. avoidant thinking. c. passive-dependent behavior. d. problem-focused action. 50. McGuyver, a middle-aged history teacher, is trapped in his classroom room wi th seemingly no way out. While contemplating his escape, he is likely to blend _ with . a. action; avoidance *b. emotion; cognition c. concern; behavior d. mechanics; pragmatics 51. What would BEST be classified as an instrumental issue? a. Taking an IQ test b. Teaching at a college c. Climbing Mount Everest *d. Driving to work 52. According to research by Blanchard-Fields (2007), a middle-aged adult would MOST likely deal with via avoidance-denial. *a. death of a spouse b. buying groceries c. mowing the lawn d. writing a thank-you note 53. Who is MOST likely to deal with an instrumental problem using a problem-foc used strategy? a. 10-year-old Buddy b. 20-year-old Holly c. 30-year-old Ray *d. 40-year-old Charles 54. Based on research, which statement BEST summarizes how middle-aged adu lts solve problems? a. Middle-aged adults solve all problems with a problem-focused approach. b. Middle-aged adults solve all problems with a passive-dependent approa ch. c. Middle-aged adults solve problems similarly regardless of the emotional issues involved. *d. Middle-aged adults solve problems differently depending on the type o f problem. 55. The mechanics of intelligence BEST fits with which description? a. Experienced-based *b. Neurophysiological c. Content-rich d. Culturally dependent 56. The of intelligence is MOST likely to be affected by the culture in which one was raised. a. process of thinking b. mechanics c. information processing *d. pragmatics 57. Mechanics of intelligence is to pragmatics of intelligence as is/are to . a. thoughts; hormones b. battery; automobile *c. fluid; crystallized d. real life; theoretical 58. Which term does NOT belong with the rest? a. Pragmatics of intelligence *b. Mechanics of intelligence c. Psychological force impact on intelligence d. Sociocultural force impact on intelligence 59. Which BEST exemplifies a sociocultural impact on intelligence? a. Learning how to drive by practicing driving *b. Americans who fear those from the Middle East following the 9/11 att acks c. An increase in synaptic connections that results in a higher test score d. Learning to cook by reading a cookbook 60. Which statement describes the normal pattern of pragmatics and mechanics intelligence development between ages 25 and 70? a. Both pragmatics and mechanics increase with age. b. Both pragmatics and mechanics decrease with age. *c. Pragmatics remains constant while mechanics decreases. d. Mechanics remains constant while pragmatics decreases. 61. Paula is an expert on the history of rock music, while Donald is a novice. This means that Paula than Donald. a. is less curious about rock music b. is more intelligent c. uses more steps in the thinking process when coming up with answers about rock music *d. is more effective at determining correct solutions concerning rock mus ic 62. How is expert problem-solving different from problem-solving by a novice? a. Novices are more curious *b. Experts come to solutions faster c. Novices follow fewer rules d. Experts demonstrate less flexibility in thought 63. Which of these is TRUE about expertise? a. It is inefficient b. It is inflexible *c. It is selective d. It cannot be learned 64. Expert performance tends to peak in and drop off . a. young adulthood; significantly thereafter b. young adulthood; slightly thereafter c. middle adulthood; significantly thereafter *d. middle adulthood; slightly thereafter 65. What is an example of an internal motivator for adults to learn something ne w? a. Job promotion b. Family time *c. Personal satisfaction d. Pay raise 66. Darejeh and Singh (2014) concluded that self-learning is improved by taking differences into account. a. instructor *b. learner c. generativity d. external motivators 67. Which statement about adult learners and their younger counterparts is TRUE? a. Adults are more willing to learn about abstract problems. *b. Adults tend to be more motivated by internal factors. c. Younger learners tend to have a larger variety of experiences on which t hey can build. d. Younger learners have a higher need to know why they should learn so mething. 68. At which age is the debate of personality stability versus change MOST heate d? a. The teen years b. Young adulthood *c. Middle age d. Old age 69. Costa and McCrae’s model of personality, which includes dimensions like co nscientiousness, neuroticism, and openness to experience, is commonly referred to as the model. a. humanistic b. centrality *c. five-factor d. psychodynamic 70. An individual low on the characteristic would likely be described as eve n-tempered and comfortable. *a. neuroticism b. openness to experience c. conscientiousness d. agreeableness 71. Mark is asked to describe what it is like to work with Kelly. In response, he s ays, “She is mean, anxious, and really self-conscious.” This description best matc hes a person scoring high on Costa and McCrae’s personality dimension. *a. neuroticism b. openness to experience c. extroversion d. agreeableness 72. Newt is known for being very opinionated, extremely sociable, and loving a ch allenge. According to the five-factor model, Newt is BEST thought of as being: a. neurotic. b. introverted. *c. extroverted. d. agreeable. 73. Since she has what Costa and McCrae would classify as a “highly extroverte d” personality, one would expect that Samantha would be described by others as: a. “a psychopath.” b. “nice as you could imagine.” c. “lazy and disorganized.” *d. “loving the spotlight.” 74. Kevin is described by friends as having a great imagination and being willing t o try anything once. Given this description, Kevin would MOST likely score very hig h on a scale of: a. agreeableness. *b. openness to experience. c. neuroticism. d. conscientiousness. 75. Which trait fits someone who scores low on an openness to experience asse ssment? a. Risk-taking b. Antagonistic c. Ambitious *d. Uncurious 76. Because she has what Costa and McCrae would classify as an “agreeable” p ersonality, one would expect that Marcy would be described by others as a: a. “wallflower.” b. “party animal.” c. “meanie.” *d. “joy to be around.” 77. On which personality dimension would someone who is stingy, critical, and su spicious most likely score the lowest? a. Neuroticism b. Extroversion *c. Agreeableness d. Conscientiousness 78. Ruth is determined to become president of the corporation. She works more t han 10 hours per day, is meticulous in her work, and sticks with the most difficult projects until they are completed. Ruth would MOST likely score highly on a scale that measured: *a. conscientiousness. b. agreeableness. c. extroversion. d. openness to experience. 79. Ahmed is in charge of hiring new employees for his company. He wants to hir e people who are very organized, responsible, and will work hard for the company. In which trait is Ahmed MOST interested? a. Agreeableness b. Extroversion *c. Conscientiousness d. Openness to experience 80. Which statement best describes the findings from most longitudinal studies of personality stability? *a. Personality traits are fairly stable across adulthood. b. Individuals become more psychopathic with age. c. Personality traits at age 20 predict virtually nothing at age 60. d. Individuals become more extroverted and open to experience with age. 81. Harvey is 32 years old, extroverted, very conscientious, and not open to expe rience. Based on the longitudinal research of Costa and McCrae’s personality dim ensions, what will Harvey be like when he is 62 years old? a. Extroverted, conscientious, and open to experience b. Not extroverted, conscientious, and not open to experience *c. Extroverted, conscientious, and not open to experience d. Extroverted, not conscientious, and not open to experience 82. Research suggests that during middle age, personality as reported by: a. both self-report and by a spouse changes dramatically. b. self-report changes dramatically, and by a spouse remains stable. c. a spouse changes dramatically, and by self-report remains stable. *d. both self-report and by a spouse remains stable. 83. Which of these words is NOT part of Wrzus and Roberts’ TESSERA model? a. Triggering b. Expectancy c. States *d. Relaxation 84. Which statement regarding the findings of the Big Five study conducted by Sri vastava and colleagues (2003) is TRUE? a. Agreeableness decreased over time. b. Extroversion increased over time. *c. Openness to new experiences decreased over time. d. Conscientiousness was stable throughout adulthood. 85. Erik Erikson believes that midlife involves a psychosocial crisis involving char acteristics of: a. trust versus mistrust. *b. generativity versus stagnation. c. industry versus inferiority. d. identity versus role confusion. 86. Earlier in his career, Monte was most interested in climbing the corporate lad der and making as much money as he could. Now, Monte is most interested in m entoring younger business professionals, helping them become better at what the y do, and thus helping the company flourish. Which BEST describes the change in Monte? a. A fun-seeking style *b. Generativity c. A distant style d. Openness to experience 87. How many of these would be ways to demonstrating generativity: parenting, mentoring, volunteering, and shopping? a. one b. two *c. three d. four 88. An individual characterizing what Erikson called “stagnation” is unable to: a. make meaningful appraisals concerning hassles. b. form a superego. *c. contribute to a society’s continuation. d. think in an encapsulated manner. 89. Which of Diane’s traits would indicate that she is in a state of stagnation? a. Vivid imagination *b. Self-indulgent c. Energetic d. Hostile 90. A narrative helps create a person’s: a. problem-solving skills. b. fluid intelligence. c. stress and coping paradigm. *d. identity. 91. As a caring uncle, Ben derives a lot of satisfaction when his niece performs w ell in her basketball games. Ben, however, has no real interest in actually teachin g her how to improve her basketball skills. McAdams would cite this as a good ex ample of: a. extroversion. b. generative action. c. neuroticism. *d. generative concern. 92. Which statement is TRUE in middle age? a. Both generative concern and generative action relate to life satisfaction. *b. Generative concern relates to life satisfaction, but generative action d oes not. c. Generative action relates to life satisfaction, but generative concern do es not. d. Neither generative concern nor generative action relate to life satisfacti on. 93. A study of second-generation women found similar trends in generativity with . *a. Chinese American; European Americans b. Latino; Chinese c. a African American; Chinese Americans d. Latino; European Americans 94. The notion of a “midlife crisis” is: a. common in the popular press and supported by research. b. uncommon in the popular press and supported by research. *c. common in the popular press and unsupported by research. d. uncommon in the popular press and unsupported by research. 95. Which statement on “midlife crisis” is TRUE? a. Midlife crises are common in both males and females. *b. Midlife crises are not universal. c. Midlife crises are typically triggered by generativity. d. A midlife crisis usually has a profound effect on one’s gender-role identi ty. 96. Reevaluating one’s roles and dreams and making the necessary corrections i s called a midlife: a. encapsulation. b. crisis. c. intervention. *d. correction. 97. What is the major role of a “kinkeeper?” a. Keeping track of the family finances b. Keeping a semiformal family history c. Keeping a sense of “traditional family values” *d. Keeping family members in touch with one another 98. Kay always does her best to make sure her children, parents, in-laws, and si blings get together for holidays, anniversaries, and birthdays. Kay would BEST be described as a(n): a. enabler. b. conservationist. *c. kinkeeper. d. matriarch. 99. Which of these individuals is MOST likely to be a “kinkeeper?” a. Ben, a 20-year-old father *b. Evelyn, a 45-year-old mother c. Charlie, a 45-year-old father d. Stephanie, a 20-year-old mother 100. What are the “pieces of bread” on either side of the “sandwich generation?” a. Job and family b. Generativity and stagnation *c. Parents and children d. Stress and coping 101. Nina feels like she is being pulled apart from two different directions. On the one hand, she has her two daughters to take care of, and on the other hand, she now has to also take care of her ailing mother and father. Which term BEST descri bes the situation in which Nina finds herself? a. Practical intelligence b. High neuroticism c. Cultural conservator *d. Sandwich generation 102. How could Silvia enter the “sandwich generation?” a. Get married *b. Have her father move in with her while she is still caring for a child at home c. Enter a nursing home d. Have her youngest child finally go to college, leaving her at home with j ust her husband 103. Having a positive experience of an empty nest is MOST strongly influenced b y: *a. how well parents believe they did in their job as parents. b. how quickly children move back into the house. c. how much emotional support parents provide for their children. d. how much financial help parents provide to their children. 104. How is gender related to caring for an aging parent? a. A son or son-in-law is typically responsible for care. *b. A daughter or daughter-in-law is typically responsible for care. c. Gender matters, but which one provides care varies by culture. d. Gender does not influence who provides care. 105. The comment, “My parents cared for me for 18 years; I really should not co mplain about having to take care of them for a while when they are ill” provides an example of: a. kinkeeping. b. generativity. *c. filial obligation. d. introversion. 106. Filial obligation is based on a sense of: a. independence. b. openness to experience. c. stagnation. *d. responsibility. 107. Tomas is a frail, elderly individual who needs care. If Tomas is like most peo ple in his situation, it is most likely that he is being cared for by: a. a nursing home facility. b. a hospital. c. his siblings. *d. his children. 108. The two key sources of stress for adults caring for their parents include whe ther the child is coping with a parent’s functional decline and if the care: a. is temporary. *b. is perceived as infringing on the caregiver’s other responsibilities. c. takes place in the parent’s home. d. takes place in a private facility. 109. It is for an adult child caregiver to feel resentful and angry at times abo ut caring for an aging parent. *a. very common b. somewhat common c. somewhat unusual d. very unusual 110. Which of these is a positive outcome associated with caring for an aging par ent? a. It decreases unsolicited advice. b. It increases independence for the aging parent. c. It decreases financial pressures. *d. It provides a chance for adult children to give back to their parents. 