SAP Certification Exam 353 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT

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SAP Certification Exam 353 Questions with Verified Answers All marketing documents have tabs for Contents, Logistics, Accounting, and Attachments (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True What is an easy wa ... y to assign a standard role based cockpit to a user? a. Use the Form Settings window to choose the Authorization Group b. Assign an Authorization Group to a User in the Users-Setup Window c. Select the Authorization Group in the Widget Gallery - CORRECT ANSWER b. Assign an Authorization Group to a User in the Users-Setup Window What key can you press for Online Help? a. F3 b. F1 c. F2 - CORRECT ANSWER b. F1 SAP Business One can run in the cloud or on premise (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True What is the Relationship Map? a. Tool to link business objects to create a query b. Graphical display of related documents c. Dashboard for viewing details for a business partner - CORRECT ANSWER b. Graphical display of related documents A superuser is limited by license type and authorizations assigned (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER False Which cockpit widget type tracks progress towards objectives with color coding and trend arrows? a. Business Object Count b. Key Performance Indicator c. Pervasive Dashboard - CORRECT ANSWER b. Key Performance Indicator What are some advantages of saving a document as a draft? There are 2 correct answers. a. Only draft documents can contain alternative item rows b. Drafts can be used as templates c. Draft documents have additional link arrows not found in regular documents d. Drafts allow you save a partially created document for correcting later - CORRECT ANSWER b. Drafts can be used as templates d. Drafts allow you save a partially created document for correcting later Which window allows you to control if the Row Type column is visible in a Sales Order? a. Layout Designer b. Form Settings c. My Personal Settings - CORRECT ANSWER b. Form Settings A user can access all three types of business partner master data from one menu item (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True In SAP Business One, a company is represented as a database (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True Items and customers are types of configuration data (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER False What type of information is available in the SAP PartnerEdge portal? a. Links to educational resources b. Marketing, Sales and Support c. Partnering with SAP d. Solutions and Solution Development e. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER e. All of the above What does a folder icon in the Modules menu indicate? a. Submenu b. Transaction c. Report - CORRECT ANSWER a. Submenu What does a Workbench widget contain? a. List of a user's most recent transactions b. Icons for common transactions for a business process role - CORRECT ANSWER b. Icons for common transactions for a business process role Which database option for SAP Business One allows you to leverage the power of in-memory computing to perform sophisticated calculations and provide real-time analytics? a. SAP HANA b. MS SQL - CORRECT ANSWER a. SAP HANA Purchasing Process Steps in Order: 1. Purchase Order 2. Goods Receipt PO 3. AP Invoice 4. Outgoing Payment - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Purchase Order 2. Goods Receipt PO 3. AP Invoice 4. Outgoing Payment What are the key types of master data used in purchasing? There are 2 correct answers. a. Vendor b. Item c. Customer - CORRECT ANSWER a. Vendor b. Item What is the effect of a copying a purchase order to a goods receipt PO? There are 2 correct answers. a. Available Quantity increases b. Inventory increases c. Committed Quantity decreases d. Ordered Quantity decreases - CORRECT ANSWER b. Inventory increases d. Ordered Quantity decreases Which purchasing document increases both ordered and available quantities? a. Purchase Order b. Goods Receipt PO - CORRECT ANSWER a. Purchase Order If a vendor substitutes one item but delivers the five other items you ordered, how many goods receipt PO documents are needed? a. Six b. Two c. One - CORRECT ANSWER c. One When you use Copy To you CANNOT delete items that are copied into the target document (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER False In which situation should you select the Without Qty Posting Checkbox in an A/P Credit Memo? a. When a vendor gives you a credit for a missed discount b. When a vendor credits you for damaged items - CORRECT ANSWER a. When a vendor gives you a credit for a missed discount A purchase order automatically changes status to Closed when all rows are fully received (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True An A/P Credit Memo can fully or partially reverse an A/P invoice (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True Which document is used to return items after you have entered an A/P invoice? a. Goods Return b. A/P credit memo - CORRECT ANSWER b. A/P credit memo A canceled purchase order appears on the Purchase Analysis report (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER False You can add more items or quantities to a Goods Receipt PO after saving (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER False You can use Copy From to copy multiple Purchase Orders into one Goods Receipt PO (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True If a vendor delivers items from two purchase orders at once, you can open a new Goods Receipt PO and choose Copy From to receive all the items (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True How does the Goods Return Request simplify the process of returning items? There are 2 correct answers. a. Handles returns at any point in the purchasing process b. Creates a journal entry automatically upon saving c. A/P credit memos are never needed d. No need to know if the goods receipt PO has been invoiced - CORRECT ANSWER a. Handles returns at any point in the purchasing process d. No need to know if the goods receipt PO has been invoiced Multiple price lists can be assigned to a customer, so a user must choose one when creating the sales order (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER False Items can represent either goods or services in sales documents (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True Which sales document is a request for payment and records the revenue in the profit-and-loss statement? a. Delivery b. Sales Order c. A/R Invoice - CORRECT ANSWER c. A/R Invoice Place the steps of the sales process in the correct order: -AR Invoice -Sales Order -Sales Quotation -Incoming Payment -Delivery - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Sales Quotation 2. Sales Order 3. Delivery 4. AR invoice 5. Incoming Payment Every sales document must have a business partner assigned. (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True Which sales document indicates that goods have been shipped? a. Delivery b. Sales Quotation c. Sales Order - CORRECT ANSWER a. Delivery Price lists can be assigned as defaults in which 2 areas? There are 2 correct answers. a. Customer Groups b. Document settings for the sales order c. Payment methods d. Payment terms - CORRECT ANSWER a. Customer Groups d. Payment terms A customer can only have one bill-to address (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER False Leads can be converted to either vendors or customers (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER False *can only be a customer A customer can belong to only one customer group (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True Default settings for Payment Terms can be set at the company level (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True Business Partner master data records for leads, vendors and customers share a common structure (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True Which 2 documents allow you to enter a lead as the main business partner? There are 2 correct answers. a. Purchase Quotation b. Sales Order c. Sales Quotation d. Delivery - CORRECT ANSWER b. Sales Order c. Sales Quotation A sales opportunity represents a single task, phone call or meeting (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER False * These are activities What allows you to document all types of contacts with customers? a. Activities b. Campaigns c. Sales quotation - CORRECT ANSWER a. Activities A user can view the calendar in monthly, weekly or daily views (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True Campaigns can generate only emails, not activities - CORRECT ANSWER False What sales document describes an offer for products at a particular price available for a finite period? a. Activity b. Campaign c. Sales Opportunity d. Sales Quotation - CORRECT ANSWER d. Sales Quotation Activities can be created and managed in the business partner master (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True What is a target group? a. Opportunities created for new customers or leads b. Products you plan to market in a sales opportunity c. Distribution list of business partners for a campaign - CORRECT ANSWER c. Distribution list of business partners for a campaign A user can create activities by double-clicking on a time in the calendar (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True What allows you to manage the sales cycle for