HESI PN EXIT NGN V1 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2025 (version 2 available )

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Questions 1–5 (Multiple Choice + Correct Answer) 1. What side effects of morphine could contribute to this client’s fall risk? (Select all that apply) A) Seizures B) Sedation → Corr ... ect C) Itching D) Euphoria E) Urinary retention → Correct F) Orthostatic hypotension → Correct G) Nausea --- 2. A client with end-stage COPD is anxious with labored respirations, increasing dyspnea when attempting to talk, and reports a painful cough. Which intervention should the practical nurse implement? A) Administer PRN opioid analgesic B) Restrict family visitation C) Apply a non-rebreather mask D) Place client in high Fowler’s position → Correct Great — here’s the next batch of multiple-choice questions with their correct answers from your document. I’ll go in chunks to keep it readable. Questions 6–15 (Multiple Choice + Correct Answers) 6. A client is prescribed digoxin. Which finding should the nurse report before giving the next dose? A) Heart rate 58 bpm → Correct B) Blood pressure 130/80 mmHg C) Potassium 4.0 mEq/L D) No nausea or vomiting --- 7. Which dietary selection is best for a client on a low-sodium diet? A) Canned soup and crackers B) Fresh fruit and vegetables → Correct C) Ham sandwich with chips D) Frozen TV dinner --- 8. A client receiving furosemide reports muscle cramps. What lab should the nurse check? A) Sodium B) Potassium → Correct C) Calcium D) Magnesium --- 9. Which is the priority nursing action for a client with a blood transfusion reaction? A) Slow the transfusion B) Stop the transfusion → Correct C) Notify the healthcare provider D) Document the reaction --- 10. What teaching should the nurse provide to a client prescribed warfarin? A) Eat more green leafy vegetables B) Use an electric razor → Correct C) Take aspirin for headaches D) Double the dose if one is missed --- 11. A client reports pain 30 minutes after receiving an analgesic. What action should the nurse take? A) Reassess the pain and notify the charge nurse or provider → Correct B) Give another dose C) Document the pain D) Tell the client to wait --- 12. Which finding in a post-thyroidectomy client requires immediate action? A) Hoarseness → Correct B) Nausea C) Headache D) Anxiety --- 13. A client with heart failure is short of breath. What is the nurse’s priority action? A) Lower the head of bed B) Give a sedative C) Elevate the head of bed → Correct D) Apply restraints --- 14. What should the nurse do when a client has difficulty swallowing pills? A) Crush all medications B) Ask the pharmacist about alternatives → Correct C) Mix pills in food without asking D) Skip the dose --- 15. The nurse finds a client on the floor after falling. What is the priority action? A) Move the client back to bed B) Check for injuries → Correct C) Call the family D) Fill out an incident report Questions 16–30 (Multiple Choice + Correct Answers) 16. A client is prescribed lisinopril. Which side effect should the nurse monitor for? A) Dry cough → Correct B) Constipation C) Drowsiness D) Weight gain --- 17. Which intervention reduces the risk of pressure ulcers? A) Massage reddened areas B) Turn client every 2 hours → Correct C) Use donut cushions D) Keep skin dry with powder --- 18. What is the best position for a client receiving tube feeding with risk of aspiration? A) Supine B) Trendelenburg C) Semi-Fowler’s or upright → Correct D) Side-lying --- 19. A client with diabetes has a blood glucose of 50 mg/dL. What is the nurse’s priority? A) Administer insulin B) Provide orange juice → Correct C) Check urine ketones D) Call the provider --- 20. Which PPE is required when caring for a client with tuberculosis? A) Surgical mask B) N95 respirator → Correct C) Gown only D) Face shield --- 21. A client receiving chemotherapy reports nausea. What is the best nursing action? A) Offer small, frequent meals → Correct B) Encourage high-fat foods C) Provide strong-smelling foods D) Limit