NET/TEAS Nursing School Entrance Review Examination, complete answers

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NET/TEAS Nursing School Entrance Review Examination Practice test, (Please read instructions carefully) This compact study packet prep-test will help you focus on your strengths and weaknesses, whic... h will help with passing the nursing entrance examination. There are many aspects of test taking and most students have difficulty in the math and passage portions, also incomplete sentences and grammatical errors are not noticed by most students and need to be recognized Because of the fact only the reading comprehension and mathematics are the only two parts of the test that count towards your score these are the areas you should make sure you are proficient in before taking the test. The reading comprehension is broken down into 33 questions and you are given 30 minutes to complete this section. The mathematics section is broken down into 60 problems with a 60 minute time frame. One area of the test people find the most trouble with is the mathematics. The math is broken down to cover many aspects of math including but not limited to multiplication and division of improper and mixed fractions, word problems, algebra problems including factoring, solving variables in the first power, square roots and use of quadratic equations. If you are looking to brush up on rusty math skills you will find the math is one of the best to have you back on track. (Note: Practice your simple measurements which are also on the exam) Example: mL/cc= tsp/tbsp, ounces, drops, cups, and lb to kg. ECT. The reading comprehension is mainly made up of passages in which you will be required to read and then answer the questions afterward. The passages requires the test taker to carefully read and to comprehend the material so that they will be able to answer the questions at the end with the science portion you will have about 30 problems that will consist of physics, chemistry, biology, A&P. Remember most Teas or and Net Exams are about 3.5 hours depending on the school you will test at. Also, you will need to practice grammar for the English portion. But, know matter what test you take, if you are comfortable with this test you should be able to pass the first time. NET / TEAS Algebra Section - Practice Test (Remember try to do all 60 questions in 60 minutes, you need a 65% on each section to pass at most testing locations) 1) 3987 + 568 (A) 3419 (B) 3445 (C) 4555 (D) 9667 2) 9621 - 4352 (A) 5269 (B) 5331 (C) 5379 (D) 13,973 3) 465 x 1079 (A) 1544 (B) 16,185 (C) 83,235 (D) 501,735 4) 93817 ÷ 23 (A) 479 (B) 4079 (C) 4030 R.7 (D) 43 R.7 5) 742.3 ÷ 57.1 (A) 13 (B) 1.3 (C) .13 (D) None of these 6) 8.02 × 9.65 (A) 7739.3 (B) 773.93 (C) 77.393 (D) 17.76 7) What number is in the thousandths place of 7,956.1423 (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 9 8) 519 x 19 = (A) 8,981 (B) 9,861 (C) 10,681 (D) 9,691 9) 45312 × 14 × 23 (A) 60112 (B) 8538 (C) 87.4125 (D) None of these 10) 15 is 25% of (A) 0.6 (B) 3.75 (C) 40 (D) 60 11) 18% of 35 (A) 514 (B) 6.3 (C) 53 (D) 194.4 12) 17.5% of (X) is 70 (A) .175 (B) 12.25 (C) 87.5 (D) 400 13) .73 as a percent (A) .0073 (B) 7.3 (C) 73 (D) 730 14) 13.5 as a percent (A) .135 (B) 1.35 (C) 135 (D) 1350 15) 7/9 as a percent (A) 128 % (B) 77 % (C) 79% (D) None of these 16) 150% as a decimal (A) 1.5 (B) 15 (C) 15,000 (D) None of these 17) 3(2x +10) + 5(3x −6) (A) 21x + 60 (B) 21x (C) 13x + 60 (D) 13x 18) −4x2y+4xy2−4x2y+4xy2 (A) 0 (B) − 4x4y2+ 4x2y4 (C) −8x2y+8xy2 (D) 16x4y2 + 16x2y4 19) 7x+ 4 =39 (A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 28 (D) 301 20) 4(x+2)+7=5(x−3)+24 (A) -24 (B) -15 (C) 6 (D) 40 21) 3 1/3 + 4 + 2/5 = (A) 8 ¾ (B) 7 2/3 (C) 7 ½ (D) 7 11/15 22) 4 ¾ - 2 ½ = (A) 2 ¼ (B) 2 ½ (C) 3 ¼ (D) 2 1/3 23) 4 1/5 x ¾ x 6 = (A) 17 4/5 (B) 16 2/3 (C) 20 ½ (D) 18 9/10 24) 2/7 ÷ 1/9 = (A) 18/7 (B) 7/2 (C) 7/18 (D) 2/63 25) Which of the following is correct? (A) 9/15 = 3/4 (B) 12/15 = 4/5 (C) 12/16 = 2/3 (D) 3/15 = 1/4 26) Solve for x: 4/x = 1/5 (A) 15 (B) 18 (C) 12 (D) 20 27) Reduce 12/156 to lowest terms. (A) 1/12 (B) 2/7 (C) 1/13 (D) 1/10 28) Express 17/6 as a mixed fraction. (A) 2 5/6 (B) 3 1/6 (C) 2 2/6 (D) 2 1/6 29) Express seventy four hundredths as a percentage. (A) 740% (B) 7.4% (C) 74% (D) .74% 30) 15% of 120 = (A) 16 (B) 15 (C) 18 (D) 20 31) 9 is what percent of 72? (A) 10% (B) 15% (C) 18% (D) 12.5% 32) 4 is what percent of 50? (A) 9% (B) 8% (C) 10% (D) 4% 33) Four tenths of 18 equals: (A) 6.8 (B) 7 (C) 7.2 (D) 7.4 34) .6% of 18 equals: (A) 1.08 (B) 10.8 (C) .108 (D) .0108 35) The ratio of 7:4 = (?)% (A) 160% (B) 67% (C) 175% (D) 125% 36) 2/4 = (?)% x 2/5 (A) 125% (B) 110% (C) 105% (D) 135% 37) Express 4/16 as a decimal. (A) .5 (B) .025 (C) .25 (D) .05 38) Express .24 as a percentage. (A) 2.4% (B) .24% (C) .024% (D) 24% 39) Express 14/4 as a percentage. (A) 30% (B) 333% (C) 300% (D) 350% 40) Express 5/25 as a percentage. (A) 20% (B) 15% (C) 25% (D) 30% 41) 1.5/50% = ? (A) 3 (B) 4.5 (C) 6 (D) 1.5 42) Express .075 as a percentage. (A) 75% (B) 750% (C) .75% (D) 7.5% 43) Express the ratio of 6:14 as a percentage. (A) 40% (B) 50% (C) 43% (D) 55% 44) Express 3/8 as a percentage. (A) 33% (B) 30% (C) 37.5% (D) 40% 45) Express 8.6% as a reduced fraction. (A) 21/250 (B) 86/1,000 (C) 22/84 (D) 43/500 46) Express 160% as a decimal. (A) 16 (B) 1.6 (C) .016 (D) .16 47) Solve for x: 24 is 60% of x (A) 4 (B) 400 (C) 20 (D) 40 48) 8% of x is equal to 48. Solve for x. (A) 600 (B) 540 (C) 480 (D) 640 49) Express 32/96 as a reduced common fraction. (A) ½ (B) 2/5 (C) 3/5 (D) 1/3 50) Express 37% as a decimal. (A) 37.0 (B) .37 (C) 3.7 (D) .037 51) 8 is 40% of x. Solve for x. (A) 50 (B) 40 (C) 20 (D) 30 52) 25% of x is 50. Solve for x. (A) 260 (B) 220 (C) 240 (D) 200 53) 4b+2b–5b= (A) 2b (B) b (C) -b (D) -2b 54) (5y2 – 4y) + (2y2 + 6y -9) = (A) 6y2 +2y – 9 (B) 7y2 + 2y – 9 (C) 6y2 + y – 9 (D) 5y2 + 2y – 9 55) 4x – 6 = 42. Solve for x. (A) 12 (B) 10 (C) 8 (D) 14 56) 5(x – 6) = 4x + 4. Solve for x. (A) 28 (B) 32 (C) 30 (D) 34 57) 5ab2 + 3ab2 = (A) 8a2b4 (B) 8 (C) 8a2b2 (D) 8ab2 58) 5(3y – 5) + 2 – 6(y + 7) = (A) 7y – 55 (B) 9y – 65 (C) 15y – 55 (D) 10y – 65 59) 7x + 6 = 34. Solve for x. (A) 4 (B) 6 (C) -2 (D) 2 60) 4x + 7 = 2(x – 3). Solve for x. (A) 6.5 (B) 6 (C) -6.5 (D) -5.5 ADDITIONAL MATH PROBLEM’S. THIS MATH WILL HELP YOU WITH THE ALL AROUND NEEDED FORMULAS. The Mathematics Section of the Practice Test consists of 48 multiple-choice questions. Read each question carefully and choose the ONE best answer. Appropriate definitions and formulas are provided below to help you perform the calculations on the test. You may use a four-function (+, –, ×, ÷), nonprogrammable calculator [with square root (√) and percent (%) keys]. Only for this practice test. Definitions and Formulas Definitions is equal to is perpendicular to is not equal to is parallel to is approximately equal to ~ is similar to is greater than is congruent to is less than is not congruent to is greater than or equal to plus or minus is less than or equal to line segment joining points A and B 3.14 line containing points A and B Angle m( ) length of m measure of angle AB length of right angle length of Triangle or ab ratio of a to b Abbreviations for Units of Measurement U.S. Standard Metric Distance in. Inch m Meter ft. Foot km Kilometer mi. Mile cm Centimeter mm Millimeter Volume gal. Gallon L liter qt. Quart mL milliliter Oz. Ounce cc cubic centimeter Weight/Mass Lb Pound g gram Oz. Ounce kg kilogram mg milligram Temperature degree Fahrenheit degree Celsius Time sec. Second min. Minute hr. hour Speed mph miles per hour Conversions for Units of Measurement U.S. Standard Metric Length 12 inches = 1 foot Length 10 millimeters = 1 centimeter 3 feet = 1 yard 100 centimeters = 1 meter 5280 feet = 1 mile 1000 meters = 1 kilometer Volume 8 ounces = 1 cup Volume 1000 milliliters = 1 liter (liquid) 2 cups = 1 pint 1000 liters = 1 kiloliter 2 pints = 1 quart 4 quarts = 1 gallon Weight 16 ounces = 1 pound Weight 1000 milligrams = 1 gram 2000 pounds = 1 ton 1000 grams = 1 kilogram Time 60 seconds = 1 minute 60 minutes = 1 hour 24 hours = 1 day Formulas Quadratic formul(A) If , and a 0, x = Line Slope = m = Slope-intercept form for the equation of a line y = mx + b Point-slope form for the equation of a line Distance = Midpoint = Distance d = rt Geometric Figures Square Area = Perimeter = 4s Rectangle Area = w Perimeter = 2 + 2w Triangle Area = bh Right triangle Pythagorean formul(A) Circle Area = Circumference = 2 r Diameter = 2r Sphere Surface area = 4 Volume = Cube Surface area = Volume = Rectangular solid Surface area = 2 w + 2 h + 2wh Volume = wh Right circular cylinder Surface area = 2 rh + 2 Volume = h 1) A machine in a soft drink bottling factory caps 3 bottles per second. How many bottles can it cap in 15 hours? (A) (B) (C) (D) 2) A truck has a full 50-gallon gas tank. It uses 7 gallons on the first part of its journey, 13 gallons on the second part of its journey, and 15 gallons on the third part of its journey. How many gallons of gas remain in the gas tank? (A) 14 (B) 14 (C) 15 (D) 36 3) A rancher is planning to put up 220 yards of fencing. In the morning she puts up 80 yards, and in the afternoon she puts up 40% of the remaining fence. What percent of the fence did she put up that day? (A) 36% (B) 51% (C) 62% (D) 76% 4) During a bike-a-thon a local company pledges to donate $1.25 for every $4.00 pledged by the public. If the public pledges a total of $156.00 dollars per mile, how much will the company donate per mile? (A) $2.75 (B) $48.75 (C) $195.00 (D) $499.20 5) Use the pie charts below to answer the question that follows. The first pie chart represents a company's expenditures, and the second pie chart shows a breakdown of the company's advertising expenditures. What percent of the company's expenditures is spent on radio advertising? (A) 6.3% (B) 11.7% (C) 18.0% (D) 35.0% 6) Scientists have stocked Wilson's pond with a species of fish. The scientists note that the population has steadily decreased over a period of time until the population is approximately half the number of fish originally stocked. If the number of fish are plotted on the y-axis and the amount of time on the x-axis, which of the following could result? (A) (B) (C) (D) 7) A