Complete Advanced Pharmacology.docx practice questions and answers solved solution

Complete Advanced Pharmacology.docx practice questions and answers solved solution Exam 1 Which of the following common prescribing practices is associated with causing harm to the patient? Select one: A. Explainin ...

Complete Advanced Pharmacology.docx practice questions and answers solved solution Exam 1 Which of the following common prescribing practices is associated with causing harm to the patient? Select one: A. Explaining the risk of adverse reaction to the patient B. Using electronic prescriptions C. Failure to detect or anticipate drug interactions D. Finding out beforehand if the patient is financially able to obtain the medication Which of the following statements is true? Select one: A. Pharmacokinetics is what the body does to the drugs B. Pharmacokinetics is what the drugs do to the body C. Hemodynamics is what the drugs do to the body D. Pharmacodynamics is what the body does to the drugs All of the following are factors that affect absorption of drugs except: Select one: A. Drug characteristics B. Routes of administration C. Blood flow D. Body Temperature Which of the following factors does not effect distribution? Select one: A. Plasma protein binding B. Dehydration C. tissue binding D. Obesity Regarding metabolism (bio-transformation), which of the following statements is false? Select one: A. Chemical inactivation of a drug B. Conversion to a more water-soluble compound that can be excreted from the body C. The primary organ for drug metabolism is the liver D. The primary organ for drug metabolism is the kidney True or False? During phase I, the oxidation or reduction of drugs in the body makes the drug more hydrophilic to enhance excretion. Select one: A. False B. True Which of the following is NOT one of the various roles that drugs play in metabolism? Select one: A. Substrate: A drug that is affected by a change in its enzyme metabolism B. Inducer: A drug that causes acceleration in the enzyme metabolization of another drug C. Antagonist: a drug that nullifies the action of another drug D. Inhibitor: A drug that causes inhibition in the enzyme metabolization of another drug Please fill in the blank by choosing the correct word from the choice below: During the first-pass effect, oral medications are extensively ___________ to inert compounds when they first pass through the liver Select one: A. Marginalized B. Hydrolyzed C. Metabolized D. Homogenized Which of the following is the correct pathway of a drug during the first-pass effect? Select one: A. Hepatic vein, stomach, duodenum, portal vein, and liver B. Portal vein, stomach, duodenum, liver and hepatic vein C. Stomach, duodenum, hepatic vein, liver and portal vein D. Stomach, duodenum, portal vein, liver and hepatic vein Which of the following statements is false? Select one: A. Drugs and their metabolites are removed from the body through the process of elimination B. The primary sites for elimination are the liver and kidney C. Creatinine clearance must be obtained to check for renal function before modifying the dosage of medication D. The primary sites for elimination are the lungs and skin (sweating) __________ is the volume of plasma from which all drug is removed within a given time. Please fill in the blank by selecting the correct word from the following list: Select one: A. Ingestion B. Absorption C. Clearance D. Elimination True or false? Steady state is when a drug has a stable concentration, or when a drug is administered at the same rate at which it is eliminated Select one: A. True B. False Which of the following statements best describes the steady state? Select one: A. Steady is state is when less drug leaves the body than is being administered B. Steady is state is when more drug leaves the body than is being administered C. Steady state is reached when a drug is administered at the same rate at which it is eliminated D. Steady state happens when all of the drug is eliminated from the body True or False? Adverse events are always unfavorable, unintended and undesirable. Select one: A. True B. False True or False? Adverse events never occur at therapeutic dosages. Select one: A. True B. False In calculating the therapeutic index, the primary care provider must consider all except which of the following? Select one: A. Maintenance dose B. Target level C. Loading dose D. Prevalence of adverse events in the U.S.A. Which of the following is the most correct definition of "polypharmacy?" Select one: A. one prescription sent to many pharmacies. B. Too few medications prescribed for one person C. Medications prescribed at dosages that are too high D. Too many drugs prescribed for one person which may or may not be necessary. In treating Alzheimer's-type dementia the cholinesterase