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Microbiology: An Introduction, 13e (Tortora et al.)
Chapter 1 The Microbial World and You
Multiple-Choice Questions
1) Microorganisms are involved in each of the following processes EXCEPT
A) infection.
B)
...
Microbiology: An Introduction, 13e (Tortora et al.)
Chapter 1 The Microbial World and You
Multiple-Choice Questions
1) Microorganisms are involved in each of the following processes EXCEPT
A) infection.
B) decomposition of organic material.
C) O2 production.
D) food production.
E) smog production.
5
2) Each of the following organisms would be considered a microbe EXCEPT
A) yeast.
B) protozoan.
C) bacterium.
D) mushroom.
E) virus.
3) The term used to describe a disease-causing microorganism is
A) microbe.
B) bacterium.
C) virus.
D) pathogen.
E) infection.
4) Common commercial benefits of microorganisms include synthesis of
A) riboflavin.
B) acetone.
C) insulin.
D) aspirin.
E) riboflavin, acetone and insulin.
5) What factors contribute to the rising incidence of antibiotic resistance?
A) overuse of the specific drugs
B) misuse of the specific drugs
C) random mutations in bacterial genomes
D) random mutations, overuse and misuse of specific drugs
E) overuse and misuse of specific drugs
4.1
9
5
6) The formal system for classifying and naming organisms was developed by
A) Robert Koch.
B) Ignaz Semmelweis.
C) Aristotle.
D) Carolus Linnaeus.
E) Louis Pasteur.
7) In the name Staphylococcus aureus, aureus is the
A) genus.
B) domain name.
C) species.
D) kingdom.
E) family name.
8) A prokaryotic cell may possess each of the following cellular components EXCEPT
A) flagella.
B) a nucleus.
C) ribosomes.
D) a cell wall.
E) a cell membrane.
9) Which of the following is NOT associated with viruses?
A) organelles
B) nucleic acid
C) envelope
D) chemical reactions
E) protein coat
10) Figure
The bacterial shape of the cells in the scanning electron micrograph shown in Figure would best be described as
A) bacillus.
B) spiral.
C) coccus.
D) ovoid.
E) columnar.
11) Protozoan motility structures include
A) cilia.
B) flagella.
C) pseudopods.
D) cilia and pseudopods only.
E) cilia, flagella, and pseudopods.
12) Viruses are not considered living organisms because they
A) cannot reproduce by themselves.
B) are structurally very simple.
C) can only be visualized using an electron microscope.
D) are typically associated with disease.
E) are ubiquitous in nature.
13) Microbes that live stably in and on the human body are called the
A) transient microbiota.
B) human microbiome.
C) pathogenic microorganisms.
D) virulent microorganisms.
E) opportunistic microbiota.
14) Which of the following is NOT a domain in the three-domain system?
A) animalia
B) archaea
C) bacteria
D) eukarya
15) A system of classification grouping organisms into 3 domains based on the cellular organization of organisms was devised by
A) Carolus Linnaeus.
B) Anton van Leewenhoek.
C) Carl Woese.
D) Louis Pasteur.
E) Robert Koch.
16) Archaea differ from bacteria in that archaea
A) have cell walls composed of substances other than peptidoglycan.
B) lack nuclei.
C) use organic compounds for food.
D) reproduce by binary fission.
E) are prokaryotic.
17) Who is credited with first observing cells?
A) Robert Hooke
B) Anton van Leeuwenhoek
C) Robert Koch
D) Louis Pasteur
E) Carolus Linnaeus
18) Who is credited with first observing microorganisms?
A) Robert Hooke
B) Anton van Leeuwenhoek
C) Robert Koch
D) Louis Pasteur
E) Carolus Linnaeus
19) Biogenesis refers to the
A) spontaneous generation of organisms from nonliving matter.
B) development of life forms from preexisting life forms.
C) development of aseptic technique.
D) germ theory of disease.
20) If you were setting up an experiment to disprove spontaneous generation in a liquid medium, which of the following would be essential to the experiment?
A) supplying the liquid with nutrients
B) starting with a liquid that contains microorganisms
C) adding antibiotics to the liquid
D) using a sterile liquid and eliminating exposure to microorganisms
E) adding carbon dioxide to the liquid
21) The arguments supporting spontaneous generation were finally disproved by
A) Louis Pasteur.
B) Francesco Redi.
C) Rudolf Virchow.
D) John Needham.
E) Lazzaro Spallanzani.
22) Regarding Louis Pasteur's experiments with the S-neck flask, which of the following statements is TRUE?
A) Air exchange was involved.
B) A food source was provided.
C) The possibility of contamination was removed.
D) All preexisting microorganisms were killed.
E) Air exchange occurred, a food source was provided, preexisting microorganisms were killed and contamination was prevented
23) The microbial process of converting sugars to alcohol is known as
A) fermentation.
B) pasteurization.
C) tyndallization.
D) lyophilization.
E) alcoholism.
3.1
24) Proof that a microbe could cause disease was provided by
A) Pasteur.
B) Lister.
C) Koch.
D) Wasserman.
E) Semmelweis.
0
25) The use of phenol (carbolic acid) as a wound disinfectant was first practiced by
A) Lister.
B) Semmelweis.
C) Pasteur.
D) Holmes.
E) Koch.
3.4
1.9
26) Mycology is the study of
A) mycoplasma.
B) mushrooms.
C) protozoa.
D) molds.
E) molds, yeast, and mushrooms.
3
27) The first step for directly linking a microbe to a specific disease according to Koch's postulates is to
A) culture the blood or other body fluid from a diseased animal using nutrient medium.
B) inject a sample of blood or other body fluid from a diseased animal into a healthy animal.
C) obtain a sample of blood or other body fluid from a diseased animal.
D) compare the blood of a sick animal to blood obtained from a healthy animal.
E) isolate microbes from the blood of healthy animals.
0
28) In which of the following situations would Koch's postulates be utilized?
A) determination of the cause of a new emerging disease by scientists studying disease transmission
B) development of a new antibiotic in a pharmaceutical lab
C) determination of the cause of cancer in a patient
D) formulation of a vaccine against a new pathogen in a genetic engineering lab
E) whenever the scientific method is used to investigate a microbiological problem
0
5
29) Robert Koch identified the cause of
A) smallpox.
B) anthrax.
C) diphtheria.
D) AIDS.
E) rabies.
0
5
30) Which physician is first associated with vaccination?
A) Ehrlich
B) Jenner
C) Lister
D) Koch
E) Escherich
1
5
31) Which of the following findings was essential for Edward Jenner's vaccination process?
A) Exposure to a milder disease form may produce immunity.
B) A weakened microorganism will not cause disease.
C) Someone who recovers from a disease will not acquire that disease again.
D) Disease is caused by viruses.
E) Pathogenic microorganisms infect all humans and animals in the same manner.
1
5
32) Penicillin was discovered by accident by
A) Alexander Fleming.
B) Paul Ehrlich.
C) Edward Jenner.
D) Robert Koch.
E) Joseph Lister.
3.4
2
5
33) Who was the first scientist to pursue a "magic bullet" that could be used to treat infectious disease?
A) Jenner
B) Pasteur
C) Ehrlich
D) Lister
E) Semmelweis
3.4
2
5
34) Fungal infections are studied by
A) virologists.
B) bacteriologists.
C) parasitologists.
D) mycologists.
E) herpetologists.
3
35) When our bodies overcome the offensive tactics of a particular microorganism, this is referred to as
A) therapy.
B) colonization.
C) disease.
D) resistance.
E) deficiency.
7
36) Recombinant DNA refers to the
A) study of bacterial ribosomes.
B) study of the function of genes.
C) interaction between human and bacterial cells.
D) synthesis of proteins from genes.
E) DNA resulting when genes from one organism are inserted into another organism.
4.5
4
37) Molecular biology includes the study of
A) DNA synthesis.
B) RNA replication.
C) protein synthesis.
D) enzyme function.
E) how genetic information directs protein synthesis.
4.2
4
38) Microorganisms are essential to our life. Each of the following is an example of a beneficial function of microorganisms EXCEPT
A) alternative fuel production.
B) bioremediation.
C) gene therapy.
D) agriculture.
E) increased number of illnesses.
5
5
39) The major food producers for other living organisms is/are
A) higher plants.
B) cyanobacteria.
C) algae.
D) higher plants and algae.
E) higher plants, cyanobacteria, and algae.
6.1
5
40) Gene therapy is currently used to treat all of the following diseases EXCEPT
A) severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID).
B) Duchenne's muscular dystrophy.
C) cystic fibrosis.
D) LDL-receptor deficiency.
E) colon cancer.
6
5
41) Recombinant DNA technology has become an increasingly important part of our life. It is used for all of the following EXCEPT
A) vaccine production.
B) enhancing food longevity.
C) synthesis of water.
D) drug production.
E) increasing the nutritional value of food.
6
5
42) Normal microbiota
A) indefinitely colonize the body.
B) take up residence in sites such as the colon and mouth.
C) almost always cause disease in the host.
D) are normally found in blood.
E) both indefinitely colonize the body and take up residence in sites such as the colon and mouth.
43) Which of the following statements about biofilms is FALSE?
A) Compared to free-living bacteria, biofilms are more sensitive to antibiotics.
B) Biofilms in pipes can block the flow of water.
C) Biofilms in your body protect mucous membranes from harmful microbes.
D) Biofilms on medical devices cause infections.
E) Biofilms on rocks provide food for animal life.
6.1
8
44) Development of emerging infectious disease can be a result of all of the following EXCEPT
A) microbial mutation.
B) modern transportation.
C) use of genetically modified foods.
D) changes in the environment.
E) overuse of antibiotics.
9
45) Who challenged the idea of spontaneous generation with the concept of biogenesis?
A) Louis Pasteur
B) Rudolf Virchow
C) Anton van Leewenhoek
D) John Needham
E) Francesco Redi
46) All of the following are true concerning emerging infectious diseases EXCEPT
A) they always involve sporadic cases in endemic areas.
B) they include newly described infectious agents.
C) known pathogens develop evolutionary changes.
D) known diseases spread to new regions or populations.
E) they result from human exposure to a pathogen due to ecological changes.
9
47) Microorganisms are beneficial to humans in all of the following ways EXCEPT
A) marine and freshwater organisms form the basis of the food web.
B) soil microorganisms break down matter.
C) some microorganisms live symbiotically with plants and transform nitrogen gas into organic compounds.
D) Pseudomonas, molds and other microorganisms break down lettuce and strawberries at refrigeration temperatures.
E) Fermenting microorganisms produce yogurt and sauerkraut from milk and cabbage.
48) What mistake did John Needham make that caused him to conclude that spontaneous generation for microorganisms occurred?
A) He failed to seal his flasks of boiled broth.
B) He allowed his assistant to conduct the experiment which he did not monitor closely.
C) He did not boil his broth solutions, only warmed them.
D) He re-contaminated his boiled broth solutions.
E) He destroyed the vital force in the solutions.
49) From the list below, which would NOT be considered an emerging pathogen?
A) Zika virus
B) Avian influenza
C) smallpox virus
D) Ebola virus
E) Lyme disease
9
50) All of the below are examples of a biofilm EXCEPT
A) archaea as part of the plankton community in the open ocean.
B) dental plaque.
C) vegetations on a patient heart valve.
D) slimy layer on riverbed rocks.
E) infection of a patient catheter.
5.2
8
True/False Questions
1) Infectious disease is almost totally eradicated in our world.
9
2) A student has obtained a sample of pond water for study. Using the high-power lens, he observes several cells with nuclei. He can conclude that the cells are NOT bacteria.
14
3) The process of pasteurization to reduce food spoilage utilizes high heat to kill all bacteria present.
3.4
5
4) Anton van Leeuwenhoek was the first microbiologist to use a microscope to examine environmental samples for the presence of microorganisms.
5) Spontaneous generation refers to living cells arising only from other living cells.
6) Microbes are associated with life-sustaining benefits as well as life-threatening diseases.
7) All cells possess a cell wall.
8) All pathogens known to infect humans have been identified at this point in time.
9
9) The first antibiotic was discovered by Paul Ehrlich.
2
10) Enzymes from Bacillus organisms are used to remove spots on clothing.
5
Essay Questions
1) What is an emerging disease, and what are some of the sources for these "new" infectious diseases?
9
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2) Compare and contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
Analyzing
2.4
8
3) What was the function and importance of S-necked flasks in Louis Pasteur's experiments in disproving spontaneous generation?
5
4) Explain the germ theory of disease and discuss why this theory is essential to the treatment of infectious disease.
1.9
5
5) Explain the concept of the formation and maintenance of the human microbiome and discuss the effect of the microbiome on transient microbiota and potential pathogens.
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Microbiology: An Introduction, 13e (Tortora et al.)
Chapter 2 Chemical Principles
Multiple-Choice Questions
1) Which of the following statements about the atom is C FALSE?
A) It has 6 protons in its nucleus.
B) It has 12 neutrons in its nucleus.
C) It has 6 electrons orbiting the nucleus.
D) Its atomic number is 6.
E) Its atomic weight is 12.
2
2) Table
O C H
Using the information in Table , calculate the molecular weight of ethanol, C2H5OH.
A) 96
B) 46
C) 34
D) 33
E) The answer cannot be determined.
2
3) Antacids neutralize acid by the following reaction. Identify the salt in the following equation:
Mg(OH)2 + 2HCl → MgCl2 + H2O
A) Mg(OH)2
B) HCl
C) MgCl2
D) H2O
E) None of the answers is correct.
2.4
2.5
4) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) Salts readily dissolve in water.
B) Water molecules are formed by hydrolysis.
C) Water freezes from the top down.
D) Water is formed as a part of a dehydration synthesis reaction.
E) Water is a polar molecule.
2.4
2.4
5) Which of the following is the type of bond holding K+ and I- ions in KI?
A) ionic bond
B) covalent bond
C) hydrogen bond
2.2
2.2
6) Which of the following is the type of bond between molecules of water in a beaker of water?
A) ionic bond
B) covalent bond
C) hydrogen bond
2.2
2.2
7
7) What is the type of bond holding hydrogen and oxygen atoms together in a single H2O molecule?
A) ionic bond
B) covalent bond
C) hydrogen bond
2.2
2.2
8) Identify the following reaction: Glucose + Fructose → Sucrose + Water
A) dehydration synthesis reaction
B) hydrolysis reaction
C) exchange reaction
D) reversible reaction
E) ionic reaction
2.5
Analyzing
2.7
9) Identify the following reaction: Lactose + H2O → Glucose + Galactose
A) dehydration synthesis reaction
B) hydrolysis reaction
C) exchange reaction
D) reversible reaction
E) ionic reaction
2.5
Analyzing
2.7
10) Identify the following reaction: HCl + NaHCO3 → NaCl + H2CO3
A) dehydration synthesis reaction
B) hydrolysis reaction
C) exchange reaction
D) reversible reaction
E) ionic reaction
Analyzing
2
11) Identify the following reaction: NH4OH ⇌ NH3 + H2O
A) dehydration synthesis reaction
B) hydrolysis reaction
C) exchange reaction
D) reversible reaction
E) ionic reaction
Analyzing
2
12) Which type of molecule contains the alcohol glycerol?
A) carbohydrate
B) phospholipids
C) DNA
D) protein
2.5
2.9
13) Which type of molecule is composed of (CH2O) units?
A) carbohydrate
B) lipid
C) nucleic acid
D) protein
2.5
2.8
14) Which type of molecule contains -NH2 (amino) groups?
A) carbohydrate
B) triglycerides
C) nucleic acid
D) protein
2.5
0
15) Which type of molecule NEVER contains a phosphate group?
A) triglycerides
B) phospholipid
C) nucleic acid
D) ATP
2.5
2.9
16) Based upon the valence numbers of the elements magnesium (2) and hydrogen (1), predict how many covalent bonds would form between these atoms to achieve the full complement of electrons in their outermost energy shells.
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
2.2
Analyzing
2.2
2
17) Table
O C H
Using the information in Table , calculate the number of moles in 92 grams of ethanol, C2H5OH.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) The answer cannot be determined.
2.2
Analyzing
2.2
4
18) Which of the following statements regarding protein structure is FALSE?
A) The primary structure is formed by covalent bonding between amino acid subunits.
B) Secondary structures are formed only from hydrogen bonds.
C) Tertiary structures are formed only from covalent bonds.
D) Quaternary structures involved multiple polypeptides.
2.5
0
19) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) NaOH ⇌ Na+ + OH- is a base
B) HF ⇌ H+ + F- is an acid
C) MgSO4 ⇌ Mg2+ + is a salt
D) KH2PO4 ⇌ K+ + H2 is an acid
E) H2SO4 ⇌ 2H+ + is an acid
2.4
Analyzing
2.5
2
20) Table 2.2
NaOH ⇌ Na+ + OH- is a base
HF ⇌ H+ + F- is an acid
MgSO4 ⇌ Mg2+ + is a salt
KH2PO4 ⇌ K+ + H2 is an acid
H2SO4 ⇌ 2H+ + is an acid
Which of the following statements about the reactions in Table 2.2 is FALSE?
A) They are exchange reactions.
B) They are ionization reactions.
C) They occur when the reactants are dissolved in water.
D) They are dissociation reactions.
E) They are reversible reactions.
Analyzing
2
21) What is the type of weak bond between the hydrogen of one molecule and the nitrogen of another molecule, where the two don't actively share an electron?
A) ionic bond
B) covalent bond
C) hydrogen bond
D) disulfide bond
E) hydrophobic bond
2.2
2.2
7
22) What is the type of strong chemical bond between carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms in a single organic molecule?
A) ionic bond
B) covalent bond
C) hydrogen bond
2.2
2.2
7
23) What is the type of bond between ions in salt?
A) ionic bond
B) covalent bond
C) hydrogen bond
2.2
2.2
7
24) A scientist wants to perform a test that will indicate whether a nucleic acid sample is composed of either RNA or DNA. Testing for the presence of which of the following is most appropriate in this situation?
A) phosphate
B) nitrogen
C) guanine
D) uracil
E) thymine
2.5
1
2
25) Structurally, ATP is most like which type of molecule?
A) carbohydrate
B) lipid
C) protein
D) nucleic acid
2.5
2
26) What do genes consist of?
A) carbohydrates
B) lipids
C) proteins
D) nucleic acids
2.5
1
7
27) Which molecule is composed of a chain of amino acids?
A) carbohydrate
B) lipid
C) protein
D) nucleic acid
2.5
0
28) Which are the primary molecules making up plasma membranes in cells?
A) carbohydrates
B) lipids
C) proteins
D) nucleic acids
2.5
2.9
7
29) The antimicrobial drug imidazole inhibits sterol synthesis. This would most likely interfere with
A) bacterial cell walls.
B) fungal cell walls.
C) eukaryotic plasma membranes.
D) prokaryotic plasma membranes.
E) genes.
2.5
Analyzing
3.4
2.9
2
Figure
30) In Figure , which is an alcohol?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e
2.5
Analyzing
2.7
3
31) Which compound in Figure is an ester?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e
2.5
Analyzing
2.7
3
32) Which compound in Figure is an organic acid?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e
2.5
Analyzing
2.6
3
33) Most amino acids found in cells demonstrate what type of chirality?
A) L-isomers
B) D-isomers
C) C-isomers
D) B-isomers
E) A-isomers
2.5
0
34) Figure
What kind of bond is at the arrow in Figure ?
A) disulfide bridge
B) double covalent bond
C) hydrogen bond
D) ionic bond
E) peptide bond
2.5
Analyzing
0
3
35) An E. coli culture that has been growing at 37°C is moved to 25°C. Which of the following changes must be made in its plasma membrane to help it cope with the decrease in temperature?
A) The number of phosphate groups must increase.
B) The viscosity must increase.
C) The number of saturated chains must increase.
D) The number of unsaturated chains must increase.
E) No changes are necessary.
2.5
2.9
36) Radioisotopes are frequently used to label molecules in a cell. The fate of atoms and molecules in a cell can then be followed. Assume Saccharomyces cerevisiae is grown in a nutrient medium containing the radioisotope 35S. After a 48-hour incubation, the 35S would most likely be found in the S. cerevisiae's
A) carbohydrates.