111. Older adults who value and are most likely to express a desire to pay for caregiving rather than asking a family member for help. a. independence; extroversion b. dependence; extroversion c. dependence; autonomy *d. independence; autonomy 112. Many aging adults who receive help with daily activities have feelings a bout the situation. a. grateful *b. negative c. positive d. satisfied 113. Caring for aging parents is LEAST likely to: a. bring adult children and parents closer together. b. provide a way for adult children to give back to their parents. *c. feel rewarding to the aging parent. d. feel rewarding to the adult child. 114. Adult children caring for aging parents are LEAST likely to experience: a. employment issues. b. burnout. *c. sleep disorders. d. depression. 115. Attempts to categorize types of grandparents have not been very successful because: *a. grandparents use different styles with different grandchildren. b. measuring these styles has not been found to be valid. c. styles of grandparenting do not seem related to the quality of the relati onship. d. grandparenting behavior differs during each interaction with the grandch ild. 116. Which of these is NOT a source of meaning in grandparenting? a. Being seen as wise b. Spoiling grandchildren *c. Giving money to grandchildren for college d. Being valued as a role model 117. Ben and Sky are Hopi grandparents who want their grandchild to live with th em for a while so that they can be sure the grandchild learns the Hopi way. Ben a nd Sky want to ensure that there is: a. indulgence. *b. continuity of culture. c. financial support. d. reinvolvement with personal past. 118. A child who returns home after being launched is called: a. a baby boomer. *b. a boomerang child. c. a kaboom kid. d. a boom-bloomer. 119. Which statement concerning custodial care of grandchildren by grandparents is TRUE? a. Almost 20 million U.S. grandparents have grandchildren living with the m. b. In the United States, grandparents automatically are granted legal guar dianship of their grandchildren. *c. Grandparents frequently have to navigate a system that does not legal ly recognize them as guardians. d. The most common reason for a grandparent raising a grandchild involve s the death of both parents. 120. Use of calcium supplements may delay the onset of osteoporosis aft er menopause. *a. True b. False 121. Rheumatoid arthritis develops quickly but can be cured with nonste roidal anti-inflammatory drugs. a. True *b. False 122. Headaches and rapid heart rate are common physical symptoms of men opause. *a. True b. False 123. The most common form of HRT involves low doses of estrogen and tes tosterone. a. True *b. False 124. During midlife, the prostate gland of males can enlarge and block the urinary tract. *a. True b. False 125. Culture appears to play no role in how people perceive stress. *a. True b. False 126. Stress can trigger negative conditions like angina and arrhythmia. *a. True b. False 127. Stress is a transactional process between a person and the environ ment. *a. True b. False 128. Avoidant thinking involves rationalizing or reframing a problem to minimize its seriousness. *a. True b. False 129. The mechanics of intelligence are most closely associated with soc iocultural forces. a. True *b. False 130. Experts are always faster and use more rules than novices. a. True *b. False 131. Most adults are motivated to learn by external factors. a. True *b. False 132. An individual high in extroversion will go out of their way to avo id interacting with others. a. True *b. False 133. Costa and McCrae argue that personality traits undergo significant changes between young and old adulthood. a. True *b. False 134. Erikson viewed the key crisis of midlife as one of stagnation vers us generativity. *a. True b. False 135. There is significant research support for the idea of a “midlife c risis.” a. True *b. False 136. Kinkeepers help keep family members in touch. *a. True b. False 137. Someone high in filial obligation feels responsible for the care o f their parents. *a. True b. False 138. Caring for a parent typically coincides with women’s peak employme nt years. *a. True b. False 139. Most people become grandparents in their forties and fifties. *a. True b. False 140. Joint-related disorders represent a major challenge during middle age. Describe thr ee examples of joint problems—osteoporosis, osteoarthritis, and rheumatoid arthritis—f ocusing on issues of impact and treatment. 141. Aphrodite is going through menopause and is considering hormone replacement th erapy. What symptoms should she expect to experience during menopause? What would you advise her to do concerning MHT? Use research presented in the text to explain why you would give her this advice. 142. Describe how coping and appraisals are involved in the stress and coping paradigm. 143. Describe the relationship between stress, physical health, and psychological health. 144. Describe how the trajectories of the mechanics and pragmatics of intelligence diffe r over the life span. 145. Use the research presented in the text to explain how nontraditional-aged college s tudents differ from traditional 18- to 22-year-old college students when it comes to learni ng. 146. Jim wonders if his wife Ann (age 25) will have the same personality when she gets to be middle-aged. Use research provided in the text to describe which aspects of Ann’s personality are most and least likely to change. 147. Describe the role of grand parenting in at least three different cultures. 148. Describe how stresses and rewards can result from providing care for an aging par ent. 1. As a demographer, Sherwood would be most interested in studying: *a. how the number of young people in a population has changed over the past 50 years. b. the number of neural connections contained in the central nervous syst em. c. the distinction between presbyopia and presbycusis. d. implicit memory. 2. In order to depict the number of people of different ages in the population, Dr. Gillen would be best served using a graphing technique called a(n): a. demography. b. presbycusis. c. external aid. *d. population pyramid. 3. In 1950, the population distribution of the United States resembled a(n): a. rectangle. b. square. *c. pyramid. d. upside-down pyramid. 4. As the over-80 population increases dramatically in the next 40 years, which w ill probably be MOST affected in China? a. Defense systems b. Housing *c. Social service systems d. Transportation systems 5. In the United States, the fastest-growing segment of the population is ye ars old. a. 50 to 60 b. 60 to 70 c. 70 to 80 *d. over 85 6. According to the text, the United States is financially for the increasing n umbers of elderly. a. very well prepared b. well prepared c. somewhat prepared *d. unprepared 7. Marty asks his doctor, “How long do you think I can live, doc?” Marty is asking for information regarding his: *a. longevity. b. average longevity. c. useful life expectancy. d. maximum longevity. 8. Longevity appears to be determined: a. exclusively by genetic factors. b. exclusively by environmental factors. *c. jointly by genetic and environmental factors. d. by unexplained factors. 9. Average longevity is also known as the life expectancy. a. mean *b. median c. modal d. maximum 10. In the country of Casfeldt, 50 percent of the population who died in 2002 wer e older than 85. Thus, 85 would be the longevity. a. maximum b. useful *c. average d. modal 11. Which American is just about to reach the current average longevity for their s ex? a. Garth, a male who just turned 60 b. Reba, a female who just turned 70 *c. Faith, a female who just turned 80 d. Billy Ray, a male who just turned 90 12. Which headline concerns maximum longevity? a. Women Continue to Outlive Men b. Most Humans Retain Vitality through Age 90 *c. World’s Oldest Human Celebrates 120th Birthday d. Average American Now Dies at Age 80 13. Within the U.S. population, which is likely to be the shortest estimate of long evity? a. Maximum longevity *b. Average longevity c. Dependent life expectancy d. Active life expectancy 14. Based on data gathered from the Human Genome Project, researchers have attempted to increase longevity and health through: a. cloning. b. transplanting of key organs (e.g., heart and liver). *c. implanting genetically “corrected" genes. d. encouraging diets lower in saturated fats. 15. Genetic factors appear to play role in determining whether people reach centenarian status. a. no b. a minimal c. some *d. a major 16. Environmental toxins appear to play role in determining longevity. a. no b. a minimal c. some *d. a major 17. Which statement concerning the life expectancy of African Americans and Eur opean Americans is TRUE? a. At birth, African Americans have a greater life expectancy than Europea n Americans. b. At age 45, African Americans have a greater life expectancy than Europ ean Americans. *c. At age 85, African Americans have a greater life expectancy than Euro pean Americans. d. African Americans never have a greater life expectancy than European A mericans. 18. Lo is an impoverished member of an ethnic minority group in the United State s. Given this, how is her longevity MOST likely to be negatively impacted? a. The fact that she is a female is a risk factor for reduced longevity. *b. She likely has less access to quality medical care. c. Her diet will likely lack the amount of lead necessary for proper cell dev elopment. d. She is significantly more likely to have AIDS. 19. Which statement concerning sex differences in longevity is TRUE? a. In the United States, the average longevity for women is about one year longer than that for men. *b. The reduction of death during childbirth has led to an increase in longe vity for women over the past century. c. In industrial countries, factors like education and work opportunities do not appear to impact longevity in women. d. The rate of dying from one of the top 15 causes of death is significantly higher in women than in men. 20. If one wanted to visit the country with the lowest average longevity, one shoul d book a trip to: a. Uganda. b. Fiji. *c. Sierra Leone. d. Guyana. 21. Mickey is currently experiencing “the third age.” He could BEST be described as one of the: *a. young-old. b. oldest-old. c. old-young. d. young-young. 22. The fourth age is also characterized as: a. young-young. b. young-old. c. old-young. *d. oldest-old. 23. One common characteristic of the fourth age is: *a. a high level of dementia. b. a virtual absence of chronic stress. c. establishment of one’s career. d. a great probability of major improvement on physical strength/flexibility. 24. The third age is to the fourth age as is to . a. longevity; health *b. good news; bad news c. chronic; acute d. afterlife; life 25. The cellular theory of aging focuses on: *a. deterioration of cells over a lifetime. b. the number of chromosomes in a cell. c. the size of cells. d. the sudden death of cells in one system 26. In explaining why people age and eventually die, Dr. Filipovsky talks about “fr ee radicals” and how their buildup produces tissue damage. Dr. Filipovsky is prom oting a theory of aging. a. wear-and-tear b. metabolic *c. cellular d. programmed cell death 27. Telomeres are found exclusively on: *a. the tips of chromosomes. b. neurons. c. cancer cells. d. X and Y chromosomes. 28. Which of these BEST describes the potential role of telomeres in the aging pr ocess? a. They are the packets of fuel that feed each cell. b. They are “glue” that binds together the base pairs of DNA molecules. *c. They are a portion of a chromosome that gets shorter until DNA replica tion is no longer possible. d. They are the scrubber cells that clear all debris from our arteries. 29. are chemicals produced during normal cell metabolism that may cause cellular damage that impairs functioning. a. Neurofibrillary tangles b. Neuritic plaques c. Transient ischemic attacks *d. Free radicals 30. Which would MOST dramatically impact the levels of free radicals in one’s bo dy? *a. Consuming antioxidants like vitamin E b. Getting an injection of telomerase c. Contracting sickle-cell anemia d. Engaging in aerobic exercise 31. Wilbur has decided to increase his intake of antioxidants like vitamins A and E in order to lower the development of certain age-related diseases and to live lon ger. The most recent evidence in aging suggests that Wilbur will: a. be less likely to develop certain age-related diseases and will live longe r. *b. be less likely to develop certain age-related diseases, but will not live any longer. c. live longer, but will not show any decrease in the susceptibility to age-re lated diseases. d. neither be less likely to develop certain age-related diseases nor live lo nger. 32. If the programmed cell theory of aging is correct: a. people under stress should die sooner than those not under stress. b. a low-fat diet should extend life. c. the elimination of free radicals should greatly extend life. *d. humans are born with a “prewired death clock.” 33. When one sees a book titled How Neurons Communicate with Each Other, on e can be sure it will discuss: *a. dendrites. b. working memory. c. internal aids. d. cerebral vascular accidents. 34. When viewed through a microscope, a would most resemble a spiral-sh aped mass. a. telomere b. free radical *c. neurofibrillary tangle d. neurotransmitter 35. While doing an autopsy of a brain, Dr. Howard shakes her head , saying, “Thi s is so very sad.” When an assistant asks her what she sees, she says, “Two wor ds ... deformed axons.” What was the source of Dr. Howard’s disgust? a. Neuritic plaques b. Neurotransmitters c. Presbycusis *d. Neurofibrillary tangles 36. If a neuron becomes extremely tangled: a. a person will develop Parkinson’s disease. *b. information can no longer flow through the neuron. c. electrochemical energy begins to flow from the axon to the dendrite inst ead of from the dendrite to the axon. d. it will not significantly affect neural functioning, as such tangling is a sig n of normal development. 37. While looking at slides of brain tissue in a physiology class, a student sees g roups of damaged neurons that have collected around a core of protein. What is t he student looking at? a. Neurotransmitters *b. Neuritic plaques c. Neurofibrillary tangles d. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors 38. Fifty-year-old Keith is informed by his doctor that his brain is showing signs of the initial development of neuritic plaques and a few neurofibrillary tangles. This i s: *a. normal. b. a definite indicator of Parkinson’s disease. c. a definite indicator of Alzheimer’s disease. d. a definite indicator of Huntington’s disease. 39. If one’s goal is to get the best image of a brain structure, one should use a: a. single-photon emission computerized tomography (SPECT). *b. computerized tomography (CT scan). c. positron emission tomography (PET). d. functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI). 40. Concerning brain imaging, MRI is to fMRI as is to . *a. structure; function b. internal; external c. central nervous system; peripheral nervous system d. explicit; implicit 41. What does NOT typically happen to the cardiovascular system as people age? *a. The heart begins to pump more blood per minute b. The arteries stiffen c. Fat deposits form in the heart and arteries d. The amount of muscle tissue in the heart decreases 42. The defining characteristic of a cerebral vascular accident is: a. death. b. neuritic tangling. *c. an interruption of blood flow to the brain. d. the cessation of respiratory output. 