student has received scores of 88, 82, and 84 on three quizzes. If tests count twice as much as quizzes, what is the lowest score the student can get on the next test to achieve an average score of at least 70? (A) 13 (B) 48 (C) 70 (D) 96 8) Use the distribution curves below to answer the question that follows. The distribution curves above show data on the gas mileage for two different brands of car. Which of the following correctly analyzes the information presented in these distributions? (A) The mean gas mileage of brand A is greater than the mean gas mileage of brand B (B) Data was collected for more cars of brand A than of brand B (C) Brand A cars have smaller variability in gas mileage than brand B cars. (D) Brand A cars get poorer gas mileage than brand B cars. 9) Use the graph below to answer the question that follows. Which of the following equations represents line AB? (A) y = x + 2 (B) y = x + 3 (C) y = + 3 (D) y = 3x + 2 10) What is the slope of the line passing through , and ? (A) (B) (C) 3 (D) 11) Which of the following is an equation of the line passing through and (6, 0)? (A) y = x + 3 (B) y = x + 3 (C) y = + 3 (D) y = x + 6 12) Use the graph below to answer the question that follows. The graph shows how the width (w) depends on the length ( ) for a rectangle of constant area. What is the value of w for = 8? (A) 1 (B) (C) 4 (D) 96 13) If x + 7 = 16, what is the value of 2x + 1? (A) (B) (C) (D) 14) If 5r = 9t + 7, what is the value of t? (A) t = (B) t = (C) t = (D) t = + 7 15) What is the solution to the system of equations and ? (A) (0, 6), (9, 9) (B) (C) an infinite number of solutions (D) no solution 16) Which of the following graphs shows the solution of y + 2x + 2 = 0 and y = ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 17) C is 10 more than the square of the quotient of the sum of x and y and the product of x and y. Which equation expresses this relationship? (A) (B) (C) (D) 18) The number P is 50 less than the square of the difference of and n. Which of the following equations expresses this relationship? (A) (B) (C) (D) 19) A ten-foot-long board is cut into three pieces. The second piece is half as long as the first. The third piece is 4 feet longer than the second. How long is the first piece? (A) 1 feet (B) 2 feet (C) 2 feet (D) 3 feet 20) Angel has $1.80 in nickels, dimes, and quarters in his pocket. He has twice as many quarters as nickels. The number of dimes in his pocket is one more than the number of nickels and quarters put together. Which set of three equations could be used to determine how many nickels, dimes, and quarters Angel has? A. 5N + 10D + 25Q = 180 Q = 2N D = N + Q + 1 B. 5N + 10D + 25Q = 180 N = 2Q D = N + Q + 1 C. 5N + 10D + 25Q = 1.80 Q = 2N D + 1 = N + Q D. 0.05N + 0.10D + 0.75Q = 180 Q = 2N D + 1 = N + Q 21) Robin Chang collected $175 in the second week of her school charity drive. This was $35 more than she collected in the first week. How much did she collect in the two weeks? (A) $210 (B) $315 (C) $385 (D) $420 22) One factor of is: (A) (B) (C) (D) 23) = (A) (B) 1 (C) (D) 24) (A) (B) (C) (D) 25) (A) (B) (C) (D) 26) If , what is ? (A) (B) 5 (C) (D) 3 27) Use the graph below to answer the question that follows. Which equation is represented by this graph? (A) (B) (C) (D) 28) Use the graph below to answer the question that follows. Which of the following inequalities describes the shaded region? (A) (B) (C) (D) 29) Which of the following expressions should be placed in each set of parentheses below in order to solve the equation by completing the square? (A) (B) 3 (C) 6 (D) 9 30) Which of the following expressions appear as a step in solving using the quadratic formula? (A) (B) (C) (D) 31) The height of a rocket in feet is given by the equation where t is the time in seconds after it is fired and h is the height in feet. At what time is the rocket at a height of 128 feet? (A) 1 second (B) 2 seconds (C) 3 seconds (D) 4 seconds 32) Use the diagram below to answer the question that follows. A window is rectangular with a triangular top section. What is the total area of glass needed for the window? (A) 24 square feet (B) 30 square feet (C) 36 square feet (D) 48 square feet 33) Use the diagram below to answer the question that follows. The drawing above represents a race track. The ends are semicircular. What is the approximate distance in meters a runner runs in 8 laps around the track? (A) 560 m (B) 4000 m (C) 4460 m (D) 5710 m 34) An observatory dome is hemispherical in shape with a radius of 18 meters and is built using 12 equal sections. Which of the following formulas describes the surface area of each section? (A) (B) (C) (D) 35) Use the diagram below to answer the question that follows. A ramp 12 feet long is leaning against a raised platform which is 5 feet above the ground. What is the distance from the ramp's contact point with the ground and the base of the platform? (A) 7 feet (B) 8.5 feet (C) feet (D) 13 feet 36) Figure ABCDE is similar to figure FGHIJ. If AE=5, FJ=20, and BC=40, what is GH? (A) 10 (B) 25 (C) 45 (D) 160 37) If pentagon ABCDE is similar to pentagon GHIDF, and DI = 20, CD = 50, and DE = 45, what is DF? (A) 112.5 (B) 25 (C) 18 (D) 15 38) Use the diagram below to answer the question that follows. Line AB is parallel to line CD. What is the sum of the measure of angle k and the measure of angle y? (A) 90° (B) 100° (C) 180° (D) 360° 39) Use the diagram below to answer the question that follows. If ABD is an equilateral triangle, and line BD is parallel to line CE, what is the measure of angle 5? (A) 60° (B) 90° (C) 120° (D) 180° 40) Use the statements below to answer the question that follows. 1. All people wearing hats have brown hair. 2. Some of the people have red hair. 3. All people who have brown hair like pizza. 4. People who have red hair like hamburgers. 5. Carl has brown hair. Which of the following statements must be true? (A) Carl likes pizza. (B) Carl has red hair. (C) Carl is wearing a hat. (D) Carl likes hamburgers. 41) Use the pattern sequence below to answer the question that follows. What is the missing design in the sequence? (A) (B) (C) (D) 42) Bess, Tara, Gerard, and Clifton all work for the same company. One is a writer, one a researcher, one an artist, and one an engineer. Use the statements below to answer the question that follows. I. Bess and Gerard eat lunch with the engineer. II. Clifton and Tara carpool with the researcher. III. Gerard works in the same building as the writer and researcher. Who is the researcher? (A) Tara (B) Bess (C) Clifton (D) Gerard 43) Use the pattern below to answer the question that follows. What is the missing figure? (A) (B) (C) (D) 44) Use the diagram below to answer the question that follows. A rectangular box has dimensions 1 feet 2 feet 3 feet. What is the length of the longest object that can be put in the box, if the object can be placed in any position? (A) 3.6 feet (B) 3.9 feet (C) 6.5 feet (D) 15.25 feet 45) Sarah is planning to rent an apartment. She makes the table below in order to compare the monthly cost of renting two different apartments. Apartment Rent ($) Average Monthly Electricity Use (kWh) Commuting Cost ($/day) A 575 250 1.50 B 600 225 .75 If electricity costs 5¢ per kilowatt-hour (kWh), which of the following statements is true? (A) Apartment A will be cheaper. (B) Apartment B will be cheaper. (C) Apartments A and B will cost the same per month. (D) She cannot determine which apartment will be cheaper. Use the information below to answer the three questions that follow. A water treatment plant is built with three cylindrical tanks to contain the water for a town. Each tank has a radius of 15 feet and a depth of 25 feet. 46) If there are about 7.5 gallons in a cubic foot of water, approximately how many gallons of water can be treated at the plant at any one time? (A) 7.1 (B) 1.3 (C) 4.1 (D) 4.1 47) Engineers know that the amount of water lost due to evaporation is directly proportional to the surface area of the holding tanks and that the local climate causes water to evaporate at the rate of about gallon of water per hour for each square foot of water exposed to the air. About how many total gallons of waste water may enter the three tanks each day to maintain full capacity? (A) 2.1 (B) 1.7 (C) 5.0 (D) 5.0 48) The three tanks are occasionally cleaned by draining them. The following table gives the depth of water as the tanks are being drained Time (hours) Depth (feet) 0 25 1 17 2 9 3 1 Which of the following equations will give the depth (D) at any time (t)? (A) (B) (C) D = 8t + 25 (D) Passage Section - Practice Test Directions: Read the following paragraphs and answer the questions that accompany the paragraphs. Circle the letter of the answer, which you believe most accurately satisfies the requirements of each question. At the end of this reading test is the answer key. 1 set (1-21) 2 set ( 22-26) and 3 set ( 27-38) There are 3 sets of different passages for a better understanding. Passage One Paragraph A: Have you ever visited a rain forest? One of the earth’s most magical, treasured resources is the rain forest. Found in many different exotic locations such as the Amazon, North America, Asia, Australia, and Africa, the rain forests have several common but unique characteristics. All are located very closely to the tropical equator. This location determines the high daily temperatures, which can range between 68°F and 82°F. In addition to the high temperatures, daily rain showers account for approximately 32 feet of rain each year. This extremely moist condition keeps the humid climate in the rain forest a tepid and damp one. At first glance, the rain forest appears to be just a lush jungle, but a closer look reveals that this unique environment houses some of the most beautiful and exotic plants and animals in the entire world. 1. The purpose of Paragraph A is to? (A) Explain the importance of the rain forest. (B) Define a rain forest. (C) Introduce the topic of this article. (D) Urge steps to be taken to protect rain forests. Paragraph B: Trees in the rain forest face many challenges. Due to the high humidity and elevated temperatures, the trees reach notable heights and expansive diameters. Because of the rapid growth and the heights of these tropical trees, the leaves project upward to capture the sunlight necessary for photosynthesis, the process where plants synthesize carbohydrates from carbon dioxide and water for food using sunlight. The abundance and density of these trees require growing trees to push their leaves upward through the leaves of neighboring trees. Each tree fights for its share of the sunlight. The leaves form a dense crown over the rain forest. The result is what is known as the rain forest “canopy.” 