B) nucleic acids.
C) water.
D) lipids.
E) proteins.
2.5
0
2
37) Radioisotopes are frequently used to label molecules in a cell. The fate of atoms and molecules in a cell can then be followed. Assume Saccharomyces cerevisiae is grown in a nutrient medium containing the radioisotope 32P. After a 48-hour incubation, the majority of the 32P would be found in the S. cerevisiae's
A) plasma membrane.
B) cell wall.
C) water.
D) proteins.
E) carbohydrates.
2.5
2.9
2
38) Starch, dextran, glycogen, and cellulose are polymers of
A) amino acids.
B) glucose.
C) fatty acids.
D) nucleic acids.
E) acids.
2.5
2.8
39) Which of the following is a base?
A) C2H5OCOOH → H+ + C2H5OCOO-
B) C2H5OH
C) NaOH → Na+ + OH-
D) H2O → H+ + OH-
E) H2CO
2.4
Analyzing
25
2
40) Two glucose molecules are combined by a dehydration synthesis reaction to make a maltose molecule. What is the chemical formula for maltose?
A) C3H6O3
B) C6H12O6
C) C12H24O12
D) C12H22O11
E) C12H23O10
2.5
2.8
3
41) If an amino acid contained a large hydrocarbon (a group of multiple carbons and hydrogens linked together) as its side group, in which of the following categories could it be appropriately designated?
A) hydrophilic
B) polar
C) nonpolar
D) basic
E) acidic
2.5
Analyzing
0
2
42) Identify the two functional groups that interact to form a peptide bond.
A) amino group and carboxyl group
B) carboxyl group and ester group
C) amino group and ester group
D) ester group and hydroxyl group
E) hydroxyl group and amino group
2.5
0
43) A dehydration synthesis reaction between glucose (C6H12O6) and fructose (C6H12O6) produces a molecule of sucrose (C12H22O11). Why don't the two individual molecular formulae add up to the same number of atoms in the sucrose product?
A) Oxygen must be burned/consumed during the reaction.
B) In a dehydration reaction, a water molecule (H2O) is removed from the final molecule formed.
C) In a dehydration reaction, a water molecule (H2O) is added to the final molecule formed.
D) Hydrogen must be burned/consumed during the reaction.
2.5
2.7
44) In terms of similarities, which two molecules would be isomers of each other?
A) glucose and sucrose
B) glucose and maltose
C) sucrose and fructose
D) fructose and glucose
2.5
2.8
45) Subtle differences exist in the plasma membrane molecules of the organisms in the three Domains. _______ functional groups are found in the plasma membrane molecules of bacteria and eukarya, while ________ functional groups are found in the plasma membrane molecules of archaea.
A) amino; carboxyl
B) ether; ester
C) ester; ether
D) ketone; aldehyde
E) aldehyde; ketone
2.5
2.9
46) What is the main/most important factor that differentiates methanol, ethanol, and isopropanol from each other?
A) the specific location of the hydroxyl functional group
B) the number of carbon atoms in the molecule
C) the number of hydrogen atoms in each molecule
D) the location of the carboxyl functional group
E) the number of hydroxyl functional groups present
2.5
2.7
47) A friend tells you that he recently read an article claiming that you need to work to restore the alkalinity of your blood to remain healthy. Why is this impossible and impractical (and unhealthy even if you could make it happen)?
A) The normal pH of human blood is in the acidic range, so making it alkaline would kill you.
B) Blood is usually around the neutral (pH 7) range, not the alkaline range, in healthy human beings.
C) Blood contains buffers that prevent the pH from changing too drastically, so trying to forcibly alter blood pH wouldn't work effectively.
D) The normal pH of human blood is already in the alkaline range, so it isn't necessary to "restore" it to that point.
E) Blood is usually around the neutral (pH 7) range, not the alkaline range, in healthy human beings AND blood contains buffers that prevent the pH from changing too drastically, so trying to forcibly alter blood pH wouldn't work effectively.
2.4
2.5
48) Which one of the following microbes would grow best at pH 1-3.5?
A) Cyanobacteria in ocean water
B) Propionibacterium acnes bacteria on human skin
C) Acidithiobacillus ferrooxidans in the runoff from a copper mine
2.4
3.3
2.5
49) You put a spoonful of table salt, NaCl, into a glass of water and it dissolves. You repeat this test, but drop the spoonful of salt into a glass of vegetable oil instead. What happens, and why?
A) The salt doesn't dissolve because oil is nonpolar, and couldn't dissociate the ionic bond between the Na+ and Cl- ions.
B) The salt dissolves in the oil just the same as it did in the water.
C) The salt dissolves in the oil, but takes much longer to do so because oil molecules move more slowly than water, slowing the dissolution process down.
D) The salt doesn't dissolve because oil is polar, and only nonpolar solvents would cause the dissociation of the Na+ and Cl- ions in the table salt.
2.2
2.2
50) Which one of the following would be the most difficult covalent bond to break in a chemical reaction?
A) Na+ and Cl- in NaCl
B) two oxygen atoms in a molecule of O2
C) two nitrogen atoms in a molecule of N2
D) two hydrogen atoms in a molecule of H2
2.2
2.2
2.2 True/False Questions
1) Elements only achieve the full complement of electrons in outermost energy shells by donating away or sharing electrons.
2) Covalent bonds are always shared equally.
2.2
2.2
7
3) Individual covalent bonds are stronger than individual ionic bonds.
2.2
2.2
4) All chemical reactions are, in theory, reversible.
5) The formation of ADP from ATP can be defined as a hydrolytic reaction.
2.5
2
6) The density of liquid water is greater than the density of ice.
2.4
2.4
7) A basic solution is expected to contain more hydrogen ions than hydroxyl ions.
2.4
2.5
7
8) All forms of life function optimally at a pH of 7.
2.4
2.5
9) Water has recently been discovered to be lying just underneath the soil on Mars. This means it is possible life as we know it may also exist (or may once have existed) on Mars.
2.4
2.4
2
10) Carbon dioxide is an organic molecule.
2.4
2.6
2
Essay Questions
1) Describe how the properties of phospholipids make these molecules well suited for plasma membranes.
2.5
2.9
8
2) Figure 2.5
Use Figure 2.5 to answer the following. Starch, cellulose, dextran, and glycogen are polysaccharides. How are they similar? To what are their different properties due? Why can't an enzyme that hydrolyzes starch degrade cellulose?
2.5
2.8
8
3) Compare a molecule of a nucleotide to ATP. Could a cell simply insert ATP into DNA without altering it? Explain.
2.5
2
8
4) A scientist claims that when a protein is denatured, it can be expected that its secondary structure will more likely be retained when compared to all other levels of protein structure structures. Do you agree? Explain.
2.5
Creating
0
8
5) Water has recently been found just beneath the soil on Mars, but in frozen form. What does this mean for both the prospect of finding life on Mars in some form, but also for the possibility of humans to survive on/colonize the surface of Mars?
2.4
2.4
2
Microbiology: An Introduction, 13e (Tortora et al.)
Chapter 3 Observing Microorganisms Through a Microscope
3.1 Multiple-Choice Questions
1) Which of the following is NOT equal to 1 mm?
A) 0.001 m
B) 1,000,000 nm
C) 0.1 cm
D) 100 μm
E) 1,000.000.000 pm
3.1
3.1
2) What structure does light pass through after leaving the condenser in a compound light microscope?
A) ocular lens
B) objective lens
C) specimen
D) illuminator
3.2
3.2
3) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) nigrosin - negative stain
B) methylene blue - simple stain
C) acidic dye - capsule stain
D) basic dye - negative stain
E) crystal violet - simple stain
3.3
Analyzing
8.1
3.7
4) Which of the following places the steps of the Gram stain in the correct order?
1-Alcohol-acetone
2-Crystal violet
3-Safranin
4-Iodine
A) 1-2-3-4
B) 2-1-4-3
C) 2-4-1-3
D) 4-3-2-1
E) 1-3-2-4
3.3
8.1
3.9
5) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) alcohol-acetone - decolorizer
B) crystal violet – basic dye
C) safranin – acid dye
D) iodine – mordant
E) carbolfuchsin – basic dye
3.3
Analyzing
8.1
3.7
6) Which of the following is NOT true regarding the acid-fast stain?
A) It is used to identify members of the genus Mycobacterium.
B) Acid-fast cells retain the primary dye after treatment with acid-alcohol.
C) If cells are acid-fast, they are gram-negative.
D) Acid-fast cells appear red in a completed acid-fast stain.
E) Non-acid-fast microbes appear blue in a completed acid-fast stain.
3.3
8.1
3.10
7) The purpose of a mordant in the Gram stain is to
A) remove the simple stain.
B) make the bacterial cells larger.
C) make the flagella visible.
D) prevent the crystal violet from leaving the cells.
E) make gram-negative cells visible.
3.3
8.1
3.10
8) Which of the following places the steps in the correct sequence?
1-Staining
2-Making a smear
3-Fixing
A) 1-2-3
B) 3-2-1
C) 2-3-1
D) 1-3-2
E) The order is unimportant.
3.3
8.1
3.8
9) The negative stain is used to
A) visualize endospores.
B) determine Gram reaction.
C) determine flagella arrangement.
D) visualize fimbriae.
E) determine cell size.
3.3
3.11
10) Simple staining is often necessary to improve contrast in which microscope?
A) compound light microscope
B) phase-contrast microscope
C) darkfield microscope
D) fluorescence microscope
E) electron microscope
3.3
3.8
11) Which microscope is used to see internal structures of cells in a natural state?
A) compound light microscope
B) phase-contrast microscope
C) darkfield microscope
D) fluorescence microscope
E) electron microscope
3.2
3.4
12) Which microscope uses visible light?
A) confocal microscope
B) differential interference contrast microscope
C) fluorescence microscope
D) scanning acoustic microscope
E) scanning electron microscope
3.2
3.4
13) Which microscope achieves the highest magnification and greatest resolution?
A) compound light microscope
B) phase-contrast microscope
C) darkfield microscope
D) fluorescence microscope
E) electron microscope
3.2
3.5
14) In using this microscope, the observer does NOT look directly at an image through a lens.
A) compound light microscope
B) phase-contrast microscope
C) darkfield microscope
D) fluorescence microscope
E) electron microscope
3.2
3.5
15) This microscope produces an image of a light cell against a dark background; internal structures are NOT visible.
A) compound light microscope
B) phase-contrast microscope
C) darkfield microscope
D) fluorescence microscope
E) electron microscope
3.2
3.4
16) A virus measures 100 nm in length. What is its length in μm?
A) 10 μm
B) 1 μm
C) 0.1 μm
D) 0.01 μm
E) 0.001 μm
3.1
3.1
17) Which of the following is never useful for observing living cells?
A) phase-contrast microscope
B) darkfield microscope
C) scanning acoustic microscope
D) scanning electron microscope
E) brightfield microscope
3.2
3.5
18) A microorganism measures 5 μm in length. Its length in mm would be
A) 500 mm.
B) 50 mm.
C) 0.5 mm.
D) 0.05 mm.
E) 0.005 mm.
3.1
3.1
19) Which of the following correctly traces the path of light through the compound microscope?
A) light source; condenser; specimen; objective lens; ocular lens
B) condenser; light source; specimen; ocular lens; objective lens
C) light source; specimen; condenser; objective lens; ocular lens
D) condenser; light source; specimen; objective lens; ocular lens
E) light source; condenser; objective lens; specimen; ocular lens
3.2
3.2
20) Figure 3.1
In Figure 3.1, line "c" points to the microscope's
A) illuminator.
B) condenser.
C) ocular lens.
D) objective lens.
3.2
3.2
21) Which microscope can be used to visualize DNA or botulinum toxin?
A) compound light microscope
B) phase-contrast microscope
C) scanning tunneling microscope
D) confocal microscope
E) scanning electron microscope
3.2
3.6
22) Which microscope is used to observe a specimen that emits light when illuminated with an ultraviolet light?
A) compound light microscope
B) phase-contrast microscope
C) darkfield microscope
D) fluorescence microscope
E) electron microscope
3.2
3.4
23) Which microscope is most useful for visualizing a biofilm?
A) compound light microscope
B) phase-contrast microscope
C) fluorescence microscope
D) scanning acoustic microscope
E) transmission electron microscope
3.2
3.6
24) Which microscope takes advantage of differences in the refractive indexes of cell structures?
A) compound light microscope
B) phase-contrast microscope
C) darkfield microscope
D) fluorescence microscope
E) electron microscope
3.2
3.4
25) You are performing a Gram stain on gram-positive bacteria and you stop after the addition of the first dye. What is the appearance of the bacteria at this point?
A) purple
B) red
C) colorless
D) brown
3.3
8.1
3.9
26) You are performing a Gram stain on gram-negative bacteria and you stop after the addition of the mordant. What is the appearance of the bacteria at this point?
A) purple
B) red
C) colorless
D) brown
3.3
8.1
3.9
27) You are performing a Gram stain on gram-negative bacteria and you stop after the decolorizer step. What is the appearance of the bacteria at this point?
A) purple
B) red
C) colorless
D) brown
3.3
8.1
3.9
28) You are performing a Gram stain on gram-positive bacteria and you stop after the addition of the counterstain. What is the appearance of the bacteria at this point?
A) purple
B) red
C) colorless
D) brown
3.3
8.1
3.9
29) Which type of stain is most useful in helping clinicians to decide which antibiotic to prescribe for a bacterial infection?
A) negative stain
B) simple stain
C) Gram stain
D) endospore stain
E) flagella stain
3.3
Analyzing
3.10
2
30) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) confocal microscope - produces a three-dimensional image
B) darkfield microscope - uses visible light
C) fluorescence microscope - uses a fluorescent light
D) scanning electron microscope - produces a three-dimensional image
E) scanning tunneling microscope - allows visualization of atoms
3.2
Analyzing
3.4
31) What is the total magnification of a specimen viewed with a 10x ocular lens and a 45x objective lens?
A) 4.5x
B) 10x
C) 45x
D) 100x
E) 450x
3.2
3.3
32) You are studying a cell structure that is approximately 100 nm in size. Which of the following provides the greatest magnification you can use to see this structure?
A) brightfield microscope
B) darkfield microscope
C) transmission electron microscope
D) phase-contrast microscope
E) scanning electron microscope
3.2
Analyzing
3.6
2
33) Which microscope uses two beams of light to produce a three-dimensional color image?
A) fluorescence microscope
B) phase-contrast microscope
C) darkfield microscope
D) DIC microscope
E) electron microscope
3.2
3.4
34) Which microscope is used to see intracellular detail in a living cell?
A) fluorescence microscope
B) two-photon microscope
C) atomic force microscope
D) transmission electron microscope
E) brightfield microscope
3.2
3.4
35) Which microscope is used to observe viruses and the internal structure of thinly sectioned cells?
A) transmission electron microscope
B) darkfield microscope
C) fluorescence microscope
D) brightfield microscope
E) scanning electron microscope
3.2
3.6
36) Which microscope is used to see detail of a 300-nm virus?
A) fluorescence microscope
B) phase-contrast microscope
C) darkfield microscope
D) DIC microscope
E) electron microscope
3.2
3.6
37) Assume you stain Bacillus by malachite green with heat and then counterstaining with safranin. Through the microscope, the green structures are
A) cell walls.
B) capsules.
C) endospores.
D) flagella.
E) The answer cannot be determined.
3.3
3.11
38) Which step in the Gram stain is the critical step in differentiating gram-positive cells from gram-negative cells?
A) safranin
B) alcohol-acetone
C) iodine
D) crystal violet
3.3
Analyzing
8.1
3.9
39) You find colorless areas in cells in a Gram-stained smear. What should you do next?
A) an acid-fast stain
B) a flagella stain
C) a capsule stain
D) an endospore stain
E) a simple stain
3.3
Analyzing
8.1
3.9
40) Which microscope is best used for observing the surfaces of intact cells and viruses?
A) phase-contrast microscope
B) darkfield microscope
C) fluorescence microscope
D) brightfield microscope
E) scanning electron microscope
3.2
3.6
41) Bacterial smears are fixed before staining to
A) affix the cells to the slide.
B) make their walls permeable.
C) accept stain.
D) make the cells visible.
3.3
8.1
3.8
42) The resolution of a microscope can be improved by changing the
A) condenser.
B) fine adjustment.
C) wavelength of light.
D) diaphragm.
E) coarse adjustment.
3.2
3.3
43) A student is looking at a bacterial specimen using the oil immersion lens, but has forgotten to put immersion oil on the slide. The specimen will appear
A) smaller than it would if immersion oil was used.
B) larger than it would if immersion oil was used.
C) somewhat fuzzy and have poor resolution.
D) the same as it would if the immersion oil was used.
E) to have no color.
3.2
8.1
3.3
44) The purpose of the ocular lens is to
A) improve resolution.
B) magnify the image from the objective lens.
C) decrease the refractive index.
D) increase the light.
E) decrease the light.
3.2
3.3
45) In microscopy, the term resolution
A) refers to the ability to distinguish fine structure and detail in a specimen.
B) is the same as the total magnification of a specimen.
C) is improved when longer wavelengths of light are employed.
D) is only observed in stained specimens.
E) refers to magnification when using the electron microscope.
3.3
3.3
46) If a patient had a bacterial infection that was not syphilis but was tested for syphilis using the FTA-ABS test, what would the technician observe?
A) fluorescent cells on a dark background.
B) no fluorescence in the patient sample.
C) fluorescence of a different color than expected.
D) three-dimensional host tissue cells with organelles clearly visible.
E) brightly colored three-dimensional bacterial cells.
3.3
3.4
47) An acidic dye
A) has a positively charged chromophore.
B) has a negatively charged chromophore.
C) is used to stain the background in a negative stain.
D) is used to stain nuclei.
E) has a negatively charged chromophore and is used to stain the background in a negative stain.
3.3
8.1
3.7
48) Immersion oil is necessary when using the 100x objective on a compound light microscope
A) to lubricate the objective.
B) to prevent the slide from scratching the lens.
C) otherwise the image will be fuzzy.
D) otherwise too much light is lost to refraction.
E) otherwise too much light is lost to refraction and the image will be fuzzy.
3.2
8.1
3.2
49) Which demonstrates better resolution?
A) measuring two bacteria arranged end to end as individually having a length of 2μm
B) measuring two yeast cells as individually having a diameter of 10μm
C) observing two adjacent bacteria as individually having a width of 0.3μm
D) observing a clump of algae 0.5mm by 0.75 mm
E) measuring a flea as mm at the longest point
3.2
8.1
3.3
50) Which two staining techniques employ a mordant?
A) Gram stain; Flagella stain.
B) Gram stain; Acid-fast stain.
C) Simple stain; Acid-fast stain.
D) Capsule stain; Flagella stain.
E) Gram stain; Capsule stain.
3.3
8.1
3.10
3.2 True/False Questions
1) The counterstain used in the Gram stain is a basic dye.
3.3
8.1
3.7
2) In a completed Gram stain, gram-negative bacteria are colorless.
3.3
8.1
3.9
3) In a completed Gram stain, gram-positive bacteria are purple.
3.3
8.1
3.9
4) If acid-fast bacteria are stained with the Gram stain, they will stain gram-negative.
3.2
3.10
5) The limit of resolution of the compound microscope illuminated with visible light is approximately 0.2 μm.
3.2
3.3
6) Both phase-contrast microscopy and differential interference contrast microscopy are used to view the internal structures of cells without staining.
3.2
3.4
7) Cells viewed in darkfield microscopy appear similar to those stained with the negative stain.
3.3
3.4
8) The capsules and flagella of bacteria can be observed in gram-stained smears.
3.3
3.11
9) The greater resolution of the electron microscope compared to the compound microscope is due to the longer wavelengths of the electrons used to examine specimens.
3.2
3.5
10) Scanned probe microscopy is used to examine fine detail of molecular complexes, such as blood clots, or molecules, such as DNA.
3.2
3.6
3.3 Essay Questions
1) In 1877, Robert Koch thought preparing permanently stained slides would be valuable. Why was his assessment correct?