inhibitors include all of the following drugs except: Select one: A. Memantine hydrochloride (Namenda) B. Galantamine (Razadyne) C. Rivastigmine (Excelon) D. Donepezil (Aricept) Which of the following is NOT a standard test for monitoring functional ability? Select one: A. Global Deterioration Scale (GDS) B. Katz Assessment of ADLs and IADLs C. Wasserman Alertness Test (WAT) D. Folstein Mini-Mental State Exam (MMSE) Which of the following should be included in patient education about drugs to treat dementia? Select one: A. Counsel the patient and family members regarding behavioral and environmental management of disease, as well as the possible side effects of the drug B. Tell the patient and family members not to worry about side effects because you will keep an eye on things C. Advise the family to select a good nursing home before starting the drugs D. Tell the patient that the drug is a definite cure Phenylpiperidine (merperidine, fentanyl) belongs to which of the following classes of drugs prescribed for pain management? Select one: A. Hypnotics B. Mixed agonist-antagonists C. Partial agonists D. Opioid agonists Which of the following is NOT an indication for the use of opioids? Select one: a. Dyspnea related to left ventricular failure or pulmonary edema b. Suicidal depression c. Severe diarrhea and cramping d. Symptomatic treatment of mild to severe acute pain and chronic, severe intractable pain of terminal illness The mechanism of action of opioid agonists include all of the following except: Select one: A. Alter central release of neurotransmitters from afferent nerves to noxious stimuli B. Occupy same receptors as endogenous opioid peptides C. Inhibition of painful stimuli in selected parts of CNS D. Stimulate the production of endorphins True or False? Nonpharmacologic treatment is more important than drugs for long term chronic pain management Select one: A. False B. True How often should patients on opioids be seen by their primary care provider (PCP)? Select one: A. Weekly B. Daily C. Twice per year D. Montly In treating migraine headaches, which of the following drugs is a prophylactic agent? Select one: A. Sumatriptan B. Ergotamine tartrate C. Eletriptan D. Cyproheptadine Which of the following is not a drug class commonly used for prophylaxis against migraine headaches Select one: A. Antihistamines B. β-Blockers C. Antidepressants D. Anticonvulsants All serotonin 5-HT1 receptor agonists have a similar chemical structure and comparable mechanism of action which includes all of the following except: Select one: A. Cranial vessel constriction B. Inhibition of neuropeptide release C. Reduced transmission in trigeminal pain pathways D. Reduces intracranial pressure Which of the following mechanisms of action of Ergotamine derivatives is true? Select one: A. Stimulate central vasomotor centers B. Dilation of peripheral and cranial blood vessels C. Increase hyperperfusion of the basilar artery D. Partial agonist or antagonist activity against tryptaminergic, dopaminergic, or α-adrenergic receptors, depending on binding site The mechanisms of action of calcium channel blockers as prophylactic agents against migraine headaches include all but which of the following? Select one: A. Inhibits the production of serotonin B. Enhance hormone secretion enzyme activity C. Regulate vascular smooth muscle contraction D. Enhance neurotransmission True or False? Triptan administered orally is the drug of choice to treat children for migraine headaches in evidence-based practice Select one: A. True B. False Abortive agents are used in the absence of prophylactic management in patients who have fewer than how many attacks per month? Select one: a. four b. fifty c. ten d. one Which of the following is false about using Triptan to treat migraine headache? Select one: A. Triptans have become first-line treatment B. There are fewer adverse reactions with Triptans C. Triptans are used only for mild migraines D. Triptans are more expensive than ergotamines True or False? Aspirin and Naproxen (NSAID) can be effective in treating mild to moderate migraine headache. Select one: A. False B. True If Triptans are ineffective when treating moderate to severe migraine headaches, which drug is currently the second-line medication? Select one: A. Morphine Sulfate B. Ergotamine C. Carbamethazole D. Amytriptaline Prophylactic treatment for migraine headaches should be prescribed when the patient has more than how many attacks each month? Select one: a. 7-8 b. 2-3 c. 12-13 d. 20-21 True or False? Migraines are common in the elderly. Select one: A. False B. True All of the following are classes of seizure control drugs except: Select one: A. Succinimide B. Hydantoin C. Tricyclic antideppresants D. Barbiturates The primary site of action of Hydantoins is which of the