43. occurs when fat deposits build up in the heart and arteries. a. A TIAs. b. Presbycusis. *c. Atherosclerosis d. Glaucoma 44. Which of these is a more common term used to describe a cerebral vascular accident? a. Parkinson’s disease b. Presbyopia c. Presbycusis *d. Stroke 45. Juliana has just suffered an interruption of blood flow to her brain. Her doctor has told her that she has just experienced a(n) and that they should now do what they can to prevent the onset of a stroke. *a. transient ischemic attack b. presbycusis c. amyloid d. circadian rhythm 46. After a series of strokes, Jerry is unable to recognize family members and ha s a very difficult time understanding his native language. The MOST probable diag nosis is: a. Huntington’s disease. b. neuritic plaques. *c. vascular dementia. d. presbycusis. 47. The key factor in determining the impact of vascular dementia is: *a. which areas of the brain are damaged. b. the age of the individual involved. c. which areas of the heart are damaged. d. the sex of the individual involved. 48. Which of these is NOT used as a diagnostic test for vascular dementia? a. Computer tomography b. Magnetic resonance imaging c. Neuropsychological tests *d. Measurement of neurotransmitter levels 49. As a typical 80-year-old, Joan’s would have decreased significantly since she was 20. a. lung size *b. ability to take a big, deep breath c. chances for developing COPD d. chances of being short of breath following exercise 50. Carmen has a very difficult time breathing. Even after walking short distances, she is gasping for air. Carmen is exhibiting symptoms of: a. Parkinson’s disease. b. circadian rhythms. c. presbycusis. *d. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. 51. Visual adaptation involves the ability to adjust to changes in: a. an object’s position. b. an object’s distance. *c. illumination. d. acceleration. 52. As people grow old, their: a. lenses tend to yellow and the muscles controlling the eye loosen. b. lenses tend to blacken and the muscles controlling the eye loosen. *c. lenses tend to yellow and the muscles controlling the eye stiffen. d. lenses tend to blacken and the muscles controlling the eye stiffen. 53. As he has presbyopia, Vigo has difficulty seeing: a. color. b. objects at a distance. c. depth. *d. objects up close. 54. When someone hands Russ a menu to read, he has to hold it at arm’s length in order to be able to see the words well enough to read them. This behavior indic ates that Russ is experiencing: a. presbycusis. *b. presbyopia. c. telomeres. d. neuritic plaques. 55. When visiting their eye specialist, an individual is informed that they have larg e opaque spots on the lens of their left eye. As a knowledgeable student, they wo uld know that this means that they have: a. presbyopia. b. glaucoma. *c. a cataract. d. myopia. 56. Joyce’s doctor has just told her that the fluid in her eyes is not draining prope rly and that she will have to administer eye drops to prevent experiencing damage from the pressure in her eyes. Joyce has most likely been diagnosed with: a. diabetic retinopathy. b. cataracts. *c. glaucoma. d. macular degeneration. 57. While at her yearly medical checkup, Martha is informed that she has extrem ely high pressure in her eye. This indicates that Martha likely has: a. presbyopia. b. cataracts. *c. glaucoma. d. macular degeneration. 58. The leading cause of functional blindness in older adults is the result of : a. glaucoma. *b. macular degeneration. c. presbyopia. d. cataracts. 59. For maximum visual acuity to occur, light must be focused directly on the: a. optic nerve. b. pons. c. rods. *d. fovea. 60. Hank has just been informed that he is a diabetic. As a knowledgeable physic ian, he realizes that his risk for developing has also increased. a. macular degeneration b. cataracts *c. retinopathy d. glaucoma 61. The MOST normative hearing-related change in adulthood involves the inabilit y to hear: *a. high-pitched tones. b. voices. c. bass sounds. d. loud tones. 62. Presbycusis is the MOST common age-related: a. form of dementia. *b. type of hearing problem. c. visual disorder. d. variety of COPD. 63. Hilde is buying a bulb that will light up when someone rings her doorbell. She is buying this because although she can hear people fairly well during normal conv ersations, she has a very difficult time hearing the high-pitched sound of the door bell. Hilde is MOST likely experiencing: a. Parkinson’s disease. b. Huntington’s disease. *c. presbycusis. d. COPD. 64. Presbycusis can occur due to all of these EXCEPT: a. diminished supply of nutrients to the cells in the receptor area. b. atrophy and degeneration of receptor cells. c. loss of neurons in the auditory pathway. *d. softening of the vibration structures in the receptor area. 65. Losing one’s hearing is LEAST likely to result in increases in: a. social isolation. *b. independence. c. paranoia. d. depression. 66. Eugene is hired by a social service agency to do safety inspections of the apa rtments of older adults. What would Eugene NOT want to see in these apartments? a. Night-lights by the beds b. Handrails on both sides of stairways *c. Throw rugs on floors d. Nonskid mats in bathtubs 67. Which sleep complaint would one LEAST expect from an older adult? a. “I just can’t get to sleep at night.” *b. “Once I go to sleep, I sleep way too long.” c. “I only slept four hours last night.” d. “If I don’t get enough sleep at night, I am just worthless the next day.” 68. While at a conference dealing with issues related to aging, Eve is interested i n learning about how sleep patterns change in late life. She will be best served by attending a presentation entitled “ and the Elderly.” *a. Circadian Rhythms b. Neuritic Plaques c. Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors d. Selectivity 69. How much energy the body needs is termed: a. caloric intake. *b. metabolism. c. nutrition. d. speed of processing. 70. Who is MOST likely to develop cancer within the next year? a. Jadwiga, who is 43 years old b. Cristina, who is 58 years old c. Chun, who is 73 years old *d. Efra, who is 88 years old 71. What is the name of the disease that occurs when there is above-normal sug ar in the blood and urine caused by problems in metabolizing carbohydrates? a. Diabetic retinopathy b. Presbycusis *c. Diabetes mellitus d. Pancreatic cancer 72. To determine whether 80-year-old Maggie’s brain is active while she is readin g, should be used. a. magnetic resonance imaging b. positron emission tomography *c. functional MRI d. a psychomotor test 73. As Dr. Hallen is interested in , she does research in which she always m easures the reaction times of her subjects. a. neurofibrillary tangles b. selective attention *c. speed of processing d. implicit memory 74. The ONLY universal behavior change in aging that has been discovered is the fact that older adults: a. show improvements in vigilance. b. exhibit dysphoria. c. lose autobiographical memories. *d. have slower reaction times. 75. When older adults are asked to respond to an ambiguous question, one can expect: *a. slower response rates. b. mostly incorrect answers. c. pseudodementia. d. accurate and speedy responses. 76. If older adults practice making quick responses, reaction times: a. can be eliminated. *b. can be reduced. c. will remain the same. d. will actually be increased. 77. Psychomotor slowing is a good predictor of cognitive performance in older ad ulthood: a. for all tasks. *b. only on tasks that require little effort. c. only on tasks that require great effort. d. only on tasks that tap into episodic memory. 78. Age differences in divided attention tasks depend on the level of difficulty; on easy tasks there are differences, but on hard tasks adults do better a. large; younger b. small; older *c. no; younger d. no; older 79. The process of simultaneously holding and using information to solve a probl em relies MOST heavily on memory. *a. working b. long-term c. sensory d. implicit 80. In order to find a ballpark in a strange town, a player stops at a local gas stat ion to get directions. The attendant tells the player, “Go to the stoplight, take a rig ht, go two blocks, take a left, and the park will be a mile down the road on the lef t.” The player then gets in her car and tries to remember the directions while drivi ng to the park. The player is demonstrating the use of: *a. working memory. b. speed of processing. c. cross-linking. d. transient ischemia. 81. The key characteristic of an explicit memory is that it is: a. naughty. b. false. c. not tied to a specific time. *d. deliberate. 82. In preparing for a date in court, Angeline commits to memory the details of th e case. This sort of conscious preparation and remembering of information is an example of memory. a. implicit b. sensory c. working *d. explicit 83. When Judy is asked, “What’s 2 + 2?” the answer just seems to pop into her h ead. This is an example of: *a. implicit memory. b. attentional control. c. cross-linking. d. explicit memory. 84. Gina is recalling the time last year that she hiked up a big hill in the rain with a group of her friends. This memory would be best described as a(n) memory. a. implicit b. vigilance c. semantic *d. episodic 85. Jackie is playing a game in which she has to answer questions regarding the meaning of 10 random words. This sort of game would be MOST challenging to Ja ckie’s: a. implicit memory. b. episodic memory. *c. semantic memory. d. selective attention. 86. One would expect the greatest differences between older and younger adults on tasks assessing memory. a. implicit b. semantic *c. episodic d. procedural 87. Which statement concerning autobiographical memory development is TRUE? a. Younger adults tend to more vividly recall information from ages 10–30, while older adults tend to recall information from after age 30. b. Older adults tend to more vividly recall information from ages 10–30, w hile younger adults tend to recall information from after age 30. *c. Younger adults and older adults both tend to more vividly recall inform ation from ages 10–30. d. Younger adults and older adults both tend to more vividly recall informa tion from after age 30. 88. Which statement is MOST accurate about the level of detail remembered abo ut past events? a. Older adults remember more details from past events than younger adu lts. *b. Older adults remember fewer details from past events than younger ad ults. c. Young adults use details remembered from past events to maintain mo re information in working memory. d. Young adults use details remembered from past events to encode new memories. 89. The key question in determining whether or not Kwan should be concerned a bout her memory is: *a. “Does the memory problem interfere in Kwan’s life?” b. “Has Kwan ever forgotten to perform a household chore?” c. “How many times has Kwan forgotten something?” d. “Does anyone think Kwan might have a memory problem?” 90. Maura suspects that she has some memory deficit. What kind of assessmen t should she undergo? a. COPD b. Divided attention *c. Neuropsychological d. Selective attention 91. If an individual cheats on this exam by looking at notes they have taken, they are using a(n) memory aid. a. implicit b. spaced retrieval c. internal *d. external 92. How many of these are examples of internal memory aids: a calendar, a diary, class notes, and mental notes? *a. one b. two c. three d. four 93. When asked how she is able to remember the names of all the students in h er class, Dr. Willis-Rivera says, “I just try to match each student’s face to an imag e of a famous person.” This technique BEST exemplifies the concept of: a. spaced retrieval. b. implicit memory. c. vigilance. *d. an internal memory aid. 94. After learning the E-I-E-I-O framework, Hugh uses rehearsal to recall his new student ID number. This would be an example of an memory aid. a. implicit-internal b. implicit-external *c. explicit-internal d. explicit-external 95. Storing a new acquaintance’s picture in one’s iPhone so that one can recall w hat he looks like provides a good example of an memory aid. *a. explicit-external b. explicit-internal c. implicit-external d. implicit-internal 96. What is the general age-related pattern of creativity when defined by the over all number of ideas an individual generates? a. Lower in one’s 30s, higher in one’s 40s, and peaks thereafter b. High in one’s 30s, higher in one’s 40s, and peaks thereafter *c. Lower in one’s 30s, higher in one’s 40s, and declines thereafter d. Higher in one’s 30s, lower in one’s 40s, and declines thereafter 97. Which factor is LEAST likely to help someone become wise? a. Specific expertise b. Leadership experience c. Mental ability *d. A crisis-free life 98. Akuba has a great deal of knowledge, which she applies skillfully to most any situation. She does not turn her back on the difficult problems in life, but rather a pplies her great knowledge to give expert advice in order to aid individuals and so ciety. Akuba would BEST be described as exhibiting: a. creativity. *b. wisdom. c. implicit memory. d. divided attention. 99. Which statement regarding wisdom is MOST accurate? a. The older a person is, the wiser they are likely to be. b. Young people are more likely to be wise than older people. *c. There is no relationship between age and wisdom. d. Older males tend to be wiser than older females. 100. The rate of severe depression: a. follows no developmental pattern. *b. declines between young adulthood and old age. c. increases between young adulthood and old age. d. declines between young adulthood and middle age, and then rises dra matically in old age. 101. Dysphoria is the MOST prominent symptom of: *a. depression. b. creativity. c. Alzheimer’s disease. d. Parkinson’s disease. 102. Joanne is 65 years old. She has a difficult time motivating herself to get out of bed and explains by saying sadly, “What’s the point? There is nothing I can do t o make it worthwhile anyway.” This particular experience of Joanne’s is BEST desc ribed as: a. wisdom. *b. dysphoria. c. circadian rhythms. d. Parkinson’s disease. 103. When Ruth’s husband dies, she thinks, “I can’t live without my husband. Go d is punishing me.” These types of thoughts about events are called: a. explicit memories. b. semantic memories. *c. internal belief systems. d. internal memory aids. 104. Which sort of medication would be LEAST likely prescribed for depression? *a. L-dopa b. SSRIs c. MAOIs d. HCAs 105. If Nathan is prescribed for his depression, he will have to be very caref ul about what kinds of food he eats. a. selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors *b. monoamine oxidase inhibitors c. cognitive therapy d. an amyloid 106. While being treated for depression, 70-year-old Ian is encouraged to avoid si tuations that lead to negative consequences and to reward himself when somethi ng good happens to him. Ian appears to be being treated by a therapist. a. cognitive *b. behavioral c. psychoanalytic d. biomedical 107. Because he is a cognitive therapist, Dr. Spence is MOST likely to suggest th at the underlying cause of depression involves: a. an unconscious battle between the id and superego. b. an imbalance of neurotransmitters. c. a past life that includes too few rewards. *d. a thought process that focuses only on negative memories. 