a potential deal with a customer or lead? a. Campaign b. Activity c. Opportunity - CORRECT ANSWER c. Opportunity The availability check window appears when a sales order row quantity exceeds available quantity on the delivery date (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True Advanced Availability-to-Promise is an option on both HANA and MS SQL databases (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER False *only on HANA In Advanced ATP, which delivery strategy does the default checking rule use? a. Complete Delivery b. One-time delivery c. Delivery Proposal - CORRECT ANSWER c. Delivery Proposal Where can you assign Advanced ATP checking rules? There are 2 correct answers. a. Customer Master b. Item Master c. Item Group d. Document Settings for Sales Order - CORRECT ANSWER b. Item Master c. Item Group Item availability is calculated by this formula: In Stock - Committed + Ordered (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True Which availability check option creates delivery schedule detail lines that allow delivery rescheduling? a. Standard availability check b. Advanced ATP - CORRECT ANSWER b. Advanced ATP Which document rows appear in the Open drawer of the Pick Pack and Production Manager? a. Items not yet picked b. Items picked but not yet on deliveries c. Items released to pick lists - CORRECT ANSWER a. Items not yet picked Which item quantities are reduced when a sales order is delivered? There are 2 correct answers. a. Available quantity b. Ordered quantity c. In stock quantity d. Committed quantity - CORRECT ANSWER c. In stock quantity d. Committed quantity What does Committed Quantity represent? a. Quantities reserved for customers or internal use b. Quantities on a purchase order - CORRECT ANSWER a. Quantities reserved for customers or internal use Which tool would you use to create batch of A/R invoices from existing deliveries? a. Pick Pack and Production Manager b. Document Generation Wizard - CORRECT ANSWER b. Document Generation Wizard What are the 3 effects of canceling a marketing document? There are 3 correct answers. a. Base documents re-open and can be used again b. A cancellation document of the same type is created with a reversal posting c. The original document's status changes to Cancelled d. The original document is deleted from the database - CORRECT ANSWER a. Base documents re-open and can be used again b. A cancellation document of the same type is created with a reversal posting c. The original document's status changes to Cancelled When you save a Return Request, it posts a credit to the customer account (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER False An A/R credit memo always has to reference an A/R invoice (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER False The default setting in SAP Business One is to automatically reopen a sales order without user confirmation (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER False Which two documents can you copy to a Return Request? a. Delivery b. Sales Order c. Return d. A/R Invoice - CORRECT ANSWER a. Delivery d. A/R Invoice When a Return document is entered in a perpetual inventory system, which account is credited? a. Cost account b. Customer account - CORRECT ANSWER a. Cost account Which are the two main documents used to credit customers for issues in the sales process? There are 2 correct answers. a. A/R Credit Memo b. Goods Return c. A/P Credit Memo d. Return - CORRECT ANSWER a. A/R Credit Memo d. Return If a customer returns items after an invoice has been created, which document do you use to process the returned item and refund the customer? a. Return b. A/R Credit Memo - CORRECT ANSWER b. A/R Credit Memo You can do either a partial or full credit on an A/R invoice (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True You can add negative rows to both deliveries and A/R invoices (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True What are two actions will always give a monetary credit to a customer without an inventory impact? There are 2 correct answers. a. Create a "service-type" credit memo b. Use a negative row on an A/R invoice c. Create a credit memo without reference to an A/R invoice d. Select the "Without Qty" checkbox on a credit memo - CORRECT ANSWER a. Create a "service-type" credit memo d. Select the "Without Qty" checkbox on a credit memo Which configuration object allows you to set default values for fields in new items? a. Item type b. Item group c. Item category - CORRECT ANSWER b. Item group What does the formula "In-stock Quantity + Ordered Quantity - Committed Quantity" calculate for an item? a. Pick Quantity b. Warehouse Quantity c. Available Quantity - CORRECT ANSWER c. Available Quantity If your company discontinues an item, how can you ensure the item is NOT used in a sales order? a. Mark the item as inactive b. Delete the item - CORRECT ANSWER a. Mark the item as inactive What tab on an item master provides up to 64 possible options to classify items for reporting and analysis? a. Properties b. Sales Data c. Planning Data - CORRECT ANSWER a. Properties Which tab on the item master data record tracks committed and ordered quantities? a. Purchasing Data tab b. Inventory Data tab c. Sales Data tab - CORRECT ANSWER b. Inventory Data tab Which 2 item categories would you assign to an item that is produced in-house and sold to customers? a. Inventory Item b. Purchased Item c. Sales Item - CORRECT ANSWER a. Inventory Item c. Sales Item In SAP Business One items are represented by master data records (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True In the item master, which unit of measure type can have only one unit of measure assigned? a. Inventory unit b. Purchasing unit c. Sales unit - CORRECT ANSWER a. Inventory unit An item master record can have only one unit of measure group assigned (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True Item prices can be based on units of measure (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True You can have different inventory units of measure for the same item in different warehouses (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER False Units of measure are defined at the _____________ level. a. Company b. Warehouse - CORRECT ANSWER a. Company An item can have only one barcode assigned (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER False What does the definition of a unit of measure group contain? There are 2 correct answers. a. List of units of measure b. The relationship between the units in the group c. Dimensions for each unit in the group d. Barcodes for each unit in the group - CORRECT ANSWER a. List of units of measure b. The relationship between the units in the group If you are receiving or issuing items from a bin managed warehouse, which documents require a bin location? a. All documents that have inventory movements b. All sales, purchasing and inventory documents c. Only goods receipts, goods issues and inventory transfers - CORRECT ANSWER a. All documents that have inventory movements Which of these documents is an inventory document? a. Goods Receipt b. Goods Receipt PO - CORRECT ANSWER a. Goods Receipt Which document rows have warehouses specified? There are 2 correct answers. a. Inventory document rows b. All marketing document rows c. All item-type marketing document rows - CORRECT ANSWER a. Inventory document rows c. All item-type marketing document rows A business partner can be entered on all inventory documents (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER False Customers order items from you but you do not store them physically. Instead, your vendor ships the ordered items directly to the customers. What warehouse setting do you use? a. Drop Ship b. Enable Bin Locations c. Nettable - CORRECT ANSWER a. Drop Ship If you are running perpetual inventory, each goods movement creates a journal entry (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True When an inventory transfer request is open, which is the inventory status of the item quantity requested in the issuing warehouse? a. Committed b. Ordered - CORRECT ANSWER a. Committed Which report compares inventory balance accounts to a logistics view of inventory? a. Inventory Audit Report b. Inventory in Warehouse Report - CORRECT ANSWER a. Inventory Audit Report Which inventory valuation method calculates item cost by dividing total inventory value by on-hand quantity? a. Standard Cost b. Moving Average c. FIFO - CORRECT ANSWER b. Moving Average Which option for inventory valuation automatically posts journal entries for stock movements? a. Perpetual inventory b. Non-perpetual inventory - CORRECT ANSWER a. Perpetual inventory Where can you set a standard cost for an item? a. In the Inventory Revaluation transaction b. On the Inventory Data tab of the item master record - CORRECT ANSWER a. In the Inventory Revaluation transaction Which valuation method uses layers to track the costs of each receipt transaction for an item? a. Standard Cost b. Moving Average c. FIFO - CORRECT ANSWER c. FIFO In which valuation method does the item cost remain the same regardless of purchase price? a. FIFO b. Standard Cost c. Moving Average - CORRECT ANSWER b. Standard Cost You have set up an item to be managed by serial numbers on every transaction. When must a serial number be assigned? There are 3 correct answers. a. On sales quotations and purchase quotations b. When the item is returned from a customer c. When the item is issued from a warehouse d. The