Patho Interactive Module Questions (Ch 22,23,24,26,27,28,30,31,33,34,35)

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Patho Interactive Module Questions (Ch 22,23,24,26,27,28,30,31,33,34,35) A patient who recently started taking a statin reports new muscle cramps and weakness. What is the nurse's priority interven ... tion? A) Encourage stretching and weightlifting. B) Assess for rhabdomyolysis. C) Review previously documented strength assessments. D) Increase the dose of the statin since it is not working. Which lab values does not need to be assessed routinely when a patient is on a statin? A) High-density lipoprotein (HDL) B) Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) C) Liver function tests D) Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) Which juice should be avoided when taking a statin? A) Orange B) Apple C) Grapefruit D) Pineapple When should a statin be administered? A) Before breakfast B) With morning medications C) Midafternoon D) In the evening Which diagnosis is often an indication for a prescription for a statin? A) Hypertension B) Coronary artery disease C) Atrial fibrillation D) Ventricular tachycardia Which blood pressure reading is considered hypotensive? A) 174/94 mm Hg B) 102/76 mm Hg C) 94/56 mm Hg D) 86/42 mm Hg A patient has a baseline blood pressure of 86/42 mm Hg and is resting comfortably in their room talking on their phone. Their current blood pressure is 84/42 mm Hg. What is the nurse's best course of action? A) Call a rapid response. B) Notify the provider. C) Continue to monitor the patient. D) Administer 500 mL intravenous bolus. Which is a symptom of hypotension? A) Increased energy B) Polyuria C) Dizziness D) Dilated pupils What is the first intervention when working with a patient who is hypotensive? a) Administer intravenous fluids. b) Identify the underlying cause. c) Ensure the patient is safe. d) Apply oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 L/min. Which is not a cause of hypotension? a) hypovolemia b) vagal response c) Activation of the sympathetic nervous system d) shock A nurse is administering nitroglycerin to a patient. What is the priority intervention? Stay with the patient. Monitor vital signs every 15 minutes. Send the patient to the cardiac catheterization lab. Encourage incentive spirometry. What condition indicates the need to administer nitroglycerin? Headache Dizziness Chest pain Palpitations Which finding is not an adverse effect of nitroglycerin? Hypotension Constipation Headache Weakness How does nitroglycerin work? It vasoconstricts veins, arteries, and capillaries. It increases myocardial contractility. It vasodilates veins, arteries, and capillaries. It increases metabolic demand. A patient is on a heparin infusion. How does the nurse know if the medication is infusing at a therapeutic rate? The international normalized ratio (INR) is between 2 and 3. The prothrombin time (PT) is 1.5 to 2 times the normal time. The activated partial thromboplastin clotting time (aPTT) is 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal time. The potassium level is between 3.5 and 5. How should intravenous (IV) heparin be administered? By gravity, counting drips By an advanced practice RN On a pump with guardrails On a pressure bag A patient is ordered subcutaneous heparin every 8 hours. When the patient asks what this medication is for, what is the nurse's best answer? "It is to prevent you from developing a blood clot." "It will keep your current clots from getting bigger." "Everyone is on this medication." "It allows us to trend your aPTT levels." What type of medication is heparin? Antiplatelet Anticoagulant Thrombolytic Antihypertensive What is the antidote for heparin? Vitamin K Protease inhibitors Vitamin D Protamine sulfate A patient is on a heparin infusion. Which lab value is used to titrate this medication? International normalized ratio (INR) Prothrombin time (PT) Activated partial thromboplastin clotting time (aPTT) Hemoglobin Which intervention should be implemented for patients on any medications that increase the risk of bleeding? Utilize basic razors. Encourage intramuscular (IM) injections. Monitor for dark stools. Disregard fall precautions. How do anticoagulants work? Thin the blood to prevent clots and stop clots from getting bigger. Prevent platelets from sticking to stents. Dissolve clots. Decrease bleeding times. Which factor is an absolute contraindication to receiving a thrombolytic? Ischemic stroke Pregnancy Appendectomy 2 years ago Controlled hypertension Which medication is an example of an antiplatelet? Atropine Clopidogrel Warfarin Alteplase In general, what happens in the body to cause leukemia? Uncontrolled