108. Which type of therapy for depression would be MOST interested in altering i nternal belief systems? *a. Cognitive therapy b. Behavior therapy c. Using SSRIs d. Using HCAs 109. Prior to entering a restaurant, Amy starts to shake, hyperventilate, and feel l ight-headed. She is too terrified to enter the restaurant. She turns around immedi ately and catches the first taxi back home. This behavior is MOST consistent with: a. depression. b. Parkinson’s disease. *c. an anxiety disorder. d. Huntington’s disease. 110. Blake’s doctor has just prescribed relaxation therapy and benzodiazepines t o help solve Blake’s problem. What is his problem MOST likely to be? *a. An anxiety disorder b. Depression c. Parkinson’s disease d. Vascular dementia 111. For older adults, the clear treatment of choice for anxiety disorders is: *a. psychotherapy. b. Librium. c. Valium. d. SSRIs. 112. Dementia is defined as a serious impairment of: a. mood. b. anxiety. c. psychomotor functioning. *d. cognitive and behavioral functioning. 113. Charles has changed a great deal. He has a difficult time remembering thing s, even simple things like where he is or what year it is. He is having increasing di fficulty understanding people or saying things that make sense to others. In additi on, he rarely cleans himself anymore and acts in very inappropriate ways around o thers. Charles is exhibiting many signs of: a. depression. b. anxiety disorder. c. Parkinson’s disease. *d. Alzheimer’s disease. 114. The loss of bladder or bowel control is called: a. impotence. b. immobility. *c. incontinence. d. impertinence. 115. Teresa has just been diagnosed as exhibiting Alzheimer’s disease. If the dia gnosis is correct, Teresa’s symptoms: a. will be held constant as long as the disease was diagnosed early enoug h. *b. will only get worse as time goes on. c. may improve if she sticks to a healthy diet. d. may disappear if she is treated with haloperidol. 116. What is the ONLY definitive diagnostic test for Alzheimer’s disease? a. CT scan *b. Autopsy of the brain c. MRI d. Blood test 117. In an attempt to diagnose Alzheimer’s, Dr. Moneypenny is taking a sample o f cerebrospinal fluid. She would be MOST likely looking for a certain protein called: *a. beta-amyloid. b. dopamine. c. thioridazine. d. dysphoria. 118. Which statement BEST reflects the current scientific status concerning the r ole of genetics factors in causing Alzheimer’s disease? a. A mutation on chromosome 17 causes Alzheimer’s. *b. There is evidence that specific genes may both increase and decrease the risk of Alzheimer’s disease. c. The only genetic link is from data on individuals with both Alzheimer’s a nd Parkinson’s diseases. d. There is no scientific evidence that Alzheimer’s has a genetic compone nt. 119. The beta-amyloid cascade hypothesis refers to the process by which beta-a myloid deposits create: a. neurotransmitter depletions. b. mini brain hemorrhages. *c. neuritic plaques. d. cerebral vascular accidents. 120. According to the text, the guiding principle behind setting up an effective fa mily care program for dealing with Alzheimer’s patients should be: a. “love cures all.” b. “don’t be afraid of using medication to control a loved one’s behavior.” c. “try to keep in mind that you may be next.” *d. “create an environment that optimizes the individual’s functioning.” 121. Research by Camp and Skrajner (2004) on training individuals with dementi a to be group leaders led to the conclusion that: a. individuals with dementia could not become group leaders. b. training techniques worked well with every group except those with Alzh eimer’s disease. c. effective training must include some psychoactive drug use. *d. procedures based on the Montessori method can be effective. 122. Despite the fact that Feodor’s hands shake and he has a difficult time walki ng, positioning, and moving his body to get in and out of chairs, he remains ment ally sharp. Feodor appears to have: *a. Parkinson’s disease. b. Alzheimer’s disease. c. Huntington’s disease. d. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. 123. After Winston has been diagnosed with Parkinson’s, his doctor would be MO ST likely to suggest that he begin a treatment involving: a. statins. *b. implanting a neurostimulator to act as a brain pacemaker. c. the injection of amyloids into the affected area of his brain. d. thioridazine. 124. Individuals over age 85 generally need assistance with daily livin g. *a. True b. False 125. Currently, the number of elderly Native Americans is increasing wh ile the number of elderly Asian Americans is decreasing. a. True *b. False 126. The maximum longevity for humans is around 120 years old. *a. True b. False 127. Longevity appears to be determined solely by genetic factors. a. True *b. False 128. In the United States, the average longevity at birth for European Americans and African Americans is now equal. a. True *b. False 129. Sierra Leone has one of the highest life expectancies in the world. a. True *b. False 130. The “fourth age” is BEST thought of as the “oldest-old.” *a. True b. False 131. Free radicals are found exclusively on the tips of chromosomes. a. True *b. False 132. A cerebral vascular accident is also known as a stroke. *a. True b. False 133. The defining characteristic of chronic obstructive pulmonary disea se is dementia. a. True *b. False 134. If one has significant levels of opaque spots on a lens, one has g laucoma. a. True *b. False 135. Presbycusis is characterized by reduced sensitivity to high-pitche d sounds. *a. True b. False 136. Younger adults tend to report more sleep-related problems than old er adults. a. True *b. False 137. Older adults perform just as well as younger adults on most tasks measuring speed of processing. a. True *b. False 138. Intentionally coming up with the names of the capitals of all 50 s tates in the United States is an example of explicit memory. *a. True b. False 139. If one believes that one’s memory will decline in old age, it is m ore likely to happen. *a. True b. False 140. The overall number of creative ideas a person has tends to increas e the older a person gets. a. True *b. False 141. Wisdom involves solving hypothetical problems with little real-lif e implications. a. True *b. False 142. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors are used to treat depressi on. *a. True b. False 143. Alzheimer’s disease is marked by changes in memory, difficulty in communicating, inappropriate social behavior, and changes in personalit y. *a. True b. False 144. Demographers have noted that the world’s population distribution will undergo a m ajor shift in the next 30 years. Describe this shift and identify the types of strains it will cr eate in both the United States and in other countries. 145. A friend of yours wonders out loud, “I wonder why we grow older?” Enlighten them b y comparing and contrasting the rate-of-living, cellular, and programmed cell death theori es of aging. In your discussion, be sure to describe the role of telomeres, cross-linking, a nd free radicals in the process. 146. Provide an overview of key age-related physiological changes by discussing normal and abnormal changes within neurons. 147. Your Uncle Ed and Auntie Em are turning 50. Knowing that you are in a class on hu man development, they ask about what changes in hearing and vision they might expect. Enlighten them. 148. What is the typical developmental progression of speed of processing in mid- to lat er life? In what ways can this progression be changed, and what implications does it hav e to the real-life event of driving? 149. Forty-five-year-old Gustav says, “I am not looking forward to growing old because I k now that my memory will fail.” Discuss ways in which Gustav’s statement is valid, and wa ys in which his statement is misguided. 150. Define wisdom. Define creativity. How are each related to age? 151. Seventy-five-year-old Bruce is feeling severe anxiety for no apparent reason, but he doesn’t remember ever feeling anxious as a young man. What age-related factors could b e contributing to Bruce’s increased levels of anxiety? What treatments are recommended? 152. Discuss the possible causes, symptoms, and treatments for Alzheimer’s disease. 153. Describe the concepts of the “third age” and the “fourth age” and how knowledge of these ages might impact how we prepare individuals for each of these stages of life. 154. What factors have contributed to an increased interest in brain concussions, or tra umatic brain injury (TBI)? Explain how traumatic brain injury is related to chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE). 1. Which of these is NOT a characteristic of healthy aging? a. Avoiding disease *b. Being well off financially c. Being engaged with life d. Maintaining high physical and cognitive functioning 2. The view on life that is the result of rethinking and research on older adults is BEST described as: *a. Multidimensional. b. linear. c. limited. d. confused. 3. According to the SOC model, interventions that can be created to help people achieve healthy aging will focus on: a. targeting goals about the individual that are gathered from third parties. b. creating a zone of minimizing comfort to stimulate change. *c. emphasizing competence. d. encouraging docility and withdrawal from challenging situations.. 4. The upper limit of a person’s ability to function in different domains is called: a. the zone of maximum comfort. b. the adaption level. *c. competence. d. continuity. 5. Experimenters are attempting to assess the upper limits of Ralph’s physical, s ensory-perceptual, cognitive, motor, and personal skills. When they are done, they will have determined Ralph’s: a. proactivity. b. continuity. *c. competence. d. environmental press. 6. Bannister has run a mile in just under four minutes, which is his best time eve r. This would represent his level of for this skill. a. compliance b. docility *c. competence d. proactivity 7. A university advertises that its goal is to “take all students and help them reac h their highest potential.” In other words, the university is attempting to help stud ents reach their level of: *a. competence. b. proclivity. c. proactivity. d. internal continuity. 8. is defined as the demands exerted on oneself by one’s surroundings. *a. Environmental press b. Maximum comfort c. Internal continuity d. Competence 9. Since he is the next in line for the throne, Prince William must attend formal g atherings nearly every day. Such gatherings represent: a. proactivity. b. discontinuity. *c. environmental press. d. an example of competence. 10. Adaptation level is reached when: a. competence exceeds an environmental press. b. environmental press exceeds competence. c. the environmental press makes no demands on competence, but comp etence still exists. *d. the environmental press is at the average state for a given level of co mpetence. 11. When one is at one’s “adaptation level,” one’s: a. behavior and affect are abnormal. b. behavior is normal and your affect is abnormal. c. behavior is abnormal and your affect is normal. *d. behavior and affect are normal. 12. How does one move from an adaptation level to the zone of maximum perfor mance potential? a. Significantly increase press *b. Slightly increase press c. Slightly decrease press d. Significantly decrease press 13. Watching his grandchildren for the weekend has increased the environmental press in Hugo’s life slightly, bringing out the best in Hugo’s interpersonal skills. W hile watching his grandchildren, Hugo is apparently operating: a. at the adaptation level. b. in the zone of maximum comfort. *c. in the zone of maximum performance potential. d. in a marginal zone. 14. Winnie is a supervisor of several employees. She believes that her employee s, though happy on the job, could be producing more than they are. She decides t o try to get them into their “zone of maximum performance potential.” What is she going to have to do to accomplish this? *a. Increase their environmental press b. Increase their competence c. Increase their sense of continuity d. Encourage docility 15. Which adaptation level is associated with the greatest happiness and lack of worry about environmental demands? a. Zone of maximum performance potential b. The marginal adaptation level c. Average level of competence and press level *d. Zone of maximum comfort 16. All of these individuals are currently in jobs that challenge them to perform at their average level of competence. Who would be entering their “zone of maximum comfort?” a. Janet, whose job just got significantly harder b. Tito, whose job just got slightly harder *c. Jermaine, whose job just got slightly easier d. Mahalia, whose job just got significantly easier 17. The “zone of maximum comfort” is reached when: a. people are right at their adaptation level. b. environmental press slightly exceeds competence. c. people are maladaptive. *d. competence slightly exceeds environmental press. 18. Maladaptive behavior is MOST likely under conditions of: *a. high competence and weak environmental press. b. medium competence and moderate environmental press. c. low competence and weak environmental press. d. no competence and no environmental press. 19. The ability to exert control over one’s life underlies a strong sense of: a. docility. *b. proactivity. c. environmental press. d. disengagement. 20. When businessman Eli notices that a lot of deals take place on the golf cours e, he signs up for golf lessons. Eli is exhibiting: a. docility. *b. proactivity. c. environmental press. d. disengagement. 21. Docility is characterized by a sense of: *a. little control. b. intermediate care. c. high competence. d. proactivity. 22. Hazel is tired of worrying about her new landlord. When her friends tell her to become involved to protect her interests, Hazel says, “It’s too late in the day. Wha tever happens, happens. I’ll simply do whatever the landlord says.” Hazel is exhibi ting: *a. docility. b. proactivity. c. adaptation level. d. high levels of competence. 23. In the PCP model, are actions that avoid stressors, and are actio ns that are taken in response to stressors. a. proactive adaptations; docile adaptations b. corrective adaptations; preventive *c. preventive adaptations; corrective adaptations d. docile adaptations; proactive adaptations 24. One who believes in Erikson’s theory would MOST likely view their 90-year-old grandmother as struggling with a conflict of: a. generativity versus stagnation. *b. integrity versus despair. c. identity versus role confusion. d. industry versus inferiority. 25. The conflict of integrity versus despair is characterized by: *a. attempting to make sense out of one’s life. b. forming an initial sense of identity. c. a sense of great care for the next generation. d. developing a sense of trust. 