3.3
3.8
2
2) In 1884, Hans Christian Gram described a method of staining bacterial cells while not staining surrounding animal tissues. However, he thought that the staining method he developed was faulty because not all bacteria stained. In a letter to the editor of the journal in which Gram published his findings, write your response to Gram's concern.
3.3
3.10
2
3) You are working in a clinical laboratory and you need to examine an unstained urine sample for the presence of bacteria. What type of light microscope should you use to observe this specimen? Explain your answer.
3.2
3.4
2
4) Compare and contrast the Gram stain and the acid-fast stain.
3.3
8.1
3.10
8
5) How are brightfield, darkfield, phase-contrast and fluorescence microscopy similar?
3.2
8.1
3.4
8
Microbiology: An Introduction, 13e (Tortora et al.)
Chapter 4 Functional Anatomy of Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic
4.1 Multiple-Choice Questions
1) Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding prokaryotic cells?
A) Their DNA is not enclosed within a membrane.
B) They lack membrane-enclosed organelles.
C) They typically have a circular chromosome.
D) They reproduce by binary fission.
E) They lack a plasma membrane.
4.1
2.2
4.1
2) Each of the following statements concerning the gram-positive cell wall is true EXCEPT
A) it maintains the shape of the cell.
B) it is sensitive to lysozyme.
C) it protects the cell in a hypertonic environment.
D) it contains teichoic acids.
E) it is sensitive to penicillin.
Analyzing
2.2
4.5
2
3) Which of the following statements best describes what happens when a bacterial cell is placed in a solution containing 5% NaCl?
A) Sucrose will move into the cell from a higher to a lower concentration.
B) The cell will undergo osmotic lysis.
C) Water will move out of the cell.
D) Water will move into the cell.
E) No change will result; the solution is isotonic.
4.5
4.9
2
4) A gram-positive bacterium suddenly acquires resistance to the antibiotic methicillin. This trait most likely occurred due to acquisition of new genetic information through
A) conjugation.
B) binary fission.
C) meiosis.
D) transformation.
E) transduction.
4.3
4.1
2
5) By which of the following mechanisms can a cell transport a substance from a lower to a higher concentration?
A) simple diffusion
B) facilitated diffusion
C) active transport
D) extracellular enzymes
E) aquaporins
4.5
Analyzing
4.9
2
6) Which of the following is NOT a typical characteristic of most bacterial plasma membranes?
A) site of energy production
B) composed of a phospholipid bilayer
C) contains proteins
D) contains cholesterol
E) is selectively permeable
4.5
2.4
4.8
2
7) Which one of the following organisms has a cell wall?
A) protoplasts
B) fungi
C) L forms
D) mycoplasmas
E) animal cells
4.7
2.4
4.14
7
8) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A) Endospores are for reproduction.
B) Endospores allow a cell to survive environmental changes by producing a dormant period with no growth.
C) Endospores are easily stained in a Gram stain.
D) A cell produces one endospore and keeps growing.
E) A cell can produce many endospores.
4.5
4.12
9) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) endoplasmic reticulum – internal transport
B) Golgi complex – secretion
C) mitochondria – ATP production
D) centrosome – food storage
E) lysosome – digestive enzymes
4.11
4.19
10) Which of the following organelles most closely resembles a prokaryotic cell?
A) nucleus
B) mitochondrion
C) Golgi complex
D) vacuole
E) cell wall
4.11
4.19
7
Figure 4.1
11) Which drawing in Figure 4.1 is a tetrad?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e
4.2
4.2
12) Which drawing in Figure 4.1 possesses an axial filament?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e
4.2
4.2
13) Which drawing in Figure 4.1 is streptococci?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e
4.2
4.2
14) Antibiotics that target cell wall synthesis ultimately cause bacterial cell death as a result of
A) osmotic lysis.
B) inhibition of molecular transport.
C) decreased synthesis of plasma membrane.
D) plasmolysis.
E) cell shrinkage.
4.5
3.4
4.9
2
15) Bacteria are a commonly used organism for studies of genetic material in the research laboratory. The nucleic acids must first be isolated from the cells for these studies. Which of the following would most likely be used to remove the cell wall from gram-positive bacterial cells prior to their lysis for nucleic acid isolation?
A) lysozyme
B) polymixins
C) alcohol
D) water
E) mycolic acid
8.5
4.5
16) Which of the following statements about gram-negative cell walls is FALSE?
A) They protect the cell in a hypotonic environment.
B) They have an extra outer layer composed of lipoproteins, lipopolysaccharides, and phospholipids.
C) They are toxic to humans.
D) They are sensitive to penicillin.
E) Their Gram reaction is due to the outer membrane.
Analyzing
2.2
4.5
2
17) Which of the following structures is NOT found in some prokaryotic cells?
A) flagellum
B) axial filament
C) cilium
D) pilus
E) peritrichous flagella
4.6
2.4
4.13
2
18) Functions of the glycocalyx include all of the following EXCEPT
A) biofilm formation.
B) increased virulence.
C) source of nutrition.
D) protection against dehydration.
E) binary fission.
4.3
4.3
2
19) Which structure protects bacteria from being phagocytized?
A) slime layer
B) fimbriae
C) capsule
D) cell membrane
E) cell wall
4.3
2.2
4.3
2
20) Which of the following is NOT part of the passive transport process?
A) plasma membrane
B) transporter proteins
C) ATP
D) concentration gradient
E) aquaporins
4.5
Analyzing
4.9
2
21) Figure 4.2
Which of the following terms best describes the cell in Figure 4.2?
A) peritrichous flagella
B) amphitrichous flagella
C) lophotrichous flagella
D) monotrichous flagellum
E) axial filament
4.3
3
22) In bacteria, photosynthetic pigments are found in
A) chloroplasts.
B) cytoplasm.
C) chromatophores.
D) mesosomes.
E) ribosomes.
4.5
4.11
2
23) The difference between simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion is that facilitated diffusion
A) moves materials from a higher to a lower concentration.
B) moves materials from a lower to a higher concentration.
C) requires ATP.
D) requires transporter proteins.
E) does not require ATP.
4.5
Analyzing
4.9
7
24) The terms "run" and "tumble" are generally associated with
A) cell wall fluidity.
B) taxic movements of the cell in response to attractants or repellents.
C) clustering properties of certain rod-shaped bacteria.
D) cell membrane synthesis.
4.3
2
25) You have isolated a motile, gram-positive cell with no visible nucleus. You can safely assume that the cell
A) has 9 pairs + 2 flagella.
B) has a mitochondrion.
C) has a cell wall.
D) lives in an extreme environment.
E) has cilia.
2.2
4.5
2
26) Fimbriae and pili differ in that
A) there are only one or two pili per cell.
B) pili are used for motility.
C) pili are used to transfer DNA.
D) pili are used for transfer of DNA and motility.
E) pili are used for attachment to surfaces.
4.3
2
Figure 4.3
27) In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall is a gram-negative cell wall?
A) a
B) b
C) both a and b
D) neither a nor b
E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
Analyzing
4.5
3
28) In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall possesses lipid A/endotoxin responsible for symptoms associated with infection?
A) a
B) b
C) both a and b
D) neither a nor b
E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
Analyzing
4.5
3
29) In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall has a structure that protects against osmotic lysis?
A) a
B) b
C) both a and b
D) neither a nor b
E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
Analyzing
4.5
3
30) In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall is decolorized by a brief exposure to alcohol?
A) a
B) b
C) both a and b
D) neither a nor b
E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
Analyzing
8.1
4.5
3
31) In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall is resistant to many antibiotics (e.g., penicillin)?
A) a
B) b
C) both a and b
D) neither a nor b
E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
Analyzing
2.2
4.5
3
32) In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall contains teichoic acids?
A) a
B) b
C) both a and b
D) neither a nor b
E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
Analyzing
4.5
3
33) In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall contains porins?
A) a
B) b
C) both a and b
D) neither a nor b
E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
Analyzing
4.5
3
34) Where are phospholipids most likely found in a prokaryotic cell?
A) flagella
B) organelles
C) the plasma membrane
D) ribosomes
E) the plasma membrane and organelles
4.5
4.8
2
35) Where are phospholipids most likely found in a eukaryotic cell?
A) metachromatic granules
B) organelles
C) the plasma membrane
D) ribosomes
E) the plasma membrane and organelles
4.5
2.4
4.8
2
36) Which of the following is NOT found or observed to occur in both mitochondria and prokaryotes?
A) circular chromosome
B) 70S ribosomes
C) cell wall
D) binary fission
E) ATP-generating mechanism
4.11
Analyzing
2.4
4.19
7
37) Which of the following statements is correct about passive diffusion?
A) It requires an expenditure of energy by the cell.
B) It is a process in which molecules move from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration (or down a concentration gradient).
C) It is a process in which molecules move from a region of lower concentration to one of higher concentration (or up a concentration gradient).
D) It may require a transport protein.
E) It involves movement of molecules down a concentration gradient and may require a transport protein.
4.5
4.9
7
38) Oxygen crosses a plasma membrane
A) by osmosis.
B) through simple diffusion.
C) with the help of a nonspecific transporter.
D) through facilitated diffusion.
E) through porins.
4.5
4.9
2
39) In a hypertonic solution, a bacterial cell will typically
A) lyse.
B) burst.
C) stay the same.
D) plasmolyze.
E) osmolyze.
4.5
4.9
2
40) What will happen if a bacterial cell is pretreated with a lysozyme solution, then placed in distilled water?
A) The cell will plasmolyze.
B) The cell will undergo osmotic lysis.
C) Water will leave the cell.
D) Lysozyme will diffuse into the cell.
E) No change will result; the solution is isotonic.
4.5
Analyzing
4.9
2
41) How do spirochetes and spirilla differ?
A) Spirochetes do not have a cell wall but spirilla do.
B) Spirilla are found in chains of cells whereas spirochetes exist as individual cells.
C) Spirilla have external flagella but spirochetes have axial filaments.
D) Spirochetes have a rigid, corkscrew shape while spirilla are helical and more flexible.
E) Spirochetes and spirilla are basically the same organisms and the terms can be used interchangeably.
4.3
Analyzing
2
42) Which one of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) metachromatic granules - phosphate storage
B) lipid inclusions - energy reserve
C) ribosomes - carbon storage
D) sulfur granules - energy reserve
E) gas vacuoles - flotation
4.5
Analyzing
4.10
7
43) Which of the following are NOT energy reserves?
A) carboxysomes
B) polysaccharide granules
C) lipid inclusions
D) ribosomes
E) metachromatic granules
4.5
4.11
7
44) Which of the following is NOT a functionally analogous pair?
A) nucleus -nucleoid region
B) mitochondria - prokaryotic plasma membrane
C) chloroplasts - thylakoids
D) cilia - pili
E) 9+2 flagella - bacterial flagella
4.6
2.4
4.13
2
45) The DNA found in most bacterial cells
A) is surrounded by a nuclear membrane.
B) utilizes histones for chromosomal packaging.
C) is circular in structure.
D) is linear in structure.
E) is found in multiple copies.
4.5
4.10
2
46) Cells may frequently find themselves in an environment with very low extracellular concentrations of substances needed in higher amounts inside the cell. To obtain these needed items, such cells would be most likely to engage in
A) simple diffusion.
B) facilitated diffusion.
C) active transport.
D) osmosis.
4.5
4.9
47) What is the best reason why oxygen (O2) can cross the plasma membrane by simple diffusion, but glucose must be transported across the barrier by facilitated diffusion?
A) Oxygen is a much smaller molecule, making it easier to pass through the molecules of the plasma membrane.
B) Oxygen is a nonpolar molecule, easily passing through the nonpolar middle area of the plasma membrane.
C) Oxygen can be burned/consumed as it crosses the membrane, providing the energy needed for its passage.
D) Glucose is nonpolar, making it very difficult for it to cross the polar portions of the plasma membrane structure.
4.5
4.9
48) In bacterial ribosomes, a small 30S subunit and a large 50S subunit come together to produce the functional 70S ribosome. Why isn't it an 80S ribosome?
A) The ribosome will become an 80S complex when the protein it is producing starts to be formed.
B) Additional factors are required for protein synthesis. When these are put with the ribosome, it will become an 80S ribosome complex.
C) S stands for Svedberg units, which indicates the relative rate of sedimentation due to size, weight, and shape of a particle. The numbers aren't strictly additive.
D) A portion of the larger 50S subunit is detached as the ribosomes come together, making the final complex a 70S ribosome instead of an 80S ribosome.
4.5
4.10
49) A particular type of inclusion body that is used to orient bacteria in three-dimensional space in a fluid environment is the
A) gas vacuole.
B) carboxysome.
C) sulfur granule.
D) metachromatic granule.
4.5
4.11
50) Endospores are highly resistant to harsh environmental conditions due to all EXCEPT which one of the following?
A) dipicolinic acid (DPA) in the endospore
B) very low amounts of water
C) high concentration of calcium ions
D) a thick spore coat
E) small triggering molecules called germinants
4.5
4.12
4.2 True/False Questions
1) The cell walls of bacteria are responsible for the shape of the bacteria and the difference in the Gram stain reaction.
4.2
Analyzing
4.2
2
2) Antibiotics that target the cell wall are an effective treatment against many pathogenic bacteria.
Analyzing
2.2
4.5
7
3) Cells placed in a hypertonic solution tend to lose water due to osmotic pressure.
4.5
Analyzing
4.9
2
4) Small, hydrophobic molecules pass through a cell membrane most easily by simple diffusion.
4.5
4.9
2
5) Spheroplasts, protoplasts, and mycoplasms are bacterial cells without cell walls.
4.7
6) Endospores are a reproductive structure.
4.5
4.12
2
7) The internal structure of bacterial and eukaryotic flagella are the same.
4.6
4.13
7
8) Many enzymes in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells are compartmentalized within organelles.
4.11
2.4
4.18
7
9) Prokaryotes lack organelles.
4.1
4.1
2
10) If you observe rod-shaped red cells after the Gram stain, you can assume their cell walls contain endotoxin.
Analyzing
4.5
2
4.3 Essay Questions
1) Compare and contrast the characteristics of a typical prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell.
4.11
2.4
4.18
8
2) Provide evidence to substantiate the hypothesis that eukaryotic cells evolved from prokaryotic cells.
4.12
4.20
8
3) Compare and contrast gram-positive and gram-negative cell walls with regard to (a) sensitivity to antimicrobial agents, (b) resistance to phagocytosis, (c) chemical composition, and (d) decolorization by alcohol.
2.2
4.5
8
4) What is a biofilm and what role does biofilm play in disease?
4.3
5.2
4.3
8
5) Based on the description of typical cell structures depicted in this chapter, do you think it is possible for microbial life on Mars to exist? Remember, the environment on Mars is very cold, and there is no appreciable free-flowing water. The core appears to be at least partially molten. Gravity is less than that on Earth, and solar radiation levels are higher. The atmosphere is roughly 95% carbon dioxide and much less than 1% oxygen. If life COULD exist, what might it look like, and why?
4.11
Creating
4.19
Microbiology: An Introduction, 13e (Tortora et al.)
Chapter 5 Microbial Metabolism
5.1 Multiple-Choice Questions
1) Which of the following compounds is NOT an enzyme?
A) dehydrogenase
B) cellulase
C) coenzyme A
D) β-galactosidase
E) sucrase
5.2
5.3
2) Figure 5.1
Which compound is being reduced in the reaction shown in Figure 5.1?
A) isocitric acid and α-ketoglutaric acid
B) α-ketoglutaric acid and NAD+
C) NAD+
D) NADH
E) NADH and isocitric acid
5.3
5.8
3
3) Which organism is NOT correctly matched to its energy source?
A) photoheterotroph - light
B) photoautotroph - CO2
C) chemoautotroph - Fe2+
D) chemoheterotroph - glucose
E) chemoautotroph - NH3
5.9
Analyzing
3.1
5.23
2
4) Which of the following statements about anaerobic respiration is FALSE?
A) It yields lower amounts of ATP when compared to aerobic respiration.
B) The complete Krebs cycle is utilized.
C) It involves the reduction of an organic final electron acceptor.
D) It generates ATP.
E) It requires cytochromes.
3.1
5.15
5) Figure 5.2
What type of reaction is in Figure 5.2?
A) decarboxylation
B) transamination
C) dehydrogenation
D) oxidation
E) reduction
5.10
Analyzing
5.24
2
6) What is the fate of pyruvic acid in an organism that uses aerobic respiration?
A) It is reduced to lactic acid.
B) It reacts with oxaloacetate to form citrate.
C) It is oxidized in the electron transport chain.
D) It is catabolized in glycolysis.
E) It is converted into acetyl CoA.
5.15
7) Figure 5.3
How would a noncompetitive inhibitor interfere with a reaction involving the enzyme shown in Figure 5.3?
A) It would bind to a.
B) It would bind to b.
C) It would bind to c.
D) It would bind to d.
E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
5.2
5.6
8) Figure
How is ATP generated in the reaction shown in Figure ?
A) glycolysis
B) fermentation
C) photophosphorylation
D) oxidative phosphorylation
E) substrate-level phosphorylation
5.3
5.9
2
9) Fatty acids are oxidized in
A) the Krebs cycle.
B) the electron transport chain.
C) glycolysis.
D) the pentose phosphate pathway.
E) the Entner-Doudoroff pathway.
5.5
3.1;
5.17
10) Figure 5.5
Which of the graphs in Figure 5.5 best illustrates the activity of an enzyme that is saturated with substrate?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e
5.2
Analyzing
7.2
5.5
3
11) Which of the following is the best definition of oxidative phosphorylation?
A) Electrons are passed through a series of carriers to O2.
B) A proton gradient allows hydrogen ions to flow back into the cells through transmembrane protein channels, releasing energy that is used to generate ATP.
C) ATP is directly transferred from a substrate to ADP.
D) Electrons are passed through a series of carriers to an organic compound.
5.3
5.9
12) From the list below, which is NOT produced during the Krebs cycle?
A) FADH2
B) NADH
C) ATP
D) NADPH
E) CO2
5.13
13) Which of the following statements about photophosphorylation is FALSE?
A) Light liberates an electron from chlorophyll.
B) The oxidation of carrier molecules releases energy.
C) Energy from oxidation reactions is used to generate ATP from ADP.
D) It requires CO2.
E) It occurs in photosynthesizing cells.
5.3
3.1
5.9
14) A bacterium that only possesses the ability to ferment obtains energy
A) by glycolysis only.
B) by aerobic respiration only.
C) by fermentation or aerobic respiration.
D) only in the absence of oxygen.
E) only in the presence of oxygen.
3.1
5.16
15) The advantage of the pentose phosphate pathway is that it produces all of the following EXCEPT
A) precursors for nucleic acids.
B) precursors for the synthesis of glucose.
C) three ATPs.
D) NADPH.
E) precursors for the synthesis of amino acids.
3.1
5.12
16) Which biochemical process is NOT used during glycolysis?
A) substrate-level phosphorylation
B) oxidation-reduction
C) carbohydrate catabolism
D) beta oxidation
E) enzymatic reactions
5.5
5.17
7
17) In noncyclic photophosphorylation, O2 is released from
A) CO2.
B) 2H2O.
C) C6H12O6.
D) sunlight.
E) chlorophyll.
5.7
3.1
5.19
18) Which of the following is the best definition of fermentation?
A) the partial reduction of glucose to pyruvic acid
B) the partial oxidation of glucose with organic molecules serving as electron acceptors
C) the complete catabolism of glucose to CO2 and H2O
D) the production of energy by oxidative-level phosphorylation
E) the production of energy by both substrate and oxidative phosphorylation
5.16
19) All of the following are required in the reactions of microbial respiration EXCEPT
A) electron transport system.
B) cytochromes.
C) a source of electrons.
D) oxygen.
E) final electron acceptor.
3.1
5.15
20) Increasing the temperature of a reaction will do all of the following EXCEPT
A) increase the reaction rate.
B) increase the number of molecules attaining activation energy.
C) increase the number of molecular collisions.
D) increase the activation energy.
E) increase kinetic energy of the molecules.
5.2
5.5
21) In green and purple bacteria, electrons to reduce CO2 can come from
A) CO2.
B) H2O.