following? Select one: a. Primary motor cortex b. Limbic system c. Medulla oblongata d. Right temporal lobes True or False? Women of child-bearing age who are going to take antiepileptics should be told that such drugs alter the effectiveness of birth control pills, which could result in unplanned pregnancy. Select one: A. True B. False Which of the following statements is false? Select one: A. COMT inhibitors inhibit enzyme that breaks down dopamine B. Levodopa converts to dopamine C. Dopamine agonists eliminate synthetic Dopamine from the central nervous system D. MAO-B inhibitors prevent MAO-B from breaking down dopamine The following is a list of management problems associated with administration of Levodopa. Which item does not belong in this list? Select one: A. Intermittent claudication B. Disease progression C. Choreiformdyskinesias D. The drug "wearing off" True or False? The patient has a responsibility to actively participate in the consultation process regarding treatment, risk, and benefit. Select one: A. True B. False Prescribing drugs for "off label" use requires all except which of the following? Select one: A. Monitor carefully for the onset of potential problems B. Document the rationale for deviating from the package insert instructions C. Be prepared to prove that the standard of care supports the alternative prescribing regimen D. For off label use, the provider may disregard the FDA black box warnings Mr. Smith has been taking opioids for severe back pain after a lumbar laminectomy for three months. After he finished his last dose he complained of tremors, irritability, strong craving for more drug, diaphoresis, palpitations and nausea and vomiting, fever, diarrhea, abdominal cramping. You have diagnosed that Mr. Smith is now addicted to the pain medication and is now exhibiting acute and severe narcotic withdrawal syndrome. Your next intervention is which of the following? Select one: A. Call 911 for ambulance to take Mr. Smith to emergency department for immediate treatment B. Give Mr. Smith another prescription for the opioid and tell him to call for an appointment before he runs out of drugs. C. Refer Mr. Smith to a Methadone clinic D. Advise Mr. Smith to stay at home and that his withdrawal symptoms will subside in a few days Patient education is designed to accomplish all of the following except: Select one: A. Change behavior B. Enhance satisfaction C. Promote adherence to the medication regimen D. Get the patient to follow doctor's orders without question True or False? Clark’s rule using weight to calculate pediatric dosages is usually more accurate than a rule based on age. Select one: A. False B. True In calculating dosages for neonates it's important to know that the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is _________ of the adult value by about the 3rd week of life. Select one: A. 75% B. 20% C. 300% D. 50% Which of the following is true about pediatric drug metabolism? Select one: a. It is slower in toddlers than in infants b. It is faster in infants than in people over 75 years of age c. It is faster in infants than in teenagers d. It is slower in infants than in older children and adults Changes in renal function due to aging are the most important factor that causes adverse drug reactions. Which of the following is NOTa part of the known list of such renal function changes? Select one: A. Decreased number of nephrons B. Decreased creatinine clearance C. Decreased renal blood flow, glomerular filtration rate, and tubular secretion rate D. Elevated bilirubin   Exam 2 All of the following must be monitored during long term use of steroids except: Select one: a. Vitamin E blood levels b. Bone density c. Weight and blood pressure d. CBC, electrolytes, glucose The mechanism of action for α1 - Adrenergic Blockers includes all of the following except: Select one: A. Dilation of arterioles and veins B. Reduces peripheral vascular resistance and supine and standing blood pressure C. Increases blood flow in the pulmonary vein D. Relaxes smooth muscles in urinary bladder neck and prostate True of False? People with heart failure issues should avoid taking NSAIDS because of the possibility of exacerbation. Select one: A. False B. True lease match the mechanism of action with the correct drug name Increases adenosine levels, producing vasodilation (especially coronary arteries) and improving blood flow. Answer 1 Inhibits binding of ADP to its platelet receptor and subsequent ADP-mediated activation of IIb/IIIa complex Answer 2 Prevents platelet aggregation through inhibition of cyclooxygenase in platelets and endothelial cells. Answer 3 True of False? Prescribing tricyclic antidepressants as an off-label use for neurogenic pain has become widely accepted in evidenced based pain management practice. Select one: A. True B. False Please match the mechanisms of action below with appropriate drug class. Exact mechanism unknown Answer 1 Act through potentiation of GABA on benzodiazepine receptors, especially omega-1 receptors Answer 2 Act as a sedative-hypnotic by acting on limbic system and subcortical CNS Answer 3 Melatonin receptor agonist Remelton Geriatric patients respond differently to medications. Which of the following statements is false? Select one: A. Direct vasodilators are completely safe when given to geriatric patients. B. The use of α1-Adrenergic blockers must be limited because of syncope and tachycardia side effects C. Centrally acting α2-antiadrenergics cause orthostatic hypotension D. Adverse reactions to anti-hypertensive medications increases the risk of falling All of the following classes of drugs are effective for long-term treatment of stable angina except: Select one: A. β-blockers B. Potassium channel openers (ranolazine) C. Calcium channel blockers D. Opioids With regard to patient education covering all anti-hypertensive drugs, which of the following is NOT appropriate advice? Select one: A. Avoid making sudden changes in position because of the risk of blood pressure dropping suddenly upon arising from a resting position B. Do not discontinue unless directed by health care provider C. Never drive or operate machinery while taking any anti-hypertensives D. Dehydration may increase the risk of passing out from a sudden drop in blood pressure during movement while taking anti-hypertensive medication Direct vasodilators mechanisms of action are all of the following except: Select one: A. Inhibition of sympathetic cardioaccelerator and vasoconstrictor centers B. Relax arteriolar smooth muscle and decrease peripheral vascular resistance C. Stimulates carotid sinus baroreceptors, producing reflex increases in heart rate, renin release, and sodium and water retention True or False? Patients taking α1-Receptor blockers should be advised to take the first few doses when lying supine because of the potential for syncope. Select one: A. True B. False The mechanisms of action of thyroid supplementation are all of the following except for: Blockerangina Select one:ace A. Stimulates the pituitary gland into producing more TSH B. Replacement of inadequate levels of endogenous T3 and T4 C. Exerts an indirect effect on tissues D. Supplementation increases basal metabolic rate and metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins, and fats All of the following are indications for antipsychotic medication except: Select one: A. Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) B. Management of bipolar disorders, conduct disorders, tetanus C. Schizoaffective disorder D. Tourette’s syndrome True or false? Calcium channel blockers are the first line drug class of choice for chronic stable and unstable angina. Select one: A. True Hydralazine is used for which of the following medical conditions? Select one: A. Topical treatment for baldness B. Atrial fibrillation and peripheral ischemia C. Urinary tract infection and hydronephrosis D. Congestive heart failure and pulmonary hypertension Which of the following groups of symptoms are common side effects from taking nitroglycerin? Select one: A. Diaeresis, constipation, paralytic illeus and violent behavior B. Flushing, headache, dry mouth, tachycardia and dizziness during movement C. Nausea, vomiting, hair loss and impotence D. Frustration, anxiety, depression and paranoid delusions True or False? Bio-synthetic valves require three months of anticoagulant therapy after placement Select one: A. True B. Fals Which of the following is a non-pharmacological treatment for managing stable angina and preventing myocardial infarction? Select one: A. Obesity reduction program with diet and exercise B. β-blocker therapy C. Taking ACE inhibitors D. Lowering cholesterol with statins True or False? All categories of antidepressant medication have a common major mechanism of action. Select one: A. False B. True Nitroglycerin sub-lingual tablets have a dual benefit for both diagnosing and treating angina. Select one: A. False B. True Please fill in the blank by choosing the correct item below: You should avoid using β-blockers if you are __________. Select one: A. Jewish B. African American C. Hungarian D. Native American Please match the drug names with the appropriate description. Nortriptyline (Pamelor) Answer 1 Bupropion (Wellbutrin) Answer 2 Venlafaxine SR (Effexor SR), duloxetine (Cymbalta II) Answer 3 Fluoxetine (Prozac), citalopram (Celexa), paroxetine (Paxil) Answer 4 Which of the following statements about Levothyroxine is false? Select one: A. Dosages are individualized to laboratory findings and patient’s clinical response B. Fast onset of action; cumulative effects over several hours C. Titration