26. Noah is trying to come to grips with the fact that he is very old and doesn’t h ave long to live. To do this, he thinks of the things he has accomplished, the child ren he has raised, and the things he has done for the community. Noah is struggli ng with Erikson’s stage of: a. generativity versus stagnation. *b. integrity versus despair. c. intimacy versus isolation. d. initiative versus guilt. 27. Jeff is 73 years old. Lately, he’s been thinking about the things he’s done in his life—his relationships, his accomplishments, and other experiences he’s had. Which term BEST describes what Jeff is doing? *a. Life review b. Despair c. Proactivity d. Socioemotional selectivity 28. When elderly people “accept the past,” they tend to than people who do not. a. be in more despair *b. be less depressed c. have less subjective well-being d. act more docile 29. After conducting a life review, 85-year-old Gus concludes that his life was rid dled with inappropriate actions and basically stunk. Based on this review, Erikson would predict that Gus would: *a. be very fearful of death. b. become proactive. c. regress back to an earlier stage of life. d. exhibit generativity. 30. Erikson would suggest that 80-year-old has achieved integrity. a. Elmer, who is highly self-conscious, *b. Christine, who is highly self-affirming, c. Harold, who has good self-recognition skills, d. Francis, who has excellent self-monitoring skills, 31. An individual with well-being holds a positive self-evaluation that is base d on positive life experiences. a. dysphoric b. indeterminate *c. subjective d. inverse 32. When Kayla looks back on her life, she is filled with a sense of pride and feel s good about what she’s done. Which term BEST describes these feelings? *a. Subjective well-being b. Social convoy c. Docility d. Socioemotional selectivity 33. Which of these is NOT typically measured in an effort to assess subjective we ll-being? a. Life satisfaction b. Happiness *c. Stress d. Self-esteem 34. Which of these factors is NOT related to subjective well-being? a. Hardiness b. Marital status c. Chronic illness *d. Culture 35. Research on subjective well-being across cultures has found that the: a. degree to which age is viewed positively affects well-being. *b. same factors predict successful aging in other cultures. c. factors important in Western cultures differ from those in Eastern cultur es. d. cultures with more daily stress have poorer well-being. 36. In general, subjective well-being: *a. increases in older age. b. decreases in older age. c. increases for older men and decreases for older women. d. increases for older women and decreases for older men. 37. How do changes in the amygdala over time impact the regulation of emotion? a. Younger adults have higher amygdala activation and lower emotional ar ousal. b. Younger adults have lower amygdala activation and higher emotional ar ousal. c. Older adults have higher amygdala activation and lower emotional arous al. *d. Older adults have lower amygdala activation and lower emotional arou sal. 38. Higher cognitive ability predicts: *a. a better emotional regulation. b. the acquisition of a social convoy. c. a better sense of integrity. d. the development of generativity. 39. While attempting to cope with the death of her sister, Megan decides to parti cipate in a spontaneous celebration of life sponsored by a local church. For Mega n, this participation is a nice example of the use of a support. *a. spiritual b. secular c. tertiary d. docility 40. Which statement about spirituality and health is TRUE? *a. Higher levels of spirituality are associated with better physical and me ntal health. b. Higher levels of spirituality are associated with better physical, but poor er mental, health. c. Higher levels of spirituality are associated with better mental, but poore r physical, health. d. Lower levels of spirituality are associated with better physical and ment al health. 41. When coping with high levels of stress, individuals who rely on spiritual suppo rt tend to than those with a small religious commitment. a. show lower levels of self-esteem b. demonstrate more discomfort with rigid church dogma *c. report higher states of well-being d. add to their burden more 42. Who is most likely to say, “My relationship with God helped me to overcome my depression?” a. Sonny, who is a European American male b. Cher, who is a European American female c. Ike, who is an Asian American male *d. Tina, who is an African American female 43. Americans who pray to the saints and the Virgin Mary on a regular basis tend to have greater optimism and better health. a. Asian b. European c. African *d. Mexican 44. Research provides evidence that spiritual practices: a. decrease attention and memory. b. lead to increased feelings of control. c. increase the risk of dementia. *d. can positively impact brain structure. 45. During meditation, the brain exhibits: *a. an increase in activity. b. the same activity as during a normal resting state. c. a decrease in activity. d. a pattern similar to that of dementia patients. 46. The possibility exists that mindful meditation could: a. increase the risk of Alzheimer’s disease. *b. prevent negative changes in the brain. c. decrease coping skills. d. increase stress levels. 47. Retirement always involves the loss of: a. integrity. b. maximum performance potential. c. autonomy. *d. occupational identity. 48. Recently the number of people over age 65 still in the workforce has: a. decreased slightly. *b. increased significantly. c. decreased significantly. d. remained the same as it was for decades. 49. AARP created a tool called to assist people in finding their retirement pa th. a. Retirement and Beyond b. Working beyond 65 c. Sit Down and Rest *d. Life Reimagined 50. Provided that they have good health, more workers retire than for any ot her reason. a. by force b. because their spouse is retired *c. by choice d. to engage in volunteer work 51. According to the textbook, most workers should have enough savings to gene rate between of their current income for approximately years in retireme nt. a. 50 and 60 percent; 30 *b. 60 and 70 percent; 25 c. 70 and 80 percent; 25 d. 80 and 90 percent; 30 52. What factor is responsible for changing many peoples’ retirement plans? a. An increase in volunteer opportunities for individuals over 65 b. Fortune 500 companies lowering the retirement age to 60 *c. The Great Recession d. An increase in distributed lottery funds 53. Many employers have employee pension plans. *a. eliminated b. increased c. adequate d. offered stock options with their 54. In the United States, when compared to men, women are more likely to: a. enter the workforce earlier. b. spend more time in the workforce. *c. spend less time planning their retirement. d. have more continuous work histories. 55. Concerning gender and retirement, women: a. tend to have a financial advantage at retirement. b. tend to prepare more fully for retirement. c. are more likely to retire if their husbands are already retired. *d. are less likely to fully retire. 56. Which statement concerning satisfaction in retirement is TRUE? a. No group has been found to show increased levels of satisfaction in reti rement. b. Well-being tends to drop significantly during the first year following volu ntary retirement. *c. Forced retirement is associated with declines in physical and mental h ealth. d. Early-life social challenges are almost always continued in the retireme nt years, even if one experiences positive interactions in middle adulthood. 57. Which statement with regard to retirement is TRUE? a. In recent years, the number of organizations devoted to assisting retire es has declined. b. Participation in leisure activities during retirement tends to result in dec lines in satisfaction. *c. Part-time employment following retirement can be the result of a desir e to stay connected to one’s former life/career. d. Retiree volunteerism appears to have little positive impact on society. 58. In the last few decades, the number of community organizations designed to involve older adults has: *a. increased significantly. b. increased slightly. c. remained stable. d. decreased slightly. 59. Which is the BEST example of a “social convoy”? a. A newly married couple b. Generation X *c. Several adult lifelong friends d. A retired individual who plans to move to a community with other retiree s 60. Eric has maintained contact with six of his high school friends for the last 60 years. They often get together for activities, to socialize, and to simply spend time together. Eric and his longtime friends would be BEST described as a(n): a. zone of maximal performance potential. b. environmental press. c. zone of minimal comfort. *d. social convoy. 61. How does the size of social convoys vary between generations? a. Young adults have the largest convoys. b. Middle-aged adults have the largest convoys. c. Older adults have the largest convoys. *d. Convoy size does not vary by generation. 62. Social support appears to be most important for individuals from the co mmunity. a. European-American *b. African-American c. Asian-American d. Latino-American 63. Older women have a number of friends characterized by . a. greater; less intimacy *b. greater; more intimacy c. smaller; more intimacy d. smaller; less intimacy 64. Who would benefit the MOST from having friends in their neighborhood? a. Jake (age 20) who lives with roommates *b. Karla (age 70) who lives alone c. Mazie (age 60) who lives with her husband d. Jason (age 80) who lives with family 65. All of these individuals are over 70 years old. Who is MOST likely to be satisfi ed with their life? a. Sergei, who has a close relationship with one of his sons b. Dimitri, who has close relationships with all six of his children c. Karl, who has a close relationship with one friend who is not a member of his family *d. Ernst, who has a close relationship with many friends who are not me mbers of his family 66. Who is MOST likely to have the fewest new friends? a. Bud, who is 20 years old b. Linnie, who is 40 years old c. Stella, who is 60 years old *d. Miller, who is 80 years old 67. “Socioemotional selectivity” is a term that describes the process involved in: a. arriving at subjective well-being. *b. developing relationships with others. c. maximizing one’s zone of maximum comfort. d. mastering instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs). 68. Brando is motivated to join a group of strangers at a party when he overhears them taking about a new movie that he is interested in learning about. This BEST exemplifies the process of: a. activities of daily living. b. integrity versus despair. c. patronizing speech. *d. socioemotional selectivity. 69. Celia is motivated to join a support group after her husband’s death in order t o meet others who understand what she is experiencing. This is the result of a m otivation related to: a. activities of daily living. b. integrity versus despair. c. information seeking. *d. emotional regulation. 70. According to socioemotional selectivity theory, social contact is motivated by a goal, such as: *a. information seeking. b. discontinuity. c. infantilization. d. an altruistic gene. 71. Social contact motivated by information seeking tends to lead to: a. stronger family ties. *b. meeting more people. c. a preference for familiar people. d. a more diverse social network. 72. Social contact motivated by emotional regulation tends to lead to: a. stronger family ties. b. meeting more people. *c. a preference for familiar people. d. a more diverse social network. 73. Hanna is a 70-year-old woman who has a choice: she can either go out with some old friends or make some new friends at the community center. Socioemoti onal selectivity theory would predict that if Hanna’s decision is based on emotiona l regulation, she will: a. choose to make new friends. *b. go out with her old friends. c. stay home and see no one. d. invite her old friends to the community center so that they can all make new friends. 74. Which factor is LEAST likely to lead to the development of online friendships? a. Precommitment b. Time spent online c. Situational factors *d. Decreased self-disclosure 75. For older adults, friendships can provide several benefits. Which of these is L EAST likely to be one of these benefits? a. Increased independence b. Increased happiness *c. Decreased length of telomeres d. Increased self-esteem 76. Sibling relationships are special in that they: a. vary across families. *b. typically last a lifetime. c. are based on competition. d. are emotionally based. 77. When are sibling relationships likely to be the MOST important? a. Early childhood b. Adolescence c. Middle adulthood *d. Late adulthood 78. Eve is very close to her siblings, is very involved in their lives, and keeps an a verage level of contact with them. At what point in her life is Eve’s relationship wit h her siblings likely to be MOST important? a. Early childhood b. Adolescence c. Middle adulthood *d. Late adulthood 79. One reason that sibling relationships are thought to be so important is that si blings often: a. remain highly involved in each other’s lives. *b. constitute the longest-lasting relationships. c. support each other financially. d. use competition to motivate their successes throughout life. 80. Merlin and Kay are both 69 years old and married. Compared with Karin and Bill, who are 37 years old and married, Merlin and Kay probably: *a. have a reduced potential for conflict. b. have a lower potential for pleasure. c. are more different from one another in terms of health. d. exhibit more gender differences in terms of sources of pleasure. 81. When comparing the average middle-aged married couple with the average ol der married couple, the older couple is more likely to be characterized as: a. unhappy. b. disengaged. *c. similar. d. docile. 82. Which statement about marriage is TRUE? *a. Marriage helps people deal more effectively with disabilities. b. Over time, division of labor becomes more gender-stereotyped. c. Older married women are much happier about the marriage than their m ale partners. d. Marital conflict increases significantly in old age. 83. Based on the data gathered to date, long-term gay and lesbian partnerships are long-term heterosexual relationships. a. more loving than b. more violent than c. more sexual than *d. very similar to 84. After 45 years of marriage, Athena now has to take care of her husband, who has a major debilitating disease. Athena is likely to be with her marriage tha n other older adults who are not caregivers for their spouses. a. more satisfied *b. less satisfied c. equally satisfied d. satisfied in a different way 85. As a spouse caring for her Alzheimer’s afflicted husband, Patsy, who has beg un to experience a decrease in her marital satisfaction, is likely to be experiencin g increased feelings of: a. companionship. b. intimacy. c. independence. *d. depression. 86. Spousal caregivers whose partners have a significant chronic medical conditi on tend to: a. regress into the roles they played when the marriage began. b. be susceptible to getting the same disorder. *c. show reduced levels of marital satisfaction. d. remember significantly more major hassles than actually occur. 