abnormal production of red blood cells Uncontrolled abnormal production of white blood cells Uncontrolled abnormal production of platelets Uncontrolled abnormal production of plasma A patient presents with newly diagnosed acute myeloid leukemia (AML). What would the nurse expect to find on assessment? Dusky fingers and bilateral lower extremity deep vein thrombosis Bleeding gums and fatigue Pressured speech and eczema on the hands Shortness of breath and a headache Which are risk factors for leukemia? Select all that apply. History of smoking History of chemotherapy Hypertension Hepatitis Certain genetic disorders Which type of leukemia is common among older adults, particularly veterans exposed to Agent Orange? Acute myeloid leukemia (AML) Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) Which type of leukemia is most often found in children under the age of 15? Acute myeloid leukemia (AML) Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) Upon assessment, the nurse notes a patient has crackles and dyspnea. What does this indicate? The patient's right side of the heart is affected. The patient's left side of the heart is affected. The patient has systolic heart failure. The patient has diastolic heart failure. Which is not a common cause of heart failure? Coronary artery disease (CAD) Myocardial infarction (MI) Hypertension Hypothyroidism Which serum lab value can assist in diagnosing heart failure? Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) Blood pressure Cardiac catheterization A patient has an ejection fraction (EF) of 35%. What does this indicate? The patient has an optimally functioning heart. The patient is in diastolic heart failure. The patient is in systolic heart failure. The patient is at risk for developing heart failure A nurse is administering a beta blocker to a patient who has heart failure. Which statement may be part of the nurse's patient education? "This medication will help your heart beat faster." "This medication will help your symptoms only." "This medication will improve your survival and symptoms of heart failure." "This medication helps get rid of the extra fluid in your body." What is the preferred route to administer epinephrine during anaphylactic shock? Subcutaneously Orally Intramuscularly Intravenously Which are anticipated vital signs for a patient with neurogenic shock? Blood pressure 84/67 mm Hg and heart rate 112 bpm Blood pressure 120/80 mm Hg and heart rate 80 bpm Blood pressure 188/101 mm Hg and heart rate 125 bpm Blood pressure 74/42 mm Hg and heart rate 48 bpm A patient is diagnosed with cardiogenic shock. Which medication will the RN expect to be prescribed? Dopamine Dobutamine Desmopressin Diazepam -Dobutamine is a medication used to improve contractility and is the drug of choice for cardiogenic shock. Dopamine, desmopressin, and diazepam are not indicated for improving contractility. A patient is diagnosed with hypovolemic shock. What does the nurse anticipate being included in the plan of care? Administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics Administration of blood products and intravenous fluids Administration of vitamin K Administration of protamine sulfate What is happening in the compensatory stage of shock? The organs are failing and death is imminent. The heart is unable to meet oxygen demands. Blood is being shunted to vital organs to maintain nearly normal vital signs. The patient is asymptomatic but basic cellular changes have started. Which are causes of bradycardia? Select all that apply. Fever Sleeping Infection Vagal nerve stimulation Spinal cord injury What is the priority intervention for a patient in ventricular fibrillation? Defibrillation Cardioversion Notifying the family Continue to monitor What is the best way to treat sinus tachycardia? Administer beta blockers. Encourage deep breathing exercises. Treat the underlying cause. Cardiovert. A patient has been diagnosed with atrial fibrillation. What class of medications is expected to be prescribed? Anticholinergics Anticoagulants Proton pump inhibitors Histamine blockers What is the drug of choice to treat supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)? Atenolol Amlodipine Atropine Adenosine -Rationale: The goal for treating SVT is to break or slow down the heart rate; adenosine will accomplish this. Atenolol is a beta blocker, amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker, and atropine is indicated for bradycardia. A patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is receiving a neuromuscular blocking agent. What additional medications need to be ordered? Beta blockers and antiplatelet medications Sedatives and pain medications