MN576 Unit 5 Midterm Exam / MN 576 Unit 5 Midterm Exam (Latest): Kaplan University Question 1 Which HPV types are most often associated with cervical and anogenital cancer? Question options: 1) 1, 2, and 3 2) 6 and 11 3)
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MN576 Unit 5 Midterm Exam / MN 576 Unit 5 Midterm Exam (Latest): Kaplan University Question 1 Which HPV types are most often associated with cervical and anogenital cancer? Question options: 1) 1, 2, and 3 2) 6 and 11 3) 16 and 18 4) 22 and 24 Question 2 During a breast exam you note all of the findings below as normal except: Question options: 1) asymetrical size 2) a supernumerary nipple 3) hyperpigmentation 4) breasts that move up symmetrically with raising the arms Question 3 A 30-year-old woman presents without symptoms but states that her male partner has dysuria without penile discharge. Examination reveals a friable cervix covered with thick yellow discharge. This description is most consistent with an infection caused by: Question options: 1) Chlamydia trachomatis. 2) Neisseria gonorrhoeae. 3) human papillomavirus (HPV). 4) Trichomonas vaginalis. Question 4 The vaccine Gardasil that is used to prevent some strains of HPV infection is recommended in both males and females. Question options: 1) True 2) False Question 5 Lesbians may experience which of the following barriers to health care? Question options: 1) Homophobia from the healthcare provider 2) Incorrect knowledge about health care needs of lesbians by healthcare providers 3) Lack of insurance and/or access under partner’s coverage 4) All of the above Question 6 Which of the following best describes lesions associated with condyloma acuminatum? Question options: 1) verruciform 2) plaque-like 3) vesicular-form 4) bullous Question 7 Presumptive treatment for PID should be initiated in sexually active young women and other women at risk for STDs if they are experiencing pelvic or lower abdominal pain, if no cause for the illness other than PID can be identified, and if one or more of the following minimum clinical criteria are present on pelvic examination: Question options: 1) cervical motion tenderness 2) uterine tenderness 3) adnexal tenderness. 4) All of the above Question 8 How long after contact do clinical manifestations of syphilis typically occur? Question options: 1) less than 1 week 2) 1 to 3 weeks 3) 2 to 4 weeks 4) 4 to 6 weeks Question 9 In assessing a woman with disabilities, which of the following terms should be avoided? Question options: 1) Crippled 2) Handicapped 3) Mentally retarded 4) All of the above Question 10 The definition of menopause is Question options: 1) Frequently skipping period for one year 2) One year without a period 3) Onset of hot flashes and night sweats with irregular menstruation 4) None of the above Question 11 Treatment options for bacterial vaginosis include all of the following except: Question options: 1) oral metronidazole. 2) clindamycin cream. 3) oral clindamycin. 4) oral azithromycin. Question 12 Physical examination of a 19-year-old woman with a 3-day history of vaginal itch reveals moderate perineal excoriation, vaginal erythema, and a white, clumping discharge. Expected microscopic examination findings include: Question options: 1) a pH greater than 6. 0. 2) an increased number of lactobacilli. 3) hyphae. 4) an abundance of white blood cells. Question 13 Which of the following is a contraindication to estrogen/progestin-containing methods (combined oral contraception [COC], patch [Ortho Evra], or ring [NuvaRing])? Question options: 1) mother with a history of breast cancer 2) personal history of hepatitis A at age 10 years 3) presence of factor V Leiden mutation 4) cigarette smoking one pack per day in a 22-year-old Question 14 Recommendations for adolescents with disabilities include a comprehensive sex education program that should be tailored to fit their specific needs. Question options: 1) True 2) False Question 15 In assessing a 13 year old female, you know that the presence of breast bud with elevation of breast and papilla; enlargement of areola indicate which Tanner Stage? Question options: 1) Stage1 2) Stage 2 3) Stage 3 4) Stage 4 Question 16 The Pap test should not be considered a screening test for STDs. Question options: 1) True 2) False Question 17 Which of the following agents is most active against C. trachomatis? Question options: 1) amoxicillin 2) metronidazole 3) azithromycin 4) ceftriaxone Question 18 When performing a bimanual exam all of the following are noted as normal findings except: Question options: 1) retoverted uterus 2) anteflexed uterus 3) fixed immobile uterus 4) smooth, firm ovary Question 19 Routine screening for C. trachomatis on an annual basis is recommended for all sexually active females aged <25 years . Question options: 1) True 2) False Question 20 When performing a pelvic examination the first part of the external genitalia exam is Question options: 1) speculum examination 2) palpation 3) inspection 4) cervical sampling Question 21 In women who have experienced a spinal cord injury, temporary cessation of menses is normal for up to one year following the injury. Question options: 1) True 2) False Question 22 When counseling a woman about COC use, you advise that: Question options: 1) long-term use of COC is discouraged because the body needs a "rest" from birth control pills from time to time. 2) fertility is often delayed for many months after discontinuation of COC. 3) there is an increase in the rate of breast cancer after protracted use of COC. 4) premenstrual syndrome symptoms are often improved with use of COC. Question 23 Which of the following terms describes the mechanism of action of imiquimod (Aldara)? Question options: 1) keratolytic 2) immune modulator 3) cryogenic 4) cytolytic Question 24 Treatment of vulvovaginitis caused by Candida albicans includes: Question options: 1) metronidazole gel. 2) clotrimazole cream. 3) hydrocortisone ointment. 