continues until a normal TSH is achieved D. It's the treatment of choice for hypothyoidism Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of action of steroids? Select one: A. Carbohydrate and protein metabolism B. Antiinflammatory response C. Lipid metabolism D. Immune system enhancement True or False? ACE inhibitors are not acceptable for use in pediatric patients. Select one: A. Falseb B. True Which of the following is a mechanism of action of centrally acting α2 agonists? Select one: A. Stimulation of central inhibitory α-adrenergic receptors B. Increases glomerular filtration rate and renal blood flow C. Dilates the coronary arteries D. Stimulates the SA and AV nodes in third degree heart block Which of the following is a correct mechanism of action of nitrates? Select one: A. Causes venous stasis in the peripheral veins B. Increases preload and afterload C. Relaxes vascular smooth muscle via stimulation of intracellular cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP) D. Increases myocardial oxygen demand and slows the heart rate Which of the following psychosis treatment guidelines is false? Select one: A. Typical and atypical antipsychotic agents equally efficacious B. Atypical agents generally preferred first line for long-term treatment C. Therapeutic effect is measured by patient’s increase in functional abilities and decrease in psychotic symptoms D. Response or lack of response to one drug predicts the response of another drug All of the following are mechanisms of action of warfarin except: Select one: A. Inhibits the synthesis of vitamin K–dependent coagulation factors VII, IX, X, and II and anticoagulant proteins C and S B. At therapeutic levels, decreases liver synthesis of vitamin K–dependent clotting factors by 30%-50% C. Stimulates phagocytosis of existing blood clots D. Competitively blocks vitamin K–binding sites Which of the following is a contraindication to taking β-blockers? Select one: A. Tachycardia B. Hiatus hernia C. Second or third degree heart block D. Urinary retention Which of the following is not an indication for using antidepressants. Select one: a. Anxiety disorder b. During the depressive phase in bipolar disoder c. Smoking cessation d. Major depression The classes of drugs for treating stable or unstable angina includes all except which of the following? Select one: A. Nitrates B. Calcium channel blockers C. Alpha blockers D. Beta blockers True or False? β-Blockers can be prescribed for phobic disorders. Select one: A. True B. False True or False? α1-Adrenergic blockers, which are used treat hypertension are also used to treat benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) Select one: A. False B. True You have just prescribed a Centrally acting α2-antiadrenergic medication to your knew patient with hypertension. Which of the following is appropriate advice? Select one: A. Drowsiness is rare B. Use caution when operating machinery or driving C. Take it in the morning upon waking up D. You may drink whenever you want while taking this medication Please match the category with the group of steroids presented here. Hydrocortisone, Cortef, Hydrocortone Answer 1 Dexamethasone, betamethasone Answer 2 Prednisone, prednisolone, triamcinolone, methylprednisolone Answer 3 Please match the category description with the correct drug name. Propylthiouracil (PTU), methimazole Answer 1 Levothyroxine sodium (synthetic T4) Answer 2 Thyrotropin Answer 3 Which of the following evidence-based recommendations is false? Select one: A. Controlling hypertension at or below 140/90 mm Hg has no effect on the kidneys. B. Hypertension control at or below 130/80 mm Hg reduces incidence of cardiovascular disease events by 37% to 56% C. Properly managed anti-hypertension therapy results in 20%-25% mean reduction in myocardial infarction D. Properly managed anti-hypertension therapy results in 35% to 40% mean reduction in incidence of stroke Please match the next set of drug names with the correct descriptor. α2-Noradrenergic antagonists Answer 1 Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) Answer 2 Serotonin 2 Agonist/Blocker/Serotonin Re-uptake Inhibitor (SARI/SSRI) Answer 3 All of the following are indications for taking Digoxin (Digitek, Lanoxin) except: Select one: A. Heart failure B. GERDS C. Atrial Flutter D. Atrial fibrillation Which of the following is the drug of choice to treat hypertension during pregnancy? Select one: A. α1-Adrenergic blockers B. Clonidine C. Minoxidil D. Methyldopa Which of the following is NOT an indication for taking β-Blockers? Select one: A. Pulmonary edema B. Angina C. Migraine prophylaxis D. Mitral valve prolapse Which of the following statements is false? Select one: A. Labetalol and propranolol are β-blockers that are contraindicated during breast feeding because