first point the item is received into inventory - CORRECT ANSWER b. When the item is returned from a customer c. When the item is issued from a warehouse d. The first point the item is received into inventory What allows you to track a quantity of an item that have characteristics, such as expiration date in common? a. Serial Numbers b. Batches - CORRECT ANSWER b. Batches Which method do you use to track a high value object (like a computer) through production, sales and service transactions? a. Batches b. Serial Numbers - CORRECT ANSWER b. Serial Numbers You have set up an item to be managed by batches on release only. Which 2 of the following transactions will require a batch number to be entered for this item? a. Delivery b. Goods Issue to Production c. Sales Order d. Goods Receipt PO - CORRECT ANSWER a. Delivery b. Goods Issue to Production If you set a batch-managed item to be managed on every transaction, you must assign a batch in a sales order (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER False Where is the management method set for a serial numbered item? a. In the item master b. In a marketing document c. In General Settings - CORRECT ANSWER a. In the item master Price lists are assigned to vendors as well as customers (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True Where can you see the price list assigned to a sales order? a. On the Logistics tab of the sales order b. In the Price Source field on the item row c. In the Form Settings window for the document - CORRECT ANSWER c. In the Form Settings window for the document Which type of price can allow you to define a discount based on item properties or manufacturers? a. Special Prices for Business Partners b. Discount Group c. Period and Volume Discounts - CORRECT ANSWER b. Discount Group Once a price list is assigned to a document, the price list CANNOT be changed (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER False A company database can contain separate price lists for gross pricing and net pricing (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True Place the types of prices in the order that the system looks for them: -Period and Volume Discounts -Price Lists -Discount Groups -Special prices for BPs -Specific Blanket Agreements - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Specific Blanket Agreements 2. Special prices for BPs 3. Discount Groups 4. Period and Volume Discounts 5. Price Lists Every item is automatically linked to every price list (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True Which two fields are used to calculate a marketing document row's total price? a. Tax Code b. Discount % field c. Unit Price field - CORRECT ANSWER b. Discount % field c. Unit Price field Which type of pricing will apply to the Discount % field but will never apply to the Unit Price field? a. Period and Volume Discounts b. Special Prices for Business Partners c. Discount Groups d. Specific Blanket Agreements - CORRECT ANSWER c. Discount Groups A base price list and factor can be assigned to a specific item price in a pricelist (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True Once a price list price is manually changed, the price will no longer automatically update (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True A price list can contain only two currencies (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER False You are limited to 10 price lists in a company (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER False Which tool is limited to changing existing discounts based on units of measure and disallows the creation of new UOM discounts? a. Prices Update wizard, UoM Reduce By option b. Copy UoM Reduce by % in the Price List window - CORRECT ANSWER a. Prices Update wizard, UoM Reduce By option The Last Purchase Price List can be based on another price list (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER False You can set validity dates for a price list (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True Prices changed by the Item Prices option in the Prices Update wizard are marked as Manual (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True What does the Convert To option in the Prices Update wizard allow you to do? a. Update item prices using mathematical operations b. Adjust unit of measure prices by changing the Reduce By % field c. Change the base price list and factor for multiple price lists d. Change the currency for prices in price lists - CORRECT ANSWER d. Change the currency for prices in price lists What are the effects if Price List B is based on Price List A with a factor of 2? There are two correct answers. a. Prices on Price List B are double prices on Price List A b. Prices on Price List B will change when prices on Price List A are changed c. Prices on Price List B CANNOT be manually changed d. Prices on Price List B are half the price of prices on Price List A - CORRECT ANSWER a. Prices on Price List B are double prices on Price List A b. Prices on Price List B will change when prices on Price List A are changed If an inactive price list is assigned to a document, the row prices will be zero (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True The Reduce By % field allows you to set a discount or surcharge for a unit price (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True What does the authorization group field in a price list control? a. Which business partners can be assigned to that price list b. Whether a user can make changes to the price list c. If the price list can be assigned to vendors or customers - CORRECT ANSWER b. Whether a user can make changes to the price list You can set an item as excluded from all Discount Groups (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True You can set up one Discount Group for two individual customers from different customer groups (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER False The system automatically adds new items to applicable Discount Groups based on item groups (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True Which price does a period and volume discount override? a. Discount Group price b. Price list price - CORRECT ANSWER b. Price list price Place the steps for creating a period and volume discount in the correct order. -enter volume per unit discount -set up a validity period -open the pricelist in the Period and Volume window -define volume discount -select an item and price - CORRECT ANSWER -open the pricelist in the Period and Volume window -select an item and price -set up a validity period -define volume discount -enter volume per unit discount A variable discount exists in a Discount Group for an item. The Paid Quantity is set to 2. The Free Quantity is set to 1. What is the minimum quantity on a row that will trigger the discount? a. 1 b. 3 c. 2 - CORRECT ANSWER b. 3 In which 2 places can you set an effective discount rule? a. Business Partner Master Data b. Customer Group c. Form Settings for a marketing document d. Payment Terms - CORRECT ANSWER a. Business Partner Master Data b. Customer Group For a customer's special price to apply in a document, it must be based on the pricelist used by the document (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER False Users cannot create inventory transactions while another user is setting up bin location codes (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER False What is a Receiving Bin Location? a. A bin location that can only receive inventory but cannot issue any inventory b. A system bin location that is used for transaction when no other bin locations are defined c. Any bin location that is marked as such and is used as an intermediate bin location d. Any bin location that is used for an inbound transaction - CORRECT ANSWER c. Any bin location that is marked as such and is used as an intermediate bin location What does the bin location code composed from? a. A warehouse code and warehouse sublevel codes b. A warehouse sublevel codes and the exact location in the warehouse sublevel c. The warehouse code and the exact attribute of the bin location - CORRECT ANSWER a. A warehouse code and warehouse sublevel codes What can you do directly from the Bin Location Content List report? There are 2 correct answers a. Set a bin location as default b. Delete a bin location c. Transfer a bin location content d. Create a delivery - CORRECT ANSWER a. Set a bin location as default c. Transfer a bin location content Every inventory document that involves a bin location managed warehouse requires allocation to specific bin locations (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True Two different bin locations in different warehouses may have the same code (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER False What types of master data can the production bill of materials contain? a. Items and Employees b. Items and service c. Items and Resources d. Items and fixed assets - CORRECT ANSWER c. Items and Resources What is a resource unit of measure? a. The physical dimensions of an asset resource b. The unit in which the resource is measured in c. The number of hours capacity of a labor resource d. The time it takes for a resource machine to manufacture one unit - CORRECT ANSWER b. The unit in which the resource is measured in You added a production order but you are not able to issue the components for production. What can be the reason? There are 2 correct answers. a. The due date of the production order has not arrived yet. b. The