2. Which statement is supported by Paragraph B? (A) Trees are the most important natural resource in the rain forest. (B) Only trees make their food through photosynthesis. (C) All forests have a canopy. (D) For photosynthesis to occur, sunlight is needed Paragraph C: This upper layer of protruding leaves in the rain forest becomes a haven for all the vegetation hovering beneath. However, the canopy, as breathtaking and beautiful as it is, can be very problematic for the vegetation below. The layers upon layers of tree leaves prevent much sunlight from filtering through the leaves and finally reaching the smaller trees or flowering tropical plants below. As a result, there is little ground vegetation below except for the thriving plants by the riverbanks. These plants are flourishing and vegetation is extremely condensed 3. Which is an inference that can be drawn from Paragraph C? (A) The canopy covers 25% of the rain forest. (B) Sunlight is an essential factor in the growth of vegetation. (C) Rivers are in all rain forests. (D) Vegetation provides the rain forest a beautiful atmosphere. Paragraph D: Planning a trip? Consider adding a stop at the rain forest. A visit to the rain forest will reveal spectacular trees of many variant types, shapes, and sizes that all have one secret in common - the shape of their leaves. The shape helps the leaves perform a very vital task for the survival of these tropical trees. The leaves of the trees, all green and shiny, have a point at the tip. This point allows water from the rain to drip to the end and drain off. The dripping water sheds from the leaf and dries quickly before the next shower. If the water on the leaf does not drip off, the leaf would not be able to breathe. In addition, the moistened leaf may also become a safe habitat for fungi to thrive and eventually cause the leaf to decay. 4. Which is not a characteristic of some tree leaves in the rain forest? (A) The shape of the leaves is pointed. (B) The rainwater quickly drips from the pointed leaves. (C) Leaves do not harbor fungi. (D) If leaves do not breathe, they do not survive. Paragraph E: There are many mysteries surrounding the rain forest. One such mystery, the Great Buttress Mystery has baffled hundreds of scientists for many years. Certain trees in the tropical rain forest appear to have giant appendages jetting from the foot of the Great Buttress Tree. These protruding appendages connect between the trunk and roots under the surface of the ground. Theoretically, it was believed that these connectors supported the tree in lightly packed soil, so they could weather the severe storms of the rain forest. Surprisingly, however, research has proven that the survival rate of these trees in storms is not any greater than trees without these appendages. The “Great Buttress Mystery” – why these trees have appendages still confuses scientists and remains a mystery today. 5. The main idea of Paragraph E is? (A) Some trees in the rain forest have giant appendages jetting from their base. (B) The purpose of the appendages of the Great Buttress Tree is a mystery. (C) These trees do not survive in storms more than any other tree. (D) The Great Buttress Mystery is puzzling. Paragraph F: Just like the leaves of these rain forest trees, plants too must compete for the essential sunlight. Two types of plants faced with this challenge are lianes and epiphytes. Lianes begin as very small shrubs that stretch their branches to neighboring trees for support as they encircle the tree trunk and keep growing upwardly until they reach that all important sunlight. At this point, their leaves flourish, and they become one with the trees to form the spectacular canopy. Another tropical type of plant is the epiphyte. The colorful epiphytes are plants that grow high in the compressed canopy of trees. They mysteriously sprout in the indentations of the tree. If they are able to grasp enough sunlight, they survive and become beautiful accents to the rain forest canopy. Orchids and ferns are the most common epiphytes. 6. Which of the following statements is true according to Paragraph F? (A) The epiphytes are ground cover. (B) Lianes remain small plants. (C) The epiphytes grow in the crevices of the branches of the tree. (D) Orchids and ferns are lianes. Paragraph G: Another interesting type of tropical vegetation found in the rain forest is the “choking plant.” This plant develops from a seed. Once cultivated, the sturdy roots take hold deeply in the ground or search for a nearby tree where they can entwine themselves around the trunk. With the roots firmly planted, they begin to grow thicker and thicker. The roots eventually wrap themselves around that tree or an adjacent tree or plant until the tree or plant is killed. The dead tree decays, and only the “choking plant” is left to search for a new victim. 7. What is the main point of Paragraph G? (A) The dead tree or plant decays, and only the “choking plant” is left to search for a new victim. (B) Once cultivated, the roots take hold deeply in the ground or search for a nearby tree where they can become intertwined in the trunk. (C) The roots eventually wrap themselves around the tree or neighboring plant until the tree dies. (D) Another interesting type of vegetation found in the rain forest is the “choking plant.” Paragraph H: Today, concern for the survival of the valuable rain forests has heightened. There is a great threat to their existence and measures need to be established to protect them. Like all forests, the rain forests are haunted by “deforestation.” Acres of forests are destroyed everyday with no real plan to control this devastation. In Africa, for example, almost half of the rain forests have disappeared. Why? Slowly society has begun to depend on these rain forests for the vital resources that are needed. Society has begun to utilize this precious land for farming. When the rain forests are farmed, trees are removed to make room for these farms. Cultivation of this land is responsible for much of the “deforestation.” Although this type of farming may be necessary for the survival, steps need to be taken to protect the rain forest in order to maintain its vegetation and wild life. For example, farming the rain forest in one area should be limited to avoid exhaustion of this resource. The possibility of exhausting the resources of the rainforest must always be considered as a threat to the benefit of mankind. 8. What is the main idea of Paragraph A – H? (A) The rain forests are valuable resources. (B) The rain forests play an important role in the ecosystem. (C)There is a great threat to the existence the rain forests. (D) The rain forests, which are interesting and valuable resources, are disappearing rapidly and drastic steps need to be taken to save them. Paragraph I: Birds play a very important role in our environment and the balance of nature. First, birds eradicate pests that are a threat to our food crops. Each year, the bird population devours millions of harmful insects, which may invade our food supply. Because these insects are utilized as a food supply for themselves, our food supply is protected. But insects are not their only food supply. Some birds such as the hawk and owls provide a great service to farmers. They eliminate pesky rodents, which may destroy the farmer’s fruit orchards, grain fields, or poultry supply. In addition, some feathered friends such as the vulture, crow, or sea gulls become nature’s trash collectors. They prey on dead animals found on roads and beaches. Birds are a valuable factor in the balance of nature equation. 9. Which factor in Paragraph I support the topic of cleaning up the highways? (A) Each year the bird population devours millions of insects. (B) Some birds such as the vulture, crow, or seagull prey on dead animals. (C) With the help of birds, plant seeds in one region can be transferred miles away. (D) Many rodents destroy the farmer’s fruit orchards, grain fields, and poultry supply. Paragraph J: Birds also contribute to our vital food supply by disseminating plant seeds throughout the world. Plant seeds attach to their feathers and drop off as the birds fly from one destination to another. With the help of birds, plant seeds in one distant region may be easily and efficiently transferred thousands of miles away. If the ground and climate are favorable, the seeds germinate and the plant seed finds a new area where it can grow and flourish. Although, most people value the bird population for its beauty, grace, and strategic flight formation, it is important to appreciate the many services that birds provide to humanity such as the distribution of plant seeds throughout the world. 10. Which is the main idea of Paragraph J? (A) Birds help in increasing the insect population. (B) Birds contribute to the spread of plants to remote areas. (C) Farmers consider hawks and vultures their enemies. (D) Birds are mainly considered valuable for their ability to sing. Paragraph K: Birds play a very important role in our ecology. Ornithologists have identified over 9,000 varieties of birds. To help research and preserve the different bird populations, John James, a Canadian and member of the Audubon Society, began the practice of bird banding. Today, millions of birds are banded and monitored throughout the world. The banding is maintained to collect data on how long different varieties of birds live, where they migrate, and how long it takes for them to get to their locations. Remarkably, there are a variety of birds banded in the United States found as far as Siberia in the Soviet Union. 