Vasopressors and calcium channel blockers Antihistamines and bronchodilators Which are common risk factors for developing acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)? Select all that apply. Aspiration Sepsis Trauma Small bowel obstruction Psoriasis Which statement is true regarding acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)? It is always a predictable disease process. The patient rarely needs to be intubated. Events that happen remote from the lungs cannot cause ARDS. The patient with ARDS will be in the intensive care unit (ICU). How does positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) help manage acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)? It helps open the alveoli to promote gas exchange. It allows the RN to titrate oxygen levels. It monitors lung compliance. It paralyzes the diaphragm to make ventilation easier. Why would a patient be given a neuromuscular blocking agent when treating acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)? So the patient will not remember the experience To eliminate pain To improve synchronicity with the ventilator To allow the patient to participate in care Secondary tuberculosis (TB) infection occurs from reinfection from inhaled droplet nuclei. TRUE FALSE All clients who are exposed to tuberculosis (TB) will develop an active disease. TRUE FALSE A client who is immunocompromised client is placed in respiratory isolation with suspected tuberculosis (TB) infection. The sputum cultures results read M. tuberculosis mycobacterium. The laboratory result: confirms the diagnosis of active tuberculosis. reflects that the client has been exposed to the TB organism. demonstrates that the client has a unique type of pneumonia. is evidence of the development of latent tuberculosis. Which characteristics describe progressive primary tuberculosis (TB)? Select all that apply. Symptomatic Aggressive Noncontagious Contained Latent Active A person's containment and destruction of M. tuberculosis depends on which factor? Bacilli growth time Length of the exposure Health of the immune system Location in the lungs affected Which type of tuberculosis (TB) may occur if a patient becomes immunocompromised? Primary Latent Miliary Secondary True or false: When a person with latent tuberculosis coughs, they may infect other people. TRUE FALSE Which factors make a client most susceptible to a diagnosis of hospital-acquired pneumonia? (Select all that apply.) Infection of lower respiratory tract Evidence of respiratory infection is present on admission Evidence of infection occurs 48 hours after admission Caused by bacterial agents Mechanical ventilation The most common infective organism for clients diagnosed with typical pneumonia is: Mycoplasma pneumonia. Chlamydia organism. Streptococcus pneumonia. Legionella pneumophila. The nurse is assessing the child in the emergency department. The nurse notes that the child has a moderate amount of sputum, rales that are scattered throughout the lung fields and heard posteriorly, and negative tactile fremitus. The nurse also notes that the white blood cell count is only slightly elevated. The nurse anticipates a diagnosis of: hospital-acquired pneumonia. atypical pneumonia. complications of asthma. viral pneumonia. Which clinical manifestations are present with typical pneumonia but not with atypical pneumonia? Select all that apply. Low white blood cell count Regions of reduced or absent breath sounds Consolidation Nonproductive cough Crackles and dullness to percussion with auscultation Colored sputum Onset greater than 48 hours Pneumonia that occurs 48 hours or more after admission to the hospital is considered: hospital-acquired pneumonia. Who is at the highest risk for developing community-acquired pneumonia (typical) An older adult living in an assisted living facility What is not a risk factor for developing a lower urinary tract infection (UTI) in a younger adult? Stroke Pregnancy Diabetes Assigned male at birth You are caring for a patient who has an indwelling urinary catheter. Which action is not indicated? Assess the need for the catheter. Advocate for the removal of the catheter if it is not needed. Switch out the bag every shift. Document the patient's output Which are symptoms of a urinary tract infection (UTI) in an older adult? Select all that apply. Malaise Nocturia Foul-smelling urine Fever Dementia Which is not a way bacteria enter the urinary tract? Medication given intravenously Transurethral route Via the bloodstream Fistula from the intestine What is a symptom of an upper urinary tract infection (UTI) that is not seen in a lower UTI? [Show More]

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