BIO 202 Exam 1 | Verified with 100% Correct Answers

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BIO 202 Exam 1 | Verified with 100% Correct Answers The release of hormones from the adenohypophysis is controlled by secretions of the: Hypothalamus The anterior pituitary secretes all but: Antidi ... uretic hormone The largest pure endocrine gland in the body is the ______. Thyroid The _____ gland declines in size and function with age. Thymus The ____ gland may influence our day/night cycles and even regulate the onset of sexual maturity. Pineal Produces the hormones that promote the development of female secondary sex characteristics at puberty. Ovaries Storehouse for the hormones produced by the hypothalamus of the brain. posterior pituitary Produces the hormones that direct the production of secondary sex characteristics in males. Testes Produce steroid hormones and glucocorticoids and moneralcorticoids. adrenal glands Produces hormones and is considered a neuroendocrine organ. Hypothalamus Which of the following is NOT a principal class of hormones? Glycolipids Virtually all of the protein or amino acid-based hormones exert their effect through intracellular: second messenger In circumstances where the body requires prolonged or increased levels of a hormone, the DNA of target cells will specify the synthesis of more receptors on the surface of the target organ also known as _________. Up regulation _____ hormones are derived from cholesterol. Cholestorol Catecolamines are produced by the chromaffin cells True Calcitonin has which of the following characteristics? It helps maintain the homeostasis of calcium and phosphate in the blood. Acromegally is the result of hypersecretion of growth hormones. True Which of the following is NOT a function or characteristic of glucocorticoids? They encourage connective tissue regeneration. "Moon face," "buffalo hump" on the back, a hanging abdomen, and bruises easily are characteristics of the disorder known as Cushing syndrome Place the following in correct developmental sequence: 1. Reticulocyte 2. Proerythrocyte 3. Normoblast 4. Late erythroblast 2, 4, 3, 1 Which of the following is a regulatory function of blood? Delivery of oxygen to bloodcells. As red blood cells age: Membranes "wear out" and cells become damaged Which of the following is not erythropoiesis? Increased tissue demand for oxygen No visible cytoplasmic granules are present in: Monocytes A lack of intrinsic factor, leading to a deficiency in vitamin B12 and large, pale cells called macrocytes, is a characteristic of: Pernicious anemia All of the following can be expected with polycythemia except: 1. increased blood volume 2. low blood viscosity 3. high blood pressure 4. high hematocrit Low blood viscosity Which of the following is not a stage in hemostasis? 1. platelet plug formation 2. coagulation 3. fibrinolysis 4. vascular spasm fibrinolysis What is the blood volume in liters of an average adult male? 5-6 liters What is the blood volume in liters of an average adult female 4-5 liters most numerous leukocyte Neutrophil granulocytes Eosinophil, Basophil, Neutrophil also called an erythrocyte; anucleate formed element Red Blood cell actively phagocytic leukocytes Monocyte, Neutrophil agranulocytes monocyte, lymphocyte ancestral cell of platelets megakartyocyte RBC's, megakartyocyte, eosinophil, basophil, monocyte, neutophil, lymphocyte are examples of? Formed elements number rises during parasitic infections eosinophil releases histamine; promotes inflammation basophil many formed in lymphoid tissue lymphocyte transports oxygen RBC primarily water, noncellular; the fluid matrix of blood Plasma increases in number during prolonged infections monocyte also called white blood cells eosinophil, basophil, monocyte, neutrophil, lymphocyte abnormal increase in the number of WBCs leukocytosis abnormal increase in the number of RBCs polycthemia condition of too few RBCs or of RBCs with hemoglobin deficiencies anemia abnormal decrease in the number of WBCs leukopenia What are the normal values for healthy male adults for total WBC counts? 4,000-11,000/mm3 What are the normal values for healthy male adults for total RBC counts? 5X10^6/mm3 What are the normal values for healthy male adults for hematocrit? 42-52% What are the normal values for healthy male adults for hemoglobin determination? 