11. A statement supported by paragraph K (A) Bird banding is only done n the United States. (B) Bird banding is a valuable practice. (C) Bird banding is not a valuable practice. (D) Bird banding is limited to Canada and the United States Paragraph L: Thanks to John James and the Audubon Society, bird banding has provided valuable research. This research has determined the number of years a bird lives differ with each species. For example, some Caspian terns live twenty-six years, mallards and pintails live twenty years, and osprey and ring-billed gulls live twenty-one years. Purple martins can live fourteen years, and a chimney swift can live thirteen years. Song sparrows live approximately half as many years less; tree sparrows, juncos, robins and cardinals live, eight, nine, eleven, and twelve years respectively. 12. The purpose of Paragraph L is to establish which point? (A) Song sparrows live longer than Caspian terns. (B) Vital statistics are established through the help of bird banding. (C) Larger birds live longer. (D) Bird banding should not be taken seriously. Paragraph M: Although many birds that migrate do not make it to their destination because of weather, enemies, or food shortages, many do migrate farther and faster than expected. Amazingly a pintail duck flew from Canada to England in eighteen days. A great blue heron arrived in Coahuela, Mexico from Oregon in nineteen days. A peregrine falcon from Greenland was found in Cuba after four months. A water thrush from Long Island was found sixty-three days later in Venezuela. 13. Based on Paragraph M, which of the following statements is true? (A) A great blue heron arrived in Cuba in four months. (B) A water thrush from Long Island was found in Venezuela after sixty days. (C) A peregrine falcon flew to Canada from England (D) Some birds do not arrive at their destination because of the weather. Paragraph N: For the sake of research, bird banding is important to everyone. Society as a whole can help in this important effort; if an individual sees a bird with a band, he/she should take time to report the number on the band to the phone number on the tag. This effort is rewarded with a note of appreciation and all the known facts about that particular bird. 14. The main idea of Paragraph N is? (A) Bird banding is an important practice. (B) It is an important part of bird banding for individuals to look for banded birds and report them. (C) Being a bird watcher can provide entertainment. (D) People should learn to appreciate the beauty and services birds provide. Paragraph O: Perhaps the practice of bird banding could have helped the passenger pigeon to survive. The passenger pigeon was a 15 inch wild pigeon. It was light pink in color with gray feathers. Until the 1800’s, there had been a large population of these pigeons in North America. At one time, 2,230,000,000 birds were spotted. Always traveling and nesting in large groups made these birds easy prey for greedy hunters. They blinded the birds with lights and plucked them out of the tree with poles. Some birds were even choked with burning sulfur. Once captured, they were then shot. Unfortunately, the passenger pigeons were either eaten or sold to markets in New York City and Chicago for a penny or two. Paragraph P: Eventually, the passenger pigeon population decreased because of its mating habits. Realizing that the breed would become soon extinct, the last pair of passenger pigeons was harbored in the Cincinnati Zoological Garden. It was hoped that they would eventually reproduce so that the species would survive. They produced one egg, but, unfortunately, it did not hatch. Soon both pigeons died, and regretfully, a breed of 9 billion had become extinct. 15. From paragraphs O and P, you can infer which of the statements about the passenger pigeon? (A) The hunters were aware that the passenger pigeons were valuable. (B) Extinction of the passenger pigeon was inevitable. (C) The possibility of the extinction of the passenger pigeon was not realized early enough. (D) Passenger pigeons were a hardy breed 16. A main point in Paragraph P is? In captivity, the passenger pigeon (A) Fought with its mate. (B) Attacked other birds. (C) Seldom mated (D) Refused to eat. Paragraph Q: Often thought to be an unwelcome pest in urban settings, the woodpecker has proven to be an often unappreciated, vigilant guardian of the forest. Its specialized talents allow the woodpecker to eat the villains of the trees. All woodpeckers have the unique talent to “peck wood” the woodpecker feeds on the wood-boring grubs, insects, larvae, and insect eggs. They can eliminate many pests responsible for destroying trees by extracting them from the tree bark crevices, from beneath the bark itself, or from burrows within the wood, the woodpecker has the ability to peck through solid wood with its strong chisel tool shaped bill. Because the process requires the woodpecker to concentrate on its work, it must not be concerned with the possibility of falling from the tree. For this reason, the woodpecker has sharp, strong, powerful claws that dig deeply into the tree trunk. As an extra safety precaution, it also has a razor-sharp tail that allows the woodpecker to stick to any bark. Paragraph R: The woodpecker also helps nature’s balance by eliminating dying trees. It searches for a decaying tree with pests. This is its first step. Systematically, it rids the tree of its pesky problem – grubs or insects. Because of its pointed beak, the woodpecker can easily peck its way to its prey. The woodpecker can reach deep into the wood using its lengthy speared tongue to eradicate unsuspecting pests one by one. Then the ants move in and devour the remains of the tree. Paragraph S: Even though the woodpecker is a very valuable asset to nature’s balance, the woodpecker population is quickly decreasing. This is the result of the use of insecticides that keep trees alive and healthy. Thus, there are fewer and fewer infested trees for the woodpeckers to feed on. 17. An inference that can be drawn from Paragraph Q is (A) Woodpeckers are vigilant protectors of the forest. (B) Wood-boring grubs can destroy a tree. (C) A woodpecker is a pest in an urban setting. (D) The bark of a tree is not very strong. 18. Which of the following are three characteristics of the woodpecker in Paragraphs Q – S? (A) The woodpeckers have pointed beaks, attack healthy trees, and are declining in number. (B) The woodpeckers have pointed beaks, survive on wood boring insects alone, and are a developing population. (C) The woodpeckers have pointed beaks, attack infested trees, and are growing in number. (D) The woodpeckers have pointed beaks, attack infested trees, and are declining in number. 19. What is the main idea of Paragraph S? (A) The woodpecker is a very valuable asset to nature’s balance and it is decreasing. (B) The woodpecker population is decreasing. (C) The woodpecker population depends on infested trees for survival. (D) Insecticides have helped control insects. Paragraph T: Have you ever heard of a “condor?” Perhaps, not. A condor will not be seen in your backyard because it requires vast stretches of empty land to exist. Where do condors exist? Because most areas today are very populated, the condors’ homes have been slowly depleting. Today, there are only two small sanctuaries on the Coast Range and the Sierra Nevada, The Sespe and the Sisquoc have provided shelter for this interesting breed Paragraph U: These sanctuaries are not tourist attractions. They are caves far from the roads. It is here where the condors nest. The isolated condors do not welcome visitors to their homes. Why? These solitary birds do not breed easily. A pair may only produce one egg every other year. Unlike other birds, they do not make a nest for their egg. Once the egg is laid on the cave floor, the condor sits on it for seven weeks. After the egg hatches, the parents care for the new condor for about five months. By this time, it should learn to fly. However, many candors often do not survive this five-month perio(d) If a condor can survive, it is five or six years before breeding takes place. Only about ten pairs produce only five condors each year. A young condor may face many obstacles to survive such as having few areas to live, having difficulties breeding, needing secluded nesting spots, and facing the threat of shooting and poisoning. A survivor can live as long as forty years. Thus, the condor’s population is slowly decreasing. 20. The central theme of Paragraph T – U is? (A) Condors and its nesting practices. (B) Condors and its sanctuaries. (C) Condor – the solitary bird. (D) Condors and reasons for the concern for their continued existence. 21. The main idea of Paragraph T – U is? (A) Condors do not live harmoniously with people. (B) The condor population is slowly declining due to many factors. (C) Condors reproduce slowly. (D) Condors live in Sisquoc and Sespe. This idea of reading comprehension questions which are put into two different formats. This will enable you to process and learn. With this sample test you will have a rationale at the end of each question to give you a better understanding. 22-26 Passage 2nd set As you read the following passage, focus on "what the author is really saying" or "what point the author is trying to make." Also, pay attention to "how the passage is put together" — in other words, the structure. Woodrow Wilson won his first office in 1910 when he was elected governor of New Jersey. Two years later he was elected president in one of the most rapid political rises in our history. For a while Wilson had practiced law but found it both boring and unprofitable; then he became a political scientist and finally president of Princeton University. He did an outstanding job at Princeton, but when he was asked by the Democratic boss of New Jersey, Jim Smith, to run for governor, Wilson readily accepted because his position at Princeton was becoming untenable. Until 1910, Wilson seemed to be a conservative Democrat in the Grover Cleveland tradition. He had denounced Bryan in 1896 and had voted for the National Democratic candidate who supported gold. In fact, when the Democratic machine first pushed Wilson's nomination in 1912, the young New Jersey progressives wanted no part of him. Wilson later assured them that he would champion the progressive cause, and so they decided to work for his election. It is easy to accuse Wilson of political expediency, but it is entirely possible that by 1912 he had changed his views as had countless other Americans. While governor of New Jersey, he carried out his election pledges by enacting an impressive list of reforms. Wilson secured the Democratic nomination on the forty-sixth ballot. In the general campaign, Wilson emerged as the middle-of-the-road candidate - between the conservative William H. Taft and the more radical Theodore Roosevelt. Wilson called his program the New Freedom, which he said was the restoration of free competition as it had existed before the growth of the trusts. In contrast, Theodore Roosevelt was advocating a New Nationalism, which seemed to call for massive federal intervention in the economic life of the nation. Wilson felt that the trusts should be destroyed, but he made a distinction between a trust and legitimately successful big business. Theodore Roosevelt, on the other hand, accepted the trusts as inevitable but said that the government should regulate them by establishing a new regulatory agency. Question 22 Always look for the main point of the passage. There are many ways to ask about the main point of a passage. What is the main idea? What is the best title? What is the author's purpose? 