C) C6H12O6.
D) H2S.
E) chlorophyll.
5.9
3.1
5.23
22) Assume you are growing bacteria on a lipid medium that started at pH 7. The action of bacterial lipases should cause the pH of the medium to
A) increase (become more alkaline).
B) decrease (become more acidic).
C) stay the same.
5.5
3.2
5.17
23) Which of the following uses CO2 for carbon and H2 for energy?
A) chemoautotroph
B) chemoheterotroph
C) photoautotroph
D) photoheterotroph
5.9
3.1
5.23
24) Which of the following uses glucose for carbon and energy?
A) chemoautotroph
B) chemoheterotroph
C) photoautotroph
D) photoheterotroph
5.9
3.1
5.23
25) Which of the following has bacteriochlorophylls and uses alcohols for carbon?
A) chemoautotroph
B) chemoheterotroph
C) photoautotroph
D) photoheterotroph
5.9
3.1
5.23
26) Cyanobacteria are a type of
A) chemoautotroph.
B) chemoheterotroph.
C) photoautotroph.
D) photoheterotroph.
5.9
3.1
5.23
27) Which of the following statements are TRUE?
1-Electron carriers are located at ribosomes.
2-ATP is a common intermediate between catabolic and anabolic pathways.
3-ATP is used for the long-term storage of energy and so is often found in storage granules.
4-Anaerobic organisms are capable of generating ATP via respiration.
5-ATP can be generated by the flow of protons across protein channels.
A) 2, 4, 5
B) 1, 3, 4
C) 2, 3, 5
D) 1, 2, 3
E) All of the statements are true.
5.1
5.2
28) Microorganisms that catabolize sugars into ethanol and hydrogen gas would most likely be categorized as
A) aerobic respirers.
B) anaerobic respirers.
C) heterolactic fermenters.
D) homolactic fermenters.
E) alcohol fermenters.
3.1
5.16
2
29) Which of the following statements regarding metabolism is FALSE?
A) Heat may be released in both anabolic and catabolic reactions.
B) ATP is formed in catabolic reactions.
C) ADP is formed in anabolic reactions.
D) Anabolic reactions are degradative.
5.1
5.1
30) A bacterium such as Pseudomonas uses nitrate as a final electron acceptor in an electron transport system. All the below statements are true EXCEPT
A) the process does not yield as much ATP.
B) they can respire without O2.
C) they require light.
D) the process produces nitrite ion.
E) the process requires an electron donor.
3.1
5.15
2
31) Which of the following statements regarding the Entner-Doudoroff pathway is TRUE?
A) It involves glycolysis.
B) It involves the pentose phosphate pathway.
C) NADH is generated.
D) ATP is generated.
E) NADH and ATP are generated.
3.1
5.12
32) Assume you are working for a chemical company and are responsible for growing a yeast culture that produces ethanol. The yeasts are growing well on the maltose medium but are not producing alcohol. What is the most likely explanation?
A) The maltose is toxic.
B) O2 is in the medium.
C) Not enough protein is provided.
D) The temperature is too low.
E) The temperature is too high.
3.2
5.15
33) Figure 5.6
The rates of O2 and glucose consumption by a bacterial culture are shown in Figure 5.6. Assume a bacterial culture was grown in a glucose medium without O2. Then O2 was added at the time marked X. The data indicate that
A) these bacteria don't use O2.
B) these bacteria get more energy anaerobically.
C) aerobic metabolism is more efficient than fermentation.
D) these bacteria cannot grow anaerobically.
Analyzing
7.2a
5.15
3
34) An enzyme, citrate synthase, in the Krebs cycle is inhibited by ATP. This is an example of all of the following EXCEPT
A) allosteric inhibition.
B) competitive inhibition.
C) feedback inhibition.
D) noncompetitive inhibition.
5.2
5.6
35) If a cell is starved for ATP, which of the following pathways would most likely be shut down?
A) Krebs cycle
B) glycolysis
C) pentose phosphate pathway
D) Krebs cycle and glycolysis
5.12
36) Which of the following statements regarding the glycolysis pathway is FALSE?
A) Two pyruvate molecules are generated.
B) Four ATP molecules are generated via substrate-level phosphorylation.
C) Two NADH molecules are generated.
D) One molecule of ATP is expended.
E) Two molecules of water are generated.
5.11
37) Figure 5.7
The graph at the left in Figure 5.7 shows the reaction rate for an enzyme at its optimum temperature. Which graph shows enzyme activity at a higher temperature?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
5.2
Analyzing
7.2a
5.5
3
38) A bacterial culture grown in a glucose-peptide medium causes the pH to increase. The bacteria are most likely
A) fermenting the glucose.
B) oxidizing the glucose.
C) using the peptides.
D) not growing.
5.5
3.2
5.17
39) Gallionella bacteria can get energy from the reaction Fe2+ → Fe3+. This reaction is an example of
A) oxidation.
B) reduction.
C) fermentation.
D) photophosphorylation.
E) the Calvin-Benson cycle.
5.3
3.1
5.8
Figure 5.8
40) In Figure 5.8, where is ATP produced?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e
5.14
41) Refer to Figure 5.8. In aerobic respiration, where is water formed?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e
5.14
42) In Figure 5.8, the structure labeled "1" is
A) NAD+.
B) ATP synthase.
C) a plasma membrane.
D) a cell wall.
E) cytoplasm.
5.14
43) In Figure 5.8, the path labeled "2" is the flow of
A) electrons.
B) protons.
C) energy.
D) water.
E) glucose.
5.14
44) What is the most acidic place in Figure 5.8?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e
5.14
7
45) A urease test is used to identify Mycobacterium tuberculosis because
A) urease is a sign of tuberculosis.
B) M. tuberculosis produces urease.
C) urea accumulates during tuberculosis.
D) some bacteria reduce nitrate ion.
E) M. bovis can cause tuberculosis.
5.9
8.3
5.18
46) Researchers are developing a ribozyme that cleaves the HIV genome. This pharmaceutical agent could be described as
A) an RNA molecule capable of catalysis.
B) a hydrolase.
C) a genetic transposable element.
D) a protease inhibitor.
E) a competitive inhibitor for reverse transcriptase.
5.2
3.4
5.7
7
47) Which statements correspond to amphibolic pathways?
1. Anabolic and catabolic reactions are joined through common intermediate.
2. They are shared metabolic pathways.
3. Feedback inhibition can help regulate rates of reactions.
4. Both types of reactions are necessary but do not occur simultaneously.
A) 1 only
B) 1, 2, 3
C) 1, 2, 3, 4
D) 2, 4
E) 2, 3, 4
5.11
5.25
48) Why do eukaryotes generate only about 36 ATP per glucose in aerobic respiration but prokaryotes may generate about 38 ATP?
A) eukaryotes have a less efficient electron transport system.
B) eukaryotes do not transport as much hydrogen across the mitochondrial membrane as prokaryotes do across the cytoplasmic membrane.
C) eukaryotes must shuttle pyruvate across the mitochondrial membrane by active transport.
D) eukaryotes do not completely oxidize glucose in their respiration reactions.
E) prokaryotes possess an alternate to the Krebs cycle that generates more reduced electron.carriers.
5.14
49) In non-cyclic photophosphorylation, excited electrons ultimately
A) return to chlorophyll.
B) are used to form water.
C) combine with hydrogen ions and NADP+ to produce NADPH.
D) flow through ATP synthase.
E) generate light within the spectrum of green wavelengths.
5.7
3.1
5.19
50) Insert non-labeled graph from page 150- replica created and inserted below
The graph shows the normal reaction rate of an enzyme and the reaction rate when a competitive inhibitor is present. Which description below explains the appearance of the graph?
A) As the substrate concentration increases, the activity of the enzyme decreases.
B) As the substrate concentration increases, the effect of the inhibitor was overcome and enzyme activity was restored.
C) As the enzyme concentration increased, the effect of the inhibitor was overcome and enzyme activity was restored.
D) As the enzyme concentration increased, the effect of the inhibitor was more pronounced.
E) As the competitive inhibitor concentration decreased, the reaction rate also decreased.
5.2
Analyzing
7.2a
5.5
3
5.2 True/False Questions
1) Catabolic reactions are generally degradative and hydrolytic.
5.1
5.1
2) The pentose phosphate pathway can be characterized as an anabolic pathway.
5.12
3) In general, ATP is generated in catabolic pathways and expended in anabolic pathways.
5.1
5.2
4) An apoenzyme that loses its coenzyme subunit will be non-functional.
5.2
5.3
5) The use of enzymes is necessary to increase the activation energy requirements of a chemical reaction.
5.2
6) Glycolysis is utilized by cells in both respiration and fermentation.
5.15
7) Carbon fixation occurs during the light-independent phase of photosynthesis.
5.7
5.20
8) Both respiration and photosynthesis require the use of an electron transport chain.
; 5.7
5.21
9) Both respiration and photosynthesis use water molecules for the donation of hydrogen ions.
; 5.7
5.21
10) Once an enzyme has converted substrates into products, the active site reverts back to its original form.
5.2
5.3 Essay Questions
1) Compare and contrast photophosphorylation and oxidative phosphorylation.
; 5.7
Analyzing
a
5.21
8
2) Rhodopseudomonas is an anaerobic photoautotroph that uses organic compounds as an electron donor. It is also capable of chemoheterotrophic metabolism. Diagram the metabolic pathways of this bacterium.
5.9
3.1
5.23
2
3) Differentiate the following two laboratory tests: starch hydrolysis and starch fermentation.
5.6
a; 8.3
5.18
8
4) Streptococcus lacks an electron transport chain. How does this bacterium reoxidize NADH? Where is the NADH formed?
a
5.16
8
5) You look in the refrigerator and find some orange drink you had forgotten was there. The drink now has an "off" taste and bubbles. What is the most likely explanation for the changes in the drink?
a
5.16
8
6) Explain the overall purpose of metabolic pathways.
5.3
a
5.10
8
7) Summarize energy production in cells in a single sentence.
5.8
a
5.22
8
Microbiology: An Introduction, 13e (Tortora et al.)
Chapter 6 Microbial Growth
6.1 Multiple-Choice Questions
Figure 6.1
1) Figure 6.1, which line best depicts a facultative anaerobe in the absence of O2?
A) a
B) b
C) c
6.1
Analyzing
3.3
6.5
3
2) In Figure 6.1, which line best depicts an obligate anaerobe in the presence of O2?
A) a
B) b
C) c
6.1
Analyzing
3.3
6.5
3
3) In Figure 6.1, which line shows the growth of an obligate aerobe incubated anaerobically?
A) a
B) b
C) c
6.1
Analyzing
3.3
6.5
3
4) In Figure 6.1, which line best illustrates the growth of a facultative anaerobe incubated aerobically?
A) a
B) b
C) c
6.1
Analyzing
3.3
6.5
3
5) In Figure 6.1, which line best depicts a psychrotroph incubated at 0°C?
A) a
B) b
C) c
6.1
3.3
6.5
3
6) If cells are grown in media containing amino acids labeled with radioactive nitrogen (15N), most of the radioactivity will be found in the cells'
A) DNA.
B) proteins.
C) phospholipids.
D) DNA and proteins.
E) DNA and phospholipids.
6.1
Analyzing
6.4
2
7) Which of the following elements is NOT correctly matched with its cellular function?
A) nitrogen – needed for amino acid synthesis
B) phosphorus – incorporated into nucleic acids
C) sulfur – used for synthesis of thiamin and biotin
D) magnesium and potassium – required as cofactors for enzymes
E) phosphorus – used for production of carbohydrates.
6.1
6.4
8) Pathogenic bacteria isolated from the respiratory or intestinal tracts of humans are
A) strict aerobes that grow best in candle jars.
B) capnophiles that grow best in carbon dioxide incubators.
C) facultative anaerobes that require reducing media for growth.
D) strict aerobes that grow best in reducing media.
E) capnophiles that prefer highly oxygenated growth conditions.
Analyzing
3.3
6.9
2
9) The biosafety level (BSL) for most introductory microbiology laboratories is
A) BSL-1.
B) BSL-2.
C) BSL-3.
D) BSL-4.
8.6
6.10
10) The biosafety level (BSL) for a clinical microbiology laboratory working with potentially airborne pathogens, such as tuberculosis bacteria, is
A) BSL-1.
B) BSL-2.
C) BSL-3.
D) BSL-4.
8.6
6.10
2
11) A sample of milk is tested for its bacterial content in a plate count assay. A one-milliliter sample of the milk is diluted in a 1:10 dilution series. One milliliter of the third dilution tube is plated in a pour plate. After incubation, the plate has 54 colonies, indicating that the original milk sample contained
A) 54 cells per milliliter.
B) 540 cells per milliliter.
C) 5,400 cells per milliliter.
D) 54,000 cells per milliliter.
E) 540,000 cells per milliliter.
6.6
Analyzing
8.4
6.16
4
12) The addition of which of the following to a culture medium will neutralize acids?
A) buffers
B) sugars
C) pH
D) heat
E) carbon
6.1
8.5
6.2
13) Salts and sugars work to preserve foods by creating a
A) depletion of nutrients.
B) hypotonic environment.
C) lower osmotic pressure.
D) hypertonic environment.
E) lower pH.
6.1
14) The term aerotolerant anaerobe refers to an organism that
A) does not use oxygen but tolerates it.
B) is killed by oxygen.
C) tolerates normal atmospheric nitrogen gas levels.
D) requires less oxygen than is present in air.
E) requires more oxygen than is present in air.
6.1
3.3
6.5
15) Which of the following is an advantage of the standard plate count?
A) can readily count cells that form aggregates
B) determines the number of viable cells
C) can be performed on very dilute samples, such as lake water
D) provides immediate results
E) can be used to count heat-sensitive bacteria
6.6
8.4
6.16
16) Which of the following is an advantage of the direct microscopic count?
A) can readily count organisms that are motile
B) can easily distinguish live from dead cells
C) requires no incubation time
D) sample volume is unknown
E) requires a large number of cells
6.6
8.4
6.16
2
17) Most bacteria reproduce by
A) aerial hyphae.
B) fragmentation.
C) mitosis.
D) binary fission.
E) budding.
6.6
6.14
18) Thirty-six colonies grew in nutrient agar from 1.0 ml of undiluted sample in a standard plate count. How many viable and culturable cells were in the original sample?
A) 4 per milliliter
B) 9 per milliliter
C) 18 per milliliter
D) 36 per milliliter
E) 72 per milliliter
6.6
8.4
6.16
4
Figure 6.2
19) Figure 6.2 shows a typical bacterial growth curve with the y-axis indicating the log of the number of bacteria and the x-axis indicating time in culture. In the figure, which section (or sections) shows a growth phase where the number of cells dying equals the number of cells dividing?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) a and c
6.6
7.2a
6.15
3
20) Figure 6.2 shows a typical bacterial growth curve with the y-axis indicating the log of the number of bacteria and the x-axis indicating time in culture. In the figure, which sections of the graph illustrate a logarithmic change in cell numbers?
A) a and c
B) b and d
C) a and b
D) c and d
E) a and d
6.6
Analyzing
7.2a
6.15
3
21) Most bacteria grow best at pH
A) 1.
B) 5.
C) 7.
D) 9.
E) 14.
6.1
3.3
6.2
22) Most fungi grow best at pH
A) 1.
B) 5.
C) 7.
D) 9.
E) 14.
6.1
3.3
6.2
23) Consider a culture medium on which only gram-positive organisms such as Staphylococcus aureus colonies can grow due to an elevated NaCl level. A yellow halo surrounds the growth, indicating the bacterium fermented a sugar in the medium, decreasing the pH as a result and changing the color of a pH indicator chemical. This type of medium would be referred to as a(n)
A) selective medium.
B) differential medium.
C) enrichment culture.
D) selective and differential medium.
E) differential and enrichment culture.
8.3
6.9
24) A culture medium consisting of agar, peptone, and beef heart is a
A) chemically defined medium.
B) complex medium.
C) selective medium.
D) differential medium.
E) reducing medium.
8.2
6.8
25) Which of the following pairs of microbe classification terms and optimal growth temperatures is mismatched?
A) psychrotroph – growth at 20-30°C
B) thermophile – growth at 37°C
C) mesophile – growth at 25-40°C
D) psychrophile – growth at 15°C
E) hyperthermophiles – growth at greater than 80°C
6.1
3.3
6.1
26) During which growth phase will gram-positive bacteria be most susceptible to penicillin?
A) lag phase
B) log phase
C) death phase
D) stationary phase
E) The culture is equally susceptible during all phases.
6.6
Analyzing
3.4
6.15
2
27) Which of the following is the best definition of generation time?
A) the length of time needed for lag phase
B) the length of time needed for a cell to divide
C) the minimum rate of doubling
D) the duration of log phase
E) the time needed for nuclear division
6.6
6.14
28) Which of the following is NOT a direct method to measure microbial growth?
A) direct microscopic count
B) standard plate count
C) filtration on a support membrane followed by incubation on medium
D) metabolic activity
E) most probable number (MPN)
6.6
8.4
6.17
2
29) Which group of microorganisms is most likely to spoil a freshwater trout preserved with salt?
A) psychrophiles
B) facultative halophiles
C) anaerobes
D) thermophiles
E) hyperthermophiles
6.1
Analyzing
3.3
2
30) Which of the following is an organic growth factor?
A) glucose
B) vitamin B1
C) peptone
D) Mg+2
E) H2O
6.1
6.4
2
31) Which of the following is an example of a metabolic activity that could be used to measure microbial growth?
A) standard plate count
B) glucose consumption
C) direct microscopic count
D) turbidity
E) most probable number (MPN)
6.6
8.4
6.18
2
32) An experiment began with 4 cells in log phase and ended with 128 cells. How many generations did the cells go through?
A) 64
B) 32
C) 6
D) 5
E) 4
6.6
Analyzing
7.2
6.15
4
33) Three cells with generation times of 60 minutes are inoculated into a culture medium. Assuming no lag phase takes place, how many cells are there after 5 hours?
A) 900
B) 180
C) 96
D) 32
E) 15
6.6
Analyzing
7.2
6.15
4
Figure
34) In Figure , which tube shows the expected growth pattern for a microaerophile?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e
6.1
Analyzing
3.3
6.5
3
35) In Figure , which tube shows the expected growth pattern for a facultative anaerobe?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e
6.1
3.3
6.5
3
36) In one hospital, Pseudomonas aeruginosa serotype 10 infected the biliary tract of 10 percent of 1300 patients who underwent gastrointestinal endoscopic procedures. After each use, endoscopes were washed with an automatic reprocessor that flushed detergent and glutaraldehyde through the endoscopes, followed by a tap water rinse. P. aeruginosa serotype 10 was not isolated from the detergent, glutaraldehyde, or tap water. What was the source of the infections?
A) bacterial cell walls in the water
B) a biofilm in the reprocessor
C) contaminated disinfectant
D) fecal contamination of the bile ducts
E) None of the answers is correct.
6.2
Analyzing
5.2
6.7
2
Table 6.1
Three different culture media are shown below.
Medium A Medium B Medium C
Na2HPO4 Yeast extract Glucose
KH2PO4 Beef extract Peptone
MgSO4 KH2PO4 (NH4)2SO4
CaCl2 MgSO4 KH2PO2
NaHCO3 (NH4)2SO4 Na2HPO4
37) For the three types of media in Table 6.1, which medium (or media) is/are chemically defined?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) A and B
E) A and C
Analyzing
6.8
3
38) In Table, 6.1, in which medium (or media) would an autotroph grow but a heterotroph could not?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) A and B
E) A and C
Analyzing
3.3
6.8
3
39) Assume you inoculated 100 cells, with a generation time of 20 minutes, into 100 ml of nutrient broth. You then inoculated 100 cells of the same species into 200 ml of nutrient broth. After incubation for 3 hours, you can reasonably expect to have
A) more cells in the 100 ml.
B) more cells in the 200 ml.
C) the same number of cells in both.
D) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
6.6
Analyzing
7.2
6.15
2
40) The source of nutrients in nutrient agar is
A) agar.
B) gelatin.
C) peptone and beef extract.
D) peptone and NaCl.
E) agar and NaCl.