they conentrate heavily in the breast milk B. Methyldopa is the appropriate drug of choice when HTN is first diagnosed during pregnancy C. Labetalol and propranolol are preferred β-blockers during breast feeding because they not concentrated in breast milk D. According to the American Academy of Pediatrics treatment guidelines, most β-blockers and CCBs are “compatible” with breastfeeding β-Blockers help to prevent cardiac arrhythmia by all of the following except: Select one: A. Decreasing myocardial oxygen demand match B. Decreasing microvascular damage to myocardium C. Shortening atrial filling time D. Blocking abnormal cardiac pacemaker potentials Which of the following statements is false regarding Sotalol? Select one: A. Clinical studies have shown sotalol as effective as propafenone but less effective than amiodarone B. Patients with a history of CAD should never take sotalol C. It is classified as class II and class III antiarrhythmic D. Clinical studies have shown sotalol to be as effective as and less toxic than quinidine Which of the following drug class regimens are recommended for African Americans with CHF who did not respond well to spironolactones? Select one: A. Proton inhibitors and diurectics B. Calcium channel blockers C. Bronchodilators D. Nitrates and Hydralazine Which of the following is the best indicator to determine whether the regimen to control angina is working? Select one: A. C-reactive protein blood levels B. Hemoglobin A1C C. β-Blocker drug blood levels D. Frequency of symptoms and use of nitrates   Exam 4 Top of Form Please match the drug name with its indication(s). Calcium carbonate Answer 1 Aluminum hydroxide Answer 2 Magnesium hydroxide Answer 3 Please match the definition with the correct term. Any naturally occurring or synthetic substance that kills or inhibits growth of microorganisms. Answer 1 Ability to inhibit growth and replication of bacteria. Answer 2 Product of a living organism that kills or inhibits growth of microorganisms. Answer 3 Minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) Answer 1 Bactericidal Answer 2 Minimum bactericidal concentration (MBC) Answer 3 The three main mechanisms of microbial resistance to antibiotics are: 1) transduction; 2) transformation; 3) Conjugation. Please match the mechanism of resistance with the correct description. Conjugation Answer 1 Transformation Answer 2 Transduction Answer 3 Please match the bacterium name with the correct type. Gram (+) cocci (anaerobic) Answer 1 Gram (+) bacilli (anaerobic) Answer 2 Gram (−) bacilli (anaerobic) Answer 3 Please match the type of penicillin with its correct description Antistaphylococcalpenicillins Answer 1 Ureidopenicillins Answer 2 Carboxypenicillins Answer 3 Second generation; activity against gram-positive bacilli Answer 4 Please match the groups of pathogen names with the correct classification Candidaspp, Cryptococcus neoformans, Aspergillusspp Answer 1 Treponema pallidum (syphilis), Borreliaburgdorferi (Lyme disease) Answer 2 C. trachomatis, C. pneumoniae, C. psittaci Answer 3 Each of the three generations of Cephalosporins have a separate list of indications. Please match the lists of indications with the correct generation. Gram Positive Cocci Less activity than First Generation Cephalosporins EKP Gram Negative Bacteria ESP Gram Negative Bacteria Gr am Positive organisms Covers Staphylococcus aureu Answer 1 Effective alternative toPenicillins CoversGram Positive Cocci Skin and Soft Tissue Infection Streptococcal Pharyngitis Answer 2 Gram Positive Cocci EKP Gram Negative Bacteria Gram Negative Coccobacilli Respiratory tract infections Acute Sinusitis Otitis Media Answer 3 There are four generations of Fluroquinolones. Please match the generations with the correct indication. (e.g., levofloxacin) have expanded activity against gram-positive bacteria and atypical pathogens. Answer 1 (currently only trovafloxacin) add significant activity against anaerobes. Answer 2 (e.g., ciprofloxacin) have increased gram-negative and systemic activity. Answer 3 (e.g., nalidixic acid) achieve minimal serum levels. Answer 4 Please match the drug type with the name of the drug. Aminoglycosides Answer 1 Fluoroquinolones Answer 2 Anti tubercular Answer 3 All of the following are true regarding Anticholinergics except for: Nonselective competitive antagonists of muscarinic receptors Answer 1 Prevent and reduce inflammatory response in bronchial walls by inhibiting secretion of mediators from mast cells Answer 2 Suppress cytokine production, airway eosinophil recruitment, and release of inflammatory mediators Answer 3 True or False? All drugs in the antacid class are pretty much the same composition with the same effects and uses. Select one: a. False b. True All of the following are mechanisms of action of antacids except for which