13-18 g/100 ml blood What are the normal values for healthy male adults for bleeding time? 2-7 min What are the normal values for healthy male adults for sedimentation rate? 0-6 mm/hr What are the normal values for healthy male adults for coagulation time? 3-6 min What is the significance of a high WBC value? infection, leukemia What is the significance of a low WBC value? chemical toxicity, agranulocytosis What is the significance of a high RBC value? polycythemia due to high altitude, pulmonary disease What is the significance of a low RBC value? Anemia What is the significance of a high hematocrit value? polycythemia, abnormally large RBC's What is the significance of a low hematocrit value? anemia What is the significance of a high hemoglobin determination? polycythemia What is the significance of a low hemoglobin determination anemia What is the significance of a high bleeding time? deficient or abnormal platelets What is the significance of a low bleeding time? high platelet count What is the significance of a high sedimentation rate value? anemia, infection, tissue damage What is the significance of a low sedimentation rate? abnormally shaped RBC What is the significance of a high coagulation time? Hemophilia, leukemia What is the significance of a low coagulation time? thromboembolytic disorders If your blood clumped with both anti-A and anti-B sera, your blood type would be? AB BLOOD TYPE To what ABO blood groups could you give blood? AB BLOOD TYPE From which ABO donor types could you receive blood? ALL DONOR TYPES Which ABO blood type is most common? O BLOOD TYPE Which ABO blood type is least common? AB BLOOD TYPE Assume the blood of two patients has been typed for ABO blood type. Refer to the image in question 19 on p. 441 for the results. On the basis of these results, Mr. Adams has type ____(1)_____ blood, and Mr. Calhoon has type ____(2)_____ blood. 1. O 2. A What is the normal, or at least the "desirable" range for plasma cholesterol concentration in mg/ 100 ml? 130-200 mg/100 ml What determines whether blood is bright red or a dull brick-red? ANSWER: Its degree of oxygenation. The more oxygen it carries, the brighter red it is. List four classes of nutrients normally found in plasma. Also, name two gases, and name three ions. ANSWER: Four nutrients include sugar (e.g. glucose), amino acids, lipids (fatty acids), and vitamins. Gases include oxygen and carbon dioxide and nitrogen. Ions include Na+, C1-, Mg2+, and HCO3- What is the average life span of a red blood cell? How does its anucleate condition affect this life span? ANSWER: 100-120 days. When the RBC's ATP reserves have been exhausted, the membrane begins to fragment. Without DNA to direct, mRNA (therefore protein) synthesis, needed enzymes cannont be made. From memory, describe the structural characteristics of each of the following blood cell types as accurately as possible, and note the percentage of each in the total white blood cell population: eosinophils, neutrophils, lymphocytes, basophils, and monocytes. ANSWER: Eosinophils have large, red-staining cytoplasmic granules; figure 8 or bilobed nuclei; 1-4% of WBCs. Neutrophils have pale pink cytoplasm with fine granules; nucleus is multilobed and stains deep purple; 40-70% of WBCs. Lymphocytes are small cells with sparse pale blue cytoplasm and dark purple-staining spherical nucleus; 20-45% of WBCs. Basophils have sparse dark blue cytoplasmic granules that may obscure the large U-shaped nucleus which stains the dark blue; 0.5% or less of WBCs. Monocytes have abundant gray-blue cytoplasm, dark blue-purple nuclei (often kidney shaped); 4-8% of WBCs. Broadly speaking, why are hematologic studies of blood so important in the diagnosis of disease? ANSWER: Specific changes from the normal numbers/types of formed elements and/or plasma constituents are characteristic of certain disease states. Why is a differential WBC count more valuable than a total WBC count when trying to pin down the specific source of pathology? ANSWER: A differential cound determines the relative percentage of each type of WBC. Increases or decreases in specific WBC populations are often indicative (diagnostic) of specific pathologies. What name is given to the process of RBC production? What hormone acted as a stimulus for this process? What organ provides this stimulus and under what conditions? ANSWER: Erythopoiesis. Erythropoietin. Kidneys plat the major role in erythropoiesis which is controlled hormonally and depends on adeaute supplies of iron, amino acids, and certain B vitamins. Discuss the effect of each of the following factors on RBC count. Consult an appropriate reference as necessary, and explain your reasoning: The long-term effect of athletic training (for example, running 4 to 5 miles a day over a period of 6 to nine months, and a permanent move from sea level to a high-altitude area.Answer below: ANSWER: Athletic training increases red blood cell count. An athlete has relatively large muscle mass and needs an effective oxygen delivery to the muscles when they are