6.8
2
41) Which enzyme catalyzes the reaction: O2- + O2- + 2H+ → H2O2 + O2?
A) catalase
B) oxidase
C) peroxidase
D) superoxide dismutase
6.1
6.6
42) Which enzyme catalyzes the following reaction? 2H2O2 → 2H2O + O2
A) catalase
B) oxidase
C) peroxidase
D) superoxide dismutase
6.1
6.6
43) Which enzyme catalyzes the reaction: H2O2 + 2H+ → 2H2O?
A) catalase
B) oxidase
C) peroxidase
D) superoxide dismutase
6.1
6.6
44) Table 6.2
The following data show growth of two bacteria on different media.
The data in Table 6.2 indicate that S. aureus is a(n)
A) mesophile.
B) facultative anaerobe.
C) facultative halophile.
D) aerobe.
E) halophile.
6.1
Analyzing
3.3
3
45) Patients with indwelling catheters (long-term tubes inserted into body orifices for drainage, such as through the urethra and into the urinary bladder) are susceptible to infections because
A) injected solutions are contaminated.
B) their immune systems are weakened.
C) infections can be transmitted from other people.
D) biofilms develop on catheters.
E) bacteria cause infections.
6.2
5.2
6.7
2
46) A sample of well water is tested for its bacterial content in a plate count assay. A one-milliliter sample of the water is diluted in a 1:10 dilution series. One milliliter of the fourth dilution tube is plated in a pour plate. After incubation, the plate has 83 colonies, indicating that the original water sample contained
A) 83 cells per milliliter.
B) 830 cells per milliliter.
C) 8,300 cells per milliliter.
D) 83,000 cells per milliliter.
E) 830,000 cells per milliliter.
6.6
Analyzing
8.4
6.16
4
47) A sample of ocean water is tested for its bacterial content in a plate count assay. A one-milliliter sample of the water is diluted in a 1:10 dilution series. 0.1 milliliter of the second dilution tube is plated in a pour plate. After incubation, the plate has 191 colonies, indicating that the original water sample contained
A) 191 cells per milliliter.
B) 1,910 cells per milliliter.
C) 19,100 cells per milliliter.
D) 191,000 cells per milliliter.
E) 1,910,000 cells per milliliter.
6.6
Analyzing
8.4
6.16
4
48) A sample of raw, unpasteurized milk is tested for its bacterial content in a plate count assay. A one-milliliter sample of the milk is diluted in a 1:10 dilution series. One milliliter of the third dilution tube is plated in a pour plate. After incubation, the plate has approximately 500 colonies, indicating that the original milk sample contained
A) 500 cells per milliliter.
B) 5,000 cells per milliliter.
C) 50,000 cells per milliliter.
D) 500,000 cells per milliliter.
E) The answer cannot be determined reliably with the information given.
6.6
Analyzing
8.4
6.16
4
49) The U.S. Food and Drug Administration convention when performing pour or spread plate counts is to count only plates with ________ colonies.
A) 1 to 10
B) 50 to 100
C) 500 or more
D) 25 to 250
E) 30 to 300
6.6
8.4
6.16
50) The ________ method is used to indirectly measure microbial growth of filamentous bacteria and molds.
A) metabolic activity
B) dry weight
C) pour plate
D) spread plate
E) turbidity measurement
6.6
8.4
6.18
6.2 True/False Questions
1) An isolated colony on a streak plate contains millions (or even billions) of identical cells all arising from one initial cell.
6.4
8.2
6.12
2) Bacterial growth refers to an increase in the numbers of cells in a bacterial culture.
6.6
6.14
3) Pure cultures can easily be obtained on streak plates, even if the desired bacteria are present in very low concentrations in the initial culture broth.
6.4
8.2
6.12
2
4) Gelatin is used as a solidifying agent in microbiological media since few bacteria can degrade it.
6.8
5) When cultivating anaerobic organisms in the laboratory setting, a candle jar is sufficient for the vast majority of organisms.
3.3
6.9
6) Most pathogenic bacteria are thermophiles.
6.1
3.3
6.1
2
7) In performing a ten-fold dilutions series from a sample containing 10,000 bacteria per milliliter, the fourth tube in the dilution series will have 10 cells per milliliter.
6.6
Analyzing
7.2
6.16
4
8) In measuring turbidity of a culture in indirect measurement of bacterial growth, absorbance and transmittance are identical and interchangeable values.
6.6
8.4
6.18
9) Filtration methods, followed by growth of the bacteria trapped on the filters in growth media, are used to count bacteria present in very low concentrations, such as in lakes and streams.
6.6
8.4
6.16
10) Nitrogen-fixing bacteria, such as cyanobacteria, can use atmospheric nitrogen (N2) for their nitrogen source.
6.1
3.1
6.4
Essay Questions
1) A patient with a heart pacemaker received antibiotic therapy for streptococcal bacteremia (bacteria in the blood). One month later, he was treated for recurrence of the bacteremia. When he returned six weeks later, again with bacteremia, the physician recommended replacing the pacemaker. Why did this cure his condition?
6.2
5.2
6.7
8
2) Table
Bacterial generation times for four different bacterial species were calculated in the media listed in Table . All media were prepared with pure distilled water and incubated aerobically in the light. Compare and contrast the growth requirements of the four bacteria listed above. Which of the media, if any, are chemically defined?
6.8
3
3) An extreme-weather event has knocked out power in your community. Even with rebuilding efforts, it appears that it could be 6 months or longer before power is restored. Since you have a background in microbiology, the people you know are asking you for possible ways of storing/preserving their food safely without electricity. What advice can you give them, and why would you make those recommendations?
6.1
Creating
6.5
5
4) You are tasked with attempting to culture microbes in the lab that were initially obtained from samples taken in and near the Arctic circle, in areas of extreme cold and either very long or very short days, depending on the time of year. How would you begin to try to grow these microbes in the lab, and why would you choose those methods?
Creating
3.3
6.9
8
5) As part of an experiment where absorbance values are measured using a spectrophotometer, you are taking readings of your sample every 20 minutes. The non-motile microbe you're testing has a generation time of roughly 20 minutes at an incubation temperature right around room temperature. Things start out fine, with the expected results — as time goes by at the correct incubation temperature, absorbance starts to rise as the medium starts to become more cloudy with growing microorganisms. But roughly 2 hours into the process, you notice that the absorbance levels flatten out, and then start to decrease unexpectedly. What is most likely taking place in your experiment?
6.6
8.4
6.18
8
Microbiology: An Introduction, 13e (Tortora et al.)
Chapter 7 The Control of Microbial Growth
7.1 Multiple-Choice Questions
1) Which of the following is the best method to sterilize heat-labile solutions?
A) dry heat
B) autoclave
C) membrane filtration
D) pasteurization
E) freezing
7.
3.4
7.5
2) Which of the following best describes the pattern of microbial death?
A) The cells in a population die at a constant rate.
B) All the cells in a culture die at once.
C) Not all of the cells in a culture are killed.
D) The pattern varies depending on the antimicrobial agent.
E) The pattern varies depending on the species.
7.2
3.4
7.2
3) Which of the following chemical agents is used for sterilization?
A) alcohol
B) phenolics
C) ethylene oxide
D) chlorine
E) soap
7.5
3.4
7.9
4) Which of the following substances is used for surgical hand scrubs?
A) phenol
B) chlorine bleach
C) chlorhexidine
D) soap
E) glutaraldehyde
7.5
3.4
7.9
5) Which of the following pairs of terms is mismatched?
A) bacteriostatic – kills vegetative bacterial cells
B) germicide – kills microbes
C) virucide – inactivates viruses
D) sterilant – destroys all living microorganisms
E) fungicide – kills yeasts and molds
7.1
3.4
7.1
6) The most effective form of chlorine is which of the following?
A) hypochlorous acid
B) hydrochloric acid
C) ozone
D) hypochlorite ion
E) chloromine
7.5
3.4
7.10
7) Which of the following regarding antimicrobial control agents is FALSE?
A) Contaminating organic debris such as blood or sputum decrease effectiveness.
B) Some agents kill by denaturing microbial cell proteins.
C) Some agents affect microbial cell membranes by dissolving lipids.
D) Silver-impregnated dressings are used for treating antibiotic-resistant bacteria.
E) Alcohols effectively inactivate nonenveloped viruses by attacking lipids.
7.5
3.4
7.9
8) Which of the following does NOT achieve sterilization?
A) dry heat
B) pasteurization
C) autoclave
D) supercritical fluids
E) ethylene oxide
7.4
3.4
7.4
9) Which of the following is a limitation of the autoclave?
A) It requires an excessively long time to achieve sterilization.
B) It cannot inactivate viruses.
C) It cannot kill endospores.
D) It cannot be used with heat-labile materials.
E) It cannot be used with glassware.
7.4
3.4
7.4
10) An agent used to reduce the number of bacteria on a toilet would most accurately be called a(n)
A) disinfectant.
B) antiseptic.
C) aseptic.
D) fungicide.
E) virucide.
7.1
3.4
7.1
11) Application of heat to living cells can result in all of the following EXCEPT
A) breaking of hydrogen bonds.
B) alteration of membrane permeability.
C) denaturation of enzymes.
D) decreased thermal death time.
E) damage to nucleic acids.
7.2
3.4
7.2
12) Which of the following disinfectants acts by disrupting the plasma membrane?
A) soaps
B) aldehydes
C) bisphenols
D) halogens
E) heavy metals
7.5
3.4
7.9
13) Oxidizing agents include all of the following EXCEPT
A) chlorine.
B) glutaraldehyde.
C) hydrogen peroxide.
D) iodine.
E) ozone.
7.5
3.4
7.9
14) Disinfection of water is achieved by all of the following EXCEPT
A) ozone.
B) UV radiation.
C) chlorine.
D) copper sulfate.
E) peracetic acid.
7.5
3.4
7.9
5
15) All of the following substances are effective against nonenveloped viruses EXCEPT
A) alcohol.
B) chlorine.
C) ethylene oxide.
D) ozone.
E) None of the answers is correct; all of these are equally effective against nonenveloped viruses.
7.5
3.4
7.9
16) Which of the following methods is used to preserve food by slowing the metabolic processes of foodborne microbes?
A) lyophilization
B) nonionizing radiation
C) freezing
D) ionizing radiation
E) pasteurization
7.
3.4
7.5
5
17) Which concentration of ethanol is the most effective bactericide?
A) 100 percent
B) 70 percent
C) 50 percent
D) 40 percent
E) 30 percent
7.5
3.4
7.9
18) All of the following factors contribute to hospital-acquired infections EXCEPT
A) some bacteria metabolize disinfectants.
B) gram-negative bacteria are often resistant to disinfectants.
C) invasive procedures can provide a portal of entry for bacteria.
D) bacteria may be present in commercial products such as mouthwash.
E) None of the answers is correct; all of these factors may contribute to hospital-acquired infection.
7.6
7.14
7
19) Which of the following treatments is the most effective for controlling microbial growth?
A) 63°C for 30 minutes
B) 72°C for 15 seconds
C) 140°C for 4 seconds
D) They are equivalent treatments.
E) None of the answers is correct.
7.
3.4
7.4
20) Which of the following could be used to sterilize plastic Petri plates in a plastic wrapper?
A) autoclave
B) gamma radiation
C) microwaves
D) sunlight
E) ultraviolet radiation
7.4
3.4
7.6
21) Which of the following regarding antimicrobial control agents is FALSE?
A) Contaminating organic debris such as blood or sputum will decrease effectiveness.
B) Some agents kill by denaturing microbial cell proteins.
C) Some agents affect microbial cell membranes by dissolving lipids.
D) Some agents are utilized as both an antiseptic and a disinfectant.
E) Most chemical agents can achieve sterility.
3.4
Figure 7.1
A suspension of 106 Bacillus cereus endospores was put in a hot-air oven at 170°C. Plate counts were used to determine the number of endospores surviving at the time intervals shown.
22) In Figure 7.1, what is the thermal death time?
A) 150°C
B) 60 minutes
C) 120 minutes
D) 100°C
E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
7.2
Analyzing
7.2a
7.2
3
23) In Figure 7.1, the thermal death point for this culture is
A) 15 minutes.
B) 50°C.
C) 30 minutes.
D) 170°C.
E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided
7.2
Analyzing
7.2a
7.2
3
24) In Figure 7.1, the decimal reduction time (D value) for the culture, which is defined as the time to reduce a population by one log, is approximately
A) 0 minutes.
B) 10 minutes.
C) 30 minutes.
D) 40 minutes.
E) 60 minutes.
7.2
Analyzing
7.2a
7.2
3
25) Which of the following results in lethal damage to nucleic acids?
A) heat
B) radiation
C) certain chemicals
D) heat and radiation
E) heat, radiation, and some chemicals
7.4; 7.5
3.4
7.6, 7.9
26) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) Ag – wound dressings
B) biguanide – sporocide
C) CuSO4 – algicide
D) H2O2 – open wounds
E) organic acids – food preservation
7.5
3.4
7.9
Figure 7.2
Assume 109 E. coli cells/ml are in a flask.
27) Which graph in Figure 7.2 best depicts the effect of placing the culture in an autoclave for 15 minutes at time x?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e
7.4
Analyzing
3.4; 7.2a
7.4
3
28) Which graph in Figure 7.2 best depicts the effect of placing the culture at 7°C at
time x?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e
7.4
Analyzing
3.4, 7.2a
7.5
3
Table 7.1
A disk-diffusion test using Staphylococcus gave the following results:
Disinfectant Zone of inhibition (mm)
A 0
B 2.5
C 10
D 5
29) In Table 7.1, which compound was the most effective against Staphylococcus?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
7.5
Analyzing
7.1b
7.8
3
30) In Table 7.1, which compound was the most effective against E. coli?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
7.5
Analyzing
7.1b
7.8
3
31) In Table 7.1, which compound was bactericidal?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
7.5
Analyzing
7.1b
7.8
3
32) Table 7.2
The fate of E. coli O157:H7 in apple cider held at 8°C for 2 weeks, with and without preservatives, is shown below:
Bacteria/ml
Cider only 2.2
Cider with potassium sorbate 2.0
Cider with sodium benzoate 0.5
Cider with potassium sorbate + sodium benzoate 0
In Table 7.2, which preservative is most effective?
A) potassium sorbate
B) sodium benzoate
C) potassium sorbate + sodium benzoate
D) no preservative
7.5
Analyzing
7.1b
7.9
3
33) An iodophor is a(n)
A) phenol.
B) agent that reduces oxygen.
C) quaternary ammonium compound.
D) form of formaldehyde.
E) iodine mixed with a surfactant.
7.5
3.4
7.10
34) Ethylene oxide
A) is a good antiseptic.
B) is not sporicidal.
C) requires high heat to be effective.
D) is a sterilizing agent.
E) is the active chemical in household bleach.
7.5
3.4
7.13
35) All of the following substances are used to preserve foods EXCEPT
A) biguanides.
B) nisin.
C) potassium sorbate.
D) sodium nitrite.
E) calcium propionate.
7.5
3.4
7.9
Table
The following data were obtained by incubating gram-positive bacteria in nutrient medium + disinfectant for 24 hours, then transferring one loopful to nutrient medium (subculturing). (+ = growth; - = no growth)
36) In Table , which disinfectant is the most effective at stopping bacterial growth?
A) Doom
B) K.O.
C) Mortum
D) Sterl
E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
7.5
Analyzing
3.4; 7.1b
7.8
3
37) In Table , which disinfectant was bactericidal?
A) Doom
B) K.O.
C) Mortum
D) Sterl
E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
7.5
Analyzing
3.4; 7.1b
7.8
3
38) In Table , which disinfectant was most effective against Salmonella?
A) Doom
B) K.O.
C) Mortum
D) Sterl
E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
7.5
Analyzing
3.4; 7.1b
7.8
3
39) All of the following are effective for destroying prions EXCEPT
A) boiling.
B) incineration.
C) NaOH + autoclaving at 134°C.
D) proteases.
E) None of the answers are correct; each of these will destroy prions.
7.6
3.4
7.14
40) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) ionizing radiation – hydroxyl radicals
B) ozone – takes electrons from substances
C) plasma sterilization – free radicals
D) supercritical fluids – CO2
E) ultraviolet radiation – desiccation
7.4
3.4
7.6
41) All of the following are methods of food preservation EXCEPT
A) desiccation.
B) high pressure.
C) ionizing radiation.
D) microwaves.
E) osmotic pressure.
7.4
3.4
7.5
42) The preservation of beef jerky from microbial growth relies on which method of microbial control?
A) filtration
B) lyophilization
C) desiccation
D) ionizing radiation
E) supercritical CO2
7.4
3.4
7.5
43) If you were preparing nutrient agar at home and did not have an autoclave, what could you use to sterilize the nutrient agar?
A) bleach
B) boiling for one hour
C) hydrogen peroxide
D) oven at 121°C for one hour
E) pressure cooker at 121°C for 15 minutes
7.4
3.4
7.4
44) Bone and tendons for transplant are decontaminated by
A) ethylene oxide.
B) glutaraldehyde.
C) peroxygens.
D) plasma sterilization.
E) supercritical fluids.
7.5
3.4
7.9
45) Which one of the following is known to be most resistant to quaternary ammonium compounds?
A) gram positive bacteria
B) members of the genus Pseudomonas
C) members of the genus Staphylococcus
D) fungi
E) enveloped viruses
7.6
3.4
7.14
46) One advantage of chemical plasma is that it ________ but a disadvantage is ________.
A) can be used to sterilize intricate surgical instruments such as a laproscope; cost
B) cost; difficulty of implementing the procedure
C) can be used for intricate surgical instruments; cannot be used on plastics
D) can be used on many materials; the need for high temperature is damaging to some equipment
E) destroys spores; cannot be used on plastics
7.5
3.4
7.13
47) The most resistant of the bacterial endospores can withstand boiling for up to
A) 10 min.
B) 30 min.
C) 1 hour.
D) 5 hours.
E) 20 hours.
7.4
3.4
7-4
48) HEPA filters are effective because they are designed to remove all airborne particulates, including microorganisms down to
A) 0.01 micrometers.
B) 0.3 micrometers.
C) 1 micrometer.
D) 10 micrometers.
E) 10 nanometers.
7.4
3.4
7.5
49) A kitchen countertop has a spill of vegetable oil that was wiped up but a film remains. What should be the next step in disinfecting this surface?
A) 10% bleach
B) spray a disinfectant that contains a heavy metal
C) warm soapy scrub
D) isopropanol
E) chlorhexidine containing solution
7.5
3.4
7.11
50) Which chemical disinfectant can be considered a sterilizing liquid agent when appropriately applied?
A) quaternary ammonium compounds
B) 70% ethanol
C) sodium benzoate
D) gluteraldehyde
E) ethylene oxide
7.5
3.4
7.12
7.2 True/False Questions
1) Any process that destroys the non-spore forming contaminants on inanimate objects is sterilization.
7.1
3.4
7.1
2) Desiccation is a reliable form of sterilization.
7.4
3.4
7.5
3) The thermal death time is the time needed to kill all the bacteria in a particular culture at a certain temperature.
7.2
3.4
7.2
4) Pseudomonas has been found growing in quaternary ammonium compounds (quats).
7.5
3.3
7.7
5) Moist heat destroys organisms by denaturing proteins.
7.4
3.4
7.4
6) Some antimicrobial chemicals are considered to be disinfectants and antiseptics.
7.5
3.4
7.10
7) The pH of the medium has no effect on the activity of the disinfectant being applied.
7.5
3.4
7.7
8) Ultraviolet light (UV) causes irreversible breaks in DNA strands.
7.4
3.4
7.6
9) Autoclaving is the most effective method of moist heat sterilization.
7.4
3.4
7.4
10) Microorganisms placed in high concentrations of salts and sugars undergo lysis.
7.4
3.4
7.5
Essay Questions
1) Table 7.4
The results below were obtained from a use-dilution test of two disinfectants. Cultures were inoculated into tubes with varying concentrations of disinfectants and incubated for 24 hours at 20°C, then subcultured in nutrient media without disinfectants.
(+ = growth; - = no growth)
In Table 7.4, what is the minimal bacteriostatic concentration of each disinfectant? Which compound is bactericidal? At what concentration?
