UESTION BANK
Sub:- Thermodynamics (302)
JAGANNATH UNIVERSITY
QUESTION BANK
Sub:- Thermodynamics (302)
UNIT-1
Q1 Explain the state of equilibrium. Also discuss thermal, chemical and mechanical equilibrium with suita
...
UESTION BANK
Sub:- Thermodynamics (302)
JAGANNATH UNIVERSITY
QUESTION BANK
Sub:- Thermodynamics (302)
UNIT-1
Q1 Explain the state of equilibrium. Also discuss thermal, chemical and mechanical equilibrium with suitable
examples.
Q2. Explain the different types of systems with neat sketches and suitable examples.
Q3. Explain Zeroth law of Thermodynamics
Q4. Define the temperature. Name the different temperature scales in common use and establish a relation between
Celsius and Fahrenheit scale.
Q5. Write short notes on following:
1 Equality of temperature
2 Law of perfect gases
3 Process and cycle
4 Point Function, Path Function
Q6. A fluid at a pressure of 3 bar and with specific volume of 0.18 m3/kg contained in a cylinder behind a piston
expands reversibly to a pressure of 0.6 bar according to a law , p=c/v2 where c is a constant .Calculate the work
done by the fluid on the piston.
Q7. What is pure substance? Draw the phase equilibrium diagram for a pure substance on T-S plot with relevant
constant property lines.
Q8. Draw the phase equilibrium diagram for a pure substance on h-s plot with relevant constant Property lines.
Q9. Pressure of the steam inside a boiler, as measured by pressure gauge, is 2 N/mm2. The barometric pressure of
the atmosphere is 765 mm of mercury. Find the absolute pressure of steam in N/m2, kPa, bar and N/mm2.
Q10. What is energy? Explain the different types of energy in detail.
UNIT-2
Q1. A) Explain First law of thermodynamics.
B) Explain and derive Steady Flow Energy Equation.
Q2. What do you mean by the term ‘ Property’? Prove that Heat and Work is not a point function.
Q3. Derive the work done for following process:
1 Isochoric process
2 Isobaric process
3 Isothermal process
4 Adiabatic process
5 Polytrophic process
Q4. Derive amount of heat transfer for the above processes in previous question.
Q5. a) Explain Second Law of Thermodynamics. Prove that violation of Kelvin Plank statement leads to violation of
Clausius statement.
b) Prove that the violation of Clausius statement leads to violation of Kelvin Plank statement.
Q6. A cyclic heat engine operates between a source temperature of 800 0C and A Sink temperature of 300C.What is
the least rate of heat rejection per KW net output of the engine?
Q7. In a steady flow process, a substance flows at the rate of 300 kg/min. It enters at a pressure of 6 bar ,a velocity
of 300 m/s internal energy2000kj/kg and specific volume 0.4 m3 kj/kg. It leaves the system at a pressure of 0.1
MPa , a velocity of 150m/s, the internal energy1600 kj/kg and specific volume 1.2 m3 . The inlet is 10 m above the
outlet. During its passage through the system the substance has a work transfer of 3 MW to the surroundings.
Determine the heat transfer in kj /s. Stating whether it is from or to the system.
Q8. Explain the difference between heat pump and refrigerator, also find the C.O.P.
Q9. A reversible heat engine operates between two reservoirs at temperature of 600oC and 40oC. The engine derives
a reversible refrigerator which operates between reservoirs at temperature of 40o C and -20o C. The heat transfer to
the engine is 2MJ and the net work output of the combined engine and refrigerator plant is 360kJ. Find the heat
transfer to the refrigerant and the net heat transfer to the reservoir at 40o C. Also find these values if the efficiencies
of heat engine and C.O.P. of refrigerator are each 40% of the maximum possible values.
Q10. Define the term ‘Entropy’. Derive an expression for change of entropy for following process.
1 Isochoric process
2 Isobaric process
3 Isothermal process
4 Adiabatic process
Q11. Write short notes on following associated with S.F.E.E.
(i) Nozzle (ii) Throttle Valve (iii) Turbine
UNIT-3
Q1 what do you understand by high grade energy and low grade energy? Deduce the expression or available energy
from a finite energy source at temperature T When the environmental temperature is T.
Q2. Derive Maxwell’s equation.
Q3. Give the Gibbs phase Rule for a non reactive system
Q4. Explain Joule Kelvin Effect. What is Inversion Temperature?
Q5. Derive the following expression
TdS=Cp dT - T(∂V/∂T)p dp
Q6. Derive an expression for clausius clapeyron equation.
Q7. Derive an expression for Joule Thomson coefficient.
Q8. A mass of 1.5kg and volume of 0.14m3 of certain gas at 40 bar is expended isentropically such that temperature
falls to 500 K. Determine
1. Initial temperature of gas
2. Work done during the process
3. Pressure at end of expansion.
Take R=0.287 kJ/kgK , and Cv=0.718 kJ/kgK
UNIT-4
Q1. With the help of p-v and T-s diagram, show that for the same maximum pressure and
temperature of the cycle and the same heat rejection,
ηDiesel > ηDual > ηOtto
Q2. Derive an expression for Efficiency in following cycles
1. Stirling Cycle
2. Air Standard Cycle
3. Bryaton Cycle
Q3. (a) Explain the working of four stroke and two stroke petrol engine with neat diagram.
(b) List out the differences between S.I. engine and C.I. engine.
Q4. Determine the efficiency of diesel engine
Q5. Derive an expression for pressure ratio, temperature ratio and efficiency for otto cycle.
Q6. Derive an expression for pressure ratio, temperature ratio and entropy difference for dual cycle.
Q7.In an air standard otto cycle, the compression ratio is 7 and the compression begins at 1 bar and 313K. the heat
added is 2510 kJ/kg. Find the
(1). Maximum temp and pressure of the cycle
(2) Work done per kg of air
(3) Cycle efficiency and mean effective pressure.
Take for air Cv=0.718kJ/kgK and R=287 J/kgK
Q8.Derive an expression of efficiency of Atkinston cycle.
Q9 Two engines are to operate on otto and diesel cycle with the following data:
Maximum temperature=1500K; Exhaust temperature=700K; Ambient conditions= 1 bar and 300K
Compare the compression ratios and maximum pressures and efficiencies of two engines.
Q10. An air engine, working on stirling cycle, has lower limit of temperature of 400oC. The maximum and
minimum pressure limits are 12 bar and 2 bar. If the expansion ratio of the cycle is 3 then find the ideal efficiency.
Q11. (a) Derive an expression for efficiency of Ericsson cycle.