production order was not released yet c. The issue method of the components is set to backflush d. A pick list was not created for the production order - CORRECT ANSWER b. The production order was not released yet c. The issue method of the components is set to backflush What is the Production Order based on? a. An Issue from Production b. A Receipt from Production c. A Pick List d. A bill of Materials - CORRECT ANSWER d. A bill of Materials Place the following steps of the production process in the right order: -release to shop floor -issue components and resources -create production order -report completion - CORRECT ANSWER 1. create production order 2. release to shop floor 3. issue components and resources 4. report completion Which capacity increases when adding a production order for a resource? a. Single run capacity b. Committed capacity c. Consumed capacity d. Internal capacity - CORRECT ANSWER b. Committed capacity The parent item of a sales bill of materials has to be a sales item (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True The issue method for an item is set to backflush. How does this definition affect the production process? a. The produced item enters the inventory automatically when production is completed b. The component items are issued from inventory automatically when production is completed c. The component item is automatically reserved for production when production starts - CORRECT ANSWER The component items are issued from inventory automatically when production is completed A Production Bill of Materials can only have one level (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER False A resource can be managed in inventory much like an item (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER False In a production order with the Start date Forwards routing date calculation, the resource allocation can affect the document's due date (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True Which field in the item master controls whether production orders or purchase orders are recommended by MRP? a. Planning Method b. Checking Rule c. Procurement Method - CORRECT ANSWER c. Procurement Method MRP results are calculated by considering the initial inventory plus expected supply minus demand (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True Purchase requests can be considered as expected supply in MRP runs (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True Which configuration setting helps companies avoid overstocking when running MRP? a. Management Method: On Every Transaction b. Manage Item Cost Per Warehouse c. Consume Forecast - CORRECT ANSWER c. Consume Forecast Which types of documents can be considered as both demand and supply in MRP? a. Production Orders b. Inventory transfer requests c. Inventory revaluations d. Forecasts - CORRECT ANSWER a. Production Orders b. Inventory transfer requests Which window allows you to generate documents from an MRP recommendation? a. MRP Recommendations b. Order Recommendations - CORRECT ANSWER b. Order Recommendations MRP scenarios can be used for multiple MRP runs (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True Which of these can be considered as demand by MRP? a. Purchase Blanket Agreement b. A/R Reserve Invoice c. Sales Order d. Forecasts - CORRECT ANSWER b. A/R Reserve Invoice c. Sales Order d. Forecasts What 2 settings do you need to make on the item master to automatically create a warranty contract when an item is delivered to a customer? a. Assign a contract template b. Set up an advanced rule type c. Choose the serial number management method "On Release Only" d. Set the item to be managed by serial numbers - CORRECT ANSWER a. Assign a contract template d. Set the item to be managed by serial numbers The deadline for service resolution is affected by coverage definition in a service contract (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True Place the process steps for customer service in the correct order: -Service Response -Service Resolution -Create Service Call - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Create Service Call 2. Service Response 3. Service Resolution Which 2 settings do you need to make on the Inventory tab of General Settings to automatically generate an equipment card when you deliver an item? a. Choose the option to Issue Primarily by Serial and Batch Numbers b. Set serial numbers to be unique within a company database c. Select the checkbox for automatically creating equipment cards d. Set the default management method to "On Every Transaction" - CORRECT ANSWER b. Set serial numbers to be unique within a company database c. Select the checkbox for automatically creating equipment cards Which 2 areas in a service contract determine the deadlines in a service call for a technician to contact the customer? a. Service Type b. Resolution Time c. Response Time d. Coverage Hours - CORRECT ANSWER c. Response Time d. Coverage Hours Equipment cards can be created manually as well as automatically (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True Which document allows you to record a customer issue and track the service team's progress in resolving the issue? a. Service Call b. Equipment Card c. Service Contract d. Service A/R invoice - CORRECT ANSWER a. Service Call What is the purpose of an equipment card? a. Documenting if a service level agreement has been met b. Recording service history for a serial numbered item c. Listing which services are covered if a serial numbered item is damaged d. Scheduling technician visits - CORRECT ANSWER b. Recording service history for a serial numbered item Automatically created contracts are always based on a Customer Contract Template (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER False The Balance Sheet Accounts reflect the monitory value of the company (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True In which drawer in the chart of accounts can we find the account payables? a. Turnover b. Assets c. Liabilities d. Capital and reserves - CORRECT ANSWER c. Liabilities The accountant wants to define a set of default accounts according to business partner groups. Therefore, the company should use the advanced G/L account determination window (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True What characterizes the balance sheet accounts? There are 2 correct answers. a. They are typically located in the lower drawers of the chart of accounts b. They are typically located in the top 3 drawers of the chart of account c. They appear in the trial balance report d. They appear in the profit and loss report - CORRECT ANSWER b. They are typically located in the top 3 drawers of the chart of account c. They appear in the trial balance report Once you choose to use the traditional default G/L account determination you cannot switch to the Advanced G/L account determination (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER False Any rule you define in the advanced form will have a higher priority than the G/L Account Determination window (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True Which of these statements regarding the chart of accounts are true? There are 2 correct answers. a. The drawer names cannot be changed b. Active accounts can be defined in level 1 c. The order of accounts in financial reports is taken from the chart of accounts structure d. Accounts that appear in green are defaults defined in the G/L Account determination window - CORRECT ANSWER c. The order of accounts in financial reports is taken from the chart of accounts structure d. Accounts that appear in green are defaults defined in the G/L Account determination window Which of the following definitions are available in the Advanced G/L account determination method? There are 3 correct answers. a. A combination of different default accounts b. Default account for a service type invoice c. Default account per user defined field d. Default account per ship-to address e. Default accounts in the item master data - CORRECT ANSWER a. A combination of different default accounts c. Default account per user defined field d. Default account per ship-to address The bookkeeping balance of the balance sheet account has to be cleared every year (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER False What is a system currency? a. The currency in which the company is legally required to keep its books b. A currency used only when recording transactions for foreign business partners c. An additional currency in which all transactions are recorded - CORRECT ANSWER c. An additional currency in which all transactions are recorded Which scenario may trigger an exchange rate transaction? a. An Invoice and payment to a foreign currency vendor posted in the same posting date b. An invoice in foreign currency price to a local customer c. An invoice to a foreign currency customer d. A payment to a foreign currency vendor - CORRECT ANSWER d. A payment to a foreign currency vendor Foreign currency transactions are recorded simultaneously in the local currency (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True You cannot change the Local or the System Currency once you have started posting transactions in the company (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True Your local currency is Euro. You have several customers located in the United States and their currency is USD. When you create marketing documents for these customers, you would like the system to automatically enter