7.5
Analyzing
a
7.8
3
2) Assume that you are responsible for decontaminating materials in a large hospital. How would you sterilize each of the following? Briefly justify your answers.
a. a mattress used by a patient with bubonic plague
b. intravenous glucose-saline solutions
c. used disposable syringes
d. tissues taken from patients
7.4; 7.5
Analyzing
a
7.7
8
3) Table 7.5
The following results were obtained from a use-dilution test of two disinfectants. Cultures were inoculated into tubes containing varying concentrations of the disinfectants, incubated for 10 min. at 20°C, and then transferred to growth media without disinfectant.
(+ = growth; - = no growth)
In Table 7.5, which disinfectant is most effective? Against which group of bacteria is Disinfectant A most effective?
7.5
Analyzing
a
7.8
3
4) How is hydrogen peroxide antimicrobial?
7.5
3.4
7.9
8
5) Why must most milk sold in the U.S. be refrigerated at all times while evaporated canned milk and milk in cardboard containers sold in Europe do not need to be refrigerated until they are opened?
7.4
3.4
7.4
8
6) What are the advantages of gluteraldehyde compared to formaldehyde?
7.5
Analyzing
3.4
7.12
8
7) List the microbial targets of disinfecting chemicals and provide one example of a chemical agent that affects that structure.
Analyzing
3.4; a
8
8) Explain the set up and expected results of a use-dilution test for an endospore-producing Clostridium and a solution of chlorhexidine.
7.5
Analyzing
3.4
7.8
8
Microbiology: An Introduction, 13e (Tortora et al.)
Chapter 8 Microbial Genetics
8.1 Multiple-Choice Questions
1) A gene is defined as
A) any random segment of DNA.
B) three nucleotides that code for an amino acid.
C) a sequence of nucleotides in DNA that codes for a functional product.
D) a sequence of nucleotides in RNA that codes for a functional product.
E) the RNA product of a transcribed section of DNA.
8.1
8.1
2) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) DNA polymerase – makes a molecule of DNA from a DNA template
B) RNA polymerase – makes a molecule of RNA from an RNA template
C) DNA ligase – joins segments of DNA
D) transposase – cuts DNA backbone, leaving "sticky ends"
E) DNA gyrase – relaxes supercoiling in DNA ahead of the replication fork
8.1
8.3
3) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) DNA polymerase joins nucleotides in one direction (5' to 3') only.
B) The leading strand of DNA is made continuously.
C) The lagging strand of DNA is started by an RNA primer.
D) DNA replication proceeds in only one direction around the bacterial chromosome.
E) Multiple replication forks are possible on a bacterial chromosome.
8.1
8.3
2
4) DNA is constructed of
A) a single strand of nucleotides with internal hydrogen bonding.
B) two complementary strands of nucleotides bonded A–C and G–T.
C) two strands of nucleotides running in an antiparallel configuration.
D) two strands of identical nucleotides in a parallel configuration with hydrogen bonds between them.
E) None of the answers is correct.
8.1
8.2
2
5) Which of the following is NOT a product of transcription?
A) a new strand of DNA
B) rRNA
C) tRNA
D) mRNA
8.1
8.4
6) Which of the following statements about bacteriocins is FALSE?
A) The genes coding for them are on plasmids.
B) They cause food-poisoning symptoms.
C) They can be used to identify certain bacteria.
D) Bacteriocins kill bacteria.
8.4
8.16
7
7) Figure 8.1
In Figure 8.1, which colonies are streptomycin-resistant and leucine-requiring?
A) 1, 2, 3, and 9
B) 3 and 9
C) 4, 6, and 8
D) 4 and 8
E) 5 and 6
8.3
Analyzing
4.1
8.12
2
Table 8.1
Culture 1: F+, leucine+, histidine+
Culture 2: F-, leucine-, histidine-
8) In Table 8.1, what will be the result of conjugation between cultures 1 and 2 (reminder: F+ has a different meaning than Hfr)?
A) 1 will remain the same;
2 will become F+, leucine-, histidine-
B) 1 will become F-, leu+, his+;
2 will become F+, leu-, his-
C) 1 will become F-, leu-, his-;
2 will remain the same
D) 1 will remain the same;
2 will become F+, leu+, his+
E) 1 will remain the same;
2 will become F+ and recombination may occur
8.4
Analyzing
4.1
8.15
2
9) In Table 8.1, if culture 1 mutates to Hfr, what will be the result of conjugation between the two cultures?
A) They will both remain the same.
B) 1 will become F+, leu+, his+;
2 will become F+, leu+, his+
C) 1 will remain the same;
recombination may occur in 2
D) 1 will become F-, leu+, his+;
2 will become Hfr, leu+, his+
E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
8.4
Analyzing
4.1
8.15
2
10) An enzyme produced in response to the presence of a substrate is called a(n)
A) inducible enzyme.
B) repressible enzyme.
C) restriction enzyme.
D) operator.
E) promoter.
8.2
4.3
8.7
11) Transformation is the transfer of DNA from a donor to a recipient cell
A) by a bacteriophage.
B) as naked DNA in solution.
C) by cell-to-cell contact.
D) by crossing over.
E) by sexual reproduction.
8.4
4.1
8.15
12) Genetic change in bacteria can be brought about by
A) mutation.
B) conjugation.
C) transduction.
D) transformation.
E) All of the answers are correct.
8.4
4.1
8.15
13) Which of the following statements regarding a bacterium that is R+ is FALSE?
A) It possesses a plasmid.
B) R+ can be transferred to a cell of the same species.
C) It is resistant to certain drugs and heavy metals.
D) It is F+.
E) R+ can be transferred to a different species.
8.4
4.1
8.16
14) The initial/first effect of ionizing radiation on a cell is that it causes
A) DNA to break.
B) bonding between adjacent thymines.
C) base substitutions.
D) the formation of highly reactive ions.
E) the cells to get hot.
8.3
8.9
15) According to the operon model, for the synthesis of an inducible enzyme to occur, the
A) end-product must not be in excess.
B) substrate must bind to the enzyme.
C) substrate must bind to the repressor.
D) repressor must bind to the operator.
E) repressor must not be synthesized.
8.2
4.3
8.7
2
16) Synthesis of a repressible enzyme is stopped by the
A) allosteric transition.
B) substrate binding to the repressor.
C) corepressor binding to the operator.
D) corepressor-repressor complex binding to the operator.
E) end product binding to the promoter.
8.2
4.3
8.7
2
Figure 8.2
17) In Figure 8.2, if base 4 is adenine, what is base 4'?
A) adenine
B) thymine
C) cytosine
D) guanine
E) uracil
8.1
Analyzing
8.3
2
18) In Figure 8.2, if base 4 is adenine, what is base 11' (remember the complimentary configuration of bases in DNA)?
A) adenine
B) thymine
C) cytosine
D) guanine
E) uracil
8.1
Analyzing
8.3
2
19) In Figure 8.2, base 5 (and ONLY the base) is covalently bound/attached to
A) ribose.
B) phosphate.
C) deoxyribose.
D) thymine.
E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
8.1
8.3
20) The DNA damage caused by ultraviolet radiation is
A) never repaired.
B) repaired during transcription.
C) repaired during translation.
D) cut out and replaced.
E) repaired by DNA replication.
8.3
8.10
Table 8.2
Codons in mRNA molecule and their corresponding amino acids
UUU Phenylalanine UAU tyrosine
UUA leucine UAA nonsense
GCA alanine AAU asparagine
AAG lysine UGC cysteine
GUU valine UCG, UCU serine
21) Refer to Table 8.2. If the sequence of amino acids encoded by a strand of DNA is serine-alanine-lysine-leucine, what is the order of bases in the sense strand of DNA?
A) 3' UGUGCAAAGUUA 5'
B) 3' AGACGTTTCAAT 5'
C) 3' TCTCGTTTGTTA 5'
D) 5' TGTGCTTTCTTA 3'
E) 5' AGAGCTTTGAAT 3'
8.1
Analyzing
8.4
2
22) Refer to Table 8.2. If the sequence of amino acids encoded by a strand of DNA is serine-alanine-lysine-leucine, the coding for the antisense strand of DNA is
A) 5' ACAGTTTCAAT 3'.
B) 5' TCTGCAAAGTTA 3'.
C) 3' UGUGCAAAGUUA 5'.
D) 3' UCUCGAAAGUUA 5'.
E) 3' TCACGUUUCAAU 5'.
8.1
Analyzing
8.4
2
23) Refer to Table 8.2 The anticodon for valine is
A) GUU.
B) CUU.
C) CTT.
D) CAA.
E) GTA.
8.1
8.4
2
24) Refer to Table 8.2. Identify the sequence of amino acids encoded by the following sequence of bases in a strand of DNA (pay attention to the polarity of the DNA here):
3' ATTACGCTTTGC 5'.
A) leucine-arginine-lysine-alanine
B) asparagine-arginine-lysine-alanine
C) asparagine-cysteine-valine-serine
D) Translation would stop at the first codon.
E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
8.1
Analyzing
8.4
2
25) Refer to Table 8.2. If an indeterminate frameshift mutation occurred (that is, one at a random location) in the sequence of bases shown below, what would be the sequence of amino acids coded for?
3' ATTACGCTTTGC
A) leucine-arginine-lysine-alanine
B) asparagine-arginine-lysine-alanine
C) asparagine-cysteine-valine-serine
D) Translation would stop at the first codon.
E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
8.3
8.9
2
26) Refer to Table 8.2. When amino acid sequences from a cell cycle control protein from a patient with cancer and a healthy person are aligned, the sequence from the cancer patient indicates one amino acid has changed from phenylalanine (Phe) to leucine (Leu). A mutation in the cancer patient's DNA must have taken place. Identify the result of this DNA change in the mRNA codon that led to this change in the protein sequence.
A) UUU altered to UCU
B) UUU altered to UAU
C) UCU altered to UUA
D) CAA altered to UUU
E) UUU altered to UUA
8.1
8.4
Figure 8.3 - Metabolic Pathway
27) In Figure 8.3, if compound C reacts with the allosteric site of enzyme A, this would exemplify
A) a mutation.
B) repression.
C) feedback inhibition.
D) competitive inhibition.
E) transcription.
8.2
4.3
8.8
2
28) In Figure 8.3, if enzyme A is a repressible enzyme, compound C would
A) always be in excess.
B) bind to Enzyme A.
C) bind to the corepressor for Gene a.
D) bind to RNA polymerase.
E) bind directly to gene a.
8.2
4.3
8.7
2
29) In Figure 8.3, if enzyme A is an inducible enzyme,
A) compound C would bind to the repressor for Gene a.
B) compound A would bind to the repressor for Gene a.
C) compound B would bind to enzyme A directly.
D) compound A would react with enzyme B directly.
E) compound C would react with gene a directly.
8.2
4.3
8.7
2
30) Conjugation differs from reproduction because conjugation
A) replicates DNA.
B) transfers DNA vertically, to new cells.
C) transfers DNA horizontally, to nearby cells without those cells undergoing replication.
D) transcribes DNA to RNA.
E) copies RNA to make DNA.
8.4
4.1
8.15
31) The necessary ingredients for DNA synthesis can be mixed together in a test tube. The DNA polymerase is from Thermus aquaticus, and the template is from a human cell. The DNA synthesized would be most similar to
A) human DNA.
B) T. aquaticus DNA.
C) a mixture of human and T. aquaticus DNA.
D) human RNA.
E) T. aquaticus RNA.
8.1
8.3
7
32) Table 8.3
Based on the information in Table 8.3, prostate cancer is probably the result of which kind of mutation?
A) analog
B) frameshift
C) missense
D) nonsense
E) None of the answers is correct.
8.3
Analyzing
8.9
7
33) Figure 8.4
In Figure 8.4, the antibiotic chloramphenicol binds the 50S large subunit of a ribosome as shown (the light gray area is the large subunit, while the black shape is the drug). From this information you can conclude that chloramphenicol
A) prevents transcription in eukaryotes.
B) prevents translation in eukaryotes.
C) prevents transcription in prokaryotes.
D) prevents translation in prokaryotes.
E) prevents mRNA-ribosome binding.
8.1
Analyzing
4.2
8.5
7
34) The mechanism by which the presence of glucose inhibits the lac operon is
A) catabolite repression.
B) translation.
C) DNA polymerase.
D) repression.
E) induction.
8.2
4.3
8.7
35) If you knew the sequence of nucleotides within a gene, which one of the following could you determine with the most accuracy?
A) the primary structure of the protein
B) the secondary structure of the protein
C) the tertiary structure of the protein
D) the quaternary structure of the protein
E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
8.1
8.4
2
36) An enzyme that makes covalent bonds between Okazaki fragments in the lagging strand of DNA being replicated is
A) RNA polymerase.
B) DNA ligase
C) DNA helicase.
D) transposase.
E) SSBP.
8.1
8.3
37) An enzyme that copies DNA to make a molecule of RNA is
A) RNA polymerase.
B) DNA ligase.
C) DNA helicase.
D) transposase.
E) DNA polymerase.
8.1
8.4
38) An enzyme that catalyzes the cutting and resealing of DNA, and is translated from insertion sequences, is
A) RNA polymerase.
B) DNA ligase.
C) DNA helicase.
D) transposase.
E) DNA polymerase.
8.4
8.16
39) Repair of damaged DNA, in some instances and mechanisms, might be viewed as a race between an endonuclease and
A) DNA ligase.
B) DNA polymerase.
C) helicase.
D) methylase.
E) primase.
8.3
8.10
2
40) The cancer gene ras produces mRNA containing an extra exon that includes a number of UAA codons. Cancer cells produce ras mRNA missing this exon. This mistake most likely is due to a mistake by
A) a chemical mutagen.
B) DNA polymerase.
C) photolyases.
D) snRNPs.
E) UV radiation.
8.1
8.5
7
41) Figure 8.5
In Figure 8.5, which model of the lac operon correctly shows RNA polymerase, lactose, and repressor protein when the structural genes are being transcribed?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e
8.2
Analyzing
4.3
8.7
2
42) The miRNAs in a cell
A) are found in prokaryotic cells.
B) are a part of the prokaryotic ribosome.
C) are a part of the eukaryotic ribosome.
D) allow different cells to produce different proteins.
E) are responsible for inducing operons.
8.2
8.8
43) Assume the two E. coli strains shown below are allowed to conjugate.
Hfr: pro+, arg+, his+, lys+, met+, ampicillin-sensitive
F-: pro-, arg-, his-, lys-, met-, ampicillin-resistant
What supplements would you add to glucose minimal salts agar to select for a new recombinant cell that is lys+, arg+, amp-resistant?
A) ampicillin, lysine, arginine
B) lysine, arginine
C) ampicillin, proline, histidine, methionine
D) proline, histidine, methionine
E) ampicillin, proline, histidine, lysine
8.3
Analyzing
4.1
8.12
2
44) Protein synthesis in eukaryotes is similar to the process in prokaryotes in that both eukaryotes and prokaryotes
A) have exons.
B) have introns.
C) require snRNPS.
D) use methionine as the "start" amino acid.
E) use codons to determine polypeptide sequences.
8.1
4.2
8.5
7
45) When ultraviolet light strikes DNA, it can cause a specific type of damage. How is this damage best described?
A) Thymine bases on the opposing DNA strands are covalently linked together to form a thymine dimer.
B) Thymine bases on one strand of DNA, next to each other, are covalently linked together to form a thymine dimer.
C) Adenine and thymine bases on opposing DNA strands are linked together by hydrogen bonds.
D) Adenine and thymine bases on opposing DNA strands are covalently linked together to form an AT dimer.
8.3
8.9
46) The ozone layer of the Earth has been depleted to an extent by human release of certain chemicals. What type of mutation, caused by the induction of thymine dimer formation, is more likely to occur in organisms on Earth as a result of this problem?
A) silent mutation
B) nonsense mutation
C) missense mutation
D) frameshift mutation
8.3
8.11
47) When two genes from two different people are sequenced and aligned, it is discovered that there are multiple sequence differences in the coding segment DNA level. However, when the proteins formed by the genes have their amino acids sequenced, there is no difference observed between the two. What is the most likely explanation for this observation?
A) The mutations are corrected at the protein level after translation has occurred.
B) The mutations lie at locations where they don't affect protein sequence due to degeneracy of the genetic code.
C) The mutations are repaired at the mRNA level after transcription has occurred, but before translation.
D) Mutations at the DNA level are not reflected in proteins produced.
E) RNA processing removes the different segments from the mRNA molecules of each person prior to translation.
8.1
8.4
48) Transduction requires a(n) ________ to move DNA from one bacterial cell to another.
A) bacteriophage
B) naked DNA molecule
C) F plasmid
D) transposase enzyme
8.4
4.5
8.16
49) Generalized transduction occurs when a bacteriophage inadvertently packages the wrong material into one of its newly-formed protein coats. While the source of this material may vary, it is always:
A) protein.
B) mRNA.
C) DNA.
D) tRNA.
E) miRNA.
8.4
4.5
8.16
50) If generalized transduction is underway, packaging a piece of DNA from an infected bacterial cell into a bacteriophage protein coat, what is the likely outcome?
A) Lysis of a newly-infected cell as the transducing bacteriophage infects it and multiplies.
B) The virus particle formed in the transduction process isn't able to correctly infect a new bacterial cell.
C) A second bacterial cell infected by that transducing bacteriophage will acquire new DNA, carried by the phage from the original infected cell.
D) The infected bacterial cell will recover and survive, as the packaging of non-bacteriophage DNA into the protein coat produces nonfunctional virus particles.
8.4
4.5
8.16
8.2 True/False Questions
1) Recombination will always alter a cell's genotype.
8.4
4.5
8.16
2) Open-reading frames are segments of DNA in which both start and stop codons are found.
8.1
8.1
3) Bacteria usually contain multiple chromosomes.
8.1
4.2
8.1
7
4) Mutations that are harmful to cells occur more frequently than those that benefit cells.
8.3
8.10
7
5) The miRNAs in a cell inhibit protein synthesis by forming complementary bonds with rRNA.
8.2
8.8
6) Bacterial cells may contain multiple genomes.
8.1
8.1
7
7) Both base substitution and frameshift mutations can result in the formation of premature stop codons.
8.3
8.9
8) In the Ames test, any colonies that form on the control plates, in the absence of chemical being tested, should be the result of spontaneous mutations.
8.3
8.13
9) Transposition (insertion of a transposon into a DNA sequence) results in the formation of base substitution mutations in a cell's DNA.
8.3
8.9
7
10) Cell-to-cell contact is required for transduction to occur.
8.4
8.15
8.3 Essay Questions
1) What is the survival value of the semiconservative replication of DNA?
8.1
8.3
8
2) Scientists are concerned that bacteria will be resistant to all antibiotics within the next decade. Using your knowledge of genetics, describe how bacterial populations can develop drug resistance in such a short time frame.
8.4
4.1
8.15
8
3) Explain why the following statement is false: Sexual reproduction is the only mechanism for genetic change.
8.4
8.14
8
4) Could you perform the Ames test with a strain of bacteria that was auxotrophic for something other than histidine? How would the setup and execution of the experiment change, and why?
8.3
7.1
8.13
8
5) How might gene expression processes be altered if the genetic code were not degenerate in nature?
8.1
8.4
8
Microbiology: An Introduction, 13e (Tortora et al.)
Chapter 9 Biotechnology and DNA Technology
9.1 Multiple-Choice Questions
1) The following are steps used to make DNA fingerprints. What is the third step?
A) Collect DNA.
B) Digest with a restriction enzyme.
C) Perform electrophoresis.
D) Lyse cells.
E) Add stain.
9.4
8.3
9.18
Figure 9.1
2) How many pieces will EcoRI produce from the plasmid shown in Figure 9.1?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
9.2
Analyzing
4.5
9.4
2
3) In Figure 9.1, after digestion with the appropriate restriction enzyme, what is the smallest piece containing the entire ampicillin-resistance (amp) gene?
A) 0.17 kbp
B) 0.25 kbp
C) 1.08 kbp
D) 0 kbp
E) 3.00 kbp
9.2
Analyzing
4.5
9.4
2
Figure 9.2
4) In Figure 9.2, the enzyme in step 1 is
A) DNA polymerase.