1. The author's main purpose in writing this passage is to A. argue that Wilson is one of the great U.S. presidents. B. survey the difference between Wilson, Taft, and Roosevelt. C. explain Wilson's concept of the New Freedom. D. discuss some major events of Wilson's career. E. suggest reasons that Wilson's presidency may have started World War I. The best answer is (D) Choices A and E are irrelevant to the information in the passage, and choices B and C mention secondary purposes rather than the primary one. Question 23 Some information is not directly stated in the passage but can be gleaned by reading between the lines. This implied information can be valuable in answering some questions. 2. The author implies which of the following about the New Jersey progressives? A. They did not support Wilson after he was governor. B. They were not conservative Democrats. C. They were more interested in political expediency than in political causes or reforms. D. Along with Wilson, they were supporters of Bryan in 1896. E. They particularly admired Wilson's experience as president of Princeton University. The best choice is (B) In the second paragraph, Wilson's decision to champion the progressive cause after 1912 is contrasted with his earlier career, when he seemed to be a conservative Democrat. Thus, you may conclude that the progressives, whom Wilson finally joined, were not conservative Democrats, as was Wilson earlier in his career. Choices A and D contradict information in the paragraph, and choices C and E are not suggested by any information given in the passage. Question 24 Watch for important conclusions or information that might support a conclusion. 3. The passage supports which of the following conclusions about the progress of Wilson's political career? A. Few politicians have progressed so rapidly toward the attainment of higher office. B. Failures late in his career caused him to be regarded as a president who regressed instead of progressed C. Wilson encountered little opposition after he determined to seek the presidency. D. The League of Nations marked the end of Wilson's reputation as a strong leader. E. Wilson's political allies were Bryan and Taft. The best choice is (A) This choice is explicitly supported by the second sentence in paragraph 1, in which you are told that Wilson was elected president in one of the most rapid political rises in our history. Question 25 Understand the meaning and possible reason for using certain words or phrases in the passage. And take advantage of the line numbers given. 4. In the statement "Wilson readily accepted because his position at Princeton was becoming untenable" (line 7), the meaning of "untenable" is probably which of the following? A. Unlikely to last for years B. Filled with considerably less tension C. Difficult to maintain or continue D. Filled with achievement that would appeal to voters E. Something he did not have a tenacious desire to continue The best choice is (C) On any reading comprehension test, it is best to be alert to the positive and negative connotations of words and phrases in each passage, as well as in the questions themselves. In the case of untenable, the prefix un- suggests that the word has a negative connotation. The context in which the word occurs does so as well. Wilson left his position at Princeton; therefore, you may conclude that the position was somehow unappealing. Only two of the answer choices, C and E, provide a negative definition. Although choice E may attract your attention because tenacious looks similar to tenable, the correct choice is C, which is the conventional definition of untenable. Question 26 Your answer choice must be supported by information either stated or implied in the passage. Eliminate those choices that are not supported by the passage. 5. According to the passage, which of the following was probably true about the presidential campaign of 1912? A. Woodrow Wilson won the election by an overwhelming majority. B. The inexperience of Theodore Roosevelt accounted for his radical position. C. Wilson was unable to attract two-thirds of the votes but won anyway. D. There were three nominated candidates for the presidency. E. Wilson's New Freedom did not represent Democratic interests. The best choice is (D) Choices A, B, and C contain information that is not addressed in the passage. You may eliminate them as irrelevant. Choice E contradicts the fact that Wilson was a Democratic candidate. The discussion of Taft and Roosevelt as the candidates who finally ran against Wilson for the presidency supports choice (D) PASSAGES OF THE 3RD SET The Reading Section of the Practice Test consists of reading selections. After each reading selection, you will be asked to answer several questions related to the selection. Read each question carefully and choose the ONE best answer. You may refer back to the selection to answer the questions.Multiple-choice questions in the Reading Section. In the Reading Section, the order of information requested by the questions does not necessarily correspond to the order of information in a given selection. Certain words and phrases within some selections have been highlighted for testing purposes, not for reasons of emphasis by the writers. 27-38 Read the selection adapted from "The Language We Know" (1987) by Simon J. Ortiz. Then answer the six questions that follow. Writing as a Native American 1 My writing in my late teens and early adulthood was fashioned after the U.S. short stories and poetry taught in the high schools of the 1940s and 1950s, but by the 1960s, after I had gone to college and dropped out and served in the military, I began to develop topics and themes from my Native American backgroun(d) The experience in my village of Deetziyamah and Acoma Pueblo was readily accessible. I had grown up within the oral tradition of speech, social and religious ritual, elders' counsel and advice, countless and endless stories, everyday events, and the visual art that was symbolically representative of life all aroun(d) My mother was a potter of the well-known Acoma clayware, a traditional art form that had been passed to her from her mother and the generations of mothers before. My father carved figures from wood and did beadwork. This was not unusual, as Native American people know; there was always some kind of artistic endeavor that people set themselves to, although they did not necessarily articulate it as "Art" in the sense of Western civilization. One lived and expressed an artful life, whether it was in ceremonial singing and dancing, architecture, painting, speaking, or in the way one's social-cultural life was structure(d) When I turned my attention to my own heritage, I did so because this was my identity, the substance of who I was, and I wanted to write about what that meant. My desire was to write about the integrity and dignity of a Native American identity, and at the same time I wanted to look at what this was within the context of an America that had too often denied its Native American heritage. 2 To a great extent my writing has a natural political-cultural bent simply because I was nurtured intellectually and emotionally within an atmosphere of Native American resistance. . . . The Acoma Pueblo, despite losing much of their land and surrounded by a foreign civilization, have not lost sight of their native heritage. This is the factual case with most other Native American peoples, and the clear explanation for this has been the fight-back we have found it necessary to wage. At times, in the past, it was outright armed struggle . . . ; currently, it is often in the legal arena, and it is in the field of literature. In 1981, when I was invited to the White House for an event celebrating American poets and poetry, I did not immediately accept the invitation. I questioned myself about the possibility that I was merely being exploited as an Indian, and I hedged against accepting. But then I recalled the elders going among our people in the poor days of the 1950s, asking for donations—a dollar here and there, a sheep, perhaps a piece of pottery—in order to finance a trip to the nation's capital. They were to make another countless appeal on behalf of our people, to demand justice, to reclaim lost land even though there was only spare hope they would be successful. I went to the White House realizing that I was to do no less than they and those who had fought in the Pueblo Revolt of 1680, and I read my poems and sang songs that were later described as "guttural" by a Washington, (D)(C), newspaper. I suppose it is more or less understandable why such a view of Native American literature is held by many, and it is also clear why there should be a political stand taken in my writing and those of my sister and brother Native American writers. 