PHARM 101exam 2
Question 1
Correct
5.00 points out of 5.00
The two structures that directly regulate visceral nerves are:
Select one:
a. the hypothalamus and the pituitary gland.
b. the pituitary gland and the
...
PHARM 101exam 2
Question 1
Correct
5.00 points out of 5.00
The two structures that directly regulate visceral nerves are:
Select one:
a. the hypothalamus and the pituitary gland.
b. the pituitary gland and the medulla oblongata.
c. the pituitary gland and the pineal gland.
d. the hypothalamus and the medulla oblongata.
Question 2
Correct
5.00 points out of 5.00
Identify a difference between visceral nerves and somatic nerves.
Select one:
a. The somatic nerves innervate involuntary muscles, whereas the visceral nerves innervate voluntary muscles.
b. The visceral nerves are not under voluntary control, whereas the somatic nerves are under voluntary control.
c. Visceral nerves are regulated by the cerebral cortex, whereas somatic nerves are regulated by the medulla oblongata.
d. Somatic nerves innervate the muscles of the heart, whereas visceral nerves innervate the skeletal muscles.
uestion 3
Correct
5.00 points out of 5.00
While Alice is mowing her lawn, she sees a big snake slithering out from under some flower pots. In response to the sudden threat of danger, Alice's heart rate increases, and she begins to breathe rapidly. Which of the following neurotransmitters is primarily responsible for triggering these physical reactions in Alice's body?
Select one:
a. Dopamine
b. Acetylcholine
c. Epinephrine
d. Somatostatin
Question 4
Correct
5.00 points out of 5.00
What is the primary reason for the use of alpha-blockers in treating Raynaud's disease?
Select one:
a. They cause vasoconstriction, which increases blood flow to the skin and extremities.
b. They cause vasodilation, which lowers blood pressure.
c. They cause vasodilation, which increases blood flow to the skin and extremities.
d. None of these are correct.
Question 5
Correct
5.00 points out of 5.00
Analyze the drugs in each group below, and select the group of drugs that is administered by parenteral injection and used to elevate blood pressure.
Select one:
a. Midodrine, norepinephrine, and phenylephrine
b. Xylometazoline, midodrine, and phenylephrine
c. Metaraminol, norepinephrine, and phenylephrine
d. Pseudoephedrine, midodrine, and phenylephrine
Question 6
Correct
5.00 points out of 5.00
Analyze the common dosage ranges of beta-adrenergic blocking drugs, and select the correct dosage range of atenolol (Tenormin) for the treatment of hypertension and angina pectoris.
Select one:
a. 50–100 mg by mouth
b. 1–3 mg by intravenous injection
c. 6.25–100 mg by mouth
d. 12.5–50 mg by mouth
Question 7
Correct
5.00 points out of 5.00
Select the beta-adrenergic drugs that can be inhaled via a nebulizer in order to open the respiratory airway.
Select one:
a. Isoetharine and salmeterol
b. Salmeterol and terbutaline
c. Isoetharine and levalbuterol
d. Levalbuterol and terbutaline
Question 8
Correct
5.00 points out of 5.00
Identify the most common side effect of decongestant use.
Select one:
a. Irritation of the nasal sinuses or eyes due to excessive dryness
b. Excessive secretion of mucus, causing itchy, watery eyes or runny nose
c. Headache caused due to increased vasoconstriction
d. None of these are correct.
Question 9
Correct
5.00 points out of 5.00
Acetylcholinesterase activity primarily takes place:
Select one:
a. in the neuronal synapse.
b. within presynaptic vesicles.
c. inside the presynaptic axon terminal.
d. on the membrane of the postsynaptic neuron.
Question 10
Correct
5.00 points out of 5.00
Which class of drugs is preferred for increasing urinary flow in patients with benign prostatic hyperplasia?
Select one:
a. Beta-blockers
b. Alpha-blockers
c. Muscarinic blockers
d. Nicotinic blockers
Question 11
Correct
5.00 points out of 5.00
Implementing a treatment plan that includes mecamylamine is indicative of a diagnosis of _____.
Select one:
a. smoking addiction
b. severe hypertension
c. depression
d. constipation
Question 12
Correct
5.00 points out of 5.00
patient complains of weakness, dizziness, and feelings of faintness when standing up. Using your knowledge on ganglionic stimulants and blockers, determine the probable cause of these adverse effects based on the patient's medication profile.
Select one:
a. Mecamylamine
b. Bupropion
c. Varenicline
d. None of the above
Feedback
Question 13
Correct
5.00 points out of 5.00
Varenicline, which is used in the treatment of smoking cessation, is sold under the trade name _____.