(b) An Ericsson regenerative engine works between the temperature limit of 25oC and 230oC. if the ratio of
expansion is 2. Determine Work done per kg of air and efficiency of the cycle.
UNIT-5
Q1. Explain the Rankine cycle with neat diagram.
Q2. Explain the vapour compression refrigeration cycle with neat diagram.
Q3. Explain following:
(i) Avogadro’s Law
(ii) Bleeding process
(iii) Enthalpy
Q4. Define Cp& Cv. Derive following expression:
Cp-Cv =R
Q5. A cyclic steam power plant is to be designed for a steam temperature at turbine inlet of 3600C and an exhaust
pressure of 0.08bar. After isentropic expansion of steam in the turbine, the moisture content at the turbine exhaust is
not to exceed 15%. Determine the greatest allowable steam pressure at he turbine inlet, and calculate the Rankine
efficiency.
Q6. One Kg steam at a pressure of 4 bar and a dryness fraction of 0.963 is compressed isentropically until it is dry
saturated. Heat is then supplied at constant pressure until the initial volume is attained and the steam is finally
restored to its initial state by constant volume cooling. Evaluate the work and heat transfer in each step and verify
that the net work done is equal to the difference between the heat supplied and heat rejected over the cycle
Q7. In a regenerative cycle, having one feed water heater, the dry saturated steam is supplied from the boiler at a
pressure of 30 bar and condenser pressure of 1 bar. The steam is bled at a pressure of 5 bar. Determine the amount of
bled steam per kg of steam supplied and the efficiency of the cycle. What would be the efficiency without
regenerative feed heating? Also determine the percentage increase in efficiency due to regeneration.
Q8. (a) Describe regenerative feed heating as use in thermal power plant and its advantages.
(b) What is reheat factor? Explain heat with the h-s diagram.
Q9. A steam power plant uses the following cycle:
Steam at boiler outlet—150 bar, 5500C, reheat at 40bar to 5500C, condenser at0.1 bar. Find the quality at turbine
exhaust and cycle efficiency.
Q10. A refrigeration machine using R-12 as refrigerant operates between the pressures 2.5 bar and 9 bar. The
compression is isentropic and there is no under cooling in the condenser.
The vapour is in dry saturated condition at the beginning of the compression. Estimate the theoretical
coefficient of performance. If the actual coefficient of performance is 0.65 of theoretical value. Calculate the net
cooling produced per hour. The refrigerant flow is 5 kg/min. Properties of refrigerant are
Pressure (bar) | Saturation
temperature, oC | Enthalpy, kJ/kg | Entropy of
saturated vapour,
kJ/kgK
Liquid | Vapour
9.0 | 36 | 456.4 | 585.3 | 4.74
2.5 | -7 | 412.4 | 570.3 | 4.76Take C
p for superheated vapour at 9 bar as 0.67kJ/kgK.
JAGANNATH UNIVERSITY
QUESTION BANK
Sub:- Mechanics of Solids (ME 304)
UNIT 1
1 A rod 150 cm long and of diameter 2 cm is subjected to an axial pull off 10 KN. If the modulus of elasticity of the
material of the rod is2 x105N/mm2 . Determine
(i) Stress
(ii) Strain
(iii) Elongation force
2 A tensile test was conducted on a mild steel bar. The following data was obtained from the test.
(i) Diameter of the steel bar = 3 cm
(ii) Gauge length of the bar = 20 cm
(iii) Load at elastic limit = 250 kN
(iv) Extension at a load of 150 kN = 0.21 mm
(v) Minimum load = 380 kN
(vi) Total extension = 30 mm
(vii) Diameter of rod at the failure = 2.25 cm
Determine :
(a) The young's modulus (b) the stresses at elastic limit
(c) the percentage elongation, and (d) the percentage decrease in area
3 An axial pull of 30,000 N is acting on a rectangular bar . If the young modulus is 2x 105N/mm2 . Determine :
(i) Total extension of the bar
4 What is Hooke’s law? Explain proof stress, yield strength and ultimate strength of the stress-strain curve for
ductile material.
5 A brass bar, having cross - sectional area of 1000 mm2 is subjected to axial forces. Find the total elongation of the
bar. Take E=2x 105. N/mm2
6 A reinforced concrete column is 300 mm x 300 mm in section. The column is provided with 8 bars of 20 mm
diameter. The column carries a load of 360 kN. Find the stresses in concrete and the steel bars. Take Es = 2.1 x 105
N/mm2 and Ec = 0.14 x 105 N/mm2.
7 The piston of a steam engine is of 200 mm diameter and the piston rod is of 30 mm diameter. The steam pressure
is 1.2 N/mm2. Find the stress in the piston rod and the elongation of a length of 750 mm, when the piston is on the in
stroke. Take E = 2 x 105 N/mm2.
8 A rigid beam AB 4.8 m long is hinged at A and supported by two steel wires CD and EF. CD is 12 m long and 24
mm in dia and EF is 6 m long and 6 mm in dia. If a load of 2250 N is applied at B, Determine the stress in each
wire.Take 2x 105N/mm2
9 A bar is subjected to a tensile load of 200 kN Find the diameter of the middle portion if the stress there is to be
limited to 160 N/mm2 . Find also the length of the middle portion if the total elongation of the bar is to be 0.20 mm.
Take E= 2x 105N/mm2 .
10 A steel rod 20 mm in diameter passes centrally through a steel tube 35 mm internal diameter and 40 mm external
diameter. The 800 mm long tube is fastened by thread nuts. The nuts are until the compressive load on the tube is 30
kN. Calculate the stresses in the tube and the rod. Determine the increase in these stresses when nut is tightened by
one quarter of a turn relative to the other. There are 6 threaded per 10mm, Take E 2x 105N/mm2
UNIT 2
1. A point is subjected to a tensile stress of 60 N/mm2 and a compressive stress of 40 N/mm2, acting on two
mutually perpendicular planes, and a shear stress of 10 N/mm2 on these planes. Determine principal as well as
maximum shear stresses. Also find out the value of maximum shear stress.
2. The principal tensile stresses at a point across two mutually perpendicular planes are 100 N/mm2and 50 N/mm2 .
Determine the normal, tangential and resultant stresses on a plane inclined at 30_ to the axis of the minor principal
stress.
3. In a strained material at a point the principal tensile stresses across two perpendicular planes are 120 N/mm2 and
60 N/mm2 . Determine normal stress, shear stress and the resultant stress on a plane inclined at 30_ with major
principal plane. Determine also obliquity. What will be intensity of stress, which acting alone will produce the same
maximum strain if Poisson's ratio=0.25
4. The principal stresses are 100 N/mm2 tensile and 50 N/mm2 compressive at a point in a strained material.
Determine the resultant stress in magnitude and direction on a plane inclined at 60_ to the axis of the major principal
stress.What is the maximum intensity of shear stress in the material?
