NASM Compensations compensations, imbalances, corrective strategies

NASM Compensations compensations, imbalances, corrective strategies Question Answer A client's shoulder elevates when performing a pushing assessment, what is a probable underactive muscle? a. Lower trapezius b. Up ...

NASM Compensations compensations, imbalances, corrective strategies Question Answer A client's shoulder elevates when performing a pushing assessment, what is a probable underactive muscle? a. Lower trapezius b. Upper trapezius c. Sternocleidomastoid d. Levator scapulae a. Lower trapezius A multiplanar single-leg box hop-up with stabilization is categorized as an exercise in which of the following? a. Leg-power b. Leg-stabilization c. Balance-stabilization d. Balance-power d. Balance-power A prolonged intolerable stressor that produces fatigue and leads to a breakdown in the system or injury is called? a. Overworking b. Alarm reaction c. Exhaustion d. Resistance development c. Exhaustion A seated cable row is an example of which level of training in the NASM OPT model? a. Stabilization b. Strength c. Power d. Reactive b. Strength Diastolic blood pressure represents which of the following? a. The top number in the blood pressure reading b. Pressure within the arterial system after the heart contracts c. The larger of the two numbers d. Pressure within the arterial syst d. Pressure within the arterial system when the heart is resting and filling with blood During the pushing assessment, you notice your client's shoulders elevate, what strengthening exercise would you perform with them? a. Chin tuck b. Quadruped arm/ opposite leg raise c. Ball wall squats d. Ball cobra d. Ball cobra For a client who demonstrates their low back arching as a movement compensation, which method of cardio would you initially avoid? a. Treadmills b. Bicycles c. Elliptical trainers d. Group exercise classes b. Bicycles 2 How long does NASM suggest the cardiorespiratory portion of the warm-up should last? a. 0-3 minutes b. 3- 5 minutes c. 5-10 minutes d. 10-15 minutes c. 5-10 minutes How long does pressure need to be held on the tender spot while using self-myofascial release? a. 15 seconds minimum b. 20 seconds minimum c. 25 seconds minimum d. 30 seconds minimum d. 30 seconds minimum If a client's feet turn out during the overhead squat assessment, what muscle would be considered underactive? a. Soleus b. Biceps femoris (short head) c. Medial gastrocnemius d. TFL c. Medial gastrocnemius In a client with lower crossed syndrome, which of the following muscles is lengthened? a. Gastrocnemius b. Soleus c. Internal oblique d. Erector spinae c. Internal oblique In a client with upper crossed syndrome, which of the following muscles is shortened? a. Scalenes b. Rhomboids c. Teres minor d. Deep cervical flexors a. Scalenes Increasing weight with each set is an example of which type of resistance-training system? a. Multiple set b. Pyramid c. Circuit training d. Vertical loading b. Pyramid The gluteus maximus is responsible for which of the following? a. Concentrically accelerating hip abduction and internal rotation b. Concentrically accelerating hip abduction and external rotation c. Concentrically accelerating hip extension and d. Concentrically accelerating hip extension and external rotation The latissimus dorsi is responsible for concentrically accelerating which of the following movements? a. Shoulder flexion, abduction, and external rotation b. Shoulder extension, adduction, and external rotation c. Shoulder flexion, abduction, a d. Shoulder extension, adduction, and internal rotation The tendency of the body to seek the path of least resistance during functional movement patterns is known as: a. Relative flexibility b. Corrective flexibility c. Dynamic flexibility d. Active flexibility a. Relative flexibility What assessment is used to assess upper extremity agility and stability? a. Shark skill b. Upper extremity strength c. Davies d. Overhead squat c. Davies What effect do beta-blockers have on a client's blood pressure? a. No effect b. Decrease c. Increase d. Outside scope of practice for personal trainer b. Decrease What exercise is considered a total-body strength level exercise? a. Squat, curl, to two-arm press b. Two- arm a. Squat, curl, to two-arm press 3 push press c. Barbell clean d. Multiplanar step-up to balance, curl, to overhead press What is a potential drawback to the horizontal loading system? a. Useful for hypertrophy phase only b. The amount of time typically spent resting can add up to more time than the workout c. Less effective when compared to vertical loading d. b. The amount of time typically spent resting can add up to more time than the workout What is the appropriate percentage to increase after each set when performing an upper extremity strength assessment? a. 1%-2% b. 5%-10% c. 10%-15% d. 15%- 20% b. 5%-10% What is the best time of day to have your client measure their resting heart rate? a. Right before bed b. Right before workout c. Just after workout d. Upon waking in the morning d. Upon waking in the morning What is the immediate progression of an alternating-arm ball dumbbell chest press? a. Two-arm ball dumbbell chest press b. Barbell bench press c. Alternating-arm dumbbell chest press on bench d. Single-arm ball dumbbell chest press d. Single-arm ball dumbbell chest press What is the most appropriate heart rate percentage range for a client just starting into zone 3? a. 75-79% b. 80- 85% c. 86-90% d. 91-94% c. 86-90% What is the next immediate progression for the ball twoarm dumbbell chest press? a. Two-arm dumbbell chest press on a bench b. Single-leg ball dumbbell chest press c. Alternating-arm ball dumbbell chest press d. Singlearm ball dumbbell ches c. Alternating-arm ball dumbbell chest press What type of exercise is a single-leg power step-up categorized as? a. Plyometric-strength b. Leg-strength c. Plyometric-power d. SAQ c. Plyometric-power When a client is performing the overhead squat assessment from the lateral view, which of the following kinetic chain checkpoints are you observing? a. Feet and knees b. Lumbo pelvic hip complex, feet, and knees c. Lumbo pelvic hip complex and s c. Lumbo pelvic hip complex and shoulder complex When determining a client's heart rate for zone 2, which equation would you use? a. (200 - Clients age) x (65% and 75%) b. (200 - Clients age) x (76% and 85%) c. (220 - Clients age) x (76% and 85%) d. (220 - Clients age) x (65% and 75%) c. (220 - Clients age) x (76% and 85%) 4 When first starting out with a brand new client, which of the following training systems is most appropriate? a. Circuit training b. Single set c. Split set d. Multiple set b. Single set When performing a peripheral heart action workout for strength, immediately after a barbell squat, which exercise would you perform? a. Romanian deadlift b. Squat Jump c. Seated row d. Single-leg cable row c. Seated row When performing a single-leg squat assessment, if the knee moves inward, what is a probable overactive muscle? a. Gluteus medius b. Adductor complex c. Medial gastrocnemius d. Vastus medialis oblique (VMO) b. Adductor complex When performing the overhead squat assessment, your client's arms fall forward, which muscle would be considered most likely overactive? a. Rhomboids b. Supraspinatus c. Teres major d. Teres minor c. Teres major When performing the single-leg dumbbell scaption, what is the immediate regression? a. Single-leg, alternating arm b. Single-leg, single-arm c. Two legs d. Seated c. Two legs When training for balance, exercises that involve dynamic eccentric and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion are categorized as which of the following? a. Balancepower b. Balance-strength c. Balance-stabilizatio b. Balance-strength When training for speed, agility, and quickness, the foot and ankle complex should be in which of the following positions when it hits the ground? a. Pointing straight ahead and dorsiflexed b. Externally rotated and dorsiflexed c. Internally rot a. Pointing straight ahead and dorsiflexed When training in Phase 1: Stabilization E