NURS-6521N Week 7 Quiz 3.Q&A

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NURS-6521N Week 7 Quiz 3.Q&A • Question 1 1 out of 1 points Mr. Tan is a 69-year-old man who prides himself in maintaining an active lifestyle and a healthy diet that includes adequate fluid ... intake. However, Mr. Tan states that he has experienced occasional constipation in recent months. What remedy should be the nurse's first suggestion? Response Feedback: Bulk-forming (fiber) laxatives are considered the safest and most physiologic of the laxatives. As such, they are normally preferable to stimulant and hyperosmotic laxatives for occasional relief of constipation. Bismuth subsalicylate does not relieve constipation. • Question 2 1 out of 1 points A nurse is planning care for a 59-year-old woman who is on ranitidine therapy. The nurse is concerned for the patient's safety. Which of the following would be an appropriate nursing diagnosis? Response Feedback: The appropriate nursing diagnosis related to safety would be Risk for Injury related to drug-induced somnolence, dizziness, confusion, or hallucinations. Diarrhea related to adverse effects of drug therapy and Acute Pain related to adverse drug effects, headache are appropriate nursing diagnosis for a patient taking ranitidine, but are not related to safety. Potential Complication: Electrolyte Imbalance related to hypophosphatemia, secondary to drug therapy would be appropriate for a patient taking an aluminum hydroxide with magnesium hydroxide antacid (Maalox, Mylanta). • Question 3 1 out of 1 points A 42-year-old man is being treated for a peptic ulcer with ranitidine (Zantac) taken PO at bedtime. Even though few adverse effects are associated with this drug, one common adverse effect that can be severe is Response Feedback: Even though ranitidine generally is well tolerated, headache is a common adverse effect that can be severe. The nurse will encourage the patient to adjust lights or temperature and avoid noise if headaches occur and to contact his physician if the headache becomes intolerable. Irritability, dry mouth, and heart palpitations are not associated with this drug. • Question 4 1 out of 1 points A nurse is providing patient education for a patient who has been prescribed diphenoxylate HCl with atropine sulfate. Which of the following instructions would be important for self-administration of this drug? Response Feedback: The patient should decrease the dosage when the number of stools decreases and should not wait until the physician discontinues the therapy. The drug does not need to be taken with food or juice. • Question 5 1 out of 1 points A 33-year-old woman has irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). The physician has prescribed simethicone (Mylicon) for her discomfort. Which of the following will the nurse monitor most closely during the patient's drug therapy? Response Feedback: The nurse needs to closely monitor the patient for increased abdominal pain, nausea, fever, and vomiting. These symptoms are not indicative of excessive flatus, for which simethicone is prescribed, but indicate that the patient needs urgent medical attention for another condition. There is no risk for drug toxicity, anorexia, or increased urine output. • Question 6 1 out of 1 points Prior to administering a dose of 5-FU to a patient with pancreatic cancer, the nurse is conducting the necessary drug research. The nurse is aware that 5-FU is a cell cycle–specific chemotherapeutic agent. Which of the following statements best describes cell cycle–specific drugs? Response Feedback: Chemotherapeutic drugs that are most effective during a particular phase of the cycle are known as cell cycle– (or cell phase) specific, whereas drugs that act independently of a specific cell cycle (or cell phase) are cell cycle–nonspecific. Not all cell cycle–specific drugs achieve a synergistic effect with cell cycle–nonspecific drugs. These drugs are not named because of the particular sequence of cytotoxic events that they cause. • Question 7 0 out of 1 points A patient on 5-FU calls the clinic and reports that he has between five and seven loose bowel movements daily. The nurse will instruct the patient to Response Feedback: If the patient has more than three bowel movements daily, the nurse should instruct the patient to observe the stools and notify the prescriber if stools are black or if there is evidence of blood. Hematologic and gastrointestinal toxicities can be fatal and cannot be minimized by avoiding protein-rich foods or grapefruit. It is not advisable to treat diarrhea with OTC medications. • Question 8 1 out of 1 points To maximize the therapeutic effect of diphenoxylate HCl with atropine sulfate, the nurse will instruct the patient to take the medication Response Feedback: To maximize the therapeutic effect, diphenoxylate HCl with atropine sulfate is usually administered four times daily, which serves to help maintain a therapeutic drug level. • Question 9 0 out of 1 points A woman with an inflammatory skin disorder has begun taking prednisone in an effort to control the signs and symptoms of her disease. The nurse who is providing care for this patient should prioritize which of the following potential nursing diagnoses in the organization of the patient's care? Response Feedback: Treatment with glucocorticoids such as prednisone is associated with numerous adverse effects, including the risk for excess fluid volume. Constipation and impaired gas exchange are not among the most common adverse effects and CNS effects are normally limited to anxiety, mood swings, and insomnia rather than acute confusion. ............CONTINUED [Show More]

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