Select one:
a. Zyban
b. Commit
c. Chantix
d. Wellbutrin
Question 14
Incorrect
0.0 points out of 5.00
A patient with breathing problems is given a muscle relaxant. As soon as he starts taking the drug, he begins to experience bronchospasms, a symptom that may eventually lead to an asthmatic attack. This can be attributed to the release of:
Select one:
a. acetylcholine.
b. norepinephrine.
c. serotonin.
d. histamine.
Question 15
Incorrect
Identify an accurate statement about nondepolarizing blockers.
Select one:
a. Nondepolarizing blockers do not stimulate the nicotinic-muscle (Nm) receptors.
b. Nondepolarizing blockers occupy the nicotinic-neural (Nn) sites and prevent acetylcholine (ACH) from combining with the Nn receptors.
c. Nondepolarizing drugs are metabolized much faster than depolarizing drugs.
d. Nondepolarizing blockers alter the Nm receptors so that they cannot respond to ACH stimulation.
Question 16
Correct
5.00 points out of 5.00
The binding of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine to the nicotinic-muscle receptors at the neuromuscular junction enables:
Select one:
a. potassium ions to move into the cells.
b. sodium ions to move out of the cells.
c. sodium ions to move into the cells.
d. magnesium ions to enter the cells.
Question 17
Correct
5.00 points out of 5.00
In the context of local anesthetics, which of the following statements best explains potency?
Select one:
a. Potency is the ability to increase velocity of nerve conduction.
b. Potency is the ability to produce a nerve block at a relatively low dose.
c. Potency is the ability to produce a heightened conduction of nerve impulses.
d. None of the above are correct.
Question 18
Correct
5.00 points out of 5.00
Injectable bupivacaine is available as a 0.25% to 0.75% solution with a duration of action of 2 to 4 hours and injectable procaine is available as a 1% to 2% solution with a duration of action of 15 minutes to 1 hour. Which of the following usually determines the choice of agent used for injection around the spinal cord?
Select one:
a. Onset of action required
b. Concentration of the product
c. Duration of action required
d. None of the above
Question 19
Correct
5.00 points out of 5.00
Identify the most commonly used local anesthetic technique.
Select one:
a. Regional nerve block
b. Infiltration anesthesia
c. Topical application
d. Cryoanesthesia
Question 20
Correct
5.00 points out of 5.00
A practitioner has to perform a surgical procedure that requires the administration of a local anesthetic to the patient. The surgical procedure is to be performed on the right leg of the patient. The practitioner is unlikely to prescribe cocaine as the anesthetic because:
Select one:
a. cocaine is classified as a Schedule II stimulant drug.
b. cocaine is obtained from a plant in South and Central America.
c. cocaine is a naturally occurring drug.
d. cocaine is a synthetically produced drug.
Question 21
Correct
5.00 points out of 5.00
Alex hears a loud explosion outside his window. He immediately stands up and becomes more alert and attentive to his surroundings. Which part of Alex's brain has most likely been activated by the sudden explosion?
Select one:
a. The reticular activating system
b. The inhibitory fibers of the reticular formation
c. The thalamus
d. The hippocampus
Question 22
Correct
5.00 points out of 5.00
Pablo switches off the lights in his room before getting into bed. With no noise, light, and other sources of external stimuli, Pablo's body begins to relax, and he becomes less alert to his surroundings. Which of the following functional components of Pablo's brain is activated under these conditions?
Select one:
a. The limbic system
b. The excitatory fibers of the reticular formation
c. The inhibitory fibers of the reticular formation
d. The reticular activating system
Question 23
Correct
5.00 points out of 5.00
Select the true statement about the solubility characteristics of drugs.
Select one:
a. The higher the blood:gas partition coefficient, the more soluble the drug is in the blood.
b. The more soluble anesthetics have a longer onset of action.
c. Volatile liquids have higher blood:gas partition coefficients.
d. All of these are correct.
Question 24
_____ can be safely used in asthmatic patients, and depresses reflexes associated with coughing.
Select one:
a. Propofol
b. Methohexital
c. Midazolam
d. Ketamine
Question 25
Which of the following patients are most likely to be at risk if administered with inhalation general anesthetics?
Select one:
a. A patient who is suffering from bronchitis
b. A patient who has a history of hypoxia
c. A patient who has increased intracranial pressure due to cerebral edema
d. A patient who has poor renal blood flow due to kidney disease
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