5. A small block is 5 cm long, 4 cm high and 0.5 cm thick. It is subjected to uniformly distributed tensile forces of
resultant 1000 kgf and 400 kgf .Determine the normal and shear stresses developed along the diagonal EF.
6. When body is subjected to two mutually perpendicular direction,the stresses are 100 N/mm2 tensile and 50
N/mm2 tensile .Each of the above stresses is accompanied by a shear stress of 60 N/mm2 . Determine the normal
stress and resultant stress on an oblique plane inclined at an angle of 45_ with the axis of minor tensile stress.
7. Compare crippling load given by Euler's and Rankine's formulae, for a hallow circular column of 2.5 m long,
having outer and inner diameters as 45 mm and 35 mm respectively, loaded through hinge joints at the ends. Taking
yield stress of column material as 310 N/mm2 , the Rankine's Constant 1 7500 and E 2x 105_ N/mm2. For what
length of column of this sectional are does the Euler's formula cases to apply
8. A rolled steel joist is to be used as a column of 3.2 meters length with both ends fixed. Find the safe axial load on
the column by Rankine formula. Assume factor of safety 3, _c _ 320 N/mm2 and a _7500and for column section,
Area _ 5626 mm2 , I xx _ 8603 107 . mm4I yy_ 4539 107 . mm4
9. When material strained at a certain point, the stresses on two planes, at right angle to each other are 30 N/mm2
and 15 N/mm2 both tensile .They are accompanied by a shear stress of 15 N/mm2 . Determine the location of
principal planes and evaluate the principal stresses
10. The principal stresses at a point in a bar are 400 N/mm2 tensile and 200 N/mm2compressive. Determine the
resultant stress and direction of plane at inclined at 60_ to the major principal stress by mohr's circle.
UNIT 3
1. A shaft section 100 mm in diameter is subjected to a bending moment of 6000 Nm and a torque of 8000 Nm. Find
the maximum direct stress induced on the section and specify the position of the plane on which it acts. Find also
what stress acting alone can produce the same maximum strain. Take poisson's ratio=1/4.
2. A flywheel weighing 8000 N is mounted on a shaft 100 mm in diameter and midway between bearing 800 mm
apart in which the shaft may be assumed to be directionally free. If shaft is transmitting 40 kW at 400 rpm. Calculate
the principal stresses and the maximum shearing stresses in the shaft at the ends of a vertical and horizontal diameter
in a plane close to the flywheel.
3. A rectangular timber beam 5 m long has to carry a uniformly distributed load of 12 kN/m and a concentrated load
of 9 kN at the mid of span. If the allowable bending stress is 8 N/mm2 , find the section taking depth as twice the
width.
4. A beam AB of 40 m span loaded as shown in fig 2.29 The beam is supported atC and D points having 8 m
overhang of the left of support C and an overhang of R meter to the right of support D. Determine the value of R if
the mind point of the beam is the point of inflexion and plot S.F.D and B.M.D.
5. A horizontal beam 10 m long carries a uniformly distributed load of 180 N/m and in addition a concentrated load
of 200 N at the left end. The beam is supported at two points 7 m apart, so chosen that each support carries half the
total load. Draw S.F. and B.M. diagram for the beam.
6. A Lintel of 4 meter span supports a brick wall of 15 cm thick. The light of the wall is 1 meter at one end and
increase uniformly to 4 meter at other end. Calculate the maximum bending moment on the beam if the bricks
weighs 23 kN/m3 . Draw S.F.D and B.M.D.
7. Draw the shear force and the bending moment diagrams for the beam shown
below:
1 kN/m 8 kN 4 kN 1.6 kN/m
A
C D B E
8. A rectangular simple supported beam 80 mm wide and 160 mm deep is used over a span if 4 m with a distributed
load of 1.5 kN/m. Find out (i) The maximum stress developed at a section 1m from the right load support (ii) The
position and magnitude of the maximum stress developed in the material of the whole
span of the beam.E
PLE
9. A timber beam of rectangular section is to support a load of 18 kN uniformly distributed over a span of 3.6
meters. If the sections to be twice the breadth and the stress in timber is not exceed 40 N/mm2 , find the cross
section. How can we modify the cross section of the beam, if it were a concentrated load placed at the centre with
the same ratio of breath to depth.
10. Explain all types of supports and loads. what do you understand by point of contraflexture
UNIT 4
1. Find the torque which a shaft of 110 mm diameter can transmit safely, if the permissible value of shear stress of
shaft material is 100 N/mm2 .
2. A hollow circular shaft of external diameter 60 mm and wall thickness 6 mm transmit a torque of 10 kNm.
Determine the maximum shear stress induced in the shaft.
3. A solid shaft subjected to a torque of 90 Nm. Find the necessary shaft diameter if the allowable shear stress is 105
N/mm2 and the allowable twist is 3 degree per 10 diameter length of the shaft. Assume G 2x 105_ N/mm2
4. Two shafts of same material and same length are subjected to same torque. One of them is solid circular shaft and
second one is hollow circular shaft having internal diameter is 3/4 th of the external diameter and maximum shear
stress induced in each of them are same. Compare the weight of of the two shafts.
5. A hollow steel shaft having internal diameter half of the external diameter transmit 150 kW at 230 rpm. If the
maximum allowable shear stress is not to exceed 8 kN/cm2 and the angle of twist is mot exceed 1_ in length of 20
times the external diameter, select suitable dimensions of shaft. Assume G 1x 104_ kN/cm2
6. A solid shaft is transmitting 760 kW at 80 rpm. If the maximum permissible stress of shaft material is 50 N/mm2,
Calculate the diameter of shaft. If this shaft is replaced by a hollow shaft having inner diameter is 0.6 of outer
diameter, what will be the percentage saving of material. The torque, maximum shear stress, the material and shafts
length are same in either cases
7. Prove that for same material, same length and same weight, a hollow shaft is always be stronger than a solid
shaft, when subjected or simple torque
8. A solid shaft of diameter 5 cm rotates at 530 rpm. It is supported in bearings so placed that the bending of shaft
will be negligible. Pulley A receive 38 kW and pullies B andC delivers 22 kW and 16 kW to another shafts
respectively. Assume G _ 8x 104_ N/cm2 . Find:
(A) Shear stress in the length AB and BC
(B) The angle of twist of the end A with respect to C
9. A shaft ABC of length 1 m has two parts AB and BC. The part AB has 60 mm external and 48 mm internal
diameter. The part BC has 60 mm external and 36 mm internal diameter. If the shear stress in the shaft is not exceed
100 N/mm2 , find the maximum power that can be transmitted at a speed of 150 r.p.m. If the angle of twist of both
part AB and BC are equal, find the length of each part.