3 The 1960s and afterward have been an invigorating and liberating period for Native American people. It has been only a little more than twenty years since Native American writers began to write and publish extensively, but we are writing and publishing more and more; we can only go forwar(d) We come from an ageless, continuing oral tradition that informs us of our values, concepts, and notions as native people, and it is amazing how much of this tradition is ingrained so deeply in our contemporary writing, considering the brutal efforts of cultural repression that was not long ago outright U.S. policy. We were not to speak our languages, practice our spiritual beliefs, or accept the values of our past generations; and we were discouraged from pressing for our natural rights as Native American human beings. In spite of the fact that there is to some extent the same repression today, we persist and insist in living, believing, hoping, loving, speaking, and writing as Native Americans. 27. Which of the following statements best expresses the main idea of paragraph 1 of this selection? A. The artful nature of Native American life compels the author to explore and write about that heritage. B. Art is an important part of Native American life and should be a part of everyone's existence. C. The author remembers his childhood, especially his parents and the elders in his community, in a very positive way. D. A desire to return to traditional Native American values led the author to write about Native American issues. 28. The effect of the quoted word "guttural" as the author uses it in the second paragraph of the selection is to: A. convey the sound of the Acoma Pueblo language to readers who are unfamiliar with it. B. emphasize the dramatic effect on the White House audience of the author's reading of his poems and performance of traditional Pueblo songs. C. describe most accurately how the author felt about his White House reading of his poems. D. communicate the newspaper's lack of understanding and respect for the author's presentation. 29. Which of the following caused the author to change his mind about declining his invitation to the White House? A. He realized that he had not been invited to the event as a representative of Native Americans. B. He remembered the sacrifices that his ancestors had made for the privilege of going there, even if only to be ignore(d) C. He was eager to read his poetry to an audience of other poets and literary critics. D. He wanted his writing and the writing of other Native American men and women to take on a more political tone. 30. Which of the following assumptions most influenced the author's main argument in this selection? A. Literature can be a powerful tool for asserting the cultural values and political rights of ethnic groups. B. The artistic traditions of Native American peoples are similar to those of European cultures. C. All writings produced by Native Americans express, either directly or indirectly, a political position. D. The major responsibility of Native American writers is to celebrate and preserve the cultural traditions of their people. 31. Which of the following topic lists best summarizes the main points of the selection? A. —Arts of Native American family —Invitation to White House —Brotherhood of Native American writers B. —Native American background as topic for writing —Importance of attending White House poetry event —Vitality of contemporary Native American writing C. —Native American writing —Achievements of ancestors —Future of Native Americans D. —Writing in 1940s, 1950s, and 1960s —Involvement of Native Americans in many forms of art —Writing about Native American heritage 32. What is the meaning of the word spare as it is used in paragraph 2 of the selection? A. frugal B. extra C. meager D. free Read the passage below. Then answer the questions that follow. Bacteria Farming 1 Most people consider bacteria dangerous. After all, these microorganisms cause a host of serious human diseases, including tuberculosis, typhoid fever, pneumonia, and food poisoning. In fact, however, only a small percentage of bacteria cause diseases, while many bacteria are actually beneficial to humans. For example, doctors use bacteria to produce vaccines and other medicines. Bacteria are also critical to many industrial processes, from fermenting wine to recycling wastes, and scientists use bacteria to study many of the biological processes common to all living things. 2 With such a wide variety of economic and scientific applications, it is no surprise that several laboratories around the United States grow and sell bacteria as a crop. These laboratories use specialized farming techniques to produce one of the nation's most valuable biological commodities. 3 Like plants, bacteria have specific growth requirements. In particular, they need a place to grow and they need a supply of nutrients. Bacteria may be cultivated in containers ranging from small test tubes to giant steel tanks. The organisms are placed in a container along with a nutritionally balanced liquid or jelly, called a culture medium, which provides vitamins, minerals, and fluids to the growing bacteri(a) The growth container and culture medium must be kept at a constant temperature that is appropriate for the type of bacteria being cultivate(d) Most bacteria used in medicine and industry grow best between 20° and 45°(C) 4 In a closed container, bacteria exhibit a definite growth pattern. The figure shows a typical bacterial growth curve. All bacteria follow this pattern, a fact that is very important to anyone who wants to cultivate them in large numbers. 5 When bacteria are first placed in a growth container, they must adapt to their new environment, and growth is slow while they are making this adjustment. This period is called the "start phase" of the bacterial growth cycle. At the end of this phase, as the bacteria become accustomed to their new living conditions, they begin to grow and reproduce rapidly. During the second phase, called the "log phase," a population explosion occurs. In a large tank, millions of new bacteria may be produced every hour during this phase. Eventually, however, the bacterial population reaches the maximum size possible, given the limitations of the growth container. At this point, the bacteria enter the "stationary growth phase," during which they continue to reproduce, but at a slower rate. After a time, the bacteria use up their supply of nutrients and their wastes accumulate in the growth container. The final period in the growth cycle, called the "death phase," occurs when the bacteria begin to die faster than they reproduce. 6 People who grow bacteria for science and industry take advantage of this unique growth cycle. Bacteria are harvested during the "stationary growth phase," yielding a good crop of usable organisms. By carefully monitoring the growth pattern, bacteria farmers can also decide when to add more nutrients to the culture medium or to transfer the bacteria to new growth containers. In this way, they can prevent large losses during the "death phase." By applying a knowledge of the growth requirements and patterns of bacteria, these modern day agriculturalists are able to help everyone derive the maximum benefit from these versatile organisms. 33. Which of the following statements from the selection best expresses the main idea of the first paragraph? A. Most people consider bacteria dangerous. B. Only a small percentage of bacteria cause diseases, while many bacteria are actually beneficial to humans. C. These microorganisms cause a host of serious human diseases. D. Bacteria are critical to many industrial processes, from fermenting wine to recycling wastes, and scientists use bacteria to study many of the biological processes common to all living things. 34. The writer's main purpose in this selection is to: A. explain how bacteria are cultivate(d) B. identify harmful and beneficial forms of bacteri(a) C. compare methods of growing bacteri(a) D. demonstrate the beneficial uses of bacteri(a) 35. According to information presented in the selection, which of the following would most likely hasten the "death phase" of the bacterial growth cycle? A. transferring the bacterial population to a smaller growth container B. neglecting to monitor growth during the "start phase" of growth cycle C. increasing the amount of liquids in the culture medium D. failing to make adjustments in the temperature of the culture medium 36. Ideas presented in the selection are most influenced by which of the following assumptions? A. Bacteria farming is more useful and profitable than most other types of farming. B. All organisms exhibit similar growth rates. C. The greatest strides in medicine and industry have come about through the use of bacteri(a) D. Scientific knowledge often has important commercial applications. 37. According to the graph, a bacterial population begins to decrease in size after approximately how many hours of incubation? A. 6 B. 12 C. 24 D. 36 38. Which of the following best defines the word yielding as it is used in the last paragraph? A. surrendering B. producing C. giving up D. granting 1. Which cellular organelle contains enzymes that are considered digestive? (A) Golgi Apparatus (B) Lysosomes (C) Nucleus (D) Ribosomes 2. Organs repair themselves through a process of? (A) Meiosis (B) Mitosis (C) Cellular differentiation (D) Transformation 3. Which of the following is not true about enzymes? (A) Enzymes are catalysts. (B) Almost all enzymes are proteins. (C) Enzymes operate most efficiently at optimum pH. (D) Enzymes are destroyed during chemical reactions. 4. Which of the following statements about prostaglandins is not true? (A) Prostaglandins promote inflammation. (B) Prostaglandins can only constrict blood vessels. (C) Prostaglandins are made in the renal medull(a) (D) Prostaglandins can lead to pain and fever. 