B) DNA ligase.
C) RNA polymerase.
D) reverse transcriptase.
E) spliceosome.
9.3
4.2
9.10
5) In Figure 9.2, the enzyme in step 2 is
A) DNA polymerase.
B) DNA ligase.
C) RNA polymerase.
D) reverse transcriptase.
E) spliceosome.
9.3
4.5
9.10
6) The reaction catalyzed by reverse transcriptase is
A) DNA → mRNA.
B) mRNA → cDNA.
C) mRNA → protein.
D) DNA → DNA.
E) tRNA → mRNA.
9.3
4.5
9.10
7) Which of the following is an advantage of using E. coli to make a human gene product?
A) Endotoxin may be in the product.
B) It does not secrete most proteins.
C) Its genes are well known.
D) It cannot process introns.
E) Endotoxin may be in the product and it does not secrete most proteins.
9.1
4.5
9.1
5
8) Which of the following is NOT an agricultural product made by DNA techniques?
A) frost retardant
B) Bacillus thuringiensis insecticide
C) nitrogenase (nitrogen fixation)
D) glyphosate-resistant crops
E) pectinase
9.4
4.5
9.13
5
9) If you have inserted a gene in the Ti plasmid, the next step in genetic engineering is
A) transformation of E. coli with Ti plasmid.
B) splicing T DNA into a plasmid.
C) transformation of an animal cell.
D) inserting the Ti plasmid into Agrobacterium.
E) inserting the Ti plasmid into a plant cell.
9.4
4.5
9.19
10) Biotechnology involves the
A) use of microorganisms to make desired products.
B) use of animal cells to make vaccines.
C) development of disease-resistant crop plants.
D) use of microorganisms to make desired products and the use of animal cells to make vaccines.
E) use of microorganisms to make desired products, the use of animal cells to make vaccines, and the development of disease-resistant crop plants.
9.1
4.5
9.1
5
11) Figure 9.3
The figure at the left in Figure 9.3 shows a gene identified by Southern blotting. What will a Southern blot of the same gene look like after PCR?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e
9.4
Analyzing
9.17
3
12) Which of the following is NOT a desired characteristic of DNA vectors used in gene cloning procedures?
A) self-replication
B) large size
C) has a selectable marker
D) circular form of DNA or integrates into the host chromosome
E) may replicate in several species
9.2
4.5
9.5
13) Figure 9.4
In Figure 9.4, the bacteria transformed with the recombinant plasmid and plated on media containing ampicillin and X-gal will
A) form blue, ampicillin-resistant colonies.
B) form blue, ampicillin-sensitive colonies.
C) form white, ampicillin-resistant colonies.
D) form white, ampicillin-sensitive colonies.
E) not grow.
9.3
4.5
9.11
14) The most important property of a DNA vector is
A) its ability to replicate within the cell.
B) the size of the vector.
C) the fact that it contains a marker.
D) that it contains an ability to integrate into the chromosome.
E) that the inserted genes that lack exons.
9.3
4.5
9.5
15) An advantage of cDNA over genomic DNA is that it
A) lacks exons.
B) lacks introns.
C) contains selectable markers.
D) can form very large DNA segments.
E) is very easy to isolate.
9.3
4.5
9.10
16) The restriction enzyme EcoRI recognizes the sequence G↓AATTC. Which of the following is TRUE of DNA after it is treated with EcoRI?
A) All of the DNA fragments will have single-stranded regions ending in AA.
B) All of the DNA fragments will have single-stranded regions ending in G.
C) Some of the DNA will have single-stranded regions ending in AA and others will end in G.
D) All of the DNA will have blunt ends.
E) All of the DNA will be circular.
9.2
Analyzing
4.5
9.4
17) Which enzyme would cut this strand of DNA?
GCATGGATCCCAATGC
A)
Enzyme Recognition
BamHI G↓GATCC
CCCTAG↑G
B)
Enzyme Recognition
EcoRI G↓AATTC
CTTAA↑G
C)
Enzyme Recognition
HaeIII GG↓CC
CC↑GG
D)
Enzyme Recognition
HindIII A↓AGCTT
TTCGA↑A
E)
Enzyme Recognition
Pst ICTGC↓G
G↑ACGTC
9.2
Analyzing
4.5
9.4
3
18) Place the steps of constructing a genomic library in order.
I. Digest phage with restriction enzyme.
II. Lyse cells of interest and precipitate DNA.
III. Introduce constructs via transformation into competent E. coli cells.
IV. Perform ligation reaction with genome fragments and phage.
V. Digest genomic DNA with restriction enzyme.
A) V, IV, I, III. II.
B) I, II, III, IV, V.
C) II, I, III, V, IV.
D) II, V, I, IV, III.
E) IV, II, III, I, V.
9.3
4.5
9.9
19) A population of cells carrying a desired plasmid is called a
A) library.
B) clone.
C) vector.
D) Southern blot.
E) PCR.
9.1
4.5
9.2
20) Self-replicating DNA used to transmit a gene from one organism to another is a
A) library.
B) clone.
C) vector.
D) Southern blot.
E) PCR.
9.1
4.5
9.2
21) The Human Genome Project, which was completed in 2003, was focused on
A) identifying all of the genes in the human genome.
B) determining the nucleotide sequence of the entire human genome.
C) determining all of the proteins encoded by the human genome.
D) finding a cure for all human genetic disorders.
E) cloning all of the genes of the human genome.
9.4
9.15
5
22) The field of proteomics concerns itself with
A) identifying an organism that makes improved enzymes.
B) discovering the function of genes from a genetic sequence.
C) determining all of the proteins expressed by a cell.
D) synthesizing proteins from altered genetic sequences.
E) identifying pathogens using RFLPs.
9.4
9.16
23) You have a small gene that you wish replicated by PCR. After 3 replication cycles, how many double-stranded DNA molecules do you have?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 8
D) 16
E) thousands
9.2
9.7
4
24) Which of the following places the steps in the PCR procedure in the correct order?
1) Incubate at 94°C to denature DNA strands;
2) Incubate at 72°C for DNA synthesis;
3) Incubate at 60°C for primer hybridization.
A) 1, 2, 3
B) 3, 2, 1
C) 1, 3, 2
D) 2; 1; 3
E) 3; 1; 2
9.2
9.7
25) Which of the following are used to silence specific genes and hold promise for treating cancer or viral diseases, such as hepatitis B?
A) RNA interference (RNAi)
B) complementary DNA (cDNA)
C) reverse transcriptase PCR (rtPCR)
D) tumor-inducing plasmids (Ti plasmids)
E) DNA fingerprinting
9.4
4.3
9.14
5
26) Which of the following techniques is NOT used to introduce recombinant DNA into plants?
A) gene guns
B) protoplast fusion
C) Ti plasmids and Agrobacterium
D) microinjection
E) electroporation
9.3
4.5
9.8
5
Figure 9.5
27) In Figure 9.5, the marker genes used for selecting recombinant DNA are
A) HindIII, BamHI, and EcoRI.
B) ampR and lacZ.
C) ori.
D) ampR and ori.
E) lacZ and ori.
9.2
Analyzing
4.5
9.5
28) In Figure 9.5, the gene that allows the plasmid to be self-replicating is
A) HindIII.
B) ampR.
C) ori.
D) EcoRI.
E) lacZ.
9.2
4.5
9.5
29) Which of the following methods would be used to introduce the plasmid shown in Figure 9.5 into E. coli?
A) microinjection
B) transformation
C) gene guns
D) Ti plasmids and Agrobacterium
9.3
4.5
9.8
30) A source of heat-stable DNA polymerase is
A) Agrobacterium tumefaciens.
B) Thermus aquaticus.
C) Saccharomyces cerevisiae.
D) Bacillus thuringiensis.
E) Pseudomonas.
9.2
3.3
9.7
31) The Pap test for cervical cancer involves microscopic examination of cervical cells for cancerous cells. A new, rapid diagnostic test to detect human papilloma virus (HPV) DNA before cancer develops is done without microscopic exam. The steps involved in this FastHPV test are listed below. What is the second step?
A) Add an RNA probe for HPV DNA.
B) Lyse human cells.
C) Add enzyme-linked antibodies against DNA-RNA.
D) Add enzyme substrate.
E) The order is unimportant.
9.4
Analyzing
8.3
9.13
5
32) Accomplishments of rDNA methods for agriculture include
A) antisense DNA to prevent softening of tomatoes.
B) Pseudomonas expressing Bt toxin.
C) disease resistant food animals.
D) antisense DNA and disease resistant food animals.
E) antisense DNA, Bt-expressing Pseudomonas and disease resistant food animals.
9.4
4.5
9.14
33) You want to determine whether a person has a certain mutant gene. The process involves using a primer and a heat-stable DNA polymerase. This process is
A) translation.
B) restriction mapping.
C) transformation.
D) PCR.
E) site-directed mutagenesis.
9.2
9.7
5
34) Which of the following are used by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention to track outbreaks of foodborne disease?
A) DNA fingerprints
B) restriction fragment length polymorphisms
C) reverse-transcriptase PCR (rtPCR)
D) DNA fingerprints and restriction fragment length polymorphisms
E) DNA fingerprints, restriction fragment length polymorphisms, and reverse-transcriptase PCR(rtPCR)
9.4
8.3
9.13
5
35) Assume you have discovered a cell that produces a lipase that works in cold water for a laundry additive. You can increase the efficiency of this enzyme by changing one amino acid. This is done by
A) irradiating the cells.
B) site-directed mutagenesis.
C) enrichment.
D) selective breeding.
E) selection.
9.2
4.5
9.3
5
36) The use of an antibiotic-resistance gene on a plasmid used in genetic engineering makes
A) replica plating possible.
B) direct selection possible.
C) the recombinant cell dangerous.
D) the recombinant cell unable to survive.
E) All of the answers are correct.
9.3
4.5
9.11
37) The following steps must be performed to make a bacterium produce human
protein X.
1-Translation
2-Restriction enzyme
3-Prokaryotic transcription
4-DNA ligase
5-Transformation
6-Eukaryotic transcription
7-Reverse transcription
Which of the following places the steps in the correct order?
A) 5, 2, 3, 4, 7, 6, 1
B) 1, 2, 3, 5, 4, 7, 6
C) 6, 7, 2, 3, 4, 5, 1
D) 6, 7, 2, 4, 5, 3, 1
E) 6, 2, 1, 3, 4, 5, 7
9.3
Analyzing
4.5
9.8
5
38) The use of "suicide" genes in genetically modified organisms is designed to
A) prevent the growth of the modified organisms in the environment.
B) kill the modified organisms before they are released in the environment.
C) delete genes necessary for modified organism's growth.
D) provide for resistance of the modified organisms to pesticides.
E) provide a means to eliminate non-modified organisms.
9.5
4.5
9.20
5
39) A restriction fragment is
A) a gene.
B) a segment of DNA.
C) a segment of mRNA.
D) a segment of tRNA.
E) cDNA.
9.2
9.4
40) In the Southern blot technique, which of the following is NOT required?
A) transfer of DNA to nitrocellulose
B) addition of a labeled probe to identify the gene of interest
C) restriction enzyme digestion of DNA
D) electrophoresis to separate fragments
E) addition of heat-stable DNA polymerase to amplify DNA
9.4
9.17
41) Which of the following processes is NOT involved in making cDNA?
A) reverse transcription
B) RNA processing to remove introns
C) transcription
D) translation
9.3
4.5
9.10
42) PCR can be used to identify an unknown bacterium because
A) the DNA primer is specific to particular target DNA sequences.
B) DNA polymerase will replicate any bacterial DNA.
C) DNA can be electrophoresed.
D) all cells have DNA.
E) all cells have RNA.
9.2
8.3
9.7
43) The random shotgun method is used in
A) amplification of unknown DNA.
B) transforming plant cells with recombinant DNA.
C) genome sequencing.
D) RFLP analysis.
E) forensic microbiology.
9.4
8.3
9.16
44) Restriction enzymes function as
A) bacterial enzymes that splice DNA.
B) bacterial enzymes that destroy phage DNA.
C) animal enzymes that splice RNA.
D) viral enzymes that destroy host DNA.
9.2
9.4
45) The study of genetic material taken directly from the environment is
A) bioinformatics.
B) proteomics.
C) reverse genetics.
D) forensic microbiology.
E) metagenomics.
9.4
8.3
9.15
46) Choose the best pair to complete the following sentence. While ________ is/are responsible for the diversity of life, ________ is/are responsible for shaping a population with organisms possessing characteristics that enhance survival.
A) vectors; rDNA.
B) microbes; DNA.
C) properties; vectors.
D) selection; mutations.
E) mutations; selection.
9.2
9.3
47) One advantage of a viral vector over a plasmid vector is that the
A) viral vector can accept much larger pieces of DNA.
B) plasmid vector is circular.
C) viral vector can accept a PCR fragment.
D) viral vector can harbor a selection marker.
E) the viral vector can accept larger pieces of DNA and the plasmid vector is circular.
9.2
4.5
9.6
48) An advantage of using Saccharomyces cerevisiae over Escherichia coli to produce a human protein is that
A) it will be more likely to continuously secrete the protein.
B) it will be less likely to express the protein.
C) it has a genome only 4 times larger than E. coli.
D) its genome is well understood unlike E. coli.
E) it can be engineered to produce human proteins unlike E. coli.
9.3
9.12
5
49) RNAi technology involves
A) introducing a vector with an siRNA sequence into a cell.
B) stimulating reverse transcriptase to produce mRNA.
C) preventing protein production by destroying specific mRNA.
D) sequencing small pieces of the genome and assembling them with a computer.
E) both introducing siRNA into a cell and destroying specific mRNA.
9.4
4.3
9.14
50) The fact that people continue to be concerned about the safety of DNA technology can be attributed to the following:
A) It is impossible to prove something is safe under all conceivable conditions.
B) Science can definitively disprove hypotheses but can only provide supporting evidence for hypotheses.
C) People are suspicious of science, in general.
D) There is mounting scientific evidence that DNA technology is unsafe.
E) Both that it is impossible to prove something is safe under all conditions and that science can only provide supporting evidence for hypotheses.
9.5
9.20
7
9.2 True/False Questions
1) The term biotechnology refers exclusively to the use of genetically engineered organisms for the production of desired products.
9.1
9.1
2) In recombinant DNA technology, a vector is a self-replicating segment of DNA, such as a plasmid or viral genome.
9.1
9.2
3) The practice of breeding plants and animals for desirable traits, such as high crop yield, is called natural selection.
9.2
9.3
4) A shuttle vector is a plasmid that is used to move pieces of DNA among organisms, such as bacterial, fungal, and plant cells.
9.2
9.6
5) Nearly all cells, including E. coli and yeast, naturally take up DNA from their surroundings without chemical treatment.
9.3
4.5
9.8
6) The disadvantage of genomic libraries over cDNA libraries is that genomic libraries contain gene introns.
9.3
4.2
9.9
7) One of the first commercial successes of recombinant DNA technology was the production of human insulin using genetically engineered E. coli.
9.4
4.5
9.13
5
8) Bioinformatics is the use of computer technology to compare and analyze genome sequence.
9.4
7.1b
9.16
9) The Ti plasmid isolated from Agrobacterium can be used to insert DNA into any type of plant.
9.4
4.5
9.19
10) The Bt toxin derived from Bacillus thuringiensis has been introduced into some crop plants to make them resistant to insect destruction.
9.4
9.13
5
9.3 Essay Questions
1) The local public health agency has received reports of an outbreak of Salmonella gastroenteritis among attendees at a city-sponsored chili cook-off. What techniques from recombinant DNA technology would the agency likely use to investigate this outbreak? Describe the expected results from these techniques.
9.4
8.3
9.13
8
2) Pseudomonas syringae is found naturally in the soil. Sold as Snomax, it is used to make snow at ski resorts. The same bacterium with a gene deletion (Ice-minus) is used to prevent ice formation on plants. Should Snomax and Ice-minus be considered modified organisms and subject to precautions of releasing genetically modified organisms? Explain why or why not.
9.4; 9.5
9.20
8
3) Your research group is investigating the possible use of genetically-engineered cells to produce a vaccine for malaria. List the pros and cons of using E. coli, Saccharomyces, and animal cells to produce the vaccine.
9.3
Analyzing
4.5
9.12
8
4) The development of DNA technology is bringing profound changes to science, agriculture and healthcare. Provide one example of a DNA technology and provide at least one advantage and one example of a concern or problem associated with its use.
9.5
Analyzing
4.5
9.12
8
Microbiology: An Introduction, 13e (Tortora et al.)
Chapter 10 Classification of Microorganisms
10.1 Multiple-Choice Questions
1) Which of the following statements about archaea is FALSE?
A) They are prokaryotes.
B) They lack peptidoglycan in their cell walls.
C) Some are thermoacidophiles; others are extreme halophiles.
D) They evolved before bacteria.
E) Some produce methane from carbon dioxide and hydrogen.
10.1
10.5
7
2) Which of the following characterizes the Domain Bacteria?
A) prokaryotic cells; ether linkages in phospholipids
B) eukaryotic cells; ester linkages in phospholipids
C) prokaryotic cells; ester linkages in phospholipids
D) complex cellular structures
E) multicellular
10.1
2.2
10.5
7
3) If two organisms have similar rRNA sequences, you can conclude that they
A) live in the same place.
B) evolved from a common ancestor.
C) will have different G-C ratios.
D) will both ferment lactose.
E) mated with each other.
10.1
10.3
7
4) What is the outstanding characteristic of the Kingdom Fungi?
A) All members are photosynthetic.
B) Members absorb dissolved organic matter.
C) Members absorb dissolved inorganic matter.
D) All members are microscopic.
E) All members are macroscopic.
10.2
Analyzing
2.4
10.9
5) Which of the following statements about members of the Kingdom Plantae is FALSE?
A) They are multicellular.
B) They are composed of eukaryotic cells.
C) They undergo photosynthesis.
D) They use organic carbon sources.
E) They synthesize organic molecules.
10.2
10.9
6) Which of the following statements about the members of the Kingdom Animalia is FALSE?
A) They are multicellular.
B) They are composed of eukaryotic cells.
C) They undergo photosynthesis.
D) They ingest nutrients through a mouth.
E) They are heterotrophs.
10.2
10.9
7) A genus can best be defined as
A) a taxon composed of families.
B) a taxon composed of one or more species and a classification level lying below family.
C) a taxon belonging to a species.
D) a taxon comprised of classes.
E) the most specific taxon.
10.2
10.6
8) A bacterial species differs from a species of eukaryotic organisms in that a bacterial species
A) does not breed with other species.
B) has a limited geographical distribution.
C) can be distinguished from other bacterial species.
D) is a population of cells with similar characteristics.
E) breeds with its own species.
10.2
10.11
9) Which of the following is the best evidence for a three-domain system?
A) Nucleotide sequences in ribosomal RNA vary between all three domains.
B) There are three distinctly different sets of metabolic reactions.
C) There are three distinctly different Gram reactions.
D) Some bacteria live in extreme environments.
E) There are three distinctly different types of nuclei.
10.1
10.4
7
10) A biochemical test, in the microbiology world, is used to determine
A) staining characteristics.
B) amino acid sequences of enzymes.
C) nucleic acid-base composition of DNA sequences.
D) capability of a microbe to perform a specific enzymatic activity.
E) All of the answers are correct.
10.3
8.3
10.14
11) Which of the following is NOT based on nucleic-acid hybridization?
A) DNA chip
B) FISH
C) PCR
D) Southern blotting
E) Western blotting
10.3
10.15
12) The phylogenetic classification of bacteria is based on
A) cell morphology.
B) Gram reaction.
C) rRNA sequences.
D) habitat.
E) diseases.
10.1
10.5
7
13) Which one of the following statements is a reason for NOT classifying viruses in one of the threedomains of life (Bacteria, Archaea, Eukarya) rather than in a fourth separate domain?
A) Some viruses can incorporate their genome into a host's genome.
B) Viruses direct anabolic pathways of host cells.
C) Viruses are obligate parasites.