a price in USD. How can you define this in the system? a. Set the system currency to USD and update the daily exchange rate b. In the price list linked to these customers, include prices in USD in the additional currency column c. Define the currency of the US business partners as All Currencies - CORRECT ANSWER b. In the price list linked to these customers, include prices in USD in the additional currency column In which currency is the exchange rate differences transaction posted? a. Local currency b. Foreign currency c. System currency d. BP currency - CORRECT ANSWER a. Local currency The calculation of the exchange rate in an A/P Invoice is based on the document due date (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER False One journal voucher may contain several journal entries (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True The debit and credit values of the posting template are entered as percentage (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True An accountant would like to save a draft when entering a large journal entry, in order to avoid data loss. What do you recommend? a. Use a posting template. b. In the journal entry, choose the option to save as draft. c. Create a journal voucher. - CORRECT ANSWER c. Create a journal voucher In the journal voucher window you can post selected entries related to one voucher (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER False A journal voucher has to be balanced (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER False When viewing the last Journal Entry record, you see the value JE in the Origin field. What does JE stand for? a. Journal entry template b. Journal voucher source c. Automatic journal entry d. Manual journal entry - CORRECT ANSWER d. Manual journal entry How can you choose a business partner in a manual journal entry row? There are 2 correct answers a. Press TAB b. Press CTRL+TAB c. Press ENTER d. Choose the list of business partners option from the context menu - CORRECT ANSWER b. Press CTRL+TAB d. Choose the list of business partners option from the context menu You try to cancel an existing journal entry but the cancellation option is not available. What could be the reason? There are 2 correct answers. a. The journal entry was already cancelled. b. The journal entry was created from a journal voucher. c. The posting date of the journal entry is in the past. d. The journal entry was created automatically from a marketing document. - CORRECT ANSWER a. The journal entry was already cancelled. d. The journal entry was created automatically from a marketing document. Which of the following reports can be set to appear automatically immediately after logging in to the system? There are 2 correct answers. a. Recurring Postings b. Journal Voucher report c. Transactions Journal report d. Reverse Transactions - CORRECT ANSWER a. Recurring Postings d. Reverse Transactions The posting template generates journal entries automatically according to a pre-defined interval (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER False The recurring postings function is designed for fixed amount journal entries created on a regular basis (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True How is a monthly sub-period created in the system? a. During the posting period setup, choose whether to add the sub- period manually or automatically. b. Add a sub-period in the posting period creation window, each month before the end of the current month. c. When you choose the monthly sub-period in the posting period creation window, the system automatically adds all sub-periods. - CORRECT ANSWER c. When you choose the monthly sub-period in the posting period creation window, the system automatically adds all sub-periods. In the journal voucher window you can post selected entries related to one voucher - CORRECT ANSWER False The posting dates of different periods may overlap (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER False How does SAP Business One determine which sub-period a transaction belongs to? a. From the transaction posting date b. By the transaction type c. From the transaction document date d. According to the sub-period type - CORRECT ANSWER a. From the transaction posting date For each period, you have to define new values in the G/L Account Determination window (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER False When creating posting periods, the beginning of the fiscal year can only be the first day of a month (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True What would be an advantage of defining a monthly sub-period? a. Preventing users from posting transactions to a previous month. b. You can set up recurring postings on the 1st of every month. c. Be able to receive monthly payments from customers. - CORRECT ANSWER a. Preventing users from posting transactions to a previous month. Which two of these transactions trigger a system internal reconciliation? a. An A/R invoice based on a sales order b. A payment for a vendor based on an A/P Invoice c. A credit memo based on an invoice d. A landed cost based on a Goods Receipt PO - CORRECT ANSWER b. A payment for a vendor based on an A/P Invoice c. A credit memo based on an invoice Once you reverse a reconciliation, all the related postings are reversed as well (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER False manual reconciliation is a type of user reconciliation (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True Internal reconciliation refers to the matching and clearing of open credit items to open debit items within an account (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True You added an Incoming payment but forgot to choose the invoice in the payment and a reconciliation was not made. What is the best practice to solve this issue? a. Cancel the payment and create a new one based on the invoice. Then reconciliation will occur automatically. b. Reopen the incoming payment and uncheck the Payment on Account box then choose the invoice to trigger reconciliation. c. Perform a reconciliation using the Business Partner Internal Reconciliation window. - CORRECT ANSWER c. Perform a reconciliation using the Business Partner Internal Reconciliation window. You need to perform internal reconciliation manually after running the Payment Wizard (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER False Partial reconciliation can be only done manually - CORRECT ANSWER False You added an Incoming Payment for partial payment of an A/R invoice. How does this affect reconciliation? a. The customer debt is reconciled partially for the amount paid. b. No reconciliation occurs because a partial payment can only be reconciled manually. c. The customer debt is not reconciled yet. Reconciliation occurs only when the customer pays in full. - CORRECT ANSWER a. The customer debt is reconciled partially for the amount paid. It is possible to reconcile transactions of two business partners with each other (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True When an invoice is reconciled with a payment, the debit side of the business partner is reconciled with the credit side (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True As the accountant in your company, you spend a lot of time reconciling open customer debts and payments. Which 2 options can help you make the procedure shorter? a. Manual reconciliation b. User reconciliation c. Advanced reconciliation d. Semi automatic reconciliation e. Automatic reconciliation - CORRECT ANSWER d. Semi automatic reconciliation e. Automatic reconciliation What can be a result of creating an internal reconciliation? There are 2 correct answers a. Remove an A/P Invoice from the vendor aging report b. Decrease the debit amount of the total balance of a customer c. Remove an A/R Invoice from the open invoices list that appear when opening a new Incoming Payment d. Copy a transaction from a business partner to an account - CORRECT ANSWER a. Remove an A/P Invoice from the vendor aging report c. Remove an A/R Invoice from the open invoices list that appear when opening a new Incoming Payment An internal reconciliation is performed in the local currency if the business partner account currency is set to All Currencies (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True In the incoming payment, you see an asterisk in one of the invoice rows. What does the asterisk indicate? a. The invoice is due b. Missing payment data c. A high priority invoice d. A payment on account - CORRECT ANSWER a. The invoice is due Which tool would you use to create outgoing and incoming payments in a batch? a.Document Generation Wizard b. Automatic Reconciliation c. Document Drafts Report d. Payment Wizard - CORRECT ANSWER d. Payment Wizard The journal entry for an outgoing payment typically involves a vendor and a bank account (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True Order the process steps you take when the customer uses checks for payments. -Incoming Payment -Invoice -Deposit - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Invoice 2. Incoming Payment 3. Deposit When adding an incoming payment using bank transfer as payment means, the house bank is debited (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True After you created a deposit with multiple checks, it is possible to cancel one of the checks (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True Defining a payment method for a business partner is a pre-requisite for