10. Derive a relation for torque of a shaft in terms of its length, angle of twist, and modulus of rigidity.
UNIT 5
1. The load on a bolt consists of an axial pull of 20 kN together with a transverse shear of 10 kN. Determine the
diameter of the bolt according to (i) maximum principal stress theory (ii) maximum shear stress theory (iii)
maximum strain theory (iv) strain energy theory (v) shear strain energy theory. Elastics limit in tension is 300
N/mm2 and a factor of safety 2 Take µ= 0.25.
2. A body is under the action of two principal stress of 60 N/mm2 and -80 N/mm2 . If the elastic limit in simple
tension as well as compression is 200 N/mm2 . Find the factor of safety according to the five theories. Take µ= 0.25.
3. A 60 kN tensile load is gradually applied to a circular bar of
40 mm diameter and 5 m long. Determine
(i) Stretch in the rod
(ii) Stress in the rod
(iii) Strain energy absorbed by the rod. (E _ 200GN/m2 )
4. Evaluate instantaneous stress produced in a bar 1000 mm2 in area and 3m long by the sudden application of a
tensile load of unknown magnitude, If the extension of the bar due to suddenly applied load is 1.5 mm. Also
determine the suddenly applied load. Take E _ 200 GN/m2
5. A 5 m long bar is made up of two parts, 3 meter of its length has a cross-sectional area of 1000 mm2 while the
remaining 2 meter has a cross sectional area of 2000 mm2 . An axial load of 80 kN is gradually applied. Find the
total strain energy produced in the bar and compare this value with that obtained in a uniform bar
of the same length and having the same volume when under the same load. (E _ 200GN/m2 ).
6. A 10 kN weight falls by 30 mm on a collar rigidly attached to a vertical bar 4 m long and 1000 mm2 in section.
Find the instantaneous expansion of the bar, (E _ 21_105 . N/mm2 ).
7. The shear stress is produced in a material at a point is 50 N/mm2 . Find the load strain energy per unit volume
stored in the material due to shear stress Take C _ 80 GN/m2
8. Find out slope and deflection of a cantilever with uniformly distributed load on its whole length beam by double
integration method.
9. Find out slope and deflection of a simply supported beam with uniform distributed load on the whole beam by
area moment method.
10. Explain and derive castiglianos theorem.
JAGANNATH UNIVERSITY
Question Bank
Subject: Materials Science and Engineering (ME306)
Unit 1
1. Describe the difference in atomic/molecularstructure between crystalline and noncrystalline materials.
2. Draw unit cells for face-centered cubic, bodycentered cubic, and hexagonal close-packed crystal structures.
3. Derive the relationships between unit cell edge length and atomic radius for face-centered cubic
and body-centered cubic crystal structures.
4. Distinguish between single crystals and polycrystalline materials.
5. Define isotropy and anisotropy with respect to material properties.
6. Within a cubic unit cell, sketch the following directions:
( )
( )
( 0 2 0 )
( 1 0 1 )
( )
7. Determine the Miller indices for the planes shown in the given diagram of unit cell:
8. Write short notes on Polymorphism and Allotropy.
9. Explain the following:
APF
Co-ordination No.
Effective no of atoms
Burger Vector
CRSS
10. Explain the following crystal Imperfections:
Vacancies
Impurities
Frankel Defect
Edge Dislocation
Surface Defects
Unit 2
1. Describe how plastic deformation occurs by the motion of edge and screw dislocations in response to applied
shear stresses.
2. Describe how plastic deformation occurs by the motion of edge and screw dislocations in response to applied
shear stresses.
3. Define slip system and cite one example.
4. Describe how the grain structure of a polycrystalline metal is altered when it is plastically deformed.
5. Explain how grain boundaries impede dislocation motion and why a metal having small grains is stronger than
one having large grains.
6. What is preferred orientation? Explain its effects on the properties of a material.
7. Describe and explain the phenomenon of strain hardening (or cold working) in terms of dislocations and strain
field interactions.
8. Describe recrystallization in terms of both the alteration of microstructure and mechanical characteristics of the
material.
9. Describe the phenomenon of grain growth from both macroscopic and atomic perspectives.
10. Explain Twinning in detail with reference to deformation of materials. Draw proper figure and give one
example.
Unit 3
1. Cite the general mechanical characteristics for each of the following microconstituents: Pearlite, Spheroidite,
Bainite, Martensite.
2. Draw and Explain Equilibrium diagram of binary system having complete mutual solubility in liquid state and
partial solubility in solid state.
3. Explain the following:
Gibbs Phase Rule
Hume Rothery’s Rules
4. Explain Nuclear Formation and Crystal Growth.
5. Draw the Iron Carbon equilibrium diagram with detailed explanation of various phase transformations.
6. Explain the austenite phase of Fe-C diagram, its properties nad various possible transformations.
7. Write the various differences in Pearlite and Ferrite.
8. How is austenite transformed into martensite? Explain properties of Martensite and its crystal structure.
9. Draw the TTT Curve of tseel and explain it in detail. What are S-Curves?
10. Write short notes on:
Eutectic reactions
Peritectic reactions
Eutectoid reactions
Unit 4
1. Explain Annealing, its principle and applications with example.
2. What is meant by Normalizing? How is it done? What are its effects on the properties of Steel?
3. Write short notes on:
Hardening
Quenching
Tempering
4. Explain Recovery, Re-crystallization and Grain Growth with proper figure.
5. What is Hardenability? Explain the variables affecting it and any one method to determine hardenability.
6. What do you mean by Overheated or Burnt Steel? What are its causes and remedies?
7. Write down the various principles involved in heat treatment of plain carbon steels and alloy steels.
8. What is chemical heat treatment of steel? Write down its advantages and disadvantages over traditional methods
of heat treatment.
9. Explain Carburizing with details of various methods of carburizing (pack, liquid and gas carburizing)
10. Write short notes on:
Nitriding
Cyaniding
Carbo-nitriding
Unit 5
1. What is an Alloy? Why are alloying elements added to steel? How does alloying change the crystal structure of
steel?