working. A permanent move from sea level to high altitude increases red blood cell count. The air is thinner at high altitudes and contains less oxygen. The body compensates by producing more RBCs so that the same relative amount of oxygen can be picked up and transported by the blood. Define Hematocrit: ANSWER: Packed cell vloume; percentage of total blood volume occupied by RBCs. If you had a high hematocrit, would you expect your hemoglobin to be high or low? Why? ANSWER: Assuming the RBCs have a normal hemoglobin content, the higher the RBC volume, the higher the hemoglobin determination. What is an anticoagulant? Name two anticoagulants used in conducting the hematologic tests, and name the body's natural anticoagulant. ANSWER: An anticoagulant is a substance that inhibits blood clotting. Heparin and EDTA are used in conducting hematologic tests. The body's natural anticoagulant is heparin. What blood type is theoretically considered the universal donor? Why? ANSWER: O negative because these RBCs have no A, B, or Rh antigens on the cell membrane, reducing the chance of a transfusion reaction. Explain why an Rh-negative person does not have a transfusion reaction on the first exposure to Rh-positive blood but does have a reaction on the second exposure. What happens when an ABO blood type is mismatched for the first time? ANSWER: There are no preformed anti-Rh antibodies in his/her blood. After the first exposure to Rh positive blood, the immune system reacts and the starts making antibodies. Describe the relationship between high blood cholesterol levels and cardiovascular diseases such as hypertension, heart attacks, and strokes. ANSWER: High LDL levels favor chlesterol uptake and deposit in arteriosclerotic plaques, which, in turn: (1) narrow the vessel, reducing blood flow to more distal tissues, and (2) increase the risk of thrombus formation. Narrowing of blood vessels is one cause of hypertension. Attached thrombi or detached thrombi (emboli) are common causes of heart attack and stroke. Which of the following describes plasma? -it is red in color -it contains protein in the form of albumin -it contains a major protein called hemoglobin -when measured the percentage of plasma is called the hematocrit -it is the same as serum but without the clotting factors What form is bilirubin when it is excreted in urine or feces? -ferritin and hemosiderin -biliverdin and transferrin -urobilinogen and stercobilin -interleukin -deoxyhemoglobin Which of the following describes erythrocytes? -are anucleate -contain granules -clot blood -can travel by diapedesis -produce hormones What is the reason whole blood would appear bright red? it is lacking in hemoglobin it is lacking in clotting factors the hemoglobin is abnormal the hemoglobin is fully oxygenated the hemoglobin is lacking in oxygen Which of the following characterizes aging red blood cells? ATP production increases They continue to function for at least a year They are engulfed by macrophages They are eventually excreted through the digestive system The cell membranes are more flexible and recycled What mature blood cell is derived from a reticulocyte? erythrocyte neutrophil monocyte platelet basophil Which of the following might trigger erythropoiesis? increased tissue demand for oxygen decreased tissue demand for oxygen an infection moving from a high to a low altitude an increased in the amount of red blood cells Which of the following describes blood cell formation? the main sites of blood cell formation are in both the spleen and the bone marrow the main sites of blood cell formation are in both the liver and the red bone marrow the main sites of blood cell formation are in both the yellow and the red bone marrow red blood cells are formed in the red marrow and the hemoglobin is formed in the yellow marrow the main sites of blood cell formation in adults is the red marrow Which of the following is the correct sequence of white blood cell development? myeloblast, myeloid stem cell, band cell, neutrophil myeloid stem cell, myeloblast, band cell, neutrophil band cell, myeloid stem cell, myeloblast, neutrophil neutrophil, band cell, myeloid stem cell, myeloblast myeloid stem cell, myeloblast, neutrophil, band cell What type of leukocyte has no visible granules when stained? monocyte neutrophil basophil eosinophil band cell Which leukocyte contains a nucleus that occupies most of the cell? eosinophil neutrophil lymphocyte monocyte basophil Which of the following describes platelets? they are precursors of fibrin they stick to the wall of a damaged blood vessel they survive in the circulation around 120 days they have bilobed nuclei they are specialized leukocytes What is the potent