fluid intake --- 22. Which client finding requires immediate intervention? A) Temperature 99°F B) WBC count 2,000/mm³ → Correct C) Hemoglobin 13 g/dL D) Platelets 200,000/mm³ --- 23. What is a sign of fluid overload? A) Dry mucous membranes B) Crackles in lungs → Correct C) Decreased blood pressure D) Weight loss --- 24. Which lab value indicates a need to hold the next dose of enoxaparin? A) Platelets 80,000/mm³ → Correct B) INR 1.0 C) Hemoglobin 15 g/dL D) WBC 7,000/mm³ --- 25. What teaching should the nurse give about nitroglycerin tablets? A) Store in a cool, dark place → Correct B) Take with milk C) Swallow whole D) Take one tablet daily --- 26. The nurse observes a UAP feeding a stroke client lying flat. What should the nurse do? A) Praise the UAP B) Tell the UAP to elevate the head of the bed → Correct C) Ignore and document D) Report to the supervisor --- 27. Which client is at greatest risk for hypokalemia? A) Client with diarrhea → Correct B) Client on potassium-sparing diuretics C) Client receiving potassium supplements D) Client with kidney failure --- 28. Which finding indicates possible hypoglycemia in a diabetic client? A) Sweating and tremors → Correct B) Fruity breath odor C) Deep rapid respirations D) Dry skin --- 29. Which action reduces risk of catheter-associated UTI? A) Keep drainage bag below bladder → Correct B) Change catheter daily C) Use antiseptic solution daily D) Clamp catheter frequently --- 30. What should the nurse include in teaching about metformin? A) Take on an empty stomach B) Monitor for signs of lactic acidosis → Correct C) Stop medication if blood sugar is controlled D) Increase carbohydrate intake Questions 51–70 (Multiple Choice + Correct Answers) 51. Which statement indicates the client understands how to use a metered-dose inhaler? A) “I will inhale quickly and forcefully.” B) “I will hold my breath for 10 seconds after inhaling.” → Correct C) “I will exhale immediately after inhaling.” D) “I will take two puffs without waiting.” --- 52. Which is an expected finding in a client with right-sided heart failure? A) Pulmonary crackles B) Jugular vein distension → Correct C) Pink frothy sputum D) Dyspnea at rest --- 53. What is the priority nursing action for a client with a potassium level of 2.5 mEq/L? A) Monitor ECG → Correct B) Encourage fluid intake C) Limit potassium intake D) Administer a diuretic --- 54. Which client is at highest risk for aspiration? A) A client receiving tube feeding lying flat → Correct B) A client with a history of pneumonia C) A client with a history of hypertension D) A client on a clear liquid diet --- 55. What teaching should the nurse include for a client prescribed warfarin? A) Eat more green leafy vegetables B) Use an electric razor → Correct C) Avoid all physical activity D) Take with NSAIDs 56. Which finding is most concerning in a client with a new tracheostomy? A) Small amount of serosanguineous drainage B) Difficulty breathing → Correct C) Mild discomfort at the site D) Coughing during suctioning --- 57. Which lab result should be reported immediately in a client on chemotherapy? A) WBC 1,500/mm³ → Correct B) Platelets 150,000/mm³ C) Hemoglobin 12 g/dL D) Creatinine 1 mg/dL --- 58. What is a priority safety teaching for a client taking phenytoin? A) Use sunscreen B) Avoid pregnancy → Correct C) Take on an empty stomach D) Report dark-colored urine --- 59. Which finding suggests infiltration at an IV site? A) Redness and warmth B) Coolness and swelling → Correct C) Pain and purulent drainage D) Hardness along the vein --- 60. What is the best intervention for a confused client at risk for falls? A) Place near the nurse’s station → Correct B) Apply all four side rails C) Use physical restraints D) Keep the room dark at night --- 61. What is a therapeutic response to furosemide? A) Increased blood pressure B) Increased urine output → Correct C) Weight gain D) Decreased potassium level --- 62. Which action promotes effective communication with a hearing-impaired client? A) Speak loudly B) Face the client when