of the following? Select one: a. Antacids coat the mucosal lining b. Cytoprotective effects c. Neutralizes gastric hydrochloric acid d. Aluminum binds epidermal growth factor, delivering growth factor to injured mucosa Which of the following statements is true? Select one: a. H2-inhibitors Reduce the risk of persistent esophagitis b. Antacids will reduce hyperacidity, but other drugs are needed for symptomatic treatment c. Antacids have a significant effect on healing of erosions or esophagitis d. H2-inhibitors are effective proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) to neutralize acid True or False? For treating heartburn, antacids, H2-receptor agonists, and omeprazole are available over-the-counter (without prescription). Generally speaking, patients should consult their PCP if heartburn symptoms persist beyond 14 days. Select one: a. False b. True Which of the following statements is false regarding acid-neutralizing capacity (ANC)? Select one: a. Antacids with a high ANC usually are more effective b. ANC is the quantity of 1 M HCl that can be brought to pH 3.5 in 15 minutes c. This is the ability of antacids to neutralize gastric acid d. ANC is the quantity of 1 M HCl that can be brought to pH 4.7 in 45 minutes Which of the following statements about treating GERDs is false? Select one: a. Effective GERDs management doesn't always require taking medications through the course of the disease b. GERDs is a lifelong disease that requires lifestyle modifications. c. The goal of treating GERDs is to completely eradicate this disease d. The goal of GERDs treatment is to provide symptomatic relief and prevent complications Which of the following is the correct definition of Empirical Therapy? Select one: a. If the obese patient with GERD continues to have symptoms after losing weight, then he/she does not have GERD b. Empirical therapy is similar to Dr. Atkins's protein diet. c. Treating a GERD patient with lifestyle modification, particularly weight loss and diet control in obese patients d. Empirical therapy is the alternative to drugs in treating GERD True or False? All patients with reflux-like symptoms must have an endoscopy to confirm the diagnosis before treatment can be rendered. Select one: a. True b. False Which of the following statements is false regarding treating GERDs with PPI? Select one: a. PPIs can be prescribed for 1 to 2 years before having to change treatment b. PPIs should be used on a PRN basis to manage symptoms c. The number of repeat prescriptions should be limited to 1 to 2 months d. H2RA or prokinetic therapy should be offered if response to PPI is inadequate Additional GERD general treatment considerations include all of the following except: Select one: a. Avoid all dairy products for 3 hours after taking medications b. Medication taken 30 minutes after meals provides for a 2-hour duration of action c. Should be taken either 1 hour before or 2 hours after other medication administration d. Should not be taken on empty stomach True or False? The main difference between gram negative and gram positive bacteria is in the amount of lipids contained in the cell walls. Select one: a. True b. False True or False? Gram positive bacteria have greater amounts of lipids in the cell walls than gram negative bacteria. Select one: a. True b. False True or False? Conjugation occurs predominantly among gram-negative bacilli. Select one: a. True b. False All of the following are appropriate for antibiotics except: Select one: a. Cellulitis b. Infected postoperative wounds c. Viral meningitis d. Animal bites All of the following is true about first generation cephalosporins except: Select one: a. Effective alternative to Penicillins b. Covers Gram Positive Cocci c. Skin and Soft Tissue Infection d. Tinea cruris All of the following are sexually transmitted diseases except: Select one: a. Syphilis b. Prostatitis c. Chlamydia d. Gonorrhea The mechanisms of action of Tetracycline includes all of the following except for: Select one: A. Inhibits lipase and collagenase B. Inhibit protein synthesis C. Prevents gingival fibroblast cell attachment D. Antiinflammatory All of the following are standard treatment guidelines for the use of the various forms of Penicillin except: Select one: a. The treatment duration is usually 24-30 days. b. Empirical treatment of some infections c. The treatment duration is usually 10-14 days d. Indicated for mild to moderately severe infections•Empirical Which of the following statements regarding demographic considerations in prescribing antibiotics is false? Select one: a. For use during pregnancy and lactation, most antibiotics are included in the FDA category X b. Antibiotics are generally well tolerated by geriatric populations c. In pediatric patients < 3 months old, ask about allergy in the