87. represent the largest group of those in widowhood. a. Middle-aged men b. Middle-aged women c. Older men *d. Older women 88. Herb is 73 years old. His family and friends all of a sudden feel uncomfortabl e around him. Because he feels very uncomfortable going to a restaurant by hims elf, he often stays at home alone. What has MOST likely happened to Herb? a. He has recently lost his social convoy b. He is experiencing generativity c. He just retired *d. His wife recently died 89. Women who are recently widowed tend to have than recently widowed m en. *a. greater financial loss b. less social relationships c. more physical/health problems d. less loss of social status 90. Chris is a great-grandparent. It is MOST likely that Chris: a. is a male. *b. married relatively early in life. c. plays a role similar to that of most grandparents. d. is highly involved with the great-grandchildren. 91. One positive aspect of becoming a great-grandparent is that it: a. is a sign of social competence. *b. marks a major longevity milestone. c. indicates that one is not docile. d. provides a good opportunity for disengagement. 92. Which statement is TRUE regarding the differences between grandparents an d great-grandparents? a. Grandparents are more likely to develop integrity. *b. The roles of grandparents are more diverse. c. Great-grandparents are less likely to be proactive. d. Social convoys are not important for great-grandparents. 93. Levi has just become a great-grandfather. If he is like most other great-grand parents, Levi: a. is looking forward to being a surrogate parent. b. views being a great-grandparent as a burden. *c. is pleased with the diversion great-grandchildren provide. d. views himself with the sense that he has lived too long. 94. Dolores is 73 years old, is very ill, cannot care for herself, and has several p hysical and psychological problems. Dolores would be BEST described as: a. patronizing. b. proactive. *c. frail. d. competent. 95. To be accurately classified as a frail older adult, an individual must: *a. be very ill and have physical disabilities. b. have the potential for becoming very ill and have mental disabilities. c. be over 65 and be under constant medical care. d. have less than one year to live. 96. Frail older adults: a. experience no environmental press. *b. exhibit declining competence. c. have a decreased need for spiritual support. d. are more likely to seek a bridge job. 97. Activities of daily living are BEST described as tasks: a. demanding above-average intelligence. b. requiring assistance from others. c. focusing on nonphysical activities. *d. involving basic self-care needs. 98. Being able to take a bath, walk, and eat are all examples of: a. instrumental activities of daily living. *b. activities of daily living. c. the zone of maximum comfort. d. the zone of maximum performance potential. 99. In the United States, would be considered an instrumental activity of dai ly living. a. walking b. opening a door c. taking a bath *d. purchasing a car 100. Inga lives in a developing nation. For her, would be considered an IADL. a. menstruation b. sleeping c. eating *d. planting crops 101. IADLs differ from ADLs in that: *a. IADLs have a higher-level intellectual component. b. IADLs are necessary for survival. c. ADLs are more difficult to perform. d. ADLs are less commonly performed by African Americans. 102. A third way to assess competence is to focus on: a. ethnic authenticity. *b. PLIMs. c. levels of integrity. d. the number of friends a person has. 103. Cameron is having difficulty handling her bank accounts and paying taxes, b ut competently takes care of her daily needs. Based on this, it seems that Camer on needs assistance with: *a. IADLs, but not ADLs. b. IADLs and ADLs. c. ADLs in a nursing home. d. ADLs as an outpatient. 104. According to the textbook, a refers to the cognitive and emotional attac hments that a person puts on their place of residence. a. secure attachment b. proactivity c. environmental press *d. sense of place 105. In the United States on any given day, about percent of older adults re side in a nursing home. *a. 5 b. 15 c. 25 d. 35 106. An elderly individual with few cognitive or physical limitations but who someti mes requires help with everyday living needs would most likely live in a(n): a. nursing home. b. intermediate care facility. c. skilled nursing care facility. *d. assisted-living facility. 107. Suzette lives in a building in which others help her with some everyday living needs. Although she has no severe cognitive or physical disabilities, she apprecia tes this living arrangement, which is BEST classified as a(n): a. nursing home. b. intermediate care facility. c. skilled nursing care facility. *d. assisted-living facility. 108. Who is the prototypic nursing home resident? a. Wayland, who is a 75-year-old European American male b. Tyehimba, who is a 75-year-old African American male *c. Rowena, who is an 80-year-old European American female d. Aretha, who is an 80-year-old African American female 109. The main reason for a person to enter a nursing home is their: *a. health. b. age. c. wealth. d. spouse. 110. Which of these is NOT an issue regarding caregivers of the elderly? a. Physical abuse *b. Cohousing c. Financial exploitation d. Neglect 111. Which of these is NOT a possible contributing factor to elder abuse? a. Social isolation of the elder b. Caregiver stress c. Elder’s dependency on others *d. Caregiver’s lack of control 112. Sophia, an 80-year-old, lives with her daughter, Dorothy. How many of these factors put Sophia at risk of elder abuse: Dorothy’s high competence, the potentia l financial gain Dorothy may receive, Dorothy’s depression, and the fact that Dorot hy is single? a. one *b. two c. three d. four 113. Rose lives with several of her friends, who are also elderly. She has a high d esire to please and help others, but has difficulty with common sense, so her frie nds often check on her activities and interactions with others. Rose’s friends are MOST likely trying to protect her from becoming a victim of: *a. fraud. b. physical abuse. c. emotional abuse. d. neglect. 114. Which factor places elderly people at higher risk for fraud? a. Unhappiness *b. Loneliness c. Social isolation d. Disability 115. Hubert, who is taking care of his elderly uncle, has recently been cashing hi s uncle’s social security checks and putting the money into his own account. As t his is being done without his uncle’s knowledge, Hubert’s behavior would be class ified as: a. psychological abuse. b. abandonment. *c. material exploitation. d. neglect. 116. Which statement concerning elder abuse is TRUE? *a. The abuser is typically a family member. b. Most victims are under age 80. c. Stress alone appears to be the major trigger of abuse. d. It tends to be a pattern that is transmitted from one generation to the n ext. 117. Compared with 1950, of today’s older adults are below the federal pov erty line. a. significantly more b. about the same percent c. slightly fewer *d. significantly fewer 118. What percentage of the U.S. tax budget is spent on Social Security and Med icare? a. 3 b. 7 c. 12 *d. 39 119. Which statement concerning Social Security is FALSE? *a. It was developed in the 1950s. b. It can be supplemented by IRAs. c. It is the primary source of income for those over age 65. d. It faces challenges due to the large number of baby-boomers. 120. The original purpose of Social Security was to: a. create a way for seniors to pay for housing expenses. *b. provide a supplement to savings and other means of financial support. c. provide the primary source of income for those over age 65. d. create an investment opportunity. 121. Social Security money is obtained from: a. money put away by workers over the course of their working life. *b. taxes on current workers’ payroll. c. interest on a large federal investment fund. d. a low-interest loan from the business sector. 122. Part D of Medicare provides coverage for: *a. prescription medications. b. physician services. c. inpatient hospital services. d. skilled nursing facilities. 123. The major problem facing Medicare involves: a. the lack of skilled nursing facilities. b. a refusal by the government to fund via a payroll tax. *c. rising healthcare costs. d. the increasing age of retirement. 124. The physical and social demands put on people are referred to as c ompetence. a. True *b. False 125. In the adaptation level, the press level is low and the behavior i s normal. a. True *b. False 126. During docility, a person lets the environment dictate their behav ior. *a. True b. False 127. Discovering the universality and wholeness that has always been wi thin oneself, but has gone unrecognized or unacknowledged, is called di scovering one’s false self. a. True *b. False 128. The struggle of identity versus role confusion requires that peopl e engage in a life review. a. True *b. False 129. Subjective well-being can be assessed using measures of life satis faction, self-esteem, and happiness. *a. True b. False 130. Feelings of self-worth tend to be lowest in individuals with high levels of spirituality. a. True *b. False 131. Meditation can produce positive structural changes in the areas of the brain related to attention and memory. *a. True b. False 132. The retirement experience appears to be different for women and me n. *a. True b. False 133. For most people, retirement is not a major life transition. a. True *b. False 134. The amount of social support provided by social convoys does not v ary by generation. *a. True b. False 135. Older adults tend to develop more new relationships than younger a dults. a. True *b. False 136. Life satisfaction is strongly correlated with the number and quali ty of friendships, but poorly correlated with the number and quality of younger family member relationships. *a. True b. False 137. Compared to younger couples, older married couples tend to be more similar in terms of mental and physical health. *a. True b. False 138. Marital satisfaction tends to be high if one spouse is caring for the other spouse who has Alzheimer’s disease. a. True *b. False 139. Widows tend to experience greater financial hardships than widower s. *a. True b. False 140. Being a great-grandparent provides some with a sense of symbolic i mmortality. *a. True b. False 141. Bathing and dressing are good examples of instrumental activities of daily living. a. True *b. False 142. Assisted-living facilities must provide 24-hour medical care. a. True *b. False 143. Medicare is the primary source of income for more retired individu als in the United States. a. True *b. False 144. Discuss the competence-environmental press approach and how it relates to the z one of maximum comfort. 145. Lindsay is 75 years old and is faced with the need to move to a nursing home. Des cribe how she would respond to this situation if she acted with proactivity, and how she w ould respond if she acted with docility. 146. What is a life review? How is this related to achieving integrity? 147. Discuss well-being in older adults and two changes in the brain that improve well-b eing as people age. 148. Describe the progression from the False Self to the True Self. 149. Describe what older adults’ marriages and same-sex partnerships are like. What fa ctors affect how couples relate late in life? 150. Describe the challenges faced when a spouse must care for a partner when the par tner is chronically ill or has Alzheimer’s disease. 151. Jay is a recently widowed older man and Kay is a recently widowed older female. D escribe similarities and differences in their likely reactions to the loss and the challenges that they will face. 152. Describe the qualities of frail older adults. Compare and contrast activities of daily living and instrumental activities of daily living and discuss how they relate to frail adults with PLIMs. 153. Describe the emerging ideas related to housing and the elderly. 1. The definition of death: *a. varies within and between cultures. b. is the same for everyone within a culture. c. is the same across all cultures. d. never changes. 2. Jac is living in Ghana and is said to be dying a “good death.” This means that he: a. is in his teens. *b. has made peace with his friends and family. c. will take his own life. d. has sacrificed an animal to the “god of the living.” 3. When a death occurs, traditionally cover the mirrors in the house. a. Muscogee Creek tribes people *b. Orthodox Jews c. Greeks d. Cubans 4. The study of death, dying, grief, bereavement, and social attitudes toward thes e issues is called: a. mourning. *b. thanatology. c. psychology. d. the life span of death. 5. The rituals of the Muscogee Creek tribe include digging graves by hand and thr owing a handful of dirt onto the grave before covering it. What do tribe members c all the act of throwing a handful of dirt onto the grave? a. “Ritual burying” b. The “final meal” c. The “magic touch” *d. A “farewell handshake” 6. Which man-made structure BEST illustrates the variations in the customs surr ounding death? a. The White House in Washington D.C. b. Sears Tower in Chicago *c. The Taj Mahal in India d. The Colosseum in Rome 7. Who is clinically dead? a. John, who is not responsive to pain *b. Naomi, who is not breathing and whose heart is not beating c. Helga, who exhibits no cortical functioning d. John, Naomi, and Helga would all be considered clinically dead. 8. After an accident, Steve’s heart is not beating and he has stopped breathing. Steve is: a. whole-brain dead. b. mourning. c. in a persistent vegetative state. *d. clinically dead. 9. The permanent stoppage of all brainstem reflexes is one of the criteria for: a. clinical death. b. euthanasia. *c. whole-brain death. d. death as a mystery. 10. When attempting to determine if someone is “whole-brain dead,” a physician would be LEAST likely to ask: *a. “Do the brain cells still contain neurotransmitters?” b. “Does the body respond to a pinprick?” c. “Has there been any movement for the past hour?” d. “Is the person in a coma?” 11. Susan’s cortical functioning has ceased, but her brain stem is still active. Su san would be BEST described as: *a. in a persistent vegetative state. b. whole-brain dead. c. clinically dead. d. consciously aware. 12. A person in a persistent vegetative state would be: a. considered clinically dead. *b. capable of keeping their heart beating without consciousness. c. able to engage in primitive thought. d. considered whole-brain dead. 13. Which person is struggling MOST with a bioethical issue? *a. Edward, who is trying to make a decision about turning off his wife’s lif e-support machine. b. Charles, who is in a persistent vegetative state c. Henry, whose wife recently died from cancer d. Arthur, who is giving a “farewell handshake” 14. Individuals in permanent comas or persistent vegetative states: a. are considered dead, both clinically and according to the whole-brain st andard of death. b. are considered dead by the clinical, but not the whole-brain, standard o f death. *c. will not regain consciousness, but do not meet the whole-brain standa rd of death. d. will regain consciousness, but do not meet the whole-brain standard of death. 