5. Cholesterol that is known as (LDL) stands for: (A) Low-density lipoproteins (B) Low-density lysosomes (C) Level-density lipoproteins (D) Level-density lysosomes 6. Hardening of the arteries is known as: (A) Atheriosclerosis (B) Venous narrowing (C) Micro-circulation (D) Hypertension 7. The top number on a blood pressure reading indicates: (A) Diastolic pressure (B) Transient pressure (C) Optimum pressure (D) Systolic pressure 8. Breathing properly requires the presence of what compound that affects surface tension of alveoli in the lungs? (A) Potassium (B) Plasma (C) Surfactant (D) Sodium Chloride 9. Which is not a function of the kidney? (A) Secretion (B) Reabsorption (C) Transport (D) Filtration 10. The functional unit of the kidney is known as? (A) Medulla (B) Glomerulus (C) Pyramid (D) Nephron 11. Which is the ideal gas law? (A) PV= knT or PV=RnT (B) V=kT (C) PV = k (D) KTV =PR 12. Which of the following is not considered a characteristic or property of a gas? (A) Volume (B) Mass (C) Pressure (D) Particles 13. Which of the following is described in the definition: An object immersed in a fluid is buoyed up by a force equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by the object? (A) Archimedes' principle (B) Charles' law (C) Boyle's law (D) Anderson's principle 14. High frequency sound waves are known as: (A) Fundamental waves (B) Overtones (C) Consonance waves (D) Dissonance waves 15. What anatomical structure connects the stomach and the mouth? (A) Trachea (B) Spinal column (C) Hepatic duct (D) Esophagus 16. Which of the following is considered a component of lipids? (A) Plasma cells (B) Fatty acids (C) Nucleic acids (D) Zinc 17. Blood enters the lungs from which chamber of the heart? (A) Right atrium (B) Left atrium (C) Right ventricle (D) Left ventricle 18. Excessive consumption of alcohol is most likely to damage which organ of the body over a long period of time? (A) Kidney (B) Liver (C) Pancreas (D) Gallbladder 19. Which of the following is not considered a type of radiation ray? (A) Gamma (B) Beta (C) Alpha (D) Infrared 20. A molecule of hemoglobin can hold how many molecules of oxygen in the blood for transport? (A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8 21. Which of the following best describes the biomechanics of breathing? (A) Pump handle motion (B) Lever action (C) Inspiration (D) Expiration 22. The physical expressions of a gene are known as an organism's: (A) Transcription (B) Genotype (C) Phenotype (D) Translation 23. Neurons connect together at a ______. (A) Synergy (B) Terminal site (C) Docking station (D) Synapse 24. The organ of Corti is found in what area of the body? (A) Mouth (B) Ear (C) Nose (D) Lungs 25. Rickets - which is a condition caused by which vitamin deficiency? (A) A (B) C (C) D (D) Z 26. Which is the x cranial nerve? (A) Abducens (B) Hypoglossal (C) Facial (D) Vagus 27. Which of the following pH ranges is a strong base? (A) 1.3-2.0 (B) 4.5-5.2 (C) 7.1-9.0 (D) 11.2-12.0 28. Which chamber of the heart pumps blood to the systemic circulation? (A) Left Atrium (B) Right Atrium (C) Left Ventricle (D) Right Ventricle English Grammar Portion 1. What is grammatically wrong with the sentence I would like to briefly make a point? Nothing. There is no grammatical reason why infinitives should not be split in English. The "rule" about not splitting them is based solely on the fact that infinitives cannot be split in Latin. There is no reason why rules of Latin should be applied to English. 2. Why can you not say I am living here since 1990? Because since here refers to a period of time extending from the past into the present, you would need to use the Present Perfect Simple or Progressive (I have lived / I have been living here since 1990). 3. How do you pronounce the letters -ed at the end of regular past tense verbs? There are three possible pronunciations: /d/ as in climbed, /t/ as in walked, and /id/ as in waite(d) 4. What is the negative form of the sentence He must leave right away? It depends what meaning you are trying to convey. In the sense of something not being permitted, the negative form is either He must not leave right away or (more commonly) He cannot leave right away. In the sense of something not being compulsory, the negative form is He does not have to leave right away. 5. Which syllable carries the main stress or emphasis in the words record and export? It depends whether you are using the words as nouns or verbs. The nouns a record and an export have stress on the first syllable. The verbs to record and to export have stress on the second syllable. 6. Which is grammatically correct: I wish I were younger or I wish I was younger? Older, prescriptive grammar books insist on the use of the subjunctive form were. Most modern, descriptive grammar books accept both were and was as being grammatically acceptable, but they suggest that I wish I were is more appropriate in formal contexts. 7. What is a phrasal verb? It is a phrase made up of a verb and one or more prepositions (or adverbs). In many cases, the meaning of the whole phrase cannot be deduced from the component words. For example, you may understand the words run and across, but still not understand the sentence He ran across a frien(d) 8. Think of five ways of changing She arrived at 6:00 into the future. She will arrive at 6:00. / She arrives at 6:00. / She is arriving at 6:00. / She will be arriving at 6:00. / She is going to arrive at 6:00. 9. The negative of She used to smoke is She didn't used to smoke. True or false? False. The negative is She didn't use to smoke. 10. Which is grammatically more correct: I have just seen her or I just saw her? Both are equally correct in American English. I just saw her is not correct in British English. 11. The verbs will, should, need, may and can are all modal auxiliary verbs. True or false? False. Will, should, may and can are modal auxiliaries but need is not. (The infinitive form of modal auxiliaries cannot be preceded by to: You cannot say to may or to should but you can say to nee(d)) 12. Is anything wrong with the sentence If they saw him, they would have spoken with him? Yes. The speaker has confused two different conditional forms. Depending on his/her intended meaning, the sentence should be either If they had seen him, they would have spoken with him or If they saw him, they would speak with him. Structured math for an all around chemistry experience. Memorize, Memorize Equivalencies. When using the metric system, remember the rules for moving the decimal. If you know one equivalent within a system, then you can use ratio and proportion to solve conversions. The idea is to avoid the apothecary system. The metric system is the ideal system for measurements. 1 kilogram (kg) =2.2 pounds (lb) 1 pound (lb)= 453.6 grams (g or gm) (use 454) 1 kilogram (kg) =1000 grams (g or gm) 1 gram (g or gm)= 1000 mg (milligrams) 1 milligram (mg)= 1000 micrograms (mcg, but should always be written out to avoid transcription errors) 1 gram (gm) =1 ml (milliliter) [Preferred term] 1 cc (cubic centimeter) =1 ml (milliliter) 1 inch (in) =2.54 cm (centimeters) 1 grain (gr) =60 mg (milligrams) 1 (household) cup= 240 ml (milliliter) 8 ounces (oz)= 1 (measuring) cup 16 ounces (oz)= 1 pint (pt) 1 ounce (oz) =30 ml (milliliter) 1 teaspoon (tsp)= 5 ml (milliliter) (not 4-5) 1 dram= 4 ml (milliliter) [archaic use] 1 tablespoon (T or tbsp)= 15 ml (milliliter) 2 tablespoons (T or tbsp)= 1 Ounce 3 teaspoons (tsp)= 1 tablespoon (T or tbsp) 1 teaspoon (tsp) =75 gtt (drops) 1 milliliter (ml)= 16 minims (not 15-16) 1 milliliter (ml)= 15 gtt (drops) 1 liter (L) =1000 ml (milliliter) 37.0 ° C (Centigrade degrees)= 98.6° F (Fahrenheit degrees) How to do metric conversions: There are many occasions when it is necessary to convert one unit of measurement to another when undertaking drug calculations. The metric system is based on a number of basic measures or units e.g. Quantity Unit Symbol Length = metre (m) Mass = gram (g) Volume = litre (l) Time = second (s) Large and small quantities of these units often have a prefix to make writing quantities more compact for example 0.000001g may be written as 1 mcg or 1µg. Some common units of measurement are: Prefix symbol multiplication factor Prefix Symbol Multiplication Factor mega M 1,000,000 kilo k 1,000 hecto h 100 deka da 10 Unit e.g. g, m, l or s 1 deci d 0.1 centi c 0.01 milli m 0.001 micro mcg or µ 0.000001 Converting a number from one metric unit to another involves moving the decimal place to the left or the right. To work out how many decimal places to move: Write the metric scale Identify the two units in the problem Count the number of units from the unit given to the unit desired Move the decimal point the number of places from the given unit to the desired unit Example 1: Convert 0.1 grams to milligrams. The decimal place is moved 3 places to the right. Mg - - kg hg dag g dg cg mg - - µg 0.1 g = 100 mg Example 2: Convert 375 millilitres to litres. The decimal place is moved 3 places to the left. Ml - - kl hl dal l dl cl ml - - µl 375 ml = 0.375 l How to calculate tablet dosages: This formula is used to calculate the number of tablets to be administered when given the required dose. Required Dose ------------------ Stock Dose = Number of tablets to be given N.(B) Units for required dose and stock dose must be the same. Example 1: A client is ordered 150mg of aspirin. 300 mg aspirin tablets are available. How many tablets would you give? 150 mg ------------------ 300 mg = 1/2 tablet Example 2: How many tablets containing 62.5 mcg will be required to give a dose of 0.125 mg? STEP 1 : CONVERT TO SAME UNITS Convert 0.125 mg to mcg. The decimal place is moved 3 places to the right. Mg - - kg hg dag g dg cg mg > > µg 0.125 mg = (0.125 * 1000 mcg) = 125 mcg STEP 2: CALCULATE 125 mcg ------------------ 62.5 mcg = 2 tablets OR Convert 62.5 mcg to mg. The decimal place is moved 3 places to the left. Mg - - kg hg dag g dg cg mg < < µg 62.5 mcg = (62.5 * 0.001 mg) = 0.0625 mg STEP 2: CALCULATE 0.125 mg ------------------ 0.0625 mg = 2 tablets How to calculate fluid dosages: This formula is used to calculate the amount of medication in solution for oral, intamuscular, intravenous or subcutaneous injection to be administered when given a doseage, stock dose and volume: Required Dose ---------------------- Stock Dose X Stock Volume ---------------------- 1 = Volume to be given N.(B) Units for required dose and stock dose must be the same. Example1: A client is ordered 15mg of stemetil. You have 2ml of solution on hand which contains 25 mg Stemetil. What volume of solution would you give? 15 mg ------------- 25 mg X 2 mg --------- 1 ml = 30 ------ 25 = 1.2 ml Example 2: A dose of 75 mg of pethidine has been ordere(d) It is available in ampoules containing 100 mg in 2 ml. What volume must be administered? 