mother and assume the baby is also allergic because infants may still have the mother's antibodies in it's blood. d. Women using estrogen-based BCPs need to use alternative contraception while on antibiotics. All of the following are guidelines for prescribing Macrolides except: Select one: a. Pediatrics dosages are based on age/weight b. Often used as alternative to penicillins c. Tablets may be crushed and mixed with apple sauce for those with difficulty swalloing whole pills. d. Erythromycin is compatible with breastfeeding• Which of the following bacteria are usually susceptible to Fluroquinolones? Select one: a. Streptococcus pneumoniae b. Candida albacans c. Tubercle Bacillus d. Salmonella Typhi All of the following are standard treatment guidelines regarding Fluroquinolones except: Select one: a. In geriatrics patients, avoid systemic quinolones, such as ciprofloxacin, in patients with a history of myasthenia gravis b. For pregnancy, fluroquinolones are in category C. Fluroquinolones are not recommended for use in nursing mothers. c. Fluroquinolones should always be taken on a full stomach. d. In pediatric patients, Increased incidence of adverse reactions compared with controls, including events related to joints and/or surrounding tissues, has been observed. All of the following are usually susceptible to aminoglycosides except: Select one: a. Aerobic, gram-negativeominus bacillus b. Aerobic, gram-negative Acinetobacter. c. Aerobic, gram-negative Pseudomonas d. Aerobic, gram-negative Enterobacter Which of the following is not a known adverse effect of aminoglycosides? Select one: a. Neuromuscular blockade b. Nephrotoxicity c. Retinal detachment d. Ototoxicity All of the following must be included in monitoring patients on aminoglycosides except: Select one: a. Check C-reactive protein levels serum and INR after ten days of IV aminoglycoside therapy b. Collect urine specimens for examination during therapy c. Serum peak (30-45 minutes after IV dosing; 60 minutes after IM) d. Trough (drawn immediately before dosing), monitored after second or third dose and every 3-4 days thereafter for duration of therapy Please fill in the blank with the correct choice. With regards to the safety of Aminoglycosides during pregnancy and breast feeding, the FDA has placed this class of antibiotics in ___________. Select one: a. Category D b. Category C c. Category X d. Category B Which of the following statements about asthma versus COPD is false? Select one: a. Drug therapy only controls symptoms in COPD b. Asthma and COPD are similar: Chronic and obstructive c. Despite that the drugs that are used are different, the responses of asthma and COPD to pharmacotherapy are the same. d. Asthma is largely inflammatory with a greater degree of reversibility than COPD Regarding Leukotriene Modifiers, Which of the following statements is false? Select one: a. Act on inflammatory mediators of asthma b. May be used as an alternative to inhaled corticosteroids c. Often used as add-on therapy in asthma d. Effect is stronger than low-dose inhaled corticosteroids Regarding treatment guidelines for asthma, which of the following is appropriate for quick relief? Select one: a. Anticholinergics b. Leukotriene modifiers c. Methylxanthines d. Mast cell stabilizers Which of the following drugs is a nicotine receptor agonist? Select one: a. Ergot b. Bupropion c. Varenicline d. Nicotine polacrilex Which of the following vitamins is a natural antioxidant, helps healing, prevents scarring. Keeps nerves and red blood cells healthy and protects cell membranes? Select one: a. Vitamin B6(pyridoxine) b. Vitamin B3(niacin, nicotinicacid, nicotinamide) c. Vitamin K (K1[phylloquinone], K2[menaquinone], syntheticvitamin K3[menadione]) d. Vitamin E (alpha-tocopherol) True or False? Mycoplasma pneumoniae is not a true bacterium because it lacks a cell wall Select one: True False True or False? Those who are allergic to penicillins, should take Cephalosporins as an alternate drug. Select one: True False True or False? The mechanisms for bacterial resistance to Macrolides are cell permeability, target site alteration and inactivation by bacterial enzymes. Select one: True False Macrolides are contraindicated in people with penicillin and cephalosporin allergy. Select one: True False As a mechanism of action, Macrolides inhibit protein synthesis in the bacteria. Select one: True False True or False? You do not need to consider potential toxicity when ordering an aminoglycoside irrigation of a wound. Select one: True False True or False? Aminoglycosides may be ineffective in infections caused by gentamicin-resistant or tobramycin-resistant strains of gram-negative organisms. Select one: True False True or False? Flu vaccines are always effective and they are safe for everyone. Select one: True False