running the Payment Wizard (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True It is possible to split the amount due among several means of payment (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True An incoming payment typically debits the customer account - CORRECT ANSWER False What are 3 possible outcomes of the payment wizard run? a. Deposits b. Bank file c. Outgoing Payments d. Incoming Payments e. Aging report - CORRECT ANSWER b. Bank file c. Outgoing Payments d. Incoming Payments Which 2 payment means will typically involve a clearing (suspense) account in the incoming payment transaction? a. credit card b. checks c. bank transfer - CORRECT ANSWER a. credit card b. checks The Payment Wizard does NOT consolidate payments by business partners (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER False What would be the consequence of choosing the option Payment on Account in the Outgoing Payments window? a. The payment will close the invoice without creating a journal entry b. The open invoice will not be reconciled with the payment c. The payment will be added as a draft payment d. The payment will be posted to an account and not a business partner - CORRECT ANSWER b. The open invoice will not be reconciled with the payment Another name for bank reconciliation is external reconciliation (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True What is the result of all types of bank reconciliation? a. The payment is reconciled with the invoice. b. The bank statement row is reconciled with the bank record in the accounting ledger. c. The debit side of the bank account is reconciled with the credit side of the account. - CORRECT ANSWER b. The bank statement row is reconciled with the bank record in the accounting ledger. Bank reconciliation and internal reconciliation are two different processes in SAP Business One (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True While reviewing the bank statement, you notice that a certain bank transfer amount is slightly different than the amount recorded in the ledger, due to rounding. How can you reconcile this record externally? a. Post a balancing transaction b. Create a semi-automatic reconciliation c. Mark the transaction as reconciled - CORRECT ANSWER a. Post a balancing transaction The main purpose of bank reconciliation is to ensure all transactions performed in the bank are recorded in the accounting ledger (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True A bank statement can be imported automatically (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True A bank reconciliation is performed before receiving the bank statement (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER False The Trial Balance report is a draft of the Balance Sheet report (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER False The Trial Balance report displays only balance sheet accounts - CORRECT ANSWER False In the profit and loss statement you can display balances of business partners (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER False Total assets = total liabilities + equity (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True The Balance Sheet presents the company's value - CORRECT ANSWER True Which 2 reports display the balance of the cost of sales accounts? a. Balance Sheet b. Cash Flow c. Profit and Loss Statement d. Trial Balance - CORRECT ANSWER c. Profit and Loss Statement d. Trial Balance Which 2 types of balances can you view in the Profit and Loss Statement? a. The assets balance b. The company's expenses balance c. The control accounts balance d. The balance of the profit and loss accounts - CORRECT ANSWER b. The company's expenses balance d. The balance of the profit and loss accounts In which report can you easily see open transactions for all customers? a. Profit and Loss b. Cash Flow c. Open items list d. Aging report - CORRECT ANSWER d. Aging report The Cash Flow report displays only cash accounts (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER False In the Cash Flow report, what is a security level? a. The amount of time until the document due date b. The authorization level for viewing account balances c. The level of certainty that the transaction will turn into cash - CORRECT ANSWER c. The level of certainty that the transaction will turn into cash Where can you see a consolidated balance of a business partner that is both a customer and a vendor? a. In the General ledger b. In the account balance window c. In the trial balnce report d. In the Aging report - CORRECT ANSWER d. In the Aging report The Cash Flow report forecasts changes in cash holding accounts (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True Which feature in SAP Business One allows you to send customer reminder letters regarding debts? a. Doubtful Debts b. Dunning Wizard c. Payment Wizard d. Document printing - CORRECT ANSWER b. Dunning Wizard The Cash Flow report can only display transactions recorded in the accounting ledger (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER False In the aging report, how does the system calculate the age of an open invoice? a. By applying the payment terms of the business partner to the invoice date. b. By counting the days from today until the invoice due date. c. According to the difference in days between the date of the invoice and aging date. - CORRECT ANSWER c. According to the difference in days between the date of the invoice and aging date. Depreciation is posted as a company's expense (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True What is a virtual fixed asset? a. A template for reproducing a batch of identical fixed assets. b. An asset that has no value but has a quantity balance in inventory. c. A fixed asset that exists in inventory after retirement. d. A fixed asset that ts registered in the books of another subsidiary. - CORRECT ANSWER a. A template for reproducing a batch of identical fixed assets. An asset can be associated with several asset classes (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER False Place the following steps of an asset's life cycle in order: -Retirement -Capitalization -Depreciation Run -Asset Master Data definition - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Asset Master Data definition 2. Capitalization 3. Depreciation Run 4. Retirement A Capitalization document can be created automatically by an A/R Invoice (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER False Asset net book value = historical item cost - accumulated depreciation (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True A depreciation run creates journal entries - CORRECT ANSWER True Creating a virtual fixed asset is available only if you use numbering series for the asset master data (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True A Retirement document can be created by an A/P invoice (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER False You would like to distribute a rent expense to different departments. What kind of distribution rule would you use? a. Indirect b. Direct - CORRECT ANSWER a. Indirect What is cost center Z? a. A cost center with no costs or expenses allocated. b. A cost center that collects unassigned costs and revenues. c. The first cost center created manually. - CORRECT ANSWER b. A cost center that collects unassigned costs and revenues. What does the system do once you create a cost center? a. Allocates all expenses or revenues relevant to this cost center. b. Creates a distribution rule with the same name as the cost center. c. Creates an account in the chart of accounts with the same name. - CORRECT ANSWER b. Creates a distribution rule with the same name as the cost center. You can link distribution rules to all account types (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER False The Profit and Loss report can be issued per dimension (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True You want to analyze the travel expenses of your company by the number of employees in each department and also by employees' location. How can you set this up in the system? a. Define G/L expense accounts for each analysis. b. Issue each travel expense twice. c. Define a dimension for each analysis. - CORRECT ANSWER c. Define a dimension for each analysis. Order the AIP phases correctly. -Project Preparation -Final Presentation -Go-Live and Support -Project Realization -Business Blueprint - CORRECT ANSWER 1. Project Preparation 2. Business Blueprint 3. Project Realization 4. Final Preparation 5. Go Live and Support According to the AIP methodology, go-live occurs at the end of the Go-Live and Support phase (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER False You can add your own project plan and tasks to the Implementation Center (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True In which phase are the following activities performed: Handover from sales Kick-off meeting Delivery of software a. Project Preparation b. Business Blueprint c. Go-Live and Support - CORRECT ANSWER a. Project Preparation Which activity takes place in the AIP Business Blueprint phase? a. Configuration of customer's system b. Installation of SAP Business One software c. Mapping of customer's processes to SAP Business One d. Agreement for go-live - CORRECT ANSWER c. Mapping of customer's processes to SAP Business One Your company provides implementation services to other partners who sell the solution. Which embedded project plan shows you the tasks for the last 3 