LEIK FNP Practice Questions with 100% Correct Answers || 2024
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A 72-year-old woman has been on hydrochlorothiazide 12.5 mg for many years to control her Stage II hypertension. Her blood pressure (BP) at this visit is 168/96. She is currently complaining of pain o... n her right hip and on both knees. She has increased her dose of ibuprofen (Motrin) from 400 mg 3 times day (TID) to 800 mg TID. She is still in pain and would like something stronger. Which of the following statements is the best explanation of the effects of ibuprofen (Motrin) on her disease? A) It increases the chances of adverse effects to her health B) It inhibits the effect of renal prostaglandins and blunts the effectiveness of the diuretic C) It prolongs the therapeutic effects of hydrochlorothiazide and other diuretics D) None of the statements are true - Correct Answer-B) It inhibits the effect of renal prostaglandins and blunts the effectiveness of the diuretic. NSAIDs and ASA inhibit the vasodilatory effects of prostaglandins, which predisposes the kidney to ischemia. NSAIDs and diuretics can cause acute prerenal failure by decreasing renal blood flow. 2. All of the following are infections that affect mostly the labia and vagina except: A) Bacterialvaginosis B) Candidiasis C) Trichomoniasis D) Chlamydia trachomatis - Correct Answer-D) Chlamydia trachomatis [Show More]
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