aggregate that attracts more platelets to the site of an injury? thromboplastin prothrombin histamine transferrin adenosine diphosphate What substance makes up the structural basis of a clot? plasmin prothrombin thrombin fibrin thromboplastin What enzyme converts fibrinogen to fibrin? heparin thrombin prothrombin tissue factor coagulation factor VI What is a blood clot that has dislodged from its site of formation called? thrombus varicosity embolus heparin platelet plug A failure to produce clotting factors may indicate an imbalance in what organ? kidneys small intestine bone marrow liver pancreas In which of these blood types does the person carry no ABO antibodies? type O type A type B type AB both type O and type AB Why are type AB people considered the universal recipient? type AB blood has no antibodies so it is compatible with any blood type type AB blood has both A and B antibodies so all antigens in the donor's blood are neutralized type AB blood has no antigens so it is compatible with any blood type it is the most common blood type type AB blood has both A and B antigens so it neutralizes the antibodies in any donor What does it mean if a patient is typed as B positive? the red cells contain B antibodies but no Rh antibodies the red cells contain B antigens and the serum contains no Rh antibodies the serum contains Rh antigens and B antigens the serum contains no antibodies the serum contains only B antibodies Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn is most likely to occur in which of the following situations? Rh positive mother with an Rh positive baby Rh positive mother with an Rh negative baby Rh negative mother with an Rh positive baby Rh negative mother with an Rh negative baby Rh negative mother with either an Rh positive of Rh negative baby Which of the following describes leukemia? abnormally high amounts of RBCs abnormally high amounts of WBCs with one type of WBC in immature forms abnormally high amounts of both WBCs and RBCs abnormally low amounts of WBCs abnormally low amounts of RBCs but with normal amounts of WBCs What type of anemia is inherited and characterized by faulty hemoglobin that forms rod shapes? hemorrhagic aplastic thalessemia hemolytic sickle cell Which of the following is a bleeding disorder characterized by petechiae? leukopenia anemia thrombocytopenia polycythemia leukemia Which of the following is associated with polycythemia? low blood volume anemia low viscosity high hematocrit normal circulation what formed element is described as granular cytoplamic fragments Eosinophil, Basophil, Neutrophil what formed element lacks a nucleus in the circulation erythrocytes leukocyte is most numerous in normal blood granular blood cell will specia lize into a macrophage when involved in an immune response ??Monocyte?? formed element is responsible for transport of respiratory gases RBC largest wbc monocyte Know images and shapes of cells ... test is frequently used to estimate hemoglobin ... technical name for blood clot thrombus Test to test for anemia Hematocrit Which leukocyte is the smallest in size? basophil lymphocyte eosinophil neutrophil monocyte What percentage of normal whole blood is plasma? 25% 40% 45% 50% 55% nonliving fluid matrix portion of blood? plasma erythrocytes leukocytes thrombus formed elements An insoluable compound that forms a meshwork of strands that trap RBC's and is, therefore, considered the structural basis of clot formation. Fibrin Prevents backflow into the ventricle pulmonary semilunar valve AV valve with three flaps tricuspid valve Prevents backflow into the right atrium tricuspid valve The lining of the heart Endocardium Prevents backflow into the left ventricle aortic semilunar valve Heart Muscle Myocardium The outermost layer of the serous pericardium parietal layer Prevents backflow into the left atrium mitral valve AV valve with two flaps mitral valve Serous layer covering the heart muscle Epicardium Network found in the ventricular myocardium purkinje fibers The point in the conduction system of the heart where the impulse is temporarily delayed AV node Found in the interventricular septum AV bundle Damage to the ____ node is referred as heart block AV node The pacemaker of the heart SA node location of the heart in the thorax. Mediastinum superior heart chambers atria inferior heart chambers ventricles visceral pericardium epicardium "anterooms" of the heart Atria equals cardiac muscle myocardium provide nutrient blood to the heart muscle coronary arteries lining of the heart chambers endocardium actual "pumps" of the heart ventricles drains blood into the right atrium coronary sinus [Show More]

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