2. Explain the effects of adding the following alloying materials to steel:
Si
Mn
Cr
Co
W
Ti
3. What are various structural classes of steels and their properties.
4. What are the various ways to classify steels?
5. What is meant by BIS? Write down the various BIS standards for Steels.
6. Explain the various fibre reinforced plastic composites, their properties and applications.
7. Explain any two basic composite manufacturing methods with proper figures.
8. Write short notes on:
Polymer-Matrix Composites
Metal-Matrix Composites
Ceramic-Matrix Composites
Carbon-Carbon Composites
9. Write down the various applications of composite materials (min. 7).
10. Cite the difference in strengthening mechanism for large-particle and dispersion-strengthened particle-reinforced
composites.
Jagannath University, Jaipur
Question Bank
Subject: Fluid Mechanics and Hydraulics (ME401)
Unit- I
Q1. Define the following fluid properties: Density, Weight Density, Specific Volume and Specific Gravity
Q2. What do you mean by Dynamic Viscosity and Kinematic Viscosity? Explain with their Dimensions.
Q3. Explain the Newton’s Law of Viscosity in detail? What are Newtonian and non-Newtonian fluids? Also draw
the Rheological diagram for various types of fluids.
Q4. Define Surface tension and derive the relationship between surface tension and pressure inside a droplet of
diameter “d”.
Q5. Explain the variation of viscosity with temperature in case of liquids and gases.
Q6. Two plates are placed at a distance of 0.15mm apart. The lower plate is fixed while the upper plate having
surface area 1.0 m2 is pulled at 0.3 nm/s. Find the force and power required to maintain this speed, if the fluid
separating them is having viscosity 1.5 poise.
Q7. A plate, 0.025 mm distant from a fixed plate, moves at 50 cm/s and requires a force of 1.471 N/ m2 to maintain
this speed. Determine the fluid viscosity between plates in the poise.
Q8. Determine the intensity of shear of an oil having viscosity =1.2 poise and is used for lubrication in the clearance
between a 10 cm diameter shaft and its journal bearing. The clearance is 1.0 mm and Shaft rotates at 200 r.p.m.
Q9. Calculate the capillary rise in glass tube of 3mm diameter when immersed in mercury; take the surface tension
and angle of contact of mercury as 0.52 N/m and 1300 respectively. Also determine the minimum size of the glass
tube, if it is immersed in water, given that the surface tension of water is 0.0725 N/m and Capillary rise in tube is not
exceed 0.5 mm.
Q10. Find the surface tension in a soap bubble of 30 mm diameter when the inside pressure is 1.962 N/m2 above
atmosphere.
Unit-2
Q1. State and prove the Pascal’s Law with figure.
Q2. What do you understand by Hydrostatic law? Derive the expression of pressure variation in a fluid at rest.
Q3. Explain U-Tube manometer and Inverted U-Tube manometer with neat sketches.
Q4. Derive the expression for the force exerted by a static fluid on a submerged vertical plate and locate the position
of center of pressure.
Q5. Explain the following terms: Buoyancy, center of buoyancy, meta-centre, meta-centric height, gauge pressure
and absolute pressure.
Q6. A U-tube differential manometer is connected two pressure pipes A and B. Pipe A contains Carbon tetrachloride
having a specific gravity 1.594 under a pressure of 11.772 N/ Cm2 and pipe B contain oil of specific gravity 0.8
under pressure 11.72 N/ Cm2 . The pipe A lies 2.5 m above pipe B. Find the difference of pressure measured by
mercury as a fluid filling U-tube.
Q7. A wooden block of width 2 m, depth 1.5 m and length 4 m floats horizontally in water. Find the volume of
water displaced and position of centre of buoyancy. Specific gravity of wood block is 0.7.
Q8. A metallic body floats at the interface of mercury (Sp. Gr. 13.6) and water in such a way that 30% of its volume
is submerged in mercury and 70% in water. Find the density of the metallic body.
Q9. Determine the total pressure and centre of pressure on an isosceles triangular plate of base 5 m and altitude 5 m
when the plate is immersed vertically in an oil of sp. Gr. 0.8, the base of the plate is 1 meter below the free surface
of water.
Q10. A hydraulic press has a ram of 30 cm diameter and a plunger of 5 cm diameter. Find the weight lifted by the
hydraulic press when the force applied at the plunger is 400 N.
Unit 3
Q1. Explain the terms:
Path Line
Stream Line
Streak Line
Stream Tube
Q2. Explain the following with one practical example of each:
Laminar Flow
Turbulent Flow
Steady Flow
Uniform Flow
Rotational Flow
Compressible Flow
Q3. Define the continuity equation stating the underlying principle. Derive an expression for continuity equation in
a 3-D flow.
Q4. Define the following:
Total Acceleration
Convective Acceleration
Local Acceleration
Velocity Potential Function
Stream Function
Q5. Write Short Notes on:
Free Vortex Flow
Forced Vortex Flow
Equipotential line
Conditions for flow to be Irrotational
Q6. A 30 cm diameter pipe carries oil of specific gravity 0.8 at a velocity of 2 m/s. at another section in the same
pipe the diameter is 20 cm. Find the velocity at this section and also mass rate of flow of oil.
Q7. Find out the missing velocity component in the following cases:
u=4x2 + 3xy; w= z3 – 4xy – 2yz; v=?
u= 2x2 + 2xy; w= z3 – 4xz + 2yz; v=?
Q8. A fluid flow is given by: V=xy2i – 2yz2j – [zy2 – (2z3/3)]k; Prove that it is a case of possible steady
incompressible fluid flow. Also calculate the velocity and acceleration at the point (1,2,3).
Q9. The velocity potential function φ = x2-y2. Find the velocity components in x and y directions. also show that ‘φ’
represents a possible case of fluid flow.
Q10. The stream function ψ= 2x – 5y. Calculate the velocity components and also the magnitude and direction of
the resultant velocity at any point.
Unit-4
Q1. Derive Euler’s equation for fluid flow. Obtain Bernoulli’s equation from Euler’s equation stating the
assumptions made.
Q2. What is a Venturimeter? Derive an expression for discharge through a venturimeter. Discuss its merits and
demerits with respect to an orificemeter.
Q3. What is a Pitot Tube? How can we determine the velocity at any point in a fluid flow with the help of Pitot
tube? What is Pitot static tube?
Q4. State the following with examples where they are used:
Momentum Equation
Impulse Momentum Equation
Q5. Define:
Orifice
Mouthpiece
Cv
Cd
Cc
Q6. The head of water over the centre of an orifice of diameter 30 mm is 1.5 m. The actual discharge through the
orifice is 2.35 litres/sec; Find Cd.
Q7. The water is flowing in a taper pipe of length 50 m having diameters 40 mm and 20 mm at the upper and lower
ends respectively. The pipe has a slope of 1 in 40 and the rate of flow is 60litres/sec. find the pressure at the lower
end if the pressure at the higher end is 24.525 N/cm2.