phases of an implementation project? a. Narrowed b. Pre-configured c. Detailed - CORRECT ANSWER a. Narrowed According to the AIP methodology, in which phase is the customer's system configured? a. Final Preparation b. Project Realization c. Business Blueprint - CORRECT ANSWER b. Project Realization All users in the service department need to have the same set of fields in the matrix area of documents. What are two ways to set this up?There are 2 correct answers. a. Define a set of user defaults b. Use an authorization user group c. Use a UI configuration template d. Copy form settings from a reference user - CORRECT ANSWER c. Use a UI configuration template d. Copy form settings from a reference user How can you assign common settings, such as a path to a common shared folder, to a group of users? a. User Defaults b. Authorization User Group c. UI Configuration Template - CORRECT ANSWER a. User Defaults It is possible to delete a user account (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True By default a super user has: a. No access to any function b. Full access to every function c. Only access to administration functions - CORRECT ANSWER b. Full access to every function A user gets an error the first time they login to SAP Business One. What are 2 things you should check? There are 2 correct answers. a. Employee master data is linked to user account b. Required authorizations are assigned c. Correct license is assigned d. Correct form settings are assigned - CORRECT ANSWER b. Required authorizations are assigned c. Correct license is assigned The code for a user account is case sensitive (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True You can restrict access to the semantic layer views on an individual basis(T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True What are two ways to quickly grant general authorizations to several users with the same job? There are 2 correct answers. a. Define and assign a common set of user defaults b. Create a UI configuration template and assign the users c. Use an authorization user group d. Copy authorizations from a reference user - CORRECT ANSWER c. Use an authorization user group d. Copy authorizations from a reference user When would you assign authorizations manually to a user instead of using an authorization user group? a. When the user is a super user b. When the user's role is unique c. When the user requires authorizations from more than one user group - CORRECT ANSWER b. When the user's role is unique To access SAP Business One functionality, a user needs a __________ in addition to general authorizations. a. Data ownership authorization b. License c. Role-based cockpit - CORRECT ANSWER b. License You can assign multiple authorization user groups to a user (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True You can fine tune the general authorizations for a super user and remove specific authorizations as needed (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER False Once data ownership is enabled, a document that has an owner can only be accessed by________________ or ____________________. There are 2 correct answers. a. A super user b. The owner's manager c. A user granted general authorization to the document d. A user granted data ownership to the document - CORRECT ANSWER a. A super user d. A user granted data ownership to the document Where can you define a user as a member of a team for data ownership purposes? a. Employee master data b. Sales employee/buyer definition c. User account d. Data ownership team tab - CORRECT ANSWER a. Employee master data Which data ownership strategy can assign the sales employee from the business partner master data as the owner of a sales order? a. Business partner b. Document - CORRECT ANSWER b. Document If data ownership is in use, how can you make documents available to an auditor who has no relationship to the document owner? a. Assign data ownership at the Company level b. Assign data ownership at the Department level c. Assign data ownership at the Manager level - CORRECT ANSWER a. Assign data ownership at the Company level What is special about the Purchase Request document for data ownership? a. You cannot specify a header and row owner b. It cannot have an owner c. It is not subject to data ownership rules d. It does not relate to a business partner - CORRECT ANSWER d. It does not relate to a business partner The relationship "peer" describes a user's relationship to the document owner. What is the user's relationship? a. Is on the same team b. Has the same manager c. Has the same department - CORRECT ANSWER b. Has the same manager Which data ownership strategy will grant access to a document based on a user's relationship to the owner of the master data? a. Business partner b. Document - CORRECT ANSWER a. Business partner When data ownership is in use, a document can always be accessed by anyone if it has no ___________. a. Owner b. Sales employee or buyer c. Business partner - CORRECT ANSWER a. Owner If users are authorized to multiple numbering series you should set one as __________. a. Primary b. Default c. Manual - CORRECT ANSWER b. Default You can create a numbering series for items and business partners as well as for documents (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True No special general authorization is needed to create documents using a manual numbering series (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER False You want to start a new numbering series for sales orders. What must you change in the existing series? a. The last number b. The first number c. The next number - CORRECT ANSWER a. The last number When a new account is created for a regular user, the new user: a. Has access to the default numbering series b. Has no access to any numbering series - CORRECT ANSWER b. Has no access to any numbering series What are 2 differences between a document series and a master data series? There are 2 correct answers. a. A document series can be a cancellation series. b. A master data series cannot have a prefix or suffix. c. The prefix in a document series is not part of the actual number. d. You cannot set a master data series as default for a group of users. - CORRECT ANSWER a. A document series can be a cancellation series. c. The prefix in a document series is not part of the actual number. If a numbering series has a period indicator, users cannot post documents for the series unless the period indicator matches the current posting period (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True A UI template contains ___________________________. a. Users and user groups b. Forms modified by the UI-API c. User defaults for a set of users d. Forms modified by Edit Form UI - CORRECT ANSWER a. Users and user groups d. Forms modified by Edit Form UI Using UI edit you can add a new tab to a document (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True Using UI edit, you can set a user-defined field to be invisible in the side window (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER False You can only have one set of modified forms in the system (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER False An authorized user can modify their own forms (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True Using UI edit, you can move a field from one tab to a different tab. (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True You must use the item number and column syntax to refer to fields in the active window (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER False In SAP HANA, field names containing lower-case characters need to be enclosed in double quotes (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True What does System Information show you? There are 2 correct answers. a. Maximum length of a field b. Default values for fields c. Object names d. Database field names - CORRECT ANSWER a. Maximum length of a field d. Database field names What is a major difference between the two query tools provided in the SAP Business One client? There are 2 correct answers. a. The Query Wizard automatically displays all tables related to a chosen table. b. You cannot sort and group fields using the Query Generator. c. The Query Generator is a single-step interface for building a query. d. Only the Query Wizard inserts the table joins. - CORRECT ANSWER a. The Query Wizard automatically displays all tables related to a chosen table. c. The Query Generator is a single-step interface for building a query. As a user, what authorization do you need to run a saved query? a. Authorization to the Query Manager b. Authorization to the Query Generator tool c. Authorization to the query category group - CORRECT ANSWER c. Authorization to the query category group The main purchase order table is: a. OPQR b. OPOR c. OPR1 - CORRECT ANSWER b. OPOR A user cannot modify an approval template if they are selected as _________________ in the template. a. Originator b. Approver c. Manager - CORRECT ANSWER a. Originator A user adds a sales document that triggers an alert. What happens to the document? a. A draft document is created b. The document cannot be added c. The document is rejected d. The document is added normally - CORRECT ANSWER d. The document is added normally A user adds a sales document that is subject to an approval process. What happens to the document? a. The document is saved with the status "Approved" b. The document is saved as a draft c. The document is added normally - CORRECT ANSWER