4) clindamycin cream. Question 25 Screening for osteoporosis with DEXA scan should begin Question options: 1) age 50 2) one year after menopause 3) age 65 4) age 60 Question 26 What is the approximate incubation period for Neisseria gonorrhoea? Question options: 1) 1 to 5 days 2) 7 to 10 days 3) 18 days 4) 28 days Question 27 What percentage of anogenital and cervical cancers can be attributed to HPV infection? Question options: 1) less than 30% 2) at least 50% 3) at least 70% 4) 95% or greater Question 28 Universal screening for chlamydia and gonorrhea in women ≤35 years entering juvenile and adult correctional facilities has been a long-standing recommendation. Question options: 1) True 2) False Question 29 A 22-year-old woman taking a 35-mcg ethinyl estradiol COC calls after forgetting to take her pills for 2 consecutive days. She is 2 weeks into the pack. You advise her to: Question options: 1) take the last pill missed immediately, even if this means taking 2 pills today. 2) discard two pills and take two pills today. 3) discard the rest of the pack and start a new pack with the first day of her next menses. 4) continue taking one pill daily for the rest of the cycle. Question 30 HCV infection is the most common chronic bloodborne infection in the United States, with an estimated 2.7 million persons living with chronic infection Question options: 1) True 2) False Question 31 Adolescent girls are not candidates for IUD use for contraception Question options: 1) True 2) False Question 32 About ____ of patients with genital warts have spontaneous regression of the lesions? Question options: 1) 10% 2) 25% 3) 50% 4) 75% Question 33 Complementary and alternative medicine (CAM) is defined as a group of therapies that are not considered part of Western culture and include all of the following except: Question options: 1) Congugated estrogen 2) Aromatherapy 3) Tai Chi 4) Yoga Question 34 Which HPV types are most likely to cause genital condyloma acuminatum? Question options: 1) 1, 2, and 3 2) 6 and 11 3) 16 and 18 4) 22 and 24 Question 35 Which test is performed around the time of ovulation to diagnose the basis of infertility? Question options: 1) Hysterosalpingogram 2) Ultrasonography 3) Laparoscopy 4) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) level Question 36 The NP is seeing a 30-year-old woman before her routine gynecologic examination, the NP questions that patient about her recent menstrual cycles. Which statement made by the patient should prompt further investigation? Question options: 1) “My flow is very heavy all the time.” 2) “I have occasionally spot in between cycles” 3) “My menstrual cycles varies from 25 to 30 days.” 4) “I have cramping prior to my cycle starting” Question 37 Women with bacterial vaginosis typically present with: Question options: 1) vulvitis. 2) pruritus. 3) dysuria. 4) malodorous discharge. Question 38 Treatment options for patients with condyloma acuminatum include all of the following except: Question options: 1) topical acyclovir. 2) cryotherapy. 3) podofilox. 4) trichloroacetic acid. Question 39 0 / 2 points The average onset of perimenopause is between the ages of: Question options: 1) 35 to 40 years. 2) 40 to 45 years. 3) 45 to 50 years. 4) 50 to 55 years. Question 40 Which of the following is not representative of the presentation of primary syphilis? Question options: 1) painless ulcer 2) localized lymphadenopathy 3) flu-like symptoms 4) spontaneously healing lesion Question 41 Noncontraceptive benefits of COC use include a decrease in all of the following except: Question options: 1) iron-deficiency anemia. 2) pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). 3) cervicitis. 4) ovarian cancer. Question 42 In patients who are allergic to azithromycin, an alternative treatment to chlamydia is Question options: 1) Doxycycline 100mg twice daily for 7 days 2) Macrobid 100mg twice daily for 5 days 3) BactimDS 1 PO BID for 3 day 4) All of the above Question 43 Puberty consists of a series of predictable events, and the sequence of changes in secondary sexual characteristics has been categorized by several groups. The staging system utilized most frequently used to describe these events is Tanner staging. Question options: 1) True 2) False Question 44 Which of the following may be a useful tool in screening for Female Sexual Disorder (FSD)? Question options: 1) The Female Sexual Function Index 2) The Female Sexual Distress Scale 3) The Orgasmic Disorder Scale 4) A and B Question 45 Which of the following is found in tertiary syphilis? Question options: 1) arthralgia 2) lymphadenopathy 3) macular or papular lesions involving the palms and soles 4) gumma Question 46 A patient presents to you with a chief complaint of primary dysmenorrhea, which nonpharmacologic intervention might you recommend she try first? Question options: 1) participating in physical activity 2) increase iron rich foods to replace blood that is lost 3) use of a heating pad on the pelvis for cramping 4) use of an NSAID Question 47 Which of the following agents is active against N. gonorrhoeae? Question options: 1) ceftriaxone 2) metronidazole 3) ketoconazole 4) amoxicillin Question 48 A recommended treatment for rectal gonorrhea is: Question options: 1) oral amoxicillin. 2) oral azithromycin. 3) oral ciprofloxacin. 4) ceftriaxone injection. Question 49 When charting on a patient whom you have noted a breast lump it is important to document Question options: 1) tenderness 2) size 3) location 4) mobility 5) all of the above Question 50 A 24-year-old woman presents with a 1-week history of thin, green-yellow vaginal discharge with perivaginal irritation. Physical examination findings include vaginal erythema with petechial hemorrhages on the cervix, numerous white blood cells, and motile organisms on microscopic examination. These findings most likely represent: Question options: 1) motile sperm with irritative vaginitis. 2) trichomoniasis. 3) bacterial vaginosis. 4) condyloma acuminatum.
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