Q8. A 30 cm x 15 cm venturimeter is inserted in a vertical pipe carrying oil of specific gravity 0.8, flowing in
upward direction. A differential mercury manometer connected to its inlet and throat gives a reading of 30 cm. find
the discharge taking Cd=0.98.
Q9. Find the velocity of flow of oil through a pipe, when the difference of mercury level in a differential manometer
connected to the two tappings of the pitot tube is 15 cm. Take coefficient of pitot tube = 0.98 and sp. gr. of oil as
0.8.
Q10. 250litres/sec of water is flowing in a pipe of diameter 3 mm. if the pipe is bent by 35˚ (initial to final
direction), find the magnitude and direction of the resultant force on the bend. the pressure of water flowing is 39.24
N/cm2.
Unit-5
Q1. What do you understand by the following terms :
Major and Minor energy losses in pipes
Hydraulic gradient line
Pipes in parallel
Equivalent pipe
Q2. Find an expression for power transmission through pipes. What is the condition for maximum power
transmission and corresponding efficiency of power transmission?
Q3. Prove that the head loss due to friction is equal to one third of the total head at inlet for maximum power
transmission through pipes.
Q4. A main pipe divides into two parallel pipes, which again forms one pipe. The length and diameter for the first
parallel pipe are 2000 m and 1 m respectively, while the length and diameter of second parallel pipe are 2000 m and
0.8 m respectively. Find the rate of flow in each parallel pipe, if total flow in the main is 3m³/s. The coefficient of
friction for each parallel pipe is same and equal to 0.005.
Q5. A pipe line carrying oil of specific gravity 0.85, changes in diameter from 350 mm at position 1 to 550 mm
diameter to a position 2, which is at 6 m at a higher level. If the pressure at position 1 and 2 are taken as 20 N/cm2
and 15 N/ cm2 respectively and discharge through the pipe is 0.2m³/s, determine the loss of head.
Q6. The rate of flow of water through a horizontal pipe is 0.3 m³/s. The diameter of the pipe is suddenly enlarged
from 25 cm to 50 cm. The pressure intensity in the smaller pipe is 14N/m². Determine (i) Loss of head due to sudden
enlargement, (ii)Pressure intensity in the large pipe and iii)Power lost due to enlargement.
Q7. Water is flowing through a tapering pipe of length 200 m having diameters 500 mm at the upper end and 250
mm at the lower end, the pipe has a slope of 1 in 40. The rate of flow through the pipe is 250 lit/sec. the pressure at
the lower end and the upper end are 20 N/cm² and 10 N/cm² respectively. Find the loss of head and direction of
flow.
Q8. Determine the length of an equivalent pipe of diameter 20 cm and friction factor 0.02 for a given pipe system
discharging 0.1m³/s. The pipe system consists of the following:
(i) A 10 m line of 20 cm dia with f=0.03
(ii) Three 9 ˚ bend, k=0.5 for each
(iii) Two sudden expansion of diameter 20 cm to 30 cm.
Q9. A pipeline of length 2100 m is used for transmitting 103 kW. The pressure at the inlet of pipe is 392.4 N/cm2. If
the efficiency of transmission is 80%, find the diameter of pipe. Take f=0.005.
Q10. A pipe of diameter 25 cm and length 2000 m connects two reservoirs having a 25 m difference in water levels.
Determine the discharge through the pipe. If an additional pipe of diameter 25 cm ans length 1000 m is attached to
the last 1000 m length of the existing pipe, find the increase in discharge. Take f= 0.015 and neglect minor losses.
JAGANNATH UNIVERSITY
QUESTION BANK
SUBJECT-Automobile Engineering (ME-402)
UNIT 1
Q1. What do you understand by chassis? List the various components of the Chassis by sketching a layout of the
same.
Q2. What are the types of frames? What are the merits and demerits of the frameless construction over frame type
Construction of the vehicle.
Q3. What are the functions and requirements of a clutch? Explain the construction and working of a centrifugal
clutch.
Q4. What are the types of clutch operations? Explain the Hydraulic operation of a single plate clutch.
Q5. What are the functions of the Manual Transmission? Explain the construction and working of the
Synchromesh
Gear Box.
Q6.What are needs of the Automatic Transmission? Explain the construction and working of the Torque
Converter?
Q7 What are three active members of the planetary gear set? Write down their functions.
Q8.What is the difference between constant-mesh and synchromesh transmission? Describe any one of them.
Q9.What is the purpose of a steering system? State the requirements of good steering system.
Q10 Describe factors which pertain to steering geometry.
UNIT 2
Q .How the ‘King pin inclination’ produce directional stability.
Q12.Define and explain the following:
a. Camber angle
b. Caster angle
c. Toe-in
d. Toe-out
Q 3 “Battery is the heart of the electrical system in the automobile” Explain.
Q14.Explain the different type of battery. What do you understand by recharging of the battery?
Q15.Explain the following tests conducted to ascertain the conditions of battery:
a. Specific gravity test
b. Open volt test
c. High rate discharge test
d. Cadmium test
Q16.Enumerate the factors which affect battery life.
Q17. Discuss the construction and working of the starting motor for automobiles
Q18.What is different type of starting motor drives in current practices?
Q19. Explain briefly the Bendix drive and Over running drive..
Q20. Why the generator is required in the electrical system of a car?
UNIT 3
Q21.Explain the working principle and construction of an alternator.
Q22. What is the type of generators used in modern cars?
Q23.What do you mean by term ‘Ignition’? How is it related with “combustion’?
Q24.What are the requirements of the ignition system for an I.C. Engines?
Q25.Describe with the help of a neat sketch explain a battery ignition system.
Q26. Name the various components of a battery ignition system and explain any three of them briefly.
Q27.What are difference between battery and magneto ignition system?
Q28.State the advantage and disadvantage of the battery ignition system.
Q29. What do you mean by term ‘Ignition’? How is it related with “combustion’?
Q30.Draw a simplified wiring circuit for the lighting system of a car and discuss the same.
UNIT 4
Q31.Draw a layout of the air-conditioning system for a car and explain its working.
Q32.State the advantage and disadvantage of light alloy casting wheels.
Q33.What are functions of a tire?
Q34.Explain the components of leaf spring suspension system?
Q35.Describe briefly the following three basic suspension movements of a car:
a. Bouncing
b. Rolling
c. Pitching
Q36.Explain the working of centrifugal clutch with a suitable clutch..
Q38.What is the difference between ‘fluid coupling’ and ‘Hydraulic torque converter’?