15. Dr. Axle teaches bioethics. What lecture title would be MOST representative o f his field? a. “The Reliability of the Electroencephalogram” b. “Pupillary Responses in Rats” *c. “Mercy Killing: Legal or Illegal?” d. “Axons and Dendrites: Synaptic Partners” 16. Dr. Rahman has made a career out of studying mercy killing and new surgical options to extend life. She is MOST likely interested in: a. grief. b. death as a statistic. *c. bioethics. d. death as an object. 17. Bioethics concerns the interface between human values and technological ad vances in: a. philosophy. *b. health and life sciences. c. religion. d. computer science. 18. By definition, euthanasia is the practice of ending life for reasons of: *a. mercy. b. health. c. speed. d. religiosity. 19. Which of these is NOT part of the definition of active euthanasia? a. Deliberate act of ending a life b. Based on statement by an individual who wants to die c. Decision made by someone with legal authority to do so *d. Must involve individual in persistent vegetative state or whole-brain de ad 20. Dr. Kelly has just purposely killed a patient by injecting her with a lethal amou nt of medication. This patient had an incurable illness and requested to die rather than go through a long, painful treatment. This is an example of: a. clinical death. b. passive euthanasia. *c. active euthanasia. d. inducing a persistent vegetative state. 21. Which is the BEST example of active euthanasia? *a. Administering a drug overdose b. Pulling the plug on a respirator c. Not performing a potentially life-saving surgery d. Withdrawing an experimental drug that might prevent a disorder 22. One of the first countries to officially legalize physician-assisted suicide is: a. The United States b. China c. Brazil *d. The Netherlands 23. Which U.S. state passed the first law legalizing physician-assisted suicide? a. California *b. Oregon c. Washington d. Idaho 24. According to Oregon’s physician-assisted suicide law: a. only older adults can request this procedure. *b. people who have a terminal illness can voluntarily request a lethal dos e of medication. c. family members must request this procedure in person. d. the deadly drugs must be administered directly by a physician. 25. Dr. Steinmetz decides to follow the wishes of her patient and withhold treatm ent for the patient’s terminal cancer, thus allowing the patient to die. This is an ex ample of: a. a near-death experience. *b. passive euthanasia. c. bioethics. d. active euthanasia. 26. After Maxine was in a severe car accident, her parents were informed that sh e was brain dead but could be kept alive if she was put on a respirator immediate ly. Her family’s decision to not put her on the respirator would be considered: a. a durable power of attorney. b. active euthanasia. c. murder. *d. passive euthanasia. 27. The first Supreme Court case on passive euthanasia involved a case in which a family wanted to allow Nancy Cruzan to die by: a. taking her off a respirator. b. giving her a lethal injection. c. letting her take a lethal dose of medication. *d. ending force feedings. 28. What originally led to Brittany Maynard’s life-threatening medical condition? a. Car accident b. A difficult pregnancy *c. Terminal brain cancer d. Side effects from treatment for cancer 29. Most people confront the death of their parents when they are: a. adolescents. b. young adults. *c. middle-aged. d. elderly. 30. Death anxiety would likely be the lowest for: *a. Sally, who is 80 years old. b. Jesse, who is 45 years old. c. Rikki, who is 30 years old. d. Lake, who is 21 years old. 31. According to research presented in your text, understanding how adults deal with death is probably best understood from the perspective of theory. a. cognitive-developmental *b. attachment c. psychoanalytic d. terror management 32. A(n) is often used to describe the duration of time between the onset of dying and death itself. *a. death trajectory b. end-of-life scenario c. hospice d. final scenario 33. Which would have a terminal phase with the longest trajectory? a. Death due to a massive stroke *b. Death due to breast cancer c. Death due to a car accident d. Death due to sudden heart failure 34. Elizabeth Kübler-Ross’s stage theory of dying was initially developed as a res earch project: *a. investigating how the terminally ill cope with dying. b. probing into the suffering of inmates at Holocaust death camps. c. designed to determine the impact of hospice care. d. testing the effectiveness of an antidepressant medication. 35. What is the correct sequence of Kübler-Ross’s original “five stages of dying”? a. Depression, acceptance, denial, bargaining, anger *b. Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance c. Anger, depression, denial, acceptance, bargaining d. Bargaining, denial, acceptance, anger, depression 36. Stacey has been diagnosed with a terminal illness. She is currently going to d ifferent doctors to determine whether her diagnosis is correct. Stacey is probably i n the stage of dying. a. depression b. anger *c. denial d. bargaining 37. Devin has been told he only has a few more months to live. He is totally unab le to deal with people, because he knows everyone he sees is going to outlive hi m. “It’s not fair. Why is this happening to me?” is something he says over and ove r to himself. He feels frustrated and alone. He is MOST likely in the stage of dying. a. depression *b. anger c. denial d. bargaining 38. Sandy knows she is going to die in a few months. She seems calm and conc erned more about how to help her family deal with her death than with her own m ortality. She seems to be disconnecting herself from people and things and at pe ace. Sandy is MOST likely in the stage of dying. a. denial b. bargaining c. depression *d. acceptance 39. Brent has been diagnosed with terminal cancer. Today, he spent hours prayin g: “Please, I’ll do anything. Just give me one more chance. I’m so sorry. I’ll be the best person, just please give me another chance.” Brent is MOST likely in the _ stage of dying. *a. bargaining b. acceptance c. depression d. denial 40. Koua feels guilty and ashamed over the fact that she has AIDS and how her t erminal illness is affecting her family. Kübler-Ross would argue that Koua is in the stage of dying. a. anger *b. depression c. denial d. bargaining 41. In Kübler-Ross’s original theory, the emotion of was thought to immedia tely precede feelings of acceptance. a. anger b. euphoria *c. depression d. resignation 42. All stage theories of dying are based on the notion that: a. the faster the death trajectory, the better. b. there are great cultural differences in the dying process. *c. there is a specific direction to the developmental pattern of reacting to one’s death. d. the unconscious mind plays a major role in death anxiety. 43. Corr (1991–1992) suggests that a dying individual must face four tasks (e.g., spiritual energy, bodily needs, psychological security). This approach views copin g with death as a(n): a. bioethical dilemma. *b. holistic process. c. invariant sequence of reactions. d. psychosomatic disorder. 44. You’re buying a book that explains the contextual theory of dying. Which of th ese would MOST likely be the title for this book? a. Understanding the Stages of Death b. Physiological Criteria for Defining Death *c. Factors That Influence Coping with Death d. A Task-Based Approach to Coping with Death 45. According to theory, the primary motive of humans is to ensure that life continues. a. attachment b. Kübler-Ross’s stage c. cognitive-developmental *d. terror management 46. Bernie hates being around his older relatives because their frailty reminds hi m that someday he will grow old and die. This belief best fits with the approa ch to dying. a. death as an event *b. terror management theory c. death as a mystery d. Kübler-Ross 47. Death anxiety: a. consists solely of the component of fear. *b. is very hard to measure. c. appears independent from pain, punishment, and humiliation. d. is expressed identically in public and private settings. 48. Who is an example of someone using the MOST common way of dealing with death anxiety? a. Jean, who is becoming more fearful the older she gets *b. Martin, who lives life to the fullest c. Norma, who seeks professional counseling d. Louis, who becomes more committed to his church 49. Before he dies, Juan is checking his insurance, rewriting his will, and making arrangements for his funeral. Juan is dealing with: a. death anxiety. b. bereavement. *c. end-of-life issues. d. grief work. 50. Bernie is trying to decide whether or not to be cremated. This best exemplifie s: a. a final scenario. *b. an end-of-life issue. c. bioethics. d. grief work as rumination. 51. Making one’s choices known about how one want one’s life to end constitute s one’s: *a. final scenario. b. end-of-life issues. c. death anxiety. d. passive euthanasia. 52. Jensen is dying. She is explaining to her family that she would like to spend h er last days alone in her country home with just her husband. These arrangement s are an example of: a. passive euthanasia. b. denial. c. death anxiety. *d. a final scenario. 53. Afi is terminally ill. She is being sent to an institution that provides for people who are dying and their families. Afi is most likely being sent to a(n): a. skilled care nursing home. b. hospital. *c. hospice. d. intermediate care nursing home. 54. The hospice philosophy is best summarized as: a. “prevent death at all costs.” *b. “promote death with dignity.” c. “die a natural death (i.e., drugs have no place in death).” d. “everyone should die at home.” 55. Hospice care takes a approach, which is focused on providing relief fro m pain and other symptoms of disease at any point during the disease process. a. euthanasia-centered b. physician-assisted suicide *c. palliative care d. hospital care 56. A person who helps ease the passage through death and makes sure that dyi ng people are not alone is known as a: a. nurse. b. case worker. *c. death doula. d. suicide assistant. 57. Ninety-year-old Albert is terminally ill and has decided to die at home. He has also decided that he would like to have visits from a nurse who can provide assist ance in making his process of dying more comfortable. This indicates that Albert i s involved in hospice care. a. implicit *b. outpatient c. passive d. nonpalliative 58. As a hospice staff member, you would be LEAST likely to hear your supervisor say: a. “We must make every effort to satisfy the realistic life goals of our clien ts.” b. “Inform the clients that it is OK to end their relationships before they di e.” c. “Be sure to inform clients that they can have as many drugs to relieve p ain as they need.” *d. “Remember that fear is a natural part of the dying process, so you sho uld try and encourage it in the clients.” 59. When compared to terminally-ill hospital patients, hospice patients are more likely to be: *a. mobile. b. anxious. c. depressed. d. avoided by a spouse. 60. What is the MOST likely complaint of a hospice client? *a. “Everyone is too worried about my pain and not worried enough about my religious beliefs.” b. “Why is the hospice movement against dying at home?” c. “Why is my family discouraged from seeing me?” d. “How come I have to have cancer or AIDS to qualify for hospice care?” 61. Which of these is NOT a key consideration for exploring the hospice option? a. Is the person completely informed about the nature and prognosis of hi s or her condition? *b. Are the family members ready for this person to die? c. Are family members available to participate actively in terminal care? d. How well do the people in the person’s social network communicate wit h each other? 62. Nathan wants to be sure that, in the event he is incapable of communicating, no life support will be used even if doctors want to keep him alive. He also wants to give his wife the legal right to speak for him in that situation. In order to do all t his with one document, Nathan should complete a(n): a. living will. *b. healthcare power of attorney. c. EEG. d. survey of near-death experiences. 63. Before she died, Lee completed a document specifying her wishes to be take n off life support should she be in a position where she could not speak for hersel f and her recovery was all but impossible. Because the form did not give authority to anyone else to speak for her, Lee’s document was MOST likely a(n): *a. living will. b. EEG. c. survey of near-death experiences. d. durable power of attorney. 64. While they differ in some respects, both a living will and a durable power of at torney: a. identify someone to act on your behalf if you become incapacitated. b. make it legal for a physician to perform active euthanasia. *c. allow others to know one’s preferences concerning issues like whether you want to be put on life support. d. cannot be written until a person is about to lose the ability to make his or her own decisions. 65. Which of these rights is NOT protected by the Patient Self-Determination Act? a. The right to make their own health care decisions *b. The right to choose their own path of treatment c. The right to accept or refuse medical treatment d. The right to make an advance healthcare directive 66. In order to determine if a person is cognitively or legally able to make end-of-l ife decisions, their and are assessed. a. formal operations; intelligence b. verbal skills; writing skills c. intelligence; competency *d. capacity; competency 67. Bereavement is best defined as the: a. emotions expressed when we grieve. b. rituals we go through when we grieve. *c. state or condition caused by loss through death. d. condition created in one’s self when we are dying. 68. The feelings that arise after someone near us dies are called: a. mourning. *b. grief. c. docility. d. bereavement. 69. Mourning is BEST defined as the way a person: a. dies. b. reflects on his or her own death. c. feels after the death of a close friend. *d. expresses grief. 70. Which aspect of death is MOST highly influenced by culture? a. Bereavement b. Grief *c. Mourning d. Dying itself 71. In the country of Felixville, when someone’s spouse dies, it is expected that t he living spouse will walk around with a cat on top of his or her head for a week. I n this country, the behavior would be considered: a. normal grieving. b. psychotic. *c. a mourning ritual. d. passive bereavement. 72. For most European Americans, would be the BEST example of a mourni ng ritual. a. being cremated *b. wearing black c. having an open casket d. writing a will 73. Which is the best advice for an individual trying to overcome grief? a. Strengthen ties to the deceased. b. Repress the loss. *c. Express the emotions you feel. d. Adopt ways of living identical to those used when the deceased was stil l alive. 74. Finding effective ways to say good-bye to the deceased is one way of: a. strengthening ties to the deceased. b. repressing the loss. *c. loosening ties to the deceased. d. avoiding the emotions we feel after loss. 75. The grieving process is much than most people believe it to be. a. shorter b. easier c. less complex *d. longer 76. Instead of conceptualizing the final stage of grief as “recovery,” it might be be tter thought of as: a. repression of the most damaging emotions. *b. learning to live with loss. c. spiritual rejection. d. active euthanasia. 