NURS 6630 Final Exam 1 Questions With Answers GRADED A

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NURS 6630 Final Exam 1 Questions With Answers GRADED A What will the PMHNP most likely prescribe to a patient with psychotic aggression who needs to manage the top-down cortical control and the exces ... sive drive from striatal hyperactivity? The PMHNP is selecting a medication treatment option for a patient who is exhibiting psychotic behaviors with poor impulse control and aggression. Of the available treatments, which can help temper some of the adverse effects or symptoms that are normally caused by D2 antagonism? The PMHNP is discussing dopamine D2 receptor occupancy and its association with aggressive behaviors in patients with the student. Why does the PMHNP prescribe a standard dose of atypical antipsychotics? Why does the PMHNP avoid prescribing clozapine (Clozaril) as a first-line treatment to the patient with psychosis and aggression? A. There is too high a risk of serious adverse side effects. B. It can exaggerate the psychotic symptoms. C. Clozapine (Clozaril) should not be used as high-dose monotherapy. D. There is no documentation that clozapine (Clozaril) is effective for patients who are violent. The PMHNP is caring for a patient on risperidone (Risperdal). Which action made by the PMHNP exhibits proper care for this patient? [Show More]

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