Q39.What purposes are served by a gear box in the transmission system of an automobile?.
Q40.With the help of neat sketch explain the construction and working of multi plate clutch??
UNIT 5
Q41.Explain the working of automobile air-conditioning.
Q42.What is the purpose of the receiver-drier in automobile air-conditioning?
Q43.What purposes are served by a gear box in the transmission system of an automobile?.
Q44.How you perform the gravity test for automobile battery?
Q45.What is the function of a starting motor in automobile and explain the working principle of the same?
Q46. What is working of Bendix drive ,explain with neat sketch.
Q47.What is the purpose of the alternator in automobile and explain the construction and working of the same?
Q48.What you mean by battery rating and how you measure it in automobile batteries?.
Q49.Explain the battery charging methods in automobile battery?
Q50.What is the steering knuckle and pitman arm and explain the purpose of these with neat sketch?
JAGANNATH UNIVERSITY,JAIPUR
Questions Bank
Kinematics of machines (ME 403)
UNIT 1
Q1. What do you understand by dynamics of machine ,kinematics of machine and kinetics.
Q2. Give the definition of elements and pair. Classify both of them with suitable examples.
Q3. What do you understand by mechanism and also explain inversion of mechanism.
Q4. Define kinematic pairs , explain types of kinematic pairs and also explain types of constrained motion.
Q5. Explain inversion of mechanism . explain four bar chain and its inversion with diagrams.
Q6. Explain inversion of single slider crank chain and double slider crank chain.
Q7. In a pin jointed four bar mechanism ABCD. AB=300 mm, BC=CD=360 mm, and AD=600 mm. The angle
BAD=600. The crank AB rotates uniformly at 100 rpm. Locate all the instantaneous centres and find the angular
velocity of BC.
Q8. In a four bar chain ABCD , AD is fixed and is 150 mm long. The crank AB is 40 mm long and rotates at 120
rpm clockwise, while the link CD=80 mm oscillates about D. BC and AD are of equal length. Find the angular
velocity of the link CD when angle BAD=600.
Q9. The crank of a slider crank mechanism rotates clockwise at a constant speed of 300 rpm. The crank is 150 mm
and the connecting rod is 600 mm long. Determine : 1. Linear velocity and acceleration of the mid point of the
connecting rod, and 2. Angular velocity and angular acceleration of the connecting rod, at a crank angle of 450 from
the inner dead centre position.
Q10. Explain coriolis component.
UNIT -2
Q1. Explain Davis and Ackerman steering mechanism with diagrams.
Q2. Explain trifler suspension with diagram.
Q3. Drive a relation for slip of the belt.
Q4. Explain relation for length of open belt and crossed belt.
Q5. Find a relation for power transmitted by a belt.
Q6.Drive length of the open belt drive in terms of diameters of the pulleys and distance between centre’s of the
pulley.
Q7. In a flat belt drive the initial tension is 2000 N. The coefficient of friction between the belt and the pulley is 0.3
and the angle of lap on the smaller pulley is 1500. The smaller pulley has a radius of 200 mm and rotates at 500
r.p.m. Find the power in KW transmitted by the belt.
Q8. Derive a relation for ratio of driving tensions for flat belt and V belt drive.
Q9. Find the power transmitted by a belt running over a pulley of 600 mm diameter at 200 rpm. The coefficient of
friction between belt and the pulley is .25, angle of lap is 1600 and the maximum tension in the belt is 2500 N.
Q10. Drive a condition for the transmission of maximum power.
UNIT -3
Q1.Drive a relation for minimum frictional torque for flat pivotal bearing in case of
a) Uniform pressure
b) Uniform wear?
Q2. Explain friction and also give classification of friction.
Q3. Find out minimum effort required to move a body up on a rough inclined plane.
Q4. An effort of 1500 N is required to just move a certain body up an inclined plane of angle 120, force acting
parallel to the plane. If the angle of inclination is increased to 150, then the effort required is 1720 N. find the weight
of the body and the coefficient of friction.
Q5. Draw a labeled diagram of screw jack and also find out an expression for torque required to lift the load by a
screw jack.
Q6.Drive a relation for minimum frictional torque for conical clutch in case of
a) Uniform pressure
b) Uniform wear?
Q7. What do you understand by a clutch and explain various types of clutches.
Q8. Determine the maximum, minimum and average pressure in plate clutch when the axial force is 4 KN. The
inside radius of the contact surface is 50 mm and the outside radius is 100 mm. assume uniform wear.
Q9. An engine developing 45 KW at 100 rpm is fitted with a cone clutch built inside the flywheel. The cone has a
face angle of 12.50 and a maximum mean diameter of 500 mm. the coefficient of friction is 0.2 . the normal pressure
on the clutch face is not to exceed 0.1 N/mm2.
Determine : 1. The axial spring force necessary to engage the clutch,
2. the face width required.
Q10. What do you understand by centrifugal clutch, explain with diagram and find out an expression for torque
transmitted by centrifugal clutch.
UNIT -4
Q1. what do you understand by brake and Explain all types of brakes.
Q2. Derive a relation for braking torque for a differential band brake.
Q3. Derive a relation for braking torque required for a single shoe brake in all the three cases.
Q4. Find an expression for braking torque for a simple band brake
Q5. A band brake acts on the 3/4th of circumference of a drum of 450 mm diameter which is keyed to the shaft. The
band brake provides a braking torque of 225 N-m. one end of the band is attached to a fulcrum pin of the lever and
the other end to a pin 100 mm from the fulcrum. If the operating force is applied at 500 mm from the fulcrum and
the coefficient of friction is 0.25, find the operating force when the drum rotates in 1) anticlockwise direction 2)
clockwise direction.
Q6. Find an expression for braking torque required for band and block brake .
Q7. A car moving on level road at a speed of 50 km/hr has a wheel base of 2.8 meters, distance of C.G from ground
level 600 mm, and the distance of C.G from rear wheel 1.2 meters. Find the distance travelled by the car before
coming to rest when brakes are applied,
1) To the rear wheels
2) To the front wheels
3) To all the four wheels
4) The coefficient of friction is 0.6.
Q8. Explain dynamometer, how it is different from the brake and give classifications of the dynamometer.
Q9. Find out an expression for brake power by prony brake dynamometer.
Q10. Find out an expression for power transmitted by an epicyclic train dynamometer
UNIT 5
Q1. What do you understand by cam, give its function and also type of motion it provides.
Q2. Give the classification of cams with neat diagrams and explain their motions
Q3. Draw a cam and follower arrangement. classify followers with their applications.
Q4. Draw displacement, velocity and acceleration diagram for a motion with uniform velocity.