speaking → Correct C) Overarticulate words D) Turn off hearing aids --- 63. Which symptom requires immediate attention after cardiac catheterization? A) Mild back discomfort B) Bleeding at the insertion site → Correct C) Small bruise at the puncture site D) Pink-tinged urine --- 64. What is the best time to administer a proton pump inhibitor? A) With meals B) At bedtime C) Before breakfast → Correct D) After dinner --- 65. Which is a sign of early alcohol withdrawal? A) Seizures B) Tremors and agitation → Correct C) Delirium D) Hallucinations --- 66. What is the nurse’s priority when a client has a fire in their room? A) Pull the fire alarm B) Rescue the client → Correct C) Close the door D) Extinguish the fire --- 67. Which finding suggests need for suctioning in a tracheostomy client? A) Clear lung sounds B) Decreased oxygen saturation → Correct C) Moist mucous membranes D) Pink oral mucosa --- 68. Which food should a client with hypertension avoid? A) Baked chicken B) Canned soup → Correct C) Fresh fruit D) Steamed vegetables --- 69. What is an appropriate goal for a client with impaired skin integrity? A) Increase protein intake → Correct B) Limit fluid intake C) Remain on bed rest D) Avoid turning frequently --- 70. Which client statement indicates understanding of crutch walking? A) “I will bear all my weight on my arms.” B) “I will look down at my feet when walking.” C) “I will support my weight on my hands.” → Correct D) “I will keep my elbows straight.” Questions 71–90 (Multiple Choice + Correct Answers) 71. Which is an expected finding in a client with Parkinson’s disease? A) Bradykinesia → Correct B) Hyperactivity C) Muscle hypertrophy D) Hyperreflexia --- 72. What should the nurse do when administering ear drops to an adult? A) Pull the auricle down and back B) Pull the auricle up and back → Correct C) Insert the dropper deep into the canal D) Cool the drops before administration --- 73. Which dietary instruction is appropriate for a client with chronic kidney disease? A) Increase protein intake B) Restrict sodium and potassium → Correct C) Increase dairy consumption D) Eat high-phosphate foods --- 74. Which is a sign of lithium toxicity? A) Polyuria B) Fine hand tremors C) Nausea and vomiting → Correct D) Increased appetite --- 75. Which precaution should be used for a client with tuberculosis? A) Droplet B) Contact C) Airborne → Correct D) Standard only --- 76. Which client should the nurse assess first? A) A client with a blood glucose of 60 mg/dL → Correct B) A client with a potassium of 4.0 mEq/L C) A client with a sodium of 140 mEq/L D) A client with a pulse of 78 bpm --- 77. Which finding should the nurse report immediately for a client receiving a blood transfusion? A) Mild fever B) Itching C) Shortness of breath → Correct D) Flushing --- 78. Which position is best after a total hip replacement? A) Supine with legs crossed B) Semi-Fowler’s with abduction pillow → Correct C) High Fowler’s with hips flexed D) Side-lying on the affected side --- 79. What is the priority teaching for a client on corticosteroids? A) Avoid crowds → Correct B) Increase potassium intake C) Report increased urination D) Stop medication if feeling better --- 80. Which intervention prevents urinary tract infection in a catheterized client? A) Keep drainage bag below bladder → Correct B) Empty bag every 12 hours C) Use powder around insertion site D) Clamp catheter periodically --- 81. Which finding is expected in a client with diabetes insipidus? A) Low urine output B) High urine specific gravity C) Excessive thirst → Correct D) Hyponatremia --- 82. What is an appropriate action when collecting a 24-hour urine specimen? A) Save the first voided urine B) Discard the first voided urine → Correct C) Store specimen at room temperature D) Use any clean container --- --- 96. What is a priority teaching point for a client with a pacemaker? A) Avoid large crowds B) Check pulse daily → Correct C) Keep arm immobilized D) Limit fluid intake [Show More]

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