b. The document is saved as a draft If you choose a combination of a predefined term and a query in an approval template, both have to be fulfilled to trigger the approval process (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER False The accountant needs to know whenever any user issues a purchase order that exceeds the annual budget. Would you use an alert or an approval process to implement this? a. Approval Process b. Alert - CORRECT ANSWER b. Alert What two conditions must be met to trigger a user-defined alert? There are two correct answers. a. A document is added to the system b. The alert frequency is met c. The query produces results d. The Save History checkbox is selected - CORRECT ANSWER b. The alert frequency is met c. The query produces results An alert can prevent a user from issuing a sales order if the customer's credit limit is exceeded. (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER False The sales manager wants to review all sales orders before they go out, if the gross profit is below 35%. Would you use an alert or an approval process to implement this? a. Approval Process b. Alert - CORRECT ANSWER a. Approval Process How can you ensure that an approval procedure will not be stalled if an approver is absent from work? a. Set the approval terms to "Always" b. Define multiple approvers for a stage c. Define multiple approval stages in the template d. Set the required number of rejections to zero - CORRECT ANSWER b. Define multiple approvers for a stage What is unique to the query syntax used in an approval procedure? a. Query must use the item and column number syntax b. Query must use the select distinct statement c. Query must work with multiple document types - CORRECT ANSWER b. Query must use the select distinct statement You can use a predefined alert to notify you when an item in stock falls below the minimum inventory level. (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True Which is true about a user-defined field added to the marketing document object? There are two correct answers. a. The field will be added to every marketing document type b. The field will be added to all new documents created for the object, but not to existing documents c. The field will be added only to the specified marketing document types d. The field will be added to all instances of the object, including documents saved in the database - CORRECT ANSWER a. The field will be added to every marketing document type d. The field will be added to all instances of the object, including documents saved in the database User-defined fields can be added to the grid section of a form (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True User-defined values added to a document type such as a sales order are not inherited by other document types (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True User-defined fields require a change to the database structure (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True What is the purpose of user-defined values? There are two correct answers: a. To add a list of values to a field b. To autofill a field based on a query c. To link a user-defined field to a user-defined table d. To add a new field to a form - CORRECT ANSWER a. To add a list of values to a field b. To autofill a field based on a query When you create a user-defined field, to which entities can you link the new field? There are three correct answers: a. Another user-defined field b. System object c. User-defined object d. Dashboard widget e. User-defined table - CORRECT ANSWER b. System object c. User-defined object e. User-defined table How can a user identify if a field contains user-defined values? a. Choose View > System Information b. Choose View > Pickers Display c. Choose Tools > Form Settings d. Choose Tools > User-defined Values - CORRECT ANSWER b. Choose View > Pickers Display To ensure you keep the original result from a query, you should select the ________________ option in the setup window for user-defined values. a. Refresh Regularly b. Display Saved User-Defined Values c. Auto Refresh when Field Changes - CORRECT ANSWER b. Display Saved User-Defined Values A query attached to a row-level field as user-defined values can be triggered by another field on the row or header of the form (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True User-defined fields added to the header of a document can be hidden using the form settings window (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER False The unit price and the discount of an item are examples of measures (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True Semantic layer views are analytic models that do not contain any data (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True Which of these is mandatory for a KPI? a. Goal b. Parameter c. Value d. Date - CORRECT ANSWER c. Value You can trigger an enterprise search from a pervasive dashboard using __________. a. A cockpit template b. An action c. An advanced dashboard - CORRECT ANSWER b. An action The Analytical Portal is an example of an advanced dashboard (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER False What is the difference between a pervasive dashboard and an advanced dashboard? There are 2 correct answers. a. Partners cannot create advanced dashboards b. An advanced dashboard can contain a pervasive dashboard c. A pervasive dashboard can have multiple pages d. An advanced dashboard can be opened from a pervasive dashboard - CORRECT ANSWER b. An advanced dashboard can contain a pervasive dashboard d. An advanced dashboard can be opened from a pervasive dashboard A pervasive dashboard is based on which two of these data sources?There are 2 correct answers. a. User-defined query b. Crystal report c. Calculation view d. Widget - CORRECT ANSWER a. User-defined query c. Calculation view To ensure support from SAP, what actions must you perform for your new customer? There are 3 correct answers. a. Ensure internet connectivity at the customer site for SAP access b. Get the customer to sign a contract for incident billing c. Enter system data for the customer d. Provide the customer with access to PartnerEdge e. Submit an initial system status report - CORRECT ANSWER a. Ensure internet connectivity at the customer site for SAP access c. Enter system data for the customer e. Submit an initial system status report What are the support troubleshooting steps that a partner is required to perform before submitting an incident? There are 4 correct answers. a. Creation of an SAP note b. Upload of the customer's database c. Reproduction of the issue d. Isolation of the issue to SAP Business One e. Search for known issues f. Initial troubleshooting - CORRECT ANSWER c. Reproduction of the issue d. Isolation of the issue to SAP Business One e. Search for known issues f. Initial troubleshooting When a partner creates an incident with a very high priority, what additional information needs to be submitted to SAP? a. Screenshots of the error message b. Step-by-step details to recreate the incident c. The business impact d. A full database backup - CORRECT ANSWER c. The business impact The Support user in SAP Business One enables __________________________ a. A customer to login and create an incident to a partner b. A partner to login and perform maintenance and support c. A customer to login directly to SAP support d. A partner to login and submit enhancement requests to SAP - CORRECT ANSWER b. A partner to login and perform maintenance and support In addition to proactive monitoring of a customer system, what are other benefits of Remote Support Platform (RSP) for a customer? There are 2 correct answers. a. Scheduled database backups b. Automatic silent upgrades c. 24*7 online support from SAP d. Software patch download - CORRECT ANSWER a. Scheduled database backups d. Software patch download Support from SAP is dependent on a customer having a ______________________. There are 2 correct answers. a. Uploaded System Status Report b. Daily database backup c. System upgraded to the latest release and patch d. Valid maintenance contract - CORRECT ANSWER a. Uploaded System Status Report d. Valid maintenance contract Which of these are partner obligations to comply with SAP's maintenance policy? There are 2 correct answers. a. Provide onsite support to customers b. Deliver Level 1, 2 and 3 support directly to customers c. Install and use Remote Support Platform d. Follow SAP's support tools and processes - CORRECT ANSWER c. Install and use Remote Support Platform d. Follow SAP's support tools and processes In which situation should a partner contact the SAP hotline to report an incident? a. When the customer has a high priority problem b. When there is no internet access c. Outside SAP's local support hours - CORRECT ANSWER b. When there is no internet access If you install a hot fix at a customer, you should upgrade to the next regular patch as soon as available (T/F) - CORRECT ANSWER True The ____________________ provides access to all support resources and tools from a single interface. a. Support Launchpad b. Documentation Resource Center c. Remote Support Platform - CORRECT ANSWER a. Support Launchpad When submitting an incident to SAP support, what priority should a partner assign if the problem affects normal business transactions but important transactions can still be executed? a. Very High b. Low c. Medium d. High - CORRECT ANSWER c. Medium [Show More]

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