Q5. A cam is to give the following motion to a knife edge follower:
1. Outstroke during 1200 of the cam rotation; 2. Dwell for the next 300 of
cam rotation; 3.Return stroke during next 600 of cam rotation, and 4.Dwell for
the remaining 1500 of the cam rotation.
The stroke of the follower is 50 mm and the minimum radius of the cam is 50 mm. The follower moves with
uniform acceleration and uniform retardation during both the outstroke and return strokes. Draw the profile of the
cam when the axis of the follower passes through the axis of the cam shaft.
Q6. Draw displacement, velocity and acceleration diagram for a motion with uniform acceleration and uniform
retardation.
Q7.A cam is to give the following motion to a knife edge follower:
1. Outstroke during 600 of the cam rotation; 2. Dwell for the next 300 cam rotation;
3.Return stroke during next 600 of cam rotation, and 4.Dwell for the remaining 2100 of
the cam rotation.
The stroke of the follower is 40 mm and the minimum radius of the cam is 50 mm.The follower moves with
uniform velocity during both the outstroke and return strokes. Draw the profile of the cam when the axis of the
follower passes through the axis of the cam shaft.
Q8. Draw displacement, velocity and acceleration diagram for a motion with cycloidal motion.
Q9. A cam is to give the following motion to a knife edge follower:
1. Outstroke during 900 of the cam rotation; 2. Dwell for the next 300 of cam rotation; 3.Return stroke
during next 600 of cam rotation, and 4.Dwell for the remaining 1800 of the cam rotation.
The stroke of the follower is 40 mm and the minimum radius of the cam is 50 mm. The follower moves with
simple harmonic motion during both the outstroke and return strokes. Draw the profile of the cam when the axis of
the follower passes through the axis of the cam shaft.
Q10. Draw displacement, velocity and acceleration diagram for a motion with simple harmonic motion.
JAGANNATH UNIVERSITY
Question Bank
Manufacturing Process (ME 405)
Unit-I
1-What do you mean by manufacturing process? Give the classification of
manufacturing processes in detail?
2- a) What is pattern? Enlist its various types.
b) Enlist various types of pattern materials in detail.
3-What is the function of allowances explain its various types with neat sketch in
detail?
4- a) Explain various types of moulding sands which are used in foundry.
b) Enlist various properties of moulding sand.
5- Explain any two sand test in detail
a. Clay content
b. Permeability test
c. Moisture content
6- a) Explain the various properties of moulding sands.
b) What is the purpose of core, core pin, chaplet explain.
7- Explain the detail working procedure of green sand moulding with neat sketch.
8- a) What is the difference between Hot chamber and Cold chamber casting
explain.
b) Give the classification of various casting processes. Explain Shell-Mould
casting with neat sketch.
9- What is casting defect? Explain any five types of casting defects with their
remedies.
10- a) Explain the working principal of injection molding and its applications.
b) Explain the working principal of centrifugal casting and its applications.
11- Write the classification of furnaces? Explain the working of cupola furnace and
give its advantages and disadvantages.
UNIT II
1-a) Give the detail classification of various welding processes.
b) Write short note on welding, soldering, brazing and braze welding.
2-Write short note on:
a) Plasma arc welding
b) Electron beam welding.
3- Explain SMAW process in detail with its advantages and disadvantages.
4- Explain in detail GMAW process. Also give its advantages and disadvantages.
5-What is LASER? Explain laser welding with its advantages and
disadvantages.
6-Explain the working principal of
a) SAW process
b) MAG welding process
7- a) Describe the types of flame obtained in oxy- acetylene gas welding
process giving the applications.
b) Explain the working principal of Thermit welding.
8- How the cast iron hook or anchor repair by welding explain.
9- What is resistance welding? Draw a sketch to illustrate a typical technique used
to obtain heat balance in spot welding of dissimilar metals.
10- a) What are the various materials use for electrode coating enlist.
b) Explain friction welding with neat sketch.
UNIT III
1- a) Differentiate elastic and plastic deformation of metal.
b) What are the main characteristics of hot working as compared to cold
working processes?
2- a) Define forging, upsetting, edging, punching operations
b) What are the advantage and limitations of hot rolling
3- a) Explain following forming processes extrusion, wire and tube drawing
processes.
b) What do you understand by term strain hardening explain.
4- What are the various causes of forming process defects explain also explain its
various types.
5- a) Explain cold working process as squeezing, coining, embossing, and piercing.
b) Explain the working principal of hot rolling process with neat sketch
6- a) What is "grain flow” in forming process.
b) Distinguish between wire drawing and tube drawing with sketches
7- a) Explain with neat sketches of upsetting and drawing operations
b) What is extrusion and embossing process explain with neat sketch.
8- Explain the working principal of pneumatic hammer.
9- What do you understand by term forging hammer and press
10- Explain various types of forging tool with neat sketch.
11- Explain the term hot and cold forging in detail also enlist various process
UNIT-IV
1- What is powder metallurgy? Brief the importance of powder metallurgy.
2- What is sintering? Explain its various types.
3- What is atomization? Explain its various methods for making of metal powder.
4- What are the various properties of metal powder explain in detail.
5- What are the various advantage, disadvantages and application of powder
metallurgy?
6- a) Describe the process of blending, compacting and sintering in powder
metallurgy.
b) List the advantage, disadvantage and application of powder metallurgy
7- a) Why we introduce rapid prototyping in our manufacturing system explain the
history.
b) Enlist the advantages, disadvantages and application of rapid prototyping.
8- Explain subtractive processes, additive processes in detail
9- Enlist various rapid prototyping processes? Explain FDM process in detail.
10- What are the future aspects of rapid prototyping as compare to other
manufacturing process explain in detail
Unit V
1- What is plastic? Give detail classification of plastic.
2- Explain various Ingredients of plastic moulding compounds.
3- Discuss general properties of plastics and resins.
4- a) Give the detail classification of plastic moulding process?
b) Write short notes on following:
i) Compression moulding of plastics ii) Injection moulding of plastics
5- Explain with neat sketch injection moulding process with its application
6- Explain the term extrusion moulding in detail.
7- Write short note on following:
i) Blow moulding ii) Laminating
8- What is thermosetting and thermoplastic polymers explain in detail.
9- Write short note on:
a) Slush moulding b) Calendaring
10- Give the advantages, disadvantages and application of plastic technology.
JAGANNATH UNIVERSITY,JAIPUR
QUESTIONS BANK
Sub:-Design of Machine Element-I (ME 406)
UNIT-1
1. Explain the General Considerations in Machine Design.
2. E
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