77. Before another individual’s death, some people go through a period of: *a. anticipatory grief. b. grief work. c. euthanasia. d. anniversary reactions. 78. Paula’s husband is terminally ill and recently she finds herself crying wheneve r she looks at him. A likely explanation for Paula’s reaction is: a. anniversary reactions. *b. anticipatory grief. c. grief work. d. euthanasia. 79. Grief work is BEST defined as the: a. physiological reaction to bereavement. *b. psychological coming of terms with bereavement. c. social reaction to dying. d. bioethical debate over dying. 80. Chung is trying to get through numerous conflicting emotions and come to gri ps with his bereavement. Chung is involved in: a. a near-death experience. b. clinical death. *c. grief work. d. passive euthanasia. 81. According to Muller and Thompson (2003), the theme of grief relates to what someone does to deal with loss in terms of what helps that person. *a. coping b. affect c. narrative d. relationship 82. Whenever Abe sees the beach, he’s reminded of his deceased spouse and fe els very upset. This represents which of Muller and Thompson’s (2003) themes of grief? a. Coping b. Relationship *c. Affect d. Narrative 83. Cain discovered that he had developed the ability to better manage his financ es as a result of having to deal with financial issues following the death of his bro ther. This best exemplifies the theme of grief. *a. change b. implicit c. affect d. narrative 84. The fact that circulatory problems increase following the death of a spouse in dicates that there is a(n) component to grief. a. psychological b. bioethical *c. physiological d. emotional 85. Jefferson’s brother died on the Fourth of July. Now, every Fourth of July, Jeffer son gets very sad and thinks about his dead brother. This experience of Jefferson’ s is best described as a(n) reaction. *a. anniversary b. anticipatory c. passive d. bioethical 86. For most people, grief tends to peak within following the death of a love d one. a. one month b. three months *c. six months d. twelve months 87. Some research suggests that: a. women grieve much longer than men. b. men tend to skip the grieving process. *c. grief can last for years at intense levels for some people. d. grief goes away with the passage of time for everyone. 88. Which of these MOST accurately describes the length of time people experien ce grief? a. Grief typically lasts about a year. b. Grief lasts approximately three times the length of the relationship. c. Grief over loved ones goes away with time. *d. Grief can last for extended periods of time at great intensity. 89. Which is NOT one of the components in the four-component model of the grie ving process? a. Context of the loss b. Changing representations of the lost relationship over time c. Continuation of subjective meaning associated with the loss *d. Loss-oriented stressors 90. Guffy has just lost his wife to cancer and has begun to question the point of his own existence. This concern best fits with the component of grief. a. emotional-regulation *b. continuation of subjective meaning associated with loss c. changing representation of lost relationship d. context of loss 91. The comment, “She died unexpectedly and way before her time,” is best asso ciated with Bonanno and Kaltman’s (1999) component of grief. a. emotional-regulation b. continuation of subjective meaning associated with loss c. changing representation of lost relationship *d. context of the loss 92. According to the grief work as rumination hypothesis: a. grief is necessary for recovery after a loss. *b. the grieving process can increase distress. c. grief is significantly more distressing when the death involves a termina l illness. d. grief is a great way to avoid less adaptive ways of dealing with death. 93. Bonanno and colleagues’ (2011) study on grieving found support for the cont ention that: a. feelings of grief increase significantly with age. *b. excessive processing of grief may actually increase stress in a bereav ed individual. c. men show more grief processing than women. d. when a person dies as the result of passive euthanasia, grief tends to be more intense. 94. Shortly after the death of her husband, Terri felt fine. However, as she has be gun to grieve, she actually appears to have become more depressed. This reactio n BEST fits with the: a. Kübler-Ross stage theory. b. anniversary reaction perspective. c. normal dying trajectory. *d. grief work as rumination hypothesis. 95. A situation of loss in which there is no resolution or closure is known as: *a. ambiguous loss. b. disenfranchised loss. c. tempered loss. d. rumination-based loss. 96. According to the dual-process model of coping (DPM), and are the two main types of stressors. a. implicit; explicit *b. loss orientation; restoration orientation c. traumatic; separation d. active euthanasia; passive euthanasia 97. Which of these is NOT a component of the model of adaptive grieving dynami cs? a. Lamenting b. Heartening *c. Restoration-oriented stressors d. Tempering 98. Sophie is experiencing so much guilt associated with the death of her boyfrie nd that it is beginning to interfere in every aspect of her life. She is probably exper iencing: a. a near-death experience. *b. separation distress. c. normal bereavement. d. anticipatory grief. 99. The defining element of separation distress during prolonged grief is that it: *a. interferes with daily activities. b. must involve a child-parent dyad. c. is based on disbelief about death. d. is an emotionless reaction. 100. Which does NOT belong on a list of symptoms of traumatic distress? a. Experiencing the physical presence of the deceased *b. Searching for the deceased c. Detachment from others following a death d. Anger toward others following a death 101. A good example of disenfranchised grief is the: a. loss of a spouse. b. loss of a child. *c. loss of a pet. d. loss of a grandparent. 102. Four-year-old Gwen and eight-year-old Stefani are coming back from their gra ndfather’s funeral. Which of them understands that eventually everyone has to die? a. Gwen *b. Stefani c. Both Gwen and Stefani d. Neither Gwen nor Stefani 103. Which comment would have MOST likely come from a concrete operational t hinker? a. “I am not going to die because I sleep under the covers where the Boge yman can’t get me.” b. “Grandpa is dead, but he’ll come to visit us next week.” c. “Even though I can’t imagine what death is like, it must be wonderful.” *d. “When you’re dead, you’re dead.” 104. Bereavement during childhood: *a. typically does not have long-lasting effects. b. does not occur. c. is experienced as a positive emotion by most children. d. is usually repressed. 105. What would be the most confusing thing to say to a five-year-old whose mot her just died? a. “Your mommy will not be around to play with you anymore.” b. “Your mommy didn’t die because a monster got her. People sometimes die when they get very sick.” *c. “Your mommy has gone away to a better place.” d. “We are going to have to bury your mommy just like we had to bury your hamster when she died.” 106. One of the more unique reactions of adolescents who experience the death of a sibling involves the: a. great disruption it has on their overall normative development. b. fact that it tends to increase the negative feelings they have toward thei r deceased sibling. c. lack of emotional trauma. *d. reluctance to discuss their grief. 107. Which statement about the death of a sibling or parent during adolescence i s TRUE? a. About 50 percent of teens lose a parent. b. The response to the death is much more intense that the death of a sib ling. *c. The nonbereaved peers of teens tend to be unwilling to discuss the de ath. d. Teens seldom feel a presence of their deceased parent. 108. tend to have the most intense feelings concerning death. a. Young children b. Adolescents *c. Young adults d. Older adults 109. Of all of these people who have just died, most people would find the death of which individual to be the most tragic? *a. James, who was your 8-year-old child b. Humphrey, who was your 28-year-old sister c. Priscilla, who was your 48-year-old best friend d. Gladys, who was your 68-year-old parent 110. Chuck and Barb’s infant was just stillborn. Which of these are they LEAST lik ely to experience? a. Guilt *b. Acceptance of the loss c. A more negative view of the world d. High anxiety 111. Kiko just experienced a stillbirth after being pregnant for nearly seven month s. In what way would her grief be different than that of Ishi, whose child died unex pectedly at six months of age? a. Kiko would display significantly less sadness. *b. People would expect Kiko to recover much faster. c. Kiko would exhibit more anticipatory grief. d. People would avoid making comments about Kiko’s situation. 112. Which is devastating for a parent? a. Death of a child before birth b. Death of a young child c. Death of a young-adult child *d. All of these events are devastating 113. After Sarah died, Ashley felt like she had lost a source of guidance in her lif e. Sarah’s death made Ashley reevaluate her role as a parent and the importance of the time spent with her children. In addition, Ashley now feels as though she is “next” to die. Sarah was probably Ashley’s: *a. mother. b. sister. c. friend. d. grandmother. 114. Generally, show the LEAST anxiety about death. a. adolescents b. young adults c. middle-aged adults *d. older adults 115. The feelings of distress experienced by parents following the death of a chil d tend to last: a. about 2 years. b. about 10 years. c. about 20 years. *d. a lifetime. 116. How would the typical reaction to the death of a child differ for grandparents versus parents? *a. Grandparents are more likely to attempt to hide their grief. b. Grandparents are more likely to use the event to consider their own mo rtality. c. Parents are more likely to recover from the loss faster. d. Parents are less likely to experience the emotion of guilt. 117. In the United States, an unwritten but “acceptable” amount of time to grieve the death of a spouse is about: a. three months. b. six months. *c. one year. d. two years. 118. What is MOST likely to help Anita recover from the loss of her spouse? a. Having many acquaintances *b. Feeling supported by a small, but close, set of friends c. Being a member of a large family d. Social withdrawal 119. Who is “sanctifying” their deceased husband? a. Monica, who says, “I think he would have liked his burial site!” *b. Linda, who says, “He was the greatest human being on the face of the Earth!” c. Hillary, who says, “I hope that he rots in hell!” d. Jennifer, who says, “I really miss him!” 120. The death of an unmarried lifelong gay or lesbian partner typically results in: a. abnormal grief. b. anticipatory grief. c. a normal pattern of grief that is not as intense as seen in married heter osexual spouses. *d. a normal pattern of grief, along with additional issues related to sexual orientation. 121. Mourning rituals and states of bereavement are pretty much the sam e across all cultures. a. True *b. False 122. Whole-brain is declared ONLY when an EEG has been flat for at leas t ten minutes. a. True *b. False 123. In a persistent vegetative state, a person’s brainstem is active. *a. True b. False 124. The most commonly accepted legal criterion for death is clinical d eath. a. True *b. False 125. There is only one way to define death. a. True *b. False 126. Bioethics is BEST defined as the relationship between human values and religious codes. a. True *b. False 127. Passive euthanasia involves allowing a person to die by withholdin g treatment. *a. True b. False 128. The “terminal phase” of the death trajectory is sometimes used to determine eligibility for services like hospice care. *a. True b. False 129. Terror management theory concerns behaviors rooted in concerns abo ut post-traumatic stress disorder. a. True *b. False 130. Death anxiety can have a beneficial side. *a. True b. False 131. Disposal of one’s assets represents an end-of-life issue. *a. True b. False 132. Palliative care is an approach to care based on an ethic of contro lling and relieving pain or other symptoms and not on attempting to cur e disease. *a. True b. False 133. Hospice clients tend to be less anxious and less depressed than th eir non-hospice terminally-ill counterparts. *a. True b. False 134. In a health care power of attorney, an individual appoints someone to act as his or her agent for healthcare decisions.. *a. True b. False 135. Bereavement is BEST thought of as the state or condition caused by loss through death. *a. True b. False 136. Most grieving individuals get “back to normal” within about six mo nths. a. True *b. False 137. Ruminating appears to be an effective method of coping with loss. a. True *b. False 138. The effects of bereavement in adolescence can lead to depression, low self-esteem, and poor academic performance. *a. True b. False 139. Parents whose infants die before birth tend to have very short-las ting negative effects from the loss. a. True *b. False 140. Older bereaved spouses often grieve for years. *a. True b. False 141. Describe the reasons for and against maintaining life-sustaining care for patients w ith terminal conditions. 142. Ned’s father Mr. Flanders is in a persistent vegetative state. In recent days, severa l of Ned’s siblings have been discussing their options. Included in their discussion has be en the possibility of resorting to active or passive euthanasia. First, describe the characte ristics of someone in a persistent vegetative state. Then describe and provide examples of how active and passive euthanasia might occur. Finally, discuss the legality of these o ptions (you may want to describe the country and/or state in which Mr. Flanders currently resides). 143. Describe the strengths and weaknesses of the Kübler-Ross theory of dying. Be sur e to include a discussion of how well this approach fits with contextual theories of dying. 144. Discuss the key components of death anxiety by describing terror management the ory and its implication toward successfully dealing with such anxiety. 145. Sixty-year-old Carl has just been informed that he is terminally ill. Describe how he might engage in decision-making concerning end-of-life issues. Be sure to include a discu ssion of a possible final scenario. 146. What is the role of a death doula? How does the hospice approach to terminal care facilitate the role of a death doula? 147. Demonstrate knowledge of “loss” by comparing and contrasting the concept of bere avement, mourning, and grief. Be sure to provide examples for each concept and to desc ribe normal grief reactions. 148. A.J. (age 8), Meadow (age 16), and Tony (age 28) are all children of the Soprano fa mily. Each of them is about to experience a loss as the result of the death of their mothe r, Sally. Describe the similarities and differences that you would expect concerning the re actions of these individuals to their loss. 149. Demonstrate your knowledge of the legal definitions of death by differentiating bet ween clinical and whole-brain standards of death. 150. Compare and contrast the four-component and dual-process models of coping with bereavement. [Show More]

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