TEST_BANK Medical-Surgical Nursing, 10th Edition - University of Nevada | 68 Chapters

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Chapter 01: Professional Nursing Practice Lewis: Medical-Surgical Nursing, 10th Edition 68 chapters MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The nurse completes an admission database and explains that the plan of care ... and discharge goals will be developed with the patient’s input. The patient states, “How is this different from what the doctor does?” Which response would be most appropriate for the nurse to make? a. “The role of the nurse is to administer medications and other treatments prescribed by your doctor.” b. “The nurse’s job is to help the doctor by collecting information and communicating any problems that occur.” c. “Nurses perform many of the same procedures as the doctor, but nurses are with the patients for a longer time than the doctor.” d. “In addition to caring for you while you are sick, the nurses will assist you to develop an individualized plan to maintain your health.” ANS: D This response is consistent with the American Nurses Association (ANA) definition of nursing, which describes the role of nurses in promoting health. The other responses describe some of the dependent and collaborative functions of the nursing role but do not accurately describe the nurse’s role in the health care system. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 3 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment 2. The nurse describes to a student nurse how to use evidence-based practice guidelines when caring for patients. Which statement, if made by the nurse, would be the most accurate? a. “Inferences from clinical research studies are used as a guide.” b. “Patient care is based on clinical judgment, experience, and traditions.” c. “Data are evaluated to show that the patient outcomes are consistently met.” d. “Recommendations are based on research, clinical expertise, and patient preferences.” ANS: D Evidence-based practice (EBP) is the use of the best research-based evidence combined with clinician expertise. Clinical judgment based on the nurse’s clinical experience is part of EBP, but clinical decision making should also incorporate current research and research-based guidelines. Evaluation of patient outcomes is important, but interventions should be based on research from randomized control studies with a large number of subjects. DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember (knowledge) REF: 15 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment 3. The nurse teaches a student nurse about how to apply the nursing process when providing patient care. Which statement, if made by the student nurse, indicates that teaching was successful? a. “The nursing process is a scientific-based method of diagnosing the patient’s health care problems.” b. “The nursing process is a problem-solving tool used to identify and treat patients’health care needs.” c. “The nursing process is used primarily to explain nursing interventions to other health care professionals.” d. “The nursing process is based on nursing theory that incorporates the biopsychosocial nature of humans.” ANS: B The nursing process is a problem-solving approach to the identification and treatment of patients’ problems. Diagnosis is only one phase of the nursing process. The primary use of the nursing process is in patient care, not to establish nursing theory or explain nursing interventions to other health care professionals. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 5 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment 4. A patient has been admitted to the hospital for surgery and tells the nurse, “I do not feel comfortable leaving my children with my parents.” Which action should the nurse take next? a. Reassure the patient that these feelings are common for parents. b. Have the patient call the children to ensure that they are doing well. c. Gather more data about the patient’s feelings about the child-care arrangements. d. Call the patient’s parents to determine whether adequate child care is being provided. ANS: C Because a complete assessment is necessary in order to identify a problem and choose an appropriate intervention, the nurse’s first action should be to obtain more information. The other actions may be appropriate, but more assessment is needed before the best intervention can be chosen. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 6 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity 5. A patient who is paralyzed on the left side of the body after a stroke develops a pressure ulcer on the left hip. Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate? a. Impaired physical mobility related to left-sided paralysis b. Risk for impaired tissue integrity related to left-sided weakness c. Impaired skin integrity related to altered circulation and pressure d. Ineffective tissue perfusion related to inability to move independently ANS: C The patient’s major problem is the impaired skin integrity as demonstrated by the presence of a pressure ulcer. The nurse is able to treat the cause of altered circulation and pressure by frequently repositioning the patient. Although left-sided weakness is a problem for the patient, the nurse cannot treat the weakness. The “risk for” diagnosis is not appropriate for this patient, who already has impaired tissue integrity. The patient does have ineffective tissue perfusion, but the impaired skin integrity diagnosis indicates more clearly what the health problem is. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 7 TOP: Nursing Process: Diagnosis MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity6. A patient with a bacterial infection has a nursing diagnosis of deficient fluid volume related to excessive diaphoresis. Which outcome would the nurse recognize as appropriate for this patient? a. Patient has a balanced intake and output. b. Patient’s bedding is changed when it becomes damp. c. Patient understands the need for increased fluid intake. d. Patient’s skin remains cool and dry throughout hospitalization. ANS: A This statement gives measurable data showing resolution of the problem of deficient fluid volume that was identified in the nursing diagnosis statement. The other statements would not indicate that the problem of deficient fluid volume was resolved. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 7 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 7. A nurse asks the patient if pain was relieved after receiving medication. What is the purpose of the evaluation phase of the nursing process? a. To determine if interventions have been effective in meeting patient outcomes b. To document the nursing care plan in the progress notes of the medical record c. To decide whether the patient’s health problems have been completely resolved d. To establish if the patient agrees that the nursing care provided was satisfactory ANS: A Evaluation consists of determining whether the desired patient outcomes have been met and whether the nursing interventions were appropriate. The other responses do not describe the evaluation phase. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 5 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment 8. The nurse interviews a patient while completing the health history and physical examination. What is the purpose of the assessment phase of the nursing process? a. To teach interventions that relieve health problems b. To use patient data to evaluate patient care outcomes c. To obtain data with which to diagnose patient problems d. To help the patient identify realistic outcomes for health problems ANS: C During the assessment phase, the nurse gathers information about the patient to diagnose patient problems. The other responses are examples of the planning, intervention, and evaluation phases of the nursing process. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 5 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment 9. Which nursing diagnosis statement is written correctly? a. Altered tissue perfusion related to heart failure b. Risk for impaired tissue integrity related to sacral redness c. Ineffective coping related to response to biopsy test results d. Altered urinary elimination related to urinary tract infectionANS: C This diagnosis statement includes a NANDA nursing diagnosis and an etiology that describes a patient’s response to a health problem that can be treated by nursing. The use of a medical diagnosis as an etiology (as in the responses beginning “Altered tissue perfusion” and “Altered urinary elimination”) is not appropriate. The response beginning “Risk for impaired tissue integrity” uses the defining characteristic as the etiology. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 7 TOP: Nursing Process: Diagnosis MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment 10. The nurse admits a patient to the hospital and develops a plan of care. What components should the nurse include in the nursing diagnosis statement? a. The problem and the suggested patient goals or outcomes b. The problem with possible causes and the planned interventions c. The problem, its cause, and objective data that support the problem d. The problem with an etiology and the signs and symptoms of the problem ANS: D When writing nursing diagnoses, this format should be used: problem, etiology, and signs and symptoms. The subjective, as well as objective, data should be included in the defining characteristics. Interventions and outcomes are not included in the nursing diagnosis statement. DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember (knowledge) REF: 7 TOP: Nursing Process: Diagnosis MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment 11. A nurse is caring for a patient with heart failure. Which task is appropriate for the nurse to delegate to experienced unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Monitor for shortness of breath or fatigue after ambulation. b. Instruct the patient about the need to alternate activity and rest. c. Obtain the patient’s blood pressure and pulse rate after ambulation. d. Determine whether the patient is ready to increase the activity level. ANS: C UAP education includes accurate vital sign measurement. Assessment and patient teaching require registered nurse education and scope of practice and cannot be delegated. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 11 OBJ: Special Questions: Delegation TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment 12. A nurse is caring for a group of patients on the medical-surgical unit with the help of one float registered nurse (RN), one unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP), and one licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN). Which assignment, if delegated by the nurse, would be inappropriate? a. Measurement of a patient’s urine output by UAP b. Administration of oral medications by LPN/LVN c. Check for the presence of bowel sounds and flatulence by UAP d. Care of a patient with diabetes by RN who usually works on the pediatric unit ANS: CAssessment requires RN education and scope of practice and cannot be delegated to an LPN/LVN or UAP. The other assignments made by the RN are appropriate. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 11 OBJ: Special Questions: Delegation TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment 13. Which task is appropriate for the nurse to delegate to a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)? a. Complete the initial admission assessment and plan of care. b. Document teaching completed before a diagnostic procedure. c. Instruct a patient about low-fat, reduced sodium dietary restrictions. d. Obtain bedside blood glucose on a patient before insulin administration. ANS: D The education and scope of practice of the LPN/LVN include activities such as obtaining glucose testing using a finger stick. Patient teaching and the initial assessment and development of the plan of care are nursing actions that require registered nurse education and scope of practice. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 11 OBJ: Special Questions: Delegation TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment 14. A nurse is assigned as a case manager for a hospitalized patient with a spinal cord injury. The patient can expect the nurse functioning in this role to perform which activity? a. Care for the patient during hospitalization for the injuries. b. Assist the patient with home care activities during recovery. c. Determine what medical care the patient needs for optimal rehabilitation. d. Coordinate the services that the patient receives in the hospital and at home. ANS: D The role of the case manager is to coordinate the patient’s care through multiple settings and levels of care to allow the maximal patient benefit at the least cost. The case manager does not provide direct care in either the acute or home setting. The case manager coordinates and advocates for care but does not determine what medical care is needed; that would be completed by the health care provider or other provider. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 9 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment 15. The nurse is caring for an older adult patient who had surgery to repair a fractured hip. The patient needs continued nursing care and physical therapy to improve mobility before returning home. The nurse will help to arrange for transfer of this patient to which facility? a. A skilled care facility c. A transitional care facility b. A residential care facility d. An intermediate care facility ANS: CTransitional care settings are appropriate for patients who need continued rehabilitation before discharge to home or to long-term care settings. The patient is no longer in need of the more continuous assessment and care given in acute care settings. There is no indication that the patient will need the permanent and ongoing medical and nursing services available in intermediate or skilled care. The patient is not yet independent enough to transfer to a residential care facility. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 8 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment 16. A home care nurse is planning care for a patient who has just been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which task is appropriate for the nurse to delegate to the home health aide? a. Assist the patient to choose appropriate foods. b. Help the patient with a daily bath and oral care. c. Check the patient’s feet for signs of breakdown. d. Teach the patient how to monitor blood glucose. ANS: B Assisting with patient hygiene is included in home health-aide education and scope of practice. Assessment of the patient and instructing the patient in new skills, such as diet and blood glucose monitoring, are complex skills that are included in registered nurse education and scope of practice. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 11 OBJ: Special Questions: Delegation TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment 17. The nurse is providing education to nursing staff on quality care initiatives. Which statement is an accurate description of the impact of health care financing on quality care? a. “If a patient develops a catheter-related infection, the hospital receives additional funding.” b. “Payment for patient care is primarily based on clinical outcomes and patient satisfaction.” c. “Hospitals are reimbursed for all costs incurred if care is documented electronically.” d. “Because hospitals are accountable for overall care, it is not nursing’s responsibility to monitor care delivered by others.” ANS: B Payment for health care services programs reimburses hospitals for their performance on overall quality-of-care measures. These measures include clinical outcomes and patient satisfaction. Nurses are responsible for coordinating complex aspects of patient care, including the care delivered by others, and identifying issues that are associated with poor quality care. Payment for care can be withheld if something happens to the patient that is considered preventable (e.g., acquiring a catheter-related urinary tract infection). DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 4 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment18. The nurse documenting the patient’s progress in the care plan in the electronic health record before an interprofessional discharge conference is demonstrating competency in which QSEN category? a. Patient-centered care c. Evidence-based practice b. Quality improvement d. Informatics and technology ANS: D The nurse is displaying competency in the QSEN area of informatics and technology. Using a computerized information system to document patient needs and progress and communicate vital information regarding the patient with the interprofessional care team members provides evidence that nursing practice standards related to the nursing process have been maintained during the care of the patient. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 13 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. Which information will the nurse consider when deciding what nursing actions to delegate to a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN) who is working on a medical-surgical unit (select all that apply)? a. Institutional policies b. Stability of the patient c. State nurse practice act d. LPN/LVN teaching abilities e. Experience of the LPN/LVN ANS: A, B, C, E The nurse should assess the experience of LPN/LVNs when delegating. In addition, state nurse practice acts and institutional policies must be considered. In general, whereas the LPN/LVN scope of practice includes caring for patients who are stable, registered nurses should provide most of the care for unstable patients. Because the LPN/LVN scope of practice does not include patient education, this will not be part of the delegation process. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 11 OBJ: Special Questions: Delegation TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment 2. The nurse is administering medications to a patient. Which actions by the nurse during this process are consistent with promoting safe delivery of care (select all that apply)? a. Throws away a medication that is not labeled b. Uses a hand sanitizer before preparing a medication c. Identifies the patient by the room number on the door d. Checks laboratory test results before administering a diuretic e. Gives the patient a list of current medications upon discharge ANS: A, B, D, ENational Patient Safety Goals have been established to promote safe delivery of care. The nurse should use at least two reliable ways to identify the patient such as asking the patient’s full name and date of birth before medication administration. Other actions that improve patient safety include performing hand hygiene, disposing of unlabeled medications, completing appropriate assessments before administering medications, and giving a list of the current medicines to the patient and caregiver before discharge. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 12 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment OTHER 1. The nurse uses the Situation-Background-Assessment-Recommendation (SBAR) format to communicate a change in patient status to a health care provider. In which order should the nurse make the following statements? (Put a comma and a space between each answer choice [A, B, C, D].) a. “The patient needs to be evaluated immediately and may need intubation and mechanical ventilation.” b. “The patient was admitted yesterday with heart failure and has been receiving furosemide (Lasix) for diuresis, but urine output has been low.” c. “The patient has crackles audible throughout the posterior chest, and the most recent oxygen saturation is 89%. Her condition is very unstable.” d. “This is the nurse on the surgical unit. After assessing the patient, I am very concerned about increased shortness of breath over the past hour.” ANS: D, B, C, A The order of the nurse’s statements follows the SBAR format. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 11 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care EnvironmentChapter 02: Health Disparities and Culturally Competent Care Lewis: Medical-Surgical Nursing, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The nurse is obtaining a health history from a new patient. Which data will be the focus of patient teaching? a. Age and gender c. Hispanic/Latino ethnicity b. Saturated fat intake d. Family history of diabetes ANS: B Behaviors are strongly linked to many health care problems. The patient’s saturated fat intake is a behavior that the patient can change. The other information will be useful as the nurse develops an individualized plan for improving the patient’s health, but will not be the focus of patient teaching. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 18 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance 2. The nurse works in a clinic located in a community with many Hispanics. Which strategy, if implemented by the nurse, would decrease health care disparities for the Hispanic patients? a. Improve public transportation to the clinic. b. Update equipment and supplies at the clinic. c. Obtain low-cost medications for clinic patients. d. Teach clinic staff about Hispanic health beliefs. ANS: D Health care disparities are caused by stereotyping, biases, and prejudice of health care providers. The nurse can decrease these through staff education. The other strategies may also be addressed by the nurse but will not directly impact health disparities. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 19 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance 3. What information should the nurse collect when assessing the health status of a community? a. Air pollution levels c. Most common causes of death b. Number of health food stores d. Education level of the individuals ANS: C Health status measures of a community include birth and death rates, life expectancy, access to care, and morbidity and mortality rates related to disease and injury. Although air pollution, access to health food stores, and education level are factors that affect a community’s health status, they are not health measures. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 18 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance 4. The nurse is caring for a Native American patient who has traditional beliefs about health and illness. Which action by nurse is most appropriate? a. Avoid asking questions unless the patient initiates the conversation. b. Ask the patient whether it is important that cultural healers are contacted.c. Explain the usual hospital routines for meal times, care, and family visits. d. Obtain further information about the patient’s cultural beliefs from a family member. ANS: B Because the patient has traditional health care beliefs, it is appropriate for the nurse to ask whether the patient would like a visit by a shaman or other cultural healer. There is no cultural reason for the nurse to avoid asking the patient questions because these questions are necessary to obtain health information. The patient (rather than the family) should be consulted about personal cultural beliefs. The hospital routines for meals, care, and visits should be adapted to the patient’s preferences rather than expecting the patient to adapt to the hospital schedule. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 24 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity 5. The nurse is caring for an Asian patient who is being admitted to the hospital. Which action would be most appropriate for the nurse to take when interviewing this patient? a. Avoid eye contact with the patient. b. Observe the patient’s use of eye contact. c. Look directly at the patient when interacting. d. Ask a family member about the patient’s cultural beliefs. ANS: B Observation of the patient’s use of eye contact will be most useful in determining the best way to communicate effectively with the patient. Looking directly at the patient or avoiding eye contact may be appropriate, depending on the patient’s individual cultural beliefs. The nurse should assess the patient, rather than asking family members about the patient’s beliefs. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 25 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity 6. A female staff nurse is assessing a male patient of Arab descent who is admitted with complaints of severe headaches. It is most important for the charge nurse to intervene if the nurse takes which action? a. The nurse explains the 0 to 10 intensity pain scale. b. The nurse asks the patient when the headaches started. c. The nurse sits down at the bedside and closes the privacy curtain. d. The nurse calls for a male nurse to bring a hospital gown to the room. ANS: C Many men of Arab ethnicity do not believe it is appropriate to be alone with any female except for their spouse. The other actions are appropriate. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 25 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity 7. The nurse is caring for a patient who speaks a different language. If an interpreter is not available, which action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Talk slowly so that each word is clearly heard. b. Speak loudly in close proximity to the patient’s ears. c. Repeat important words so that the patient recognizes their significance.d. Use simple gestures to demonstrate meaning while talking to the patient. ANS: D The use of gestures will enable some information to be communicated to the patient. The other actions will not improve communication with the patient. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 31 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity 8. The nurse plans care for a hospitalized patient who uses culturally based treatments. Which action by the nurse is best? a. Encourage the use of diagnostic procedures. b. Coordinate the use of folk treatments with ordered medical therapies. c. Ask the patient to discontinue the cultural treatments during hospitalization. d. Teach the patient that folk remedies will interfere with orders by the health care provider. ANS: B Many culturally based therapies can be accommodated along with the use of Western treatments and medications. The nurse should attempt to use both traditional folk treatments and the ordered Western therapies as much as possible. Some culturally based treatments can be effective in treating “Western” diseases. Not all folk remedies interfere with Western therapies. It may be appropriate for the patient to continue some culturally based treatments while he or she is hospitalized. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 22 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity 9. The nurse is caring for a newly admitted patient. Which intervention is the best example of a culturally appropriate nursing intervention? a. Insist family members provide most of the patient’s personal care. b. Maintain a personal space of at least 2 feet when assessing the patient. c. Ask permission before touching a patient during the physical assessment. d. Consider the patient’s ethnicity as the most important factor in planning care. ANS: C Many cultures consider it disrespectful to touch a patient without asking permission, so asking a patient for permission is always culturally appropriate. The other actions may be appropriate for some patients but are not appropriate across all cultural groups or for all individual patients. Ethnicity may not be the most important factor in planning care, especially if the patient has urgent physiologic problems. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 28 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity 10. A staff nurse expresses frustration that a Native American patient always has several family members at the bedside. Which action by the charge nurse is most appropriate? a. Remind the nurse that family support is important to this family and patient. b. Have the nurse explain to the family that too many visitors will tire the patient. c. Suggest that the nurse ask family members to leave the room during patient care. d. Ask about the nurse’s personal beliefs about family support during hospitalization.ANS: D The first step in providing culturally competent care is to understand one’s own beliefs and values related to health and health care. Asking the nurse about personal beliefs will help achieve this step. Reminding the nurse that this cultural practice is important to the family and patient will not decrease the nurse’s frustration. The remaining responses (suggest that the nurse ask family members to leave the room and have the nurse explain to family that too many visitors will tire the patient) are not culturally appropriate for this patient. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 23 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity 11. An older Asian American patient tells the nurse that she has lived in the United States for 50 years. The patient speaks English and lives in a predominantly Asian neighborhood. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Include a shaman when planning the patient’s care. b. Avoid direct eye contact with the patient during care. c. Ask the patient about any special cultural beliefs or practices. d. Involve the patient’s oldest son to assist with health care decisions. ANS: C Further assessment of the patient’s health care preferences is needed before making further plans for culturally appropriate care. The other responses indicate stereotyping of the patient based on ethnicity and would not be appropriate initial actions. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 23 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity 12. The nurse plans health care for a community with a large number of recent immigrants from Vietnam. Which intervention is the most important for the nurse to implement? a. Hepatitis testing c. Contraceptive teaching b. Tuberculosis screening d. Colonoscopy information ANS: B Tuberculosis (TB) is endemic in many parts of Asia, and the incidence of TB is much higher in immigrants from Vietnam than in the general U.S. population. Teaching about contraceptive use, colonoscopy, and testing for hepatitis may also be appropriate for some patients but is not generally indicated for all members of this community. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 28 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 13. When doing an admission assessment for a patient, the nurse notices that the patient pauses before answering questions about the health history. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Interview a family member instead. b. Wait for the patient to answer the questions. c. Remind the patient that you have other patients who need care. d. Give the patient an assessment form listing the questions and a pen. ANS: BPatients from some cultures take time to consider a question carefully before answering. The nurse will show respect for the patient and help develop a trusting relationship by allowing the patient time to give a thoughtful answer. Asking the patient why the answers are taking so much time, stopping the assessment, and handing the patient a form indicate that the nurse does not have time for the patient. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 30 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity 14. Which strategy should be a priority when the nurse is planning care for a diabetic patient who is uninsured? a. Obtain less expensive medications. b. Follow evidence-based practice guidelines. c. Assist with dietary changes as the first action. d. Teach about the impact of exercise on diabetes. ANS: B The use of standardized evidence-based guidelines will reduce the incidence of health care disparities among various socioeconomic groups. The other strategies may also be appropriate, but the priority concern should be that the patient receives care that meets the accepted standard. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 28 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance 15. A Hispanic patient complains of abdominal cramping caused by empacho. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Ask the patient what treatments are likely to help. b. Massage the patient’s abdomen until the pain is gone. c. Administer prescribed medications to decrease the cramping. d. Offer to contact a curandero(a) to make a visit to the patient. ANS: A Further assessment of the patient’s cultural beliefs is appropriate before implementing any interventions for a culture-bound syndrome such as empacho. Although medication, a visit by a curandero(a), or massage may be helpful, more information about the patient’s beliefs is needed to determine which intervention(s) will be most helpful. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 29 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity 16. The nurse performs a cultural assessment with a patient from a different culture. Which action by the nurse should be taken first? a. Request an interpreter before interviewing the patient. b. Wait until a family member is available to help with the assessment. c. Ask the patient about any affiliation with a particular cultural group. d. Tell the patient what the nurse already knows about the patient’s culture. ANS: CAn early step in performing a cultural assessment is to determine whether the patient feels an affiliation with any cultural group. The other actions may be appropriate if the patient does identify with a particular culture. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 30 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity 17. The nurse working in a clinic in a primarily African American community notes a higher incidence of uncontrolled hypertension in the patients. To correct this health disparity, which action should the nurse take first? a. Initiate a regular home-visit program by nurses working at the clinic. b. Schedule teaching sessions about low-salt diets at community events. c. Assess the perceptions of community members about the care at the clinic. d. Obtain low-cost antihypertensive drugs using funding from government grants. ANS: C Before other actions are taken, additional assessment data are needed to determine the reason for the disparity. The other actions also may be appropriate, but additional assessment is needed before the next action is selected. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 29 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. The nurse is performing an admission assessment for a non–English-speaking patient who is from China. Which actions could the nurse take to enhance communication (select all that apply)? a. Use an electronic translation application. b. Use a telephone-based medical interpreter. c. Wait until an agency interpreter is available. d. Ask the patient’s teenage daughter to interpret. e. Use exaggerated gestures to convey information. ANS: A, B, C Electronic translation applications, telephone-based interpreters, and agency interpreters are all appropriate to use to communicate with non–English-speaking patients. When no interpreter is available, family members may be considered, but some information that will be needed in an admission assessment may be misunderstood or not shared if a child is used as the interpreter. Gestures are appropriate to use, but exaggeration of the gestures is not needed. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 31 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Psychosocial IntegrityChapter 03: Health History and Physical Examination Lewis: Medical-Surgical Nursing, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A patient who is actively bleeding is admitted to the emergency department. Which approach is best for the nurse to use to obtain a health history? a. Briefly interview the patient while obtaining vital signs. b. Obtain subjective data about the patient from family members. c. Omit subjective data collection and obtain the physical examination. d. Use the health care provider’s medical history to obtain subjective data. ANS: A In an emergency situation, the nurse may need to ask only the most pertinent questions for a specific problem and obtain more information later. A complete health history will include subjective information that is not available in the health care provider’s medical history. Family members may be able to provide some subjective data, but only the patient will be able to give subjective information about the bleeding. Because the subjective data about the cause of the patient’s bleeding will be essential, obtaining the physical examination alone will not provide sufficient information. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 40 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance 2. Immediate surgery is planned for a patient with acute abdominal pain. Which question by the nurse will elicit the most complete information about the patient’s coping-stress tolerance pattern? a. “Can you rate your pain on a 0 to 10 scale?” b. “What do you think caused this abdominal pain?” c. “How do you feel about yourself and your hospitalization?” d. “Are there other major problems that are a concern right now?” ANS: D The coping–stress tolerance pattern includes information about other major stressors confronting the patient. The health perception–health management pattern includes information about the patient’s ideas about risk factors. Feelings about self and the hospitalization are assessed in the self-perception–self-concept pattern. Intensity of pain is part of the cognitive–perceptual pattern. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 37 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity 3. During the health history interview, a patient tells the nurse about periodic fainting spells. Which question by the nurse will best elicit any associated clinical manifestations? a. “How frequently do you have the fainting spells?” b. “Where are you when you have the fainting spells?” c. “Do the spells tend to occur at any special time of day?” d. “Do you have any other symptoms along with the spells?” ANS: DAsking about other associated symptoms will provide the nurse more information about all the clinical manifestations related to the fainting spells. Information about the setting is obtained by asking where the patient was and what the patient was doing when the symptom occurred. The other questions from the nurse are appropriate for obtaining information about chronology and frequency. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 35 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance 4. The nurse records the following general survey of a patient: “The patient is a 50-yr-old Asian female attended by her husband and two daughters. Alert and oriented. Does not make eye contact with the nurse and responds slowly, but appropriately, to questions. No apparent disabilities or distinguishing features.” What additional information should the nurse add to this general survey? a. Nutritional status b. Intake and output c. Reasons for contact with the health care system d. Comments of family members about his condition ANS: A The general survey also describes the patient’s general nutritional status. The other information will be obtained when doing the complete nursing history and examination but is not obtained through the initial scanning of a patient. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 39 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance 5. A nurse performs a health history and physical examination with a patient who has a right leg fracture. Which assessment would be a pertinent negative finding? a. Patient has several bruised and swollen areas on the right leg. b. Patient states that there have been no other recent health problems. c. Patient refuses to bend the right knee because of the associated pain. d. Patient denies having pain when the area over the fracture is palpated. ANS: D The nurse expects that a patient with a leg fracture will have pain over the fractured area. The bruising and swelling and pain with bending are positive findings. Having no other recent health problems is neither a positive nor a negative finding with regard to a leg fracture. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 39 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance 6. The nurse who is assessing an older adult with rectal bleeding asks, “Have you ever had a colonoscopy?” The nurse is performing what type of assessment? a. Focused assessment c. Detailed health assessment b. Emergency assessment d. Comprehensive assessment ANS: AA focused assessment is an abbreviated assessment used to evaluate the status of previously identified problems and monitor for signs of new problems. It can be done when a specific problem is identified. An emergency assessment is done when the nurse needs to obtain information about life-threatening problems quickly while simultaneously taking action to maintain vital function. A comprehensive assessment includes a detailed health history and physical examination of one body system or many body systems. It is typically done on admission to the hospital or onset of care in a primary care setting. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 40 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance 7. The nurse is preparing to perform a focused assessment for a patient complaining of shortness of breath. Which equipment will be needed? a. Flashlight c. Tongue blades b. Stethoscope d. Percussion hammer ANS: B A stethoscope is used to auscultate breath sounds. The other equipment may be used for a comprehensive assessment but will not be needed for a focused respiratory assessment. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 40 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance 8. The nurse plans to complete a physical examination of an alert, older patient. Which adaptations to the examination technique should the nurse include? a. Avoid the use of touch as much as possible. b. Use slightly more pressure for palpation of the liver. c. Speak softly and slowly when talking with the patient. d. Organize the sequence to minimize the position changes. ANS: D Older patients may have age-related changes in mobility that make it more difficult to change position. There is no need to avoid the use of touch when examining older patients. Less pressure should be used over the liver. Because the patient is alert, there is no indication that there is any age-related difficulty in understanding directions from the nurse. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 40 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance 9. While the nurse is taking the health history, a patient states, “My mother and sister both had double mastectomies and were unable to be very active for weeks.” Which functional health pattern is represented by this patient’s statement? a. Activity–exercise b. Cognitive–perceptual c. Coping–stress tolerance d. Health perception–health management ANS: D The information in the patient statement relates to risk factors and important information about the family history. Identification of risk factors falls into the health perception–health maintenance pattern.DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 37 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance 10. A patient is seen in the emergency department with severe abdominal pain and hypotension. Which type of assessment should the nurse do at this time? a. Focused assessment c. Emergency assessment b. Subjective assessment d. Comprehensive assessment ANS: C Because the patient is hemodynamically unstable, an emergency assessment is needed. Comprehensive and focused assessments may be needed after the patient is stabilized. Subjective information is needed, but objective data such as vital signs are essential for the unstable patient. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 40 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance 11. The registered nurse (RN) cares for a patient who was admitted a few hours previously with back pain after falling. Which action can the RN delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Finish documenting the admission assessment. b. Determine the patient’s priority nursing diagnoses. c. Obtain the health history from the patient’s caregiver. d. Take the patient’s temperature, pulse, and blood pressure. ANS: D The RN may delegate vital signs to the UAP. Obtaining the health history, documentation of the admission assessment, and determining nursing diagnoses require the education and scope of practice of the RN. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 36 OBJ: Special Questions: Delegation TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment 12. When assessing for formation of a possible blood clot in the lower leg of a patient, which action should the nurse take first? a. Visually inspect the leg. b. Feel for the temperature of the leg. c. Check the patient’s pedal pulses using the fingertips. d. Compress the nail beds to determine capillary refill time. ANS: A Inspection is the first of the major techniques used in the physical examination. Palpation and auscultation are then used later in the examination. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 39 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance 13. When assessing a patient’s abdomen during the admission assessment, which action should the nurse take first? a. Feel for any masses. c. Listen for bowel sounds.b. Palpate the abdomen. d. Percuss the liver borders. ANS: C When assessing the abdomen, auscultation is done before palpation or percussion because palpation and percussion can cause changes in bowel sounds and alter the findings. All of the techniques are appropriate, but auscultation should be done first. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 39 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance 14. When admitting a patient who has just arrived on the unit with a severe headache, what should the nurse do first? a. Complete only basic demographic data before addressing the patient’s pain. b. Inform the patient that the headache will be treated as soon as the health history is completed. c. Medicate the patient for the headache before doing the health history and examination. d. Take the initial vital signs and then address the headache before completing the health history. ANS: C The patient priority in this situation will be to decrease the pain level because the patient will be unlikely to cooperate in providing demographic data or the health history until the nurse addresses the pain. However, obtaining information about vital signs is essential before using either pharmacologic or nonpharmacologic therapies for pain control. The vital signs may indicate hemodynamic instability that would need to be addressed immediately. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 35 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity OTHER 1. In what order will the nurse perform these actions when doing a physical assessment for a patient admitted with abdominal pain? (Put a comma and a space between each answer choice [A, B, C, D].) a. Percuss the abdomen to locate any areas of dullness. b. Palpate the abdomen to check for tenderness or masses. c. Inspect the abdomen for distention or other abnormalities. d. Auscultate the abdomen for the presence of bowel sounds. ANS: C, D, A, B When assessing the abdomen, the initial action is to inspect the abdomen. Auscultation is done next because percussion and palpation can alter bowel sounds and produce misleading findings. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 39 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological IntegrityChapter 04: Patient and Caregiver Teaching Lewis: Medical-Surgical Nursing, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A patient with newly diagnosed colon cancer has a nursing diagnosis of deficient knowledge about colon cancer. The nurse should initially focus on which learning goal for this patient? a. The patient will state ways of preventing the recurrence of the cancer. b. The patient will explore and select an appropriate colon cancer therapy. c. The patient will demonstrate coping skills needed to manage the disease. d. The patient will choose methods to minimize adverse effects of treatment. ANS: B Adults learn best when given information that can be used immediately. The first action the patient will need to take after a cancer diagnosis is to explore and choose a treatment option. The other goals may be appropriate as treatment progresses. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 47 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance 2. After the nurse provides diet instructions for a patient with diabetes, the patient can restate the information but fails to make the recommended diet changes. How would the nurse best evaluate the patient’s situation? a. Learning did not occur because the patient’s behavior did not change. b. Choosing not to follow the diet is the behavior that resulted from learning. c. The nurse’s responsibility for helping the patient make diet changes has been fulfilled. d. The teaching methods were ineffective in helping the patient learn about the necessary diet changes. ANS: B Although the patient behavior has not changed, the patient’s ability to restate the information indicates that learning has occurred, and the patient is choosing at this time not to change the diet. The patient may be in the contemplation or preparation stage in the transtheoretical model. The nurse should reinforce the need for change and continue to provide information and assistance with planning for change. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 47 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance 3. A patient is diagnosed with heart failure after being admitted to the hospital for shortness of breath and fatigue. Which teaching strategy, if implemented by the nurse, is most likely to be effective? a. Assure the patient that the nurse is an expert on management of heart failure. b. Teach the patient at each meal about the amounts of sodium in various foods. c. Discuss the importance of medication control in maintenance of long-term health. d. Refer the patient to a home health nurse for instructions on diet and fluid restrictions. ANS: BPrinciples of adult education indicate that readiness and motivation to learn are high when facing new tasks (e.g., learning about the sodium amounts in various food items) and when demonstration and practice of skills are available. Although a home health referral may be needed for this patient, teaching should not be postponed until discharge. Adult learners are independent. The nurse should act as a facilitator for learning, rather than as the expert. Adults learn best when the topic is of immediate usefulness. Long-term goals may not be very motivating. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 47 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance 4. A patient who was admitted to the hospital with hyperglycemia and newly diagnosed diabetes mellitus is scheduled for discharge the second day after admission. When implementing patient teaching, what is the priority action for the nurse? a. Instruct about the increased risk for cardiovascular disease. b. Provide detailed information about dietary control of glucose. c. Teach glucose self-monitoring and medication administration. d. Give information about the effects of exercise on glucose control. ANS: C When time is limited, the nurse should focus on the priorities of teaching. In this situation, the patient should know how to test blood glucose and administer medications to control glucose levels. The patient will need further teaching about the role of diet, exercise, various medications, and the many potential complications of diabetes, but these topics can be addressed through planning for appropriate referrals. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 49 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance 5. A patient states, “I told my husband I wouldn’t buy as much prepared food snacks, so I will go the grocery store to buy fresh fruit, vegetables, and whole grains.” When using the Transtheoretical Model of Health Behavior Change, the nurse identifies that this patient is in which stage of change? a. Preparation c. Maintenance b. Termination d. Contemplation ANS: A The patient’s statement indicating that the plan for change is being shared with someone else indicates that the preparation stage has been achieved. Contemplation of a change would be indicated by a statement like “I know I should exercise.” Maintenance of a change occurs when the patient practices the behavior regularly. Termination would be indicated when the change is a permanent part of the lifestyle. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 48 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance 6. While admitting a patient to the medical unit, the nurse determines that the patient has a hearing impairment. How should the nurse use this information to plan teaching and learning strategies? a. Motivation and readiness to learn will be affected. b. The family must be included in the teaching process.c. The patient will have problems understanding information. d. Written materials should be provided with verbal instructions. ANS: D The information that the patient has a hearing impairment indicates that the nurse should use written and verbal materials in teaching along with other strategies. The patient does not indicate a lack of motivation or an inability to understand new information. The patient’s decreased hearing does not necessarily imply that the family must be included in the teaching process. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 51 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance 7. A patient who is morbidly obese states, “I’ve recently made some changes in my life. I’ve decreased my fat intake, and I’ve stopped smoking.” Which statement, if made by the nurse, is the best initial response? a. “Although those are important, it is essential that you make other changes, too.” b. “Are you having any difficulty in maintaining the changes you have already made?” c. “Which additional changes in your lifestyle would you like to implement at this time?” d. “You have already accomplished changes that are important for the health of your heart.” ANS: D Positive reinforcement of the learner’s achievements is critical in making lifestyle changes. This patient is in the action stage of the Transtheoretical Model when reinforcement of the changes being made is an important nursing intervention. The other responses are also appropriate but are not the best initial response. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 53 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance 8. The nurse is planning a teaching session with a patient newly diagnosed with migraine headaches. To assess a patient’s readiness to learn, which question should the nurse ask first? a. “What kind of work and leisure activities do you do?” b. “What information do you think you need right now?” c. “Can you describe the types of activities that help you learn new information?” d. “Do you have any religious beliefs that are inconsistent with the planned treatment?” ANS: B Motivation and readiness to learn depend on what the patient values and perceives as important. The other questions are also important in developing the teaching plan, but do not address what information most interests the patient at present. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 53 TOP: Nursing - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - Chapter 66: Shock, Sepsis, and Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome Lewis: Medical-Surgical Nursing, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A 78-kg patient with septic shock has a pulse rate of 120 beats/min with low central venous pressure and pulmonary artery wedge pressure. Urine output has been 30 mL/hr for the past 3 hours. Which order by the health care provider should the nurse question? a. Administer furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg IV. b. Increase normal saline infusion to 250 mL/hr. c. Give hydrocortisone (Solu-Cortef) 100 mg IV. d. Titrate norepinephrine to keep systolic blood pressure (BP) above 90 mm Hg. ANS: A Furosemide will lower the filling pressures and renal perfusion further for the patient with septic shock. Patients in septic shock require large amounts of fluid replacement. If the patient remains hypotensive after initial volume resuscitation with minimally 30 mL/kg, vasopressors such as norepinephrine may be added. IV corticosteroids may be considered for patients in septic shock who cannot maintain an adequate BP with vasopressor therapy despite fluid resuscitation. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1600 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 2. A nurse is caring for a patient whose hemodynamic monitoring indicates a blood pressure of 92/54 mm Hg, a pulse of 64 beats/min, and an elevated pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP). Which intervention ordered by the health care provider should the nurse question? a. Elevate head of bed to 30 degrees. b. Infuse normal saline at 250 mL/hr. c. Hold nitroprusside if systolic BP is less than 90 mm Hg. d. Titrate dobutamine to keep systolic BP is greater than 90 mm Hg. ANS: B The patient’s elevated PAWP indicates volume excess in relation to cardiac pumping ability, consistent with cardiogenic shock. A saline infusion at 250 mL/hr will exacerbate the volume excess. The other actions will help to improve cardiac output, which should lower the PAWP and may raise the BP. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1600 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 3. A patient with massive trauma and possible spinal cord injury is admitted to the emergency department (ED). Which assessment finding by the nurse will help confirm a diagnosis of neurogenic shock? a. Inspiratory crackles c. Cool, clammy extremities b. Heart rate 45 beats/min d. Temperature 101.2°F (38.4°C) ANS: B Neurogenic shock is characterized by hypotension and bradycardia. The other findings would be more consistent with other types of shock.DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 1590 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 4. An older patient with cardiogenic shock is cool and clammy. Hemodynamic monitoring indicates a high systemic vascular resistance (SVR). Which intervention should the nurse anticipate? a. Increase the rate for the dopamine infusion. b. Decrease the rate for the nitroglycerin infusion. c. Increase the rate for the sodium nitroprusside infusion. d. Decrease the rate for the 5% dextrose in normal saline (D5/.9 NS) infusion. ANS: C Nitroprusside is an arterial vasodilator and will decrease the SVR and afterload, which will improve cardiac output. Changes in the D5/.9 NS and nitroglycerin infusions will not directly decrease SVR. Increasing the dopamine will tend to increase SVR. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1599 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 5. After receiving 2 L of normal saline, the central venous pressure for a patient who has septic shock is 10 mm Hg, but the blood pressure is still 82/40 mm Hg. The nurse will anticipate an order for a. furosemide . c. norepinephrine . b. nitroglycerin . d. sodium nitroprusside . ANS: C When fluid resuscitation is unsuccessful, vasopressor drugs are given to increase the systemic vascular resistance (SVR) and blood pressure and improve tissue perfusion. Furosemide would cause diuresis and further decrease the BP. Nitroglycerin would decrease the preload and further drop cardiac output and BP. Nitroprusside is an arterial vasodilator and would further decrease SVR. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1599 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 6. To evaluate the effectiveness of the pantoprazole (Protonix) ordered for a patient with systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS), which assessment will the nurse perform? a. Auscultate bowel sounds. c. Check stools for occult blood. b. Ask the patient about nausea. d. Palpate for abdominal tenderness. ANS: C Proton pump inhibitors are given to decrease the risk for stress ulcers in critically ill patients. The other assessments will also be done, but these will not help in determining the effectiveness of the pantoprazole administration. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1606 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 7. A patient with cardiogenic shock has the following vital signs: BP 102/50, pulse 128, respirations 28. The pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) is increased, and cardiac output is low. The nurse will anticipate an order for which medication?a. 5% albumin infusion c. epinephrine (Adrenalin) drip b. furosemide (Lasix) IV d. hydrocortisone (Solu-Cortef) ANS: B The PAWP indicates that the patient’s preload is elevated, and furosemide is indicated to reduce the preload and improve cardiac output. Epinephrine would further increase the heart rate and myocardial oxygen demand. 5% albumin would also increase the PAWP. Hydrocortisone might be considered for septic or anaphylactic shock. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1600 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 8. The emergency department (ED) nurse receives report that a seriously injured patient involved in a motor vehicle crash is being transported to the facility with an estimated arrival in 5 minutes. In preparation for the patient’s arrival, the nurse will obtain a. a dopamine infusion. c. lactated Ringer’s solution. b. a hypothermia blanket. d. two 16-gauge IV catheters. ANS: D A patient with multiple trauma may require fluid resuscitation to prevent or treat hypovolemic shock, so the nurse will anticipate the need for 2 large-bore IV lines to administer normal saline. Lactated Ringer’s solution should be used cautiously and will not be ordered until the patient has been assessed for possible liver abnormalities. Vasopressor infusion is not used as the initial therapy for hypovolemic shock. Patients in shock need to be kept warm not cool. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1600 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 9. Which finding is the best indicator that the fluid resuscitation for a 90-kg patient with hypovolemic shock has been effective? a. Hemoglobin is within normal limits. b. Urine output is 65 mL over the past hour. c. Central venous pressure (CVP) is normal. d. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) is 72 mm Hg. ANS: B Assessment of end organ perfusion, such as an adequate urine output, is the best indicator that fluid resuscitation has been successful. Urine output should be equal to or more than 0.5 mL/kg/hr. The hemoglobin level, CVP, and MAP are useful in determining the effects of fluid administration, but they are not as useful as data indicating good organ perfusion. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1589 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 10. Which intervention will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient who has cardiogenic shock? a. Check temperature every 2 hours. b. Monitor breath sounds frequently. c. Maintain patient in supine position. d. Assess skin for flushing and itching. ANS: BBecause pulmonary congestion and dyspnea are characteristics of cardiogenic shock, the nurse should assess the breath sounds frequently. The head of the bed is usually elevated to decrease dyspnea in patients with cardiogenic shock. Elevated temperature and flushing or itching of the skin are not typical of cardiogenic shock. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1591 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 11. Norepinephrine has been prescribed for a patient who was admitted with dehydration and hypotension. Which patient data indicate that the nurse should consult with the health care provider before starting the norepinephrine? a. The patient is receiving low dose dopamine. b. The patient’s central venous pressure is 3 mm Hg. c. The patient is in sinus tachycardia at 120 beats/min. d. The patient has had no urine output since being admitted. ANS: B Adequate fluid administration is essential before giving vasopressors to patients with hypovolemic shock. The patient’s low central venous pressure indicates a need for more volume replacement. The other patient data are not contraindications to norepinephrine administration. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1598 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 12. A nurse is assessing a patient who is receiving a nitroprusside infusion to treat cardiogenic shock. Which finding indicates that the drug is effective? a. No new heart murmurs c. Warm, pink, and dry skin b. Decreased troponin level d. Blood pressure of 92/40 mm Hg ANS: C Warm, pink, and dry skin indicates that perfusion to tissues is improved. Because nitroprusside is a vasodilator, the blood pressure may be low even if the drug is effective. Absence of a heart murmur and a decrease in troponin level are not indicators of improvement in shock. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1599 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 13. Which assessment information is most important for the nurse to obtain when evaluating whether treatment of a patient with anaphylactic shock has been effective? a. Heart rate c. Blood pressure b. Orientation d. Oxygen saturation ANS: D Because the airway edema that is associated with anaphylaxis can affect airway and breathing, the O2 saturation is the most critical assessment. Improvements in the other assessments will also be expected with effective treatment of anaphylactic shock. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1600 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity14. Which data collected by the nurse caring for a patient who has cardiogenic shock indicate that the patient may be developing multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)? a. The patient’s serum creatinine level is elevated. b. The patient complains of intermittent chest pressure. c. The patient’s extremities are cool and pulses are weak. d. The patient has bilateral crackles throughout lung fields. ANS: A The elevated serum creatinine level indicates that the patient has renal failure as well as heart failure. The crackles, chest pressure, and cool extremities are all symptoms consistent with the patient’s diagnosis of cardiogenic shock. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1591 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 15. A patient with septic shock has a BP of 70/46 mm Hg, pulse of 136 beats/min, respirations of 32 breaths/min, temperature of 104°F, and blood glucose of 246 mg/dL. Which intervention ordered by the health care provider should the nurse implement first? a. Give normal saline IV at 500 mL/hr. b. Give acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg rectally. c. Start insulin drip to maintain blood glucose at 110 to 150 mg/dL. d. Start norepinephrine to keep systolic blood pressure above 90 mm Hg. ANS: A Because of the decreased preload associated with septic shock, fluid resuscitation is the initial therapy. The other actions also are appropriate, and should be initiated quickly as well. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1600 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 16. When the nurse educator is evaluating the skills of a new registered nurse (RN) caring for patients experiencing shock, which action by the new RN indicates a need for more education? a. Placing the pulse oximeter on the ear for a patient with septic shock b. Keeping the head of the bed flat for a patient with hypovolemic shock c. Maintaining a cool room temperature for a patient with neurogenic shock d. Increasing the nitroprusside infusion rate for a patient with a very high SVR ANS: C Patients with neurogenic shock have poikilothermia. The room temperature should be kept warm to avoid hypothermia. The other actions by the new RN are appropriate. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1590 OBJ: Special Questions: Delegation TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment 17. The nurse is caring for a patient who has septic shock. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. Skin cool and clammy c. Blood pressure of 92/56 mm Hg b. Heart rate of 118 beats/min d. O2 saturation of 93% on room airANS: A Because patients in the early stage of septic shock have warm and dry skin, the patient’s cool and clammy skin indicates that shock is progressing. The other information will also be reported, but does not indicate deterioration of the patient’s status. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1594 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 18. A patient is admitted to the emergency department (ED) for shock of unknown etiology. The first action by the nurse should be to a. obtain the blood pressure. b. check the level of orientation. c. administer supplemental oxygen. d. obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram. ANS: C The initial actions of the nurse are focused on the ABCs—airway, breathing, and circulation—and administration of O2 should be done first. The other actions should be accomplished as rapidly as possible after providing O2. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1597 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 19. During change-of-shift report, the nurse is told that a patient has been admitted with dehydration and hypotension after having vomiting and diarrhea for 4 days. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. New onset of confusion c. Heart rate 112 beats/min b. Decreased bowel sounds d. Pale, cool, and dry extremities ANS: A The changes in mental status are indicative that the patient is in the progressive stage of shock and that rapid intervention is needed to prevent further deterioration. The other information is consistent with compensatory shock. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1597 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 20. A patient who has been involved in a motor vehicle crash arrives in the emergency department (ED) with cool, clammy skin; tachycardia; and hypotension. Which intervention ordered by the health care provider should the nurse implement first? a. Insert two large-bore IV catheters. b. Provide O2 at 100% per non-rebreather mask. c. Draw blood to type and crossmatch for transfusions. d. Initiate continuous electrocardiogram (ECG) monitoring. ANS: BThe first priority in the initial management of shock is maintenance of the airway and ventilation. ECG monitoring, insertion of IV catheters, and obtaining blood for transfusions should also be rapidly accomplished but only after actions to maximize O2 delivery have been implemented. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1597 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 21. A patient who has neurogenic shock is receiving a phenylephrine infusion through a right forearm IV. Which assessment finding obtained by the nurse indicates a need for immediate action? a. The patient’s heart rate is 58 beats/min. b. The patient’s extremities are warm and dry. c. The patient’s IV infusion site is cool and pale. d. The patient’s urine output is 28 mL over the past hour. ANS: C The coldness and pallor at the infusion site suggest extravasation of the phenylephrine. The nurse should discontinue the IV and, if possible, infuse the drug into a central line. An apical pulse of 58 beats/min is typical for neurogenic shock but does not indicate an immediate need for nursing intervention. A 28-mL urinary output over 1 hour would require the nurse to monitor the output over the next hour, but an immediate change in therapy is not indicated. Warm, dry skin is consistent with early neurogenic shock, but it does not indicate a need for a change in therapy or immediate action. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1599 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 22. The following interventions are ordered by the health care provider for a patient who has respiratory distress and syncope after eating strawberries. Which will the nurse complete first? a. Give epinephrine. b. Administer diphenhydramine. c. Start continuous ECG monitoring. d. Draw blood for complete blood count (CBC) ANS: A Epinephrine rapidly causes peripheral vasoconstriction, dilates the bronchi, and blocks the effects of histamine and reverses the vasodilation, bronchoconstriction, and histamine release that cause the symptoms of anaphylaxis. The other interventions are also appropriate but would not be the first ones completed. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1599 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 23. Which finding about a patient who is receiving vasopressin to treat septic shock indicates an immediate need for the nurse to report the finding to the health care provider? a. The patient’s urine output is 18 mL/hr.b. The patient is complaining of chest pain. c. The patient’s peripheral pulses are weak. d. The patient’s heart rate is 110 beats/minute. ANS: B Because vasopressin is a potent vasoconstrictor, it may decrease coronary artery perfusion. The other information is consistent with the patient’s diagnosis, and should be reported to the health care provider but does not indicate an immediate need for a change in therapy. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1599 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 24. After change-of-shift report in the progressive care unit, who should the nurse care for first? a. Patient who had an inferior myocardial infarction 2 days ago and has crackles in the lung bases b. Patient with suspected urosepsis who has new orders for urine and blood cultures and antibiotics c. Patient who had a T5 spinal cord injury 1 week ago and currently has a heart rate of 54 beats/minute d. Patient admitted with anaphylaxis 3 hours ago who now has clear lung sounds and a blood pressure of 108/58 mm Hg ANS: B Antibiotics should be given within the first hour for patients who have sepsis or suspected sepsis in order to prevent progression to systemic inflammatory response syndrome and septic shock. The data on the other patients indicate that they are more stable. Crackles heard only at the lung bases do not require immediate intervention in a patient who has had a myocardial infarction. Mild bradycardia does not usually require atropine in patients who have a spinal cord injury. The findings for the patient admitted with anaphylaxis indicate resolution of bronchospasm and hypotension. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1601 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization | Special Questions: Multiple Patients TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment 25. After reviewing the information shown in the accompanying figure for a patient with pneumonia and sepsis, which information is most important to report to the health care provider? Physical Assessment Laboratory Data Vital Signs  Petechiae noted on chest and legs  Crackles heard bilaterally in lung bases  No redness or swelling at central line IV site  Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 34 mg/Dl  Hematocrit 30%  Platelets 50,000/µL  Temperature 100°F (37.8°C)  Pulse 102/min  Respirations 26/min  BP 110/60 mm Hg  O2 saturation 93% on 2L O2 via nasal cannula a. Temperature and IV site appearanceb. Oxygen saturation and breath sounds c. Platelet count and presence of petechiae d. Blood pressure, pulse rate, respiratory rate. ANS: C The low platelet count and presence of petechiae suggest that the patient may have disseminated intravascular coagulation and that multiple organ dysfunction syndrome is developing. The other information will also be discussed with the health care provider but does not indicate that the patient’s condition is deteriorating or that a change in therapy is needed immediately. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1606 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. A patient with suspected neurogenic shock after a diving accident has arrived in the emergency department. A cervical collar is in place. Which actions should the nurse take (select all that apply)? a. Prepare to administer atropine IV. b. Obtain baseline body temperature. c. Infuse large volumes of lactated Ringer’s solution. d. Provide high-flow O2 (100%) by nonrebreather mask. e. Prepare for emergent intubation and mechanical ventilation. ANS: A, B, D, E All of the actions are appropriate except to give large volumes of lactated Ringer’s solution. The patient with neurogenic shock usually has a normal blood volume, and it is important not to volume overload the patient. In addition, lactated Ringer’s solution is used cautiously in all shock situations because an ischemic liver cannot convert lactate to bicarbonate. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1600 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 2. Which preventive actions by the nurse will help limit the development of systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) in patients admitted to the hospital (select all that apply)? a. Ambulate postoperative patients as soon as possible after surgery. b. Use aseptic technique when manipulating invasive lines or devices. c. Remove indwelling urinary catheters as soon as possible after surgery. d. Administer prescribed antibiotics within 1 hour for patients with possible sepsis. e. Advocate for parenteral nutrition for patients who cannot take in adequate calories. ANS: A, B, C, DBecause sepsis is the most frequent etiology for SIRS, measures to avoid infection such as removing indwelling urinary catheters as soon as possible, use of aseptic technique, and early ambulation should be included in the plan of care. Adequate nutrition is important in preventing SIRS. Enteral, rather than parenteral, nutrition is preferred when patients are unable to take oral feedings because enteral nutrition helps maintain the integrity of the intestine, thus decreasing infection risk. Antibiotics should be given within 1 hour after being prescribed to decrease the risk of sepsis progressing to SIRS. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1606 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity SHORT ANSWER 1. A 198-lb patient is to receive a dobutamine infusion at 5 mcg/kg/min. The label on the infusion bag states: dobutamine 250 mg in 250 mL of normal saline. When setting the infusion pump, the nurse will set the infusion rate at how many milliliters per hour? ANS: 27 To administer the dobutamine at the prescribed rate of 5 mcg/kg/min from a concentration of 250 mg in 250 mL, the nurse will need to infuse 27 mL/hr. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1599 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity OTHER 1. The health care provider orders the following interventions for a 67-kg patient who has septic shock with a blood pressure of 70/42 mm Hg and O2 saturation of 90% on room air. In which order will the nurse implement the actions? (Put a comma and a space between each answer choice [A, B, C, D, E].) a. Give vancomycin 1 g IV. b. Obtain blood and urine cultures c. Start norepinephrine 0.5 mcg/min. d. Infuse normal saline 2000 mL over 30 minutes. e. Titrate oxygen administration to keep O2 saturation above 95%. ANS: E, D, C, B, A The initial action for this hypotensive and hypoxemic patient should be to improve the O2 saturation, followed by infusion of IV fluids and vasopressors to improve perfusion. Cultures should be obtained before giving antibiotics. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1600 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological IntegrityChapter 67: Acute Respiratory Failure and Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome Lewis: Medical-Surgical Nursing, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which diagnostic test will provide the nurse with the most specific information to evaluate the effectiveness of interventions for a patient with ventilatory failure? a. Chest x-ray b. O2 saturation c. Arterial blood gas analysis d. Central venous pressure monitoring ANS: C Arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis is most useful in this setting because ventilatory failure causes problems with CO2 retention, and ABGs provide information about the PaCO2 and pH. The other tests may also be done to help in assessing oxygenation or determining the cause of the patient’s ventilatory failure. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1614 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 2. While caring for a patient who has been admitted with a pulmonary embolism, the nurse notes a change in the patient’s oxygen saturation (SpO2) from 94% to 88%. Which action should the nurse take? a. Suction the patient’s oropharynx. b. Increase the prescribed O2 flow rate. c. Instruct the patient to cough and deep breathe. d. Help the patient to sit in a more upright position. ANS: B Increasing O2 flow rate will usually improve O2 saturation in patients with ventilation-perfusion mismatch, as occurs with pulmonary embolism. Because the problem is with perfusion, actions that improve ventilation, such as deep breathing and coughing, sitting upright, and suctioning, are not likely to improve oxygenation. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1609 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 3. A patient with respiratory failure has a respiratory rate of 6 breaths/min and an oxygen saturation (SpO2) of 88%. The patient is increasingly lethargic. Which intervention will the nurse anticipate? a. Administration of 100% O2 by non-rebreather mask b. Endotracheal intubation and positive pressure ventilation c. Insertion of a mini-tracheostomy with frequent suctioning d. Initiation of continuous positive pressure ventilation (CPAP) ANS: BThe patient’s lethargy, low respiratory rate, and SpO2 indicate the need for mechanical ventilation with ventilator-controlled respiratory rate. Giving high-flow O2 will not be helpful because the patient’s respiratory rate is so low. Insertion of a mini-tracheostomy will facilitate removal of secretions, but it will not improve the patient’s respiratory rate or oxygenation. CPAP requires that the patient initiate an adequate respiratory rate to allow adequate gas exchange. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1616 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 4. The oxygen saturation (SpO2) for a patient with left lower lobe pneumonia is 90%. The patient has wheezes, a weak cough effort, and complains of fatigue. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Position the patient on the left side. b. Assist the patient with staged coughing. c. Place a humidifier in the patient’s room. d. Schedule a 4-hour rest period for the patient. ANS: B The patient’s assessment indicates that assisted coughing is needed to help remove secretions, which will improve oxygenation. A 4-hour rest period at this time may allow the O2 saturation to drop further. Humidification will not be helpful unless the secretions can be mobilized. Positioning on the left side may cause a further decrease in oxygen saturation because perfusion will be directed more toward the more poorly ventilated lung. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1616 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 5. A nurse is caring for an obese patient with right lower lobe pneumonia. Which position will be best to improve gas exchange? a. On the left side c. In the tripod position b. On the right side d. In the high-Fowler’s position ANS: A The patient should be positioned with the “good” lung in the dependent position to improve the match between ventilation and perfusion. The obese patient’s abdomen will limit respiratory excursion when sitting in the high-Fowler’s or tripod positions. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1617 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 6. When admitting a patient with possible respiratory failure and a high PaCO2, which assessment information should be immediately reported to the health care provider? a. The patient is very somnolent. b. The patient complains of weakness. c. The patient’s blood pressure is 164/98. d. The patient’s oxygen saturation is 90%. ANS: AIncreasing somnolence will decrease the patient’s respiratory rate and further increase the PaCO2 and respiratory failure. Rapid action is needed to prevent respiratory arrest. An SpO2 of 90%, weakness, and elevated blood pressure all require ongoing monitoring but are not indicators of possible impending respiratory arrest. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1615 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 7. A patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) and acute kidney injury has the following drugs ordered. Which drug should the nurse discuss with the health care provider before giving? a. gentamicin 60 mg IV b. pantoprazole (Protonix) 40 mg IV c. sucralfate (Carafate) 1 g per nasogastric tube d. methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) 60 mg IV ANS: A Gentamicin, which is one of the aminoglycoside antibiotics, is potentially nephrotoxic, and the nurse should clarify the drug and dosage with the health care provider before administration. The other drugs are appropriate for the patient with ARDS. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1623 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 8. A patient develops increasing dyspnea and hypoxemia 2 days after heart surgery. To determine whether the patient has acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) or pulmonary edema caused by heart failure, the nurse will plan to assist with a. obtaining a ventilation-perfusion scan. b. drawing blood for arterial blood gases. c. positioning the patient for a chest x-ray. d. insertion of a pulmonary artery catheter. ANS: D Pulmonary artery wedge pressures are normal in the patient with ARDS because the fluid in the alveoli is caused by increased permeability of the alveolar-capillary membrane rather than by the backup of fluid from the lungs (as occurs in cardiogenic pulmonary edema). The other tests will not help in differentiating cardiogenic from noncardiogenic pulmonary edema. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1625 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 9. A nurse is caring for a patient with ARDS who is being treated with mechanical ventilation and high levels of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP). Which assessment finding by the nurse indicates that the PEEP may need to be reduced? a. The patient’s PaO2 is 50 mm Hg and the SaO2 is 88%. b. The patient has subcutaneous emphysema on the upper thorax. c. The patient has bronchial breath sounds in both the lung fields. d. The patient has a first-degree atrioventricular heart block with a rate of 58 beats/min. ANS: BThe subcutaneous emphysema indicates barotrauma caused by positive pressure ventilation and PEEP. Bradycardia, hypoxemia, and bronchial breath sounds are all concerns and will need to be addressed, but they are not specific indications that PEEP should be reduced. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1623 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 10. Which statement by the nurse when explaining the purpose of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) to the patient’s caregiver is accurate? a. “PEEP will push more air into the lungs during inhalation.” b. “PEEP prevents the lung air sacs from collapsing during exhalation.” c. “PEEP will prevent lung damage while the patient is on the ventilator.” d. “PEEP allows the breathing machine to deliver 100% O2 to the lungs.” ANS: B By preventing alveolar collapse during expiration, PEEP improves gas exchange and oxygenation. PEEP will not prevent lung damage (e.g., fibrotic changes that occur with ARDS), push more air into the lungs, or change the fraction of inspired oxygen (FIO2) delivered to the patient. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 1624 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 11. When prone positioning is used for a patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), which information obtained by the nurse indicates that the positioning is effective? a. The patient’s PaO2 is 89 mm Hg, and the SaO2 is 91%. b. Endotracheal suctioning results in clear mucous return. c. Sputum and blood cultures show no growth after 48 hours. d. The skin on the patient’s back is intact and without redness. ANS: A The purpose of prone positioning is to improve the patient’s oxygenation as indicated by the PaO2 and SaO2. The other information will be collected but does not indicate whether prone positioning has been effective. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1625 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 12. The nurse assesses vital signs for a patient admitted 2 days ago with gram-negative sepsis: temperature of 101.2° F, blood pressure of 90/56 mm Hg, pulse of 92 beats/min, and respirations of 34 breaths/min. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Give the scheduled IV antibiotic. b. Give the PRN acetaminophen (Tylenol). c. Obtain oxygen saturation using pulse oximetry. d. Notify the health care provider of the patient’s vital signs. ANS: CThe patient’s increased respiratory rate in combination with the admission diagnosis of gram-negative sepsis indicates that acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) may be developing. The nurse should check for hypoxemia, a hallmark of ARDS. The health care provider should be notified after further assessment of the patient. Giving the scheduled antibiotic and the PRN acetaminophen will also be done, but they are not the highest priority for a patient who may be developing ARDS. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1620 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 13. A nurse is caring for a patient who is orally intubated and receiving mechanical ventilation. To decrease the risk for ventilator-associated pneumonia, which action will the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Elevate head of bed to 30 to 45 degrees. b. Give enteral feedings at no more than 10 mL/hr. c. Suction the endotracheal tube every 2 to 4 hours. d. Limit the use of positive end-expiratory pressure. ANS: A Elevation of the head decreases the risk for aspiration. Positive end-expiratory pressure is frequently needed to improve oxygenation in patients receiving mechanical ventilation. Suctioning should be done only when the patient assessment indicates that it is necessary. Enteral feedings should provide adequate calories for the patient’s high energy needs. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1616 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 14. A patient admitted with acute respiratory failure has ineffective airway clearance related to thick secretions. Which nursing intervention would specifically address this patient problem? a. Encourage use of the incentive spirometer. b. Offer the patient fluids at frequent intervals. c. Teach the patient the importance of ambulation. d. Titrate oxygen level to keep O2 saturation above 93%. ANS: B Because the reason for the poor airway clearance is the thick secretions, the best action will be to encourage the patient to improve oral fluid intake. Patients should be instructed to use the incentive spirometer on a regular basis (e.g., every hour) to facilitate the clearance of the secretions. The other actions may also be helpful in improving the patient’s gas exchange, but they do not address the thick secretions that are causing the poor airway clearance. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1617 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 15. A patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) who is intubated and receiving mechanical ventilation develops a right pneumothorax. Which collaborative action will the nurse anticipate next? a. Increase the tidal volume and respiratory rate. b. Decrease the fraction of inspired oxygen (FIO2). c. Perform endotracheal suctioning more frequently.d. Lower the positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP). ANS: D Because barotrauma is associated with high airway pressures, the level of PEEP should be decreased. The other actions will not decrease the risk for another pneumothorax. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1624 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 16. After receiving change-of-shift report on a medical unit, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. A patient with cystic fibrosis who has thick, green-colored sputum b. A patient with pneumonia who has crackles bilaterally in the lung bases c. A patient with emphysema who has an oxygen saturation of 90% to 92% d. A patient with septicemia who has intercostal and suprasternal retractions ANS: D This patient’s history of septicemia and labored breathing suggest the onset of ARDS, which will require rapid interventions such as administration of O2 and use of positive-pressure ventilation. The other patients should also be assessed, but their assessment data are typical of their disease processes and do not suggest deterioration in their status. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1622 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization | Special Questions: Multiple Patients TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment 17. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) arrives in the emergency department complaining of shortness of breath and dyspnea on minimal exertion. Which assessment finding by the nurse is most important to report to the health care provider? a. The patient has bibasilar lung crackles. b. The patient is sitting in the tripod position. c. The patient’s pulse oximetry indicates a 91% O2 saturation. d. The patient’s respirations have dropped to 10 breaths/minute. ANS: D A drop in respiratory rate in a patient with respiratory distress suggests the onset of fatigue and a high risk for respiratory arrest. Therefore immediate action such as positive-pressure ventilation is needed. Patients who are experiencing respiratory distress frequently sit in the tripod position because it decreases the work of breathing. Crackles in the lung bases may be the baseline for a patient with COPD. An O2 saturation of 91% is common in patients with COPD and will provide adequate gas exchange and tissue oxygenation. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1610 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 18. When assessing a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), the nurse finds a new onset of agitation and confusion. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Observe for facial symmetry. b. Notify the health care provider. c. Attempt to calm and reorient the patient. d. Assess oxygenation using pulse oximetry.ANS: D Because agitation and confusion are frequently the initial indicators of hypoxemia, the nurse’s initial action should be to assess O2 saturation. The other actions are also appropriate, but assessment of oxygenation takes priority over other assessments and notification of the health care provider. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1611 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 19. The nurse is caring for a patient who arrived in the emergency department with acute respiratory distress. Which assessment finding by the nurse requires the most rapid action? a. The patient’s PaO2 is 45 mm Hg. b. The patient’s PaCO2 is 33 mm Hg. c. The patient’s respirations are shallow. d. The patient’s respiratory rate is 32 breaths/min. ANS: A The PaO2 indicates severe hypoxemia and respiratory failure. Rapid action is needed to prevent further deterioration of the patient. Although the shallow breathing, rapid respiratory rate, and low PaCO2 also need to be addressed, the most urgent problem is the patient’s poor oxygenation. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1611 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 20. The nurse is caring for an older patient who was hospitalized 2 days earlier with community-acquired pneumonia. Which assessment information is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. Persistent cough of blood-tinged sputum. b. Scattered crackles in the posterior lung bases. c. Oxygen saturation 90% on 100% O2 by nonrebreather mask. d. Temperature 101.5° F (38.6° C) after 2 days of IV antibiotics. ANS: C The patient’s low SpO2 despite receiving a high fraction of inspired oxygen (FIO2) indicates the possibility of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). The patient’s blood-tinged sputum and scattered crackles are not unusual in a patient with pneumonia, although they do require continued monitoring. The continued temperature elevation indicates a possible need to change antibiotics, but this is not as urgent a concern as the progression toward hypoxemia despite an increase in O2 flow rate. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1622 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 21. Which nursing interventions included in the care of a mechanically ventilated patient with acute respiratory failure can the registered nurse (RN) delegate to an experienced licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN) working in the intensive care unit? a. Assess breath sounds every hour.b. Monitor central venous pressures. c. Place patient in the prone position. d. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter. ANS: D Insertion of indwelling urinary catheters is included in LPN/LVN education and scope of practice and can be safely delegated to an LPN/LVN who is experienced in caring for critically ill patients. Placing a patient who is on a ventilator in the prone position requires multiple staff, and should be supervised by an RN. Assessment of breath sounds and obtaining central venous pressures require advanced assessment skills and should be done by the RN caring for a critically ill patient. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1615 OBJ: Special Questions: Delegation TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment 22. A nurse is caring for a patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) who is receiving mechanical ventilation using synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV). The settings include fraction of inspired oxygen (FIO2) of 80%, tidal volume of 450, rate of 16/minute, and positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) of 5 cm. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. O2 saturation of 99% c. Crackles audible at lung bases b. Heart rate 106 beats/minute d. Respiratory rate 22 breaths/minute ANS: A The FIO2 of 80% increases the risk for O2 toxicity. Because the patient’s O2 saturation is 99%, a decrease in FIO2 is indicated to avoid toxicity. The other patient data would be typical for a patient with ARDS and would not be the most important data to report to the health care provider. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1616 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 23. Which information about a patient who is receiving cisatracurium (Nimbex) to prevent asynchronous breathing with the positive pressure ventilator requires action by the nurse? a. No sedative has been ordered for the patient. b. The patient does not respond to verbal stimulation. c. There is no cough or gag reflex when the patient is suctioned. d. The patient’s oxygen saturation remains between 90% to 93%. ANS: A Because neuromuscular blockade is extremely anxiety provoking, it is essential that patients who are receiving neuromuscular blockade receive concurrent sedation and analgesia. Absence of response to stimuli is expected in patients receiving neuromuscular blockade. The O2 saturation is adequate. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1619 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity24. The nurse is caring for a patient who is intubated and receiving positive pressure ventilation to treat acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Which finding is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Red-brown drainage from nasogastric tube b. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level 32 mg/dL c. Scattered coarse crackles heard throughout lungs d. Arterial blood gases: pH of 7.31, PaCO2 of 50, and PaO2 of 68 ANS: A The nasogastric drainage indicates possible gastrointestinal bleeding or stress ulcer and should be reported. The pH and PaCO2 are slightly abnormal, but current guidelines advocating for permissive hypercapnia indicate that these would not indicate an immediate need for a change in therapy. The BUN is slightly elevated but does not indicate an immediate need for action. Adventitious breath sounds are commonly heard in patients with ARDS. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1623 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 25. During change-of-shift report on a medical unit, the nurse learns that a patient with aspiration pneumonia who was admitted with respiratory distress has become increasingly agitated. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Give the prescribed PRN sedative drug. b. Offer reassurance and reorient the patient. c. Use pulse oximetry to check the oxygen saturation. d. Notify the health care provider about the patient’s status. ANS: C Agitation may be an early indicator of hypoxemia. The other actions may also be appropriate, depending on the findings about O2 saturation. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1610 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 26. The nurse reviews the electronic health record for a patient scheduled for a total hip replacement. Which assessment data shown in the accompanying figure increase the patient’s risk for respiratory complications after surgery? a. Older age and anemia c. Recent arthroscopic procedure b. Albumin level and weight loss d. Confusion and disorientation to time ANS: B The patient’s recent weight loss and low protein stores indicate possible muscle weakness, which make it more difficult for an older patient to recover from the effects of general anesthesia and immobility associated with the hip surgery. The other information will also be noted by the nurse but does not place the patient at higher risk for respiratory failure.DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1615 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. Which actions should the nurse start to reduce the risk for ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) (select all that apply)? a. Obtain arterial blood gases daily. b. Provide a “sedation holiday” daily. c. Give prescribed pantoprazole (Protonix). d. Elevate the head of the bed to at least 30°. e. Provide oral care with chlorhexidine (0.12%) solution daily. ANS: B, C, D, E All of these interventions are part of the ventilator bundle that is recommended to prevent VAP. Arterial blood gases may be done daily but are not always necessary and do not help prevent VAP. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1623 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological IntegrityChapter 68: Emergency and Disaster Nursing Lewis: Medical-Surgical Nursing, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. During the primary assessment of a victim of a motor vehicle collision, the nurse determines that the patient has an unobstructed airway. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Palpate extremities for bilateral pulses. b. Observe the patient’s respiratory effort. c. Check the patient’s level of consciousness. d. Examine the patient for any external bleeding. ANS: B Even with a patent airway, patients can have other problems that compromise ventilation, so the next action is to assess the patient’s breathing. The other actions are also part of the initial survey but assessment of breathing should be done immediately after assessing for airway patency. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1630 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 2. During the primary survey of a patient with severe leg trauma, the nurse observes that the patient’s left pedal and posterior tibial pulses are absent and the entire leg is swollen. Which action will the nurse take next? a. Send blood to the lab for a complete blood count. b. Assess further for a cause of the decreased circulation. c. Finish the airway, breathing, circulation, disability survey. d. Start normal saline fluid infusion with a large-bore IV line. ANS: D The assessment data indicate that the patient may have arterial trauma and hemorrhage. When a possibly life-threatening injury is found during the primary survey, the nurse should immediately start interventions before proceeding with the survey. Although a complete blood count is indicated, administration of IV fluids should be started first. Completion of the primary survey and further assessment should be completed after the IV fluids are initiated. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1630 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 3. After the return of spontaneous circulation following the resuscitation of a patient who had a cardiac arrest, therapeutic hypothermia is ordered. Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Initiate cooling per protocol. b. Avoid the use of sedative drugs. c. Check mental status every 15 minutes. d. Rewarm if temperature is below 91° F (32.8° C). ANS: AWhen therapeutic hypothermia is used postresuscitation, external cooling devices or cold normal saline infusions are used to rapidly lower body temperature to 89.6° F to 93.2° F (32° C to 34° C). Because hypothermia will decrease brain activity, assessing mental status every 15 minutes is not done at this stage. Sedative drugs are given during therapeutic hypothermia. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1634 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 4. A patient who is unconscious after a fall from a ladder is transported to the emergency department by emergency medical personnel. During the primary survey of the patient, the nurse should a. obtain a complete set of vital signs. b. obtain a Glasgow Coma Scale score. c. attach an electrocardiogram monitor. d. ask about chronic medical conditions. ANS: B The Glasgow Coma Scale is included when assessing for disability during the primary survey. The other information is part of the secondary survey. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1632 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 5. A 19-yr-old patient is brought to the emergency department (ED) with multiple lacerations and tissue avulsion of the left hand. When asked about tetanus immunization, the patient denies having any previous vaccinations. The nurse will anticipate giving a. tetanus immunoglobulin (TIG) only. b. TIG and tetanus-diphtheria toxoid (Td). c. tetanus-diphtheria toxoid and pertussis vaccine (Tdap) only. d. TIG and tetanus-diphtheria toxoid and pertussis vaccine (Tdap). ANS: D For an adult with no previous tetanus immunizations, TIG and Tdap are recommended. The other immunizations are not sufficient for this patient. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1634 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance 6. A patient who has experienced blunt abdominal trauma during a motor vehicle collision is complaining of increasing abdominal pain. The nurse will plan to teach the patient about the purpose of a. peritoneal lavage. b. abdominal ultrasonography. c. nasogastric (NG) tube placement. d. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). ANS: B For patients who are at risk for intraabdominal bleeding, focused abdominal ultrasonography is the preferred method to assess for intraperitoneal bleeding. An MRI would not be used. Peritoneal lavage is an alternative, but it is more invasive. An NG tube would not be helpful in the diagnosis of intraabdominal bleeding.DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1633 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 7. A patient with hypotension and an elevated temperature after working outside on a hot day is treated in the emergency department (ED). The nurse determines that discharge teaching has been effective when the patient makes which statement? a. “I’ll take salt tablets when I work outdoors in the summer.” b. “I should take acetaminophen (Tylenol) if I start to feel too warm.” c. “I need to drink extra fluids when working outside in hot weather.” d. “I’ll move to a cool environment if I notice that I’m feeling confused” ANS: C Oral fluids and electrolyte replacement solutions such as sports drinks help replace fluid and electrolytes lost when exercising in hot weather. Salt tablets are not recommended because of the risks of gastric irritation and hypernatremia. Antipyretic drugs are not effective in lowering body temperature elevations caused by excessive exposure to heat. A patient who is confused is likely to have more severe hyperthermia and will be unable to remember to take appropriate action. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1637 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 8. A 22-yr-old patient who experienced a drowning accident in a local pool, but now is awake and breathing spontaneously, is admitted for observation. Which assessment will be most important for the nurse to take during the observation period? a. Auscultate heart sounds. c. Auscultate breath sounds. b. Palpate peripheral pulses. d. Check mental orientation. ANS: C Because pulmonary edema is a common complication after drowning, the nurse should assess the breath sounds frequently. The other information also will be obtained by the nurse, but it is not as pertinent to the patient’s admission diagnosis. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1640 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 9. When planning the response to the potential use of smallpox as a biological weapon, the emergency department (ED) nurse manager will plan to obtain adequate quantities of a. vaccine. c. antibiotics. b. atropine. d. whole blood. ANS: A Smallpox infection can be prevented or ameliorated by the administration of vaccine given rapidly after exposure. The other interventions would be helpful for other agents of terrorism but not for smallpox. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 1645 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment 10. When rewarming a patient who arrived in the emergency department (ED) with a temperature of 87° F (30.6° C), which finding indicates that the nurse should discontinue active rewarming?a. The patient begins to shiver. b. The BP decreases to 86/42 mm Hg. c. The patient develops atrial fibrillation. d. The core temperature is 94° F (34.4° C). ANS: D A core temperature of at least 89.6° F to 93.2° F (32° C to 34° C) indicates that sufficient rewarming has occurred. Dysrhythmias, hypotension, and shivering may occur during rewarming, and should be treated but are not an indication to stop rewarming the patient. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1634 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 11. When assessing an older patient admitted to the emergency department (ED) with a broken arm and facial bruises, the nurse observes several additional bruises in various stages of healing. Which statement or question by the nurse should be first? a. “You should not go home.” b. “Do you feel safe at home?” c. “Would you like to see a social worker?” d. “I need to report my concerns to the police.” ANS: B The nurse’s initial response should be to further assess the patient’s situation. Telling the patient not to return home may be an option once further assessment is done. A social worker or police report may be appropriate once further assessment is completed. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1644 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity 12. A patient arrives in the emergency department (ED) several hours after taking “25 to 30” acetaminophen (Tylenol) tablets. Which action will the nurse plan to take? a. Give N-acetylcysteine. b. Discuss the use of chelation therapy. c. Start oxygen using a non-rebreather mask. d. Have the patient drink large amounts of water. ANS: A N-acetylcysteine is the recommended treatment to prevent liver damage after acetaminophen overdose. The other actions might be used for other types of poisoning, but they will not be appropriate for a patient with acetaminophen poisoning. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 1643 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 13. A triage nurse in a busy emergency department (ED) assesses a patient who complains of 7/10 abdominal pain and states, “I had a temperature of 103.9° F (39.9° C) at home.” The nurse’s first action should be to a. assess the patient’s current vital signs. b. give acetaminophen (Tylenol) per agency protocol. c. ask the patient to provide a clean-catch urine for urinalysis. d. tell the patient that it will be 1 to 2 hours before seeing a health care provider.ANS: A The patient’s pain and statement about an elevated temperature indicate that the nurse should obtain vital signs before deciding how rapidly the patient should be seen by the health care provider. A urinalysis may be appropriate, but this would be done after the vital signs are taken. The nurse will not give acetaminophen before confirming a current temperature elevation. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1632 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 14. The emergency department (ED) triage nurse is assessing four victims involved in a motor vehicle collision. Which patient has the highest priority for treatment? a. A patient with no pedal pulses b. A patient with an open femur fracture c. A patient with bleeding facial lacerations d. A patient with paradoxical chest movement ANS: D Most immediate deaths from trauma occur because of problems with ventilation, so the patient with paradoxical chest movements should be treated first. Face and head fractures can obstruct the airway, but the patient with facial injuries only has lacerations. The other two patients also need rapid intervention but do not have airway or breathing problems. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1629 OBJ: Special Questions: Multiple Patients TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment 15. The following interventions are part of the emergency department (ED) protocol for a patient who has been admitted with multiple bee stings to the hands. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Remove the patient’s rings. b. Apply ice packs to both hands. c. Apply calamine lotion to itching areas. d. Give diphenhydramine (Benadryl) 50 mg PO. ANS: A The patient’s rings should be removed first because it might not be possible to remove them if swelling develops. The other orders should also be implemented as rapidly as possible after the nurse has removed the jewelry. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1640 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 16. Gastric lavage and administration of activated charcoal are ordered for an unconscious patient who has been admitted to the emergency department (ED) after ingesting 30 lorazepam (Ativan) tablets. Which prescribed action should the nurse plan to do first? a. Insert a large-bore orogastric tube. b. Assist with intubation of the patient. c. Prepare a 60-mL syringe with saline.d. Give first dose of activated charcoal. ANS: B In an unresponsive patient, intubation is done before gastric lavage and activated charcoal administration to prevent aspiration. The other actions will be implemented after intubation. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1630 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 17. A patient arrives in the emergency department (ED) after topical exposure to powdered lime at work. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Obtain the patient’s vital signs. b. Obtain a baseline complete blood count. c. Decontaminate the patient by showering with water. d. Brush off any visible powder on the skin and clothing. ANS: D The initial action should be to protect staff members and decrease the patient’s exposure to the toxin by decontamination. Patients exposed to powdered lime should not be showered; instead, any and all visible powder should be brushed off. The other actions can be done after the decontamination is completed. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1643 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 18. An unresponsive 79-yr-old patient is admitted to the emergency department (ED) during a summer heat wave. The patient’s core temperature is 105.4° F (40.8° C), blood pressure (BP) is 88/50 mm Hg, and pulse is 112 beats/min. The nurse will plan to a. apply wet sheets and a fan to the patient. b. provide O2 at 2 L/min with a nasal cannula. c. start lactated Ringer’s solution at 1000 mL/hr. d. give acetaminophen (Tylenol) rectal suppository. ANS: A The priority intervention is to cool the patient. Antipyretics are not effective in decreasing temperature in heat stroke and 100% O2 should be given, which requires a high flow rate through a non-rebreather mask. An older patient would be at risk for developing complications such as pulmonary edema if given fluids at 1000 mL/hr. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1637 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 19. An unresponsive patient is admitted to the emergency department (ED) after falling through the ice while ice skating. Which assessment will the nurse obtain first? a. Pulse c. Breath sounds b. Heart rhythm d. Body temperature ANS: AThe priority assessment in an unresponsive patient relates to CAB (circulation, airway, breathing) so a pulse check should be performed first. While assessing the pulse, the nurse should look for signs of breathing. The other data will also be collected rapidly but are not as essential as determining if there is a pulse. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1630 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 20. Following an earthquake, patients are triaged by emergency medical personnel and transported to the emergency department (ED). Which patient will the nurse need to assess first? a. A patient with a red tag c. A patient with a black tag b. A patient with a blue tag d. A patient with a yellow tag ANS: A The red tag indicates a patient with a life-threatening injury requiring rapid treatment. The other tags indicate patients with less urgent injuries or those who are likely to die. DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember (knowledge) REF: 1646 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment 21. Family members are in the patient’s room when the patient has a cardiac arrest and the staff start resuscitation measures. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Keep the family in the room and assign a staff member to explain the care given and answer questions. b. Ask the family to wait outside the patient’s room with a designated staff member to provide emotional support. c. Ask the family members whether they would prefer to remain in the patient’s room or wait outside the room. d. Tell the family members that patients are comforted by having family members present during resuscitation efforts. ANS: C Although many family members and patients report benefits from family presence during resuscitation efforts, the nurse’s initial action should be to determine the preference of these family members. The other actions may be appropriate, but this will depend on what is learned when assessing family preferences. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1632 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity 22. A patient who has deep human bite wounds on the left hand is being treated in the urgent care center. Which action will the nurse plan to take? a. Prepare to administer rabies immune globulin (BayRab). b. Assist the health care provider with suturing of the bite wounds. c. Teach the patient the reason for the use of prophylactic antibiotics. d. Keep the wounds dry until the health care provider can assess them. ANS: CBecause human bites of the hand frequently become infected, prophylactic antibiotics are usually prescribed to prevent infection. To minimize infection, deep bite wounds on the extremities are left open. Rabies immune globulin might be used after an animal bite. Initial treatment of bite wounds includes copious irrigation to help clean out contaminants and microorganisms. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1642 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 23. The urgent care center protocol for tick bites includes the following actions. Which action will the nurse take first when caring for a patient with a tick bite? a. Use tweezers to remove any remaining ticks. b. Check the vital signs, including temperature. c. Give doxycycline (Vibramycin) 100 mg orally. d. Obtain information about recent outdoor activities. ANS: A Because neurotoxic venom is released as long as the tick is attached to the patient, the initial action should be to remove any ticks using tweezers or forceps. The other actions are also appropriate, but the priority is to minimize venom release. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1641 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. Which interventions will the nurse plan for a comatose patient who is to begin therapeutic hypothermia (select all that apply)? a. Assist with endotracheal intubation. b. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter. c. Begin continuous cardiac monitoring. d. Obtain an order to restrain the patient. e. Prepare to give sympathomimetic drugs. ANS: A, B, C Cooling can produce dysrhythmias, so the patient’s heart rhythm should be continuously monitored and dysrhythmias treated if necessary. Bladder catheterization and endotracheal intubation are needed during cooling. Sympathomimetic drugs tend to stimulate the heart and increase the risk for fatal dysrhythmias such as ventricular fibrillation. Patients receiving therapeutic hypothermia are comatose or do not follow commands so restraints are not indicated. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1634 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity 2. The emergency department (ED) nurse is starting therapeutic hypothermia in a patient who has been resuscitated after a cardiac arrest. Which actions in the hypothermia protocol can be delegated to an experienced licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN) (select all that apply)? a. Continuously monitor heart rhythm.b. Assess neurologic status every 2 hours. c. Give acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg. d. Place cooling blankets above and below patient. e. Attach rectal temperature probe to cooling blanket control panel. ANS: C, D, E Experienced LPN/LVNs have the education and scope of practice to implement hypothermia measures (e.g., cooling blanket, temperature probe) and administer medications under the supervision of a registered nurse (RN). Assessment of neurologic status and monitoring the heart rhythm require RN-level education and scope of practice and should be done by the RN. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1634 OBJ: Special Questions: Delegation TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment OTHER 1. The following four patients arrive in the emergency department (ED) after a motor vehicle collision. In which order should the nurse assess them? (Put a comma and a space between each answer choice [A, B, C, D, E].) a. A 74-yr-old patient with palpitations and chest pain b. A 43-yr-old patient complaining of 7/10 abdominal pain c. A 21-yr-old patient with multiple fractures of the face and jaw d. A 37-yr-old patient with a misaligned lower left leg with intact pulses ANS: C, A, B, D The highest priority is to assess the 21-yr-old patient for airway obstruction, which is the most life-threatening injury. The 74-yr-old patient may have chest pain from cardiac ischemia and should be assessed and have diagnostic testing for this pain. The 43-yr-old patient may have abdominal trauma or bleeding and should be seen next to assess circulatory status. The 37-yr-old patient appears to have a possible fracture of the left leg and should be seen soon, but this patient has the least life-threatening injury. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1629 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization | Special Questions: Multiple Patients TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrit [Show More]

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