75 mg ------------- 100 mg X 2 ml ------ 1 ml = 150 --------- 100 = 1.5 ml How to calculate IV flow rates: Intravenous fluid must be given at a specific rate, neither too fast nor too slow. The specific rate may be measured as ml/hour, L/hour or drops/min. To control or adjust the flow rate only drops per minute are use(d) The burette contains a needle or plastic dropper which gives the number of drops per ml (the drop factor). A number of different drop factors are available (determined by the length and diameter of the needle). Common drop factors are: 10 drops/ml (blood set), 15 drops / ml (regular set), 60 drops / ml (microdrop). To measure the rate we must know: (a) the number of drops (b) time in minutes. The formula for working out flow rates is: volume (ml) X drop factor (drops/ml) ---------------------------------------------- time (min) = drops / minute Example: 1500 ml IV Saline is ordered over 12 hours. Using a drop factor of 15 drops / ml, how many drops per minute need to be delivered? 1500 (ml) X 15 (drops/ml) ---------------------------------------------- 12 x 60 (gives us total minutes) = 31 drops / minute Drug Dosage Exercices 1. gr ¾ = _______ mg 2. 3 ounces = _____ml 3. 4 Tbsp = _______ ounces 4. 235 mg _________ gm 5. 5 gr = ________ mg 6. 600mg = _______gr 7. 200 lbs _______ kg 8. 27 kg = ________ mg 9. 6 ml = _______dr 10. gr ¼ = _____ mg Prepare to administer: 1. 200mg po. Label reads 500mg/ml. ? ml 2. Physician orders 1.2 g. Vial reads 500mg/5 ml. ? ml 3. Label reads 0.4mg per ml. Order is for 1 mg. ? ml 4. Prepare 160 mg from a 0.25g in 1 ml solution. ? ml 5. The vial reads 400 mcg/ml. The order calls for 0.8mg. ? ml 6. The medication reads 1 gram/2.8 ml. The physician orders 820 mg. ? ml 7. The physician orders 50 mg. The vial reads 60 mg/ml. ? ml 8. The physician orders 250 mg. The medication is available in 100mg tabs. ? tabs 9. The physician orders 6 mg. The vial reads 4 mg/ml. ? ml 10. The physician orders 7 mg. The vial reads 5mg/ml. ? ml 11. The order is for 4 mg. The vial reads 40mg/ml. ? ml 12. The order is for 60 mg. The vial reads 40mg/ml. ? ml 13. The vial is 125 mg/ml. The order is for 110 mg. ? ml 14. The physician orders a dose of 7 mg. The vial reads 10 mg per ml. ? ml 15. Order reads 750 mcg. On hand is 0.375 mg/ta(b) ? tabs 16. The order is for 1.5 gm. On hand are 750 mg tablets. ? mg 17. On hand in 30mg/ml. The physician orders 25 mg IM. ? ml 18. The physician orders 0.25 mg. On hand are 0.125 mg tablets. ? mg 19. On hand is a vial that reads 0.5mg/ml. The order is for 0.25mg IV. ? ml 20. The order is for gr 1/10. The on-hand is 1 ml of 2.5 mg/ml. ? ml 21. Motrin 125 mg is ordere(d) On-hand is 100mg/5ml. ? ml 22. Ceftin 435 mg is ordere(d) On-hand is 100mg/ml. ? ml IV Calculations Please calculate how many cc/hours & drops per minute. 23. Penicillin G 400,000 is ordered to be administered in 100ml with a drop factor of 15 to be infused in 30 minutes. 24. Kefzel 1 gram IV in 50 ml bag with a drop factor of 15 is to be administered in 45 minutes. 25. 250ml of Ancef is to be administered in 45 minutes with a drop factor of 20. 26. 200 ml of Zinacef is to be administered in 3 hours with a drop factor of 60. Please calculate how many cc/hour & drops/minute 27. 1000ml of D5W is to infuse over 10 hours with a drop factor of 15. 28. 1500ml of NS .45% is to be administered in 8 hours with a drop factor of 60. 29. 1000 ml of LR is to be administered in 6 hours with a drop factor of 60. 30. 1000ml of LR is to be administered in 10 hours with a drop factor of 20. 31. 1200ml of D10 is to be administered in 8 hours with a drop factor of 15. Pediatric Calculations 32. Give Tylenol to a child weighing 12.6 lbs. What is a safe dose? 33. Give Motrin to a child weighing 25 lbs. What is a safe dose? 34. The physician orders Solumedrol IV 2 mg QID for inflammation. Is this a safe dose if the child weighs 15.9 lbs? How is the medication prepared? How is it administered? 35. The physician orders Reglan 25 mg Q6H po to a 15 –year-old child for GER weighing 35 lbs. Is this a safe dose? 36. The physician orders Decadron 10mg IV Q6H for inflammation to a child weighing 30 lbs. Is this a safe dose? How is the medication prepared? How is it administered? 37. Rocephin is ordered for a child weighing 22 lbs . What is the lowest and highest dose that child can have once a day in mg’s? IV Calculations 23. 200 cc/hr 50 gtts/min 24. 66 cc/hr 16 gtt/min 25. 333cc/hr 111gts/min 26. 66.6 cc/hr 66.6 gtts/min 27. 100 cc/hr 25 gtts/min 28. 187.5 cc/hr 187.5 gtts/min 29. 166.6 cc/hr 166.6 gtts/min 30. 100 cc/hr 33.3 gtts/min 31. 150 cc/hr 37.5 gtts/min Pediatric 32. Tylenol 15mg/kg = 86 mg 33. Motrin 10mg/kg = 113 mg 34. Yes, range 0.117 - 1.66 mg/kg Yes, safe dose 35. No Limit 15 mg QD 36. No 37. 50 - 75 mg/kg Q 24 H Math Calculation Practice Questions 1) You have an order to give Penicillin 150,000 Units (I.M.). You have a vial of Penicillin containing 3,000,000 Units in 10ml. How many ml. will you give?_____________ 2) The doctor orders Demerol 25 mg. (I.M.) q4h prn. You have Demerol 100mg. in 2ml. How many ml will you give? _________________ 3) Your patient is to receive Digoxin 0.125 mg. On hand you have Digoxin 500 mcg in 2 ml. How many ml will you give? ________________ 4) The drug order reads ASA gr.X q4h prn. for headache. You have ASA 325 mg tablets. How many tablets will you give? __________________ 5) The doctor’s order reads: Phenobarbital gr. ss (1/2) q6h. You have Phenobarbital 15 mg tablets. How many tablets will you give? _________ 6) In question #5, how many tablets will you give in 24 hours? _________ 7) The doctor orders Atropine gr. 1/200 I.M. stat. You have a vial that reads: Atropine gr. 1/150 in 2ml. How many ml will you give? ____________ 8) Your patient is to receive Atropine 0.3 mg. You have Atropine 1/150 gr. in 1 ml. How many ml will you give?______________ 9) The order reads: Valium 15 mg p.o. T.I.(D) The label reads: Valium gr. ½. How many tablets would you give in a 24-hour period? ____________ 10) The doctor orders Streptomycin 400mg. The vial label reads Streptomycin 1 Gm in 2.5ml. How many ml will you give? ________________ 11) You are to give 240 ml of osmolyte through a feeding tube over a three hour perio(d) The drop factor for the solution set is 15. How many drops per minute will you give?____________ 12) The doctor orders Klonopin 1mg daily for a child who weighs 36 pounds. Calculate the safe range for this medication based on 0.01 - 0.05mg/kg/day. ___________________ 13) Will you give the child the dose ordered in question 12? ___yes _____no Math Calculation Practice Answers & Tips Remember, for all math calculations: v Label each part of your calculation to stay on track v If you are working with different units of measurements, you need to convert to equivalent measures v Read the question carefully. Is it asking for a single dose, total dose in 24 hours, dose based on weight, or safe range of a dose? v Use correct interpretation of abbreviations – examples: BID , bid =twice a day, q6h = every six hours, prn = whenever necessary 1. You have an order to give Penicillin 150,000U (I.M.). You have a vial of Penicillin containing 3,000,000Units in 10ml. How many ml will you give? 0.5ml Three ways to set up problem: (a) X ml :150,000Units = 10 ml : 3,000,000Units (b) 3,000,000 U = 150,000 U 10 ml X ml (c) 150,000 U x 10 ml Dose Desired x Volume 3,000,000 U Dose on hand 2. The doctor orders Demerol 25mg. (I.M.) q4h prn. You have Demerol 100mg. in 2ml. How many ml will you give? 0.5ml (a) X ml : 25mg = 2ml : 100mg (b) 100 mg = 25 mg 2 ml X ml (c) 25mg x 2 ml 100 mg 3. Your patient is to receive Digoxin 0.125 mg. On hand you have Digoxin 500mcg in 2 cc’s. How many cc’s will you give? 0.5 cc First convert mcg to mg. 500mcg = 0.5mg Then set up problem as above. 4. The drug order reads ASA gr.X q4h prn. for headache. You have ASA 325 mg tablets. How many tablets will you give? 2 tablets First convert grains to mg. 60 mg = 1gr. therefore 10grains = 600mg. X tab : 600mg = 1 tab : 325mg After setting up and solving problem the result will be 1.8 tablets. You will give two tablets – remember that converting from METRIC SYSTEM TO AN APOTHECARY SYSTEM FREQUENTLY RESULTS IN EQUIVALENTS AND NOT EQUALS. You will learn that many standard doses are accepted as the norms for equivalency. 5. The doctor’s order reads: Phenobarbital gr. ss (1/2) q6h. You have Phenobarbital 15 mg tablets. How many tablets will you give? 2 tablets First convert grains to mg. 1/2gr x 60 = 30mg 6. In question #5, how many tablets will you give in 24 hours? 8 tablets Q6h = 4 times a day spaced at 6 hour intervals (24 hours = 4 doses) 6 hour 4 doses x 2 tablets each dose = 8 tablets 7. The doctor orders Atropine gr. 1/200 stat. You have a vial that reads: Atropine gr. 1/150 in 2c(c) How many ml’s will you give? 1.5ml. (Tests ability to multiply and divide fractions) 8. Your patient is to receive Atropine 0.3 mg. You have Atropine 1/150 gr. in 1 ml. How many ml’s will you give? 0.75ml First convert grains to mg. 60 x 1/150 = 0.4 mg 1/150 gr = 0.4 mg 9. The order reads: Valium 15 mg p.o. T.I.(D) The label reads: Valium gr. ½. How many tablets would you give in a 24-hour period? 1 ½ tablets First convert grains to mg ½ x 60 = 30 mg. You will give ½ tablet three times in 24 hours. ½ x 3 = 1 ½ 10. The doctor orders Streptomycin 400mg. The vial label reads Streptomycin 1 Gm in 2.5 ml. How many ml will you give? 1 cc First convert Gm to mg. 1Gm = 1000mg. 11. You are to give 240 cc of osmolyte through a feeding tube over a three hour perio(d) The drop factor for the solution set is 15. How many drops per minute will you give? 20gtts/minute Formula = volume in one hour x gtt factor 60 minutes First calculate how many ml in one hour = 80ml 80 ml x 15(gtt factor) = 20 gtts/minute 60 minutes 12. The doctor orders Klonopin 1 mg daily for a child who weighs 36 pounds. Calculate the safe range for this medication based on a safe range of 0.01 – 0.05mg/kg/day. First calculate the child's weight in kilograms (kg). Divide 36 lb by 2.2 kg = 16.36 kg Multiply the child’s weight in kg by the lowest and highest safe dose. The safe range is 0.01mg/16.36kg/day ( 0.01 x 16.36 = 0.16mg) to 0.05mg/16.36kg/day (0.05 x 16.36 = 0.82mg). 13. Will you give the child the dose ordered? No No, because 1.00 mg exceeds the highest safe dose of 0.82 mg. [Show More]

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