D) Viruses are not composed of cells.
10.2
2.5
10.11
7
14) Which one of the following provides taxonomic information that includes the information obtained in each of the other options listed?
A) nucleic acid hybridization
B) nucleic acid-base composition
C) amino acid sequencing
D) biochemical tests
E) cladogram
10.3
Analyzing
10.19
15) Fossil evidence indicates that prokaryotic cells first existed on the Earth at least
A) 350 years ago.
B) 3500 years ago.
C) 35000 years ago.
D) 3.5 billion years ago.
E) 3.5 × 1012 years ago.
10.1
10.1
Figure 10.1
16) In Figure 10.1, species "c." is most closely related to which of the following?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e
10.1
10.4
17) In Figure 10.1, the closest ancestor for both species "a." and species "b." would be which of the following?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
10.1
10.4
18) ________ are a diverse group of eukaryotic organisms that are similar in rRNA sequences, but quite different from each other in motility types and ecology. They have been used previously as a "catch-all" for organisms that couldn't be easily classified into other groups.
A) Protists
B) Fungi
C) Plants
D) Methanogens
10.2
Analyzing
10.10
19) In the scientific name Enterobacter aerogenes, Enterobacter is the
A) specific epithet.
B) genus.
C) family.
D) order.
E) kingdom.
10.2
10.6
20) The arrangement of organisms into taxa
A) shows degrees of relatedness between organisms.
B) shows relationships to common ancestors.
C) was designed by Charles Darwin.
D) is arbitrary.
E) is based on evolution.
10.2
10.7
21) Bacteria and Archaea are similar in which of the following?
A) peptidoglycan cell walls
B) methionine as the start signal for protein synthesis
C) sensitivity to antibiotics
D) considered prokaryotic cells
E) plasma membrane ester linkage
10.1
10.5
22) Which of the following best defines a strain in microbiological terms?
A) a pure culture that is not totally identical to other cultures of the same species
B) a group of organisms with a limited geographical distribution
C) a mixed population of cells, which are genetically distinct, but with highly similar phenotypic characteristics
D) groups of cells all derived from and identical to a single parent species
E) same as a species
10.2
10.8
23) Serological testing is based on the fact that
A) all bacteria have the same antigens.
B) antibodies react specifically with an antigen.
C) the human body makes antibodies against bacteria.
D) antibodies cause the formation of antigens.
E) bacteria clump together when mixed with any antibodies.
10.3
Analyzing
8.3
10.16
24) Phage typing is based on the fact that
A) bacteria are destroyed by viruses.
B) viruses cause disease.
C) bacterial viruses attack only members of a specific species.
D) Staphylococcus causes infections.
E) phages and bacteria are related.
10.3
Analyzing
8.3
10.16
25) Organism A has 70 moles % G+C, and organism B has 40 moles % G+C. Which of the following can be concluded from these data?
A) The two organisms are related.
B) The two organisms are unrelated.
C) The organisms make entirely different enzymes.
D) Their nucleic acids will completely hybridize.
10.3
10.17
2
26) Nucleic acid hybridization is based on the fact that
A) the strands of DNA can be separated.
B) a chromosome is composed of complementary strands.
C) pairing between complementary bases occurs.
D) DNA is composed of genes.
E) all cells have DNA.
10.3
10.18
27) One of the most popular taxonomic tools is DNA fingerprinting to develop profiles of organisms. These profiles provide direct information about
A) enzymatic activities.
B) protein composition.
C) the presence of specific genes.
D) antigenic composition.
E) the similarities between nucleotide sequences.
10.3
8.3
10.17
28) All of the following statements are reasons why fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH) has become a valuable tool for environmental microbiologists EXCEPT
A) it allows for detection of uncultured microbes.
B) it demonstrates the diversity of microbes in an environment.
C) it allows observation of microbes in their natural environment in association with other microbes.
D) it allows one to obtain pure cultures of microbes.
10.3
8.3
10.18
29) Which of the following criteria is most useful in determining whether two organisms are related?
A) Both ferment lactose.
B) Both are gram-positive.
C) Both are motile.
D) Both are aerobic.
10.3
8.3
10.14
2
30) A clone is
A) genetically identical cells derived from a single cell.
B) a genetically engineered cell.
C) a taxon composed of species.
D) a mound of cells on an agar medium.
10.2
10.8
31) Figure 10.2
A nucleic acid hybridization experiment produced the following results.
In Figure 10.2, which figure shows the most closely related organisms?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e
10.3
Analyzing
10.18
2
Table 10.1
1. 9+2 flagella
2. Nucleus
3. Plasma membrane
4. Peptidoglycan
5. Mitochondrion
6. Fimbriae
32) In Table 10.1, which features are found in nearly all eukarya?
A) 2, 3, 5
B) 1, 4, 6
C) 3, 5
D) 2, 3
E) 1, 2, 5
10.1
Analyzing
2.4
10.5
33) In Table 10.1, which feature(s) is (are) found only in prokaryotes?
A) 1, 2, 3
B) 4, 6
C) 2
D) 1
E) 2, 4, 5
10.1
Analyzing
2.4
10.5
34) Into which group would you place a multicellular heterotroph with chitin cell walls?
A) Animalia
B) Archaea
C) Bacteria
D) Fungi
E) Plantae
10.2
10.9
2
35) Figure 10.3
This figure shows the results of a gel electrophoresis separation of restriction fragments of the DNA of different organisms.
In Figure 10.3, which two are most closely related?
A) 1 and 3
B) 2 and 4
C) 3 and 5
D) 2 and 5
E) 4 and 5
10.3
Analyzing
8.3
10.17
3
36) Into which group would you place a photosynthetic cell that lacks a nucleus?
A) Animalia
B) Bacteria
C) Fungi
D) Plantae
E) Protista
10.1
Analyzing
10.5
2
37) You discovered a unicellular organism that lacks a nucleus and peptidoglycan. You suspect the organism is in the group
A) Animalia.
B) Archaea.
C) Bacteria.
D) Fungi.
E) Plantae.
10.1
10.5
2
38) Into which group would you place a unicellular organism that has 70S ribosomes and a peptidoglycan cell wall?
A) Animalia
B) Bacteria
C) Fungi
D) Plantae
E) Protist
10.1
Analyzing
10.5
2
Table 10.2
I. Gram-positive
A. Catalase+
1. Acid from glucose……………….. Staphylococcus
2. Glucose-…………………………… Micrococcus
B. Catalase-
1. Coccus……………………………. Streptococcus
2. Rod………………………………... Lactobacillus
II. Gram-negative
A. Oxidase-
1. Acid from lactose
a. Uses citric acid…………………… Citrobacter
b. Citric acid-……………………….. Escherichia
2. Lactose-
a. H2S produced
(1) Urease positive………………… Proteus
(2) Urease negative………………… Salmonella
B. Oxidase+
1. Rod……………………………....……. Pseudomonas
2. Coccus……………………………....… Neisseria
39) Use the dichotomous key in Table 10.2 to identify a gram-negative cell that ferments lactose and uses citric acid as its sole carbon source.
A) Citrobacter
B) Escherichia
C) Lactobacillus
D) Pseudomonas
E) Staphylococcus
10.3
8.3
10.19
3
40) Use the dichotomous key in Table 10.2 to identify a gram-negative coccus.
A) Neisseria
B) Pseudomonas
C) Staphylococcus
D) Streptococcus
E) Micrococcus
10.3
8.3
10.19
41) Into which group would you place a multicellular organism that has a mouth and lives inside the human liver?
A) Animalia
B) Fungi
C) Plantae
D) Firmicutes (gram-positive bacteria)
E) Proteobacteria (gram-negative bacteria)
10.2
Analyzing
10.9
2
42) Into which group would you place a photosynthetic organism that lacks a nucleus and has a thin peptidoglycan wall surrounded by an outer membrane?
A) Animalia
B) Fungi
C) Plantae
D) Firmicutes (gram-positive bacteria)
E) Proteobacteria (gram-negative bacteria)
10.1
Analyzing
10.5
2
43) Figure 10.4
In the cladogram shown in Figure 10.4, which two organisms are most closely related?
A) Streptomyces and Micrococcus
B) Micrococcus and Mycobacterium
C) Mycobacterium and Lactobacillus
D) Streptomyces and Lactobacillus
E) Streptomyces and Mycobacterium
10.3
10.19
3
44) Which one of the following characteristics most reasonably indicates that two microorganisms are closely related?
A) Both are cocci.
B) Both ferment lactose.
C) Their DNA can hybridize together.
D) Both normally live in clams.
E) Both are motile.
10.3
8.3
10.18
2
45) Data collected to date indicate that
A) humans and marine mammals cannot be infected by the same pathogens.
B) marine mammals do not get infectious diseases.
C) new species of bacteria will not be discovered in wild animals.
D) marine mammals don't have an immune system.
E) None of the answers is correct.
10.2
10.7
46) For a serological bacterial identification test to be performed, you must have ________ in your possession.
A) DNA that will hybridize to the DNA of the bacterium to be identified
B) RNA that will hybridize to the RNA of the bacterium to be identified
C) antiserum containing antibodies that will bind to the bacterium to be identified
D) fluorescent molecules that will light up when bound to the DNA of the bacterium
E) viruses that will specifically infect the bacterium you're trying to identify
10.3
8.3
10.16
47) When performing phage typing to identify an unknown bacterium, you must have ________ in your possession.
A) DNA that will hybridize to the DNA of the bacterium to be identified
B) RNA that will hybridize to the RNA of the bacterium to be identified
C) antiserum containing antibodies that will bind to the bacterium to be identified
D) fluorescent molecules that will light up when bound to the DNA of the bacterium
E) viruses that will specifically infect the bacterium you're trying to identify
10.3
8.3
10.16
48) In a direct ELISA test, the method is determining if ________ is/are present in the patient's sample by attempting to bind a labeled antibody to it.
A) antibodies against a pathogen found in a patient's blood
B) an antigen from a particular pathogen
C) a bacteriophage that can infect a particular bacterial strain
D) a known sequence of DNA from a pathogen
10.3
8.3
10.16
49) Fatty acid methyl ester analysis is commonly used
A) in bacterial identification.
B) in DNA sequencing reactions.
C) in serological identification methods.
D) in DNA fingerprinting.
10.3
8.3
10.14
50) Flow cytometry, where a cell is passed through a light source such as a laser beam, can directly indicate all EXCEPT which one of the following about a cell?
A) size
B) shape
C) density
D) identity
10.3
10.16
10.2 True/False Questions
1) The cell membranes of all three domains are composed of straight carbon chains attached to
glycerol by ester linkage.
10.1
10.5
2) Chloroplasts possess circular DNA and reproduce by binary fission.
10.2
10.9
3) As molecular techniques improve, scientists are finding it necessary to reclassify some genera.
10.3
10.12
4) The highest level in the current taxonomic hierarchy is "Kingdom."
10.1
10.4
5) Pure cultures of the same species are not always identical in all ways.
10.2
10.8
2
6) At this point in time, scientists believe the vast majority of the domain Bacteria have been discovered.
10.1
6.4
10.5
7) Once a culture is purified, the next logical step in the process of identifying bacteria is biochemical testing.
10.3
8.3
10.14
8) Serological testing is used for screening bacterial isolates for similarities.
10.3
8.3
10.16
9) Western blotting is an immunological test used to identify the antibodies in the serum of an individual suspected of having Lyme disease.
10.3
8.3
10.15
10) When building a cladogram, the length of the horizontal branch is based on the calculated percent similarity between organisms.
10.3
10.19
2
10.3 Essay Questions
1) Figure 10.5
Choose one of the phylogenetic schemes in Figure 10.5 and explain why you feel it is preferable to the others.
10.1
Creating
7.1b
10.1
8
2) Table 10.3
Use the information given in Table 10.3 to answer the following questions. Which organisms are most closely related? On what did you base your answer? DNA from which organisms will probably hybridize?
10.3
Creating
a
10.14
3
3) One of the advantages of some newly developed rapid identification tools is that pure cultures are not needed. Why is a pure culture necessary for biochemical tests such as the Enterotube, but not for DNA probes?
10.3
8.3
10.18
8
4) You are studying a type of bacteria isolated from the acidic water runoff of a mining operation. You subject two batches of the same bacteria type to different environmental growth conditions. One batch is grown at pH 2, while the other is grown at pH 7. All other environmental parameters are kept identical between the two batches. You then collect their proteins and run a Western blot using an antibody that binds to a proton efflux pump protein (which actively expends energy to pump protons out of a cell). How would you characterize the information obtained in this experiment? What does it tell you, and why is that potentially valuable information?
10.3
8.3
10.15
5) How are a Southern blot and fluorescent in situ hybridization similar and different from each other? What are the pros and cons of each method for identification of microorganisms?
10.3
8.3
10.18
Microbiology: An Introduction, 13e (Tortora et al.)
Chapter 11 The Prokaryotes: Domains Bacteria and Archaea
1 Multiple-Choice Questions
1) Which of the following best describes the enterics, a bacterial group found primarily in the intestines of humans?
A) gram-negative aerobic rods and cocci
B) aerobic, helical bacteria
C) facultatively anaerobic gram-negative rods
D) gram-positive cocci
E) endospore-forming rods
1
1
2) Figure 1
What is group "c." in the key shown in Figure 1?
A) bacteroidetes
B) chlamydiae
C) fusobacteria
D) planctomycetes
E) spirochaetes
1
Analyzing
5.1
1
2
3) The characteristic most notable regarding the mycoplasmas is that they
A) are aerotolerant.
B) carry out fermentative metabolism.
C) produce endospores.
D) are nonpathogenic.
E) lack cell walls.
1
11.9
4) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Neisseria?
A) requires X and V factors
B) cocci
C) gram-negative
D) aerobic
E) Some species are human pathogens.
1
3.2
1
5) Staphylococcus and Streptococcus can usually be differentiated by microscope examination because of
A) cell shape.
B) Gram stain reaction.
C) cell arrangement.
D) endospore formation.
E) acid-fast reaction.
1
3.3
11.9
6) Which of the following genera can be described as a non-motile aerobic gram negative rod?
A) Escherichia
B) Staphylococcus
C) Bordetella
D) Treponema
E) Neisseria
1
1
7) Which of the following do you expect to be MOST resistant to high temperatures?
A) Bacillus subtilis
B) Escherichia coli
C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D) Staphylococcus aureus
E) Streptococcus pyogenes
1
11.9
2
8) Which of the following is NOT an enteric?
A) Salmonella
B) Shigella
C) Escherichia
D) Enterobacter
E) Campylobacter
1
1
9) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of spirochetes?
A) possess an axial filament
B) gram-negative
C) helical shape
D) easily observed with brightfield microscopy
E) found in the human oral cavity
1
1
10) The genus of bacteria that are particularly problematic in hospital settings due to their ability to grow in solutions with minute traces of unusual carbon sources is
A) Staphylococcus.
B) Pseudomonas.
C) Vibrio.
D) Campylobacter.
E) Legionella.
1
3.2
1
2
11) Which of the following can survive in phagocytic cells and grows in refrigeration temperatures?
A) Borrelia burgdorferi
B) Mycoplasma hominis
C) Mycobacterium leprae
D) Clostridium botulinum
E) Listeria monocytogenes
1
3.3
11.9
12) Which of the following bacteria is gram-negative?
A) Treponema
B) Corynebacterium
C) Bacillus
D) Staphylococcus
E) Mycobacterium
1
1
13) Which of the following form conidiospores?
A) endospore-forming gram-positive rods and cocci
B) actinomycetes and related organisms
C) rickettsias
D) anaerobic gram-negative cocci
E) spiral and curved bacteria
1
10
14) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) dissimilatory sulfate-reducing bacteria – produce H2S
B) archaea – extremophiles
C) chemoautotrophic bacteria – fix atmospheric nitrogen
D) actinomycetes – reproduce by fragmentation
E) Cytophaga – a gliding, nonfruiting bacterium
1
Analyzing
5.1
10
2
15) Rickettsias differ from chlamydias in that rickettsias
A) are gram-negative.
B) are intracellular parasites.
C) require an arthropod for transmission.
D) form elementary bodies.
E) are enterics.
1
1
16) Requirements for X and V factors are used to identify
A) Staphylococcus.
B) Escherichia.
C) Neisseria.
D) Haemophilus.
E) Pseudomonas.
1
3.3
1
17) You have isolated a bacterium that grows in a medium containing only inorganic nutrients. Ammonia is oxidized to a nitrate ion. This bacterium is
A) gram-negative.
B) using anaerobic respiration.
C) a chemoautotroph.
D) a photoautotroph.
E) a photoheterotroph.
1
3.1
1
2
18) Which of the following bacteria is gram-positive?
A) Pseudomonas
B) Salmonella
C) Streptococcus
D) Bacteroides
E) Rickettsia
1
11.9
19) Escherichia coli belongs to the
A) proteobacteria.
B) gram-positive bacteria.
C) green sulfur bacteria.
D) spirochetes.
E) actinomycetes.
1
1
20) Which one of the following bacteria does NOT belong with the others?
A) Bacillus
B) Escherichia
C) Lactobacillus
D) Staphylococcus
E) Streptococcus
1
11.9
2
21) Which of the following statements about the causative agent of Rocky Mountain spotted fever is FALSE?
A) It is an intracellular parasite.
B) It is transmitted by ticks.
C) It is in the genus Rickettsia.
D) It is gram-negative.
E) It is found in soil and water.
1
1
22) A primary difference between cyanobacteria and purple and green photosynthesizing bacteria is
A) energy source.
B) cell wall type.
C) electron donor for CO2 reduction.
D) cell type.
E) color.
1
3.1
1
23) Which one of the following bacteria does NOT belong with the other betaproteobacteria?
A) Bordetella
B) Burkholderia
C) Neisseria
D) Acidithiobacillus
E) Salmonella
1
1
2
24) Which of the following bacteria are responsible for more infections and more different kinds of infections?
A) Streptococcus
B) Staphylococcus
C) Salmonella
D) Pseudomonas
E) Neisseria
1
11.9
25) Both Beggiatoa and the purple sulfur bacteria use H2S. These bacteria differ in that Beggiatoa
A) uses H2S for an energy source.
B) uses H2S for a carbon source.
C) uses light energy.
D) can photosynthesize.
E) is gram negative.
1
3.1
1
26) The nonsulfur photosynthetic bacteria use organic compounds as
A) carbon and energy sources.
B) electron donors to reduce CO2.
C) oxygen sources.
D) electron acceptors.
E) carbon and energy sources, and as electron donors to reduce CO2.
1
3.1
1
27) Which of the following is the best reason to classify Streptococcus in the Lactobacillales?
A) Gram reaction
B) morphology
C) fermentation of lactose
D) rRNA sequences
E) found in dairy products
1
11.9
28) Streptomyces differs from Actinomyces because Streptomyces
A) is an archaea.
B) produces conidia.
C) forms filaments.
D) is a strict aerobe.
E) is a bacterium.
1
3.1
10
29) All of the following bacteria are gram-positive. Which does NOT belong with the others?
A) Actinomyces
B) Gardnerella
C) Corynebacterium
D) Listeria
E) Mycobacterium
1
10
2
30) Salmonella, Shigella, Yersinia, and Serratia are all
A) gram negative aerobes.
B) gram-negative facultatively anaerobic rods.
C) gram-positive aerobic cocci.
D) fermentative.
E) endospore-forming bacteria.
1
1
31) You have isolated a gram-positive rod. What should you do next?
A) Gram stain
B) lactose fermentation
C) endospore stain
D) flagella stain
E) enterotube
1
11.9
32) Borrelia is classified as a spirochete because it
A) is aerobic.
B) possesses an axial filament.
C) is a rod.
D) is a pathogen.
E) is transmitted by ticks.
1
1
33) Streptomyces are important because they
A) make antibiotics.
B) produce conidia.
C) are implicated in acne.
D) are strict aerobes.
E) fix nitrogen.
1
3.1
10
34) You have isolated and grown a pure culture of a prokaryotic cell type. The first step in identification is a(n)
A) Gram stain.
B) lactose fermentation test.
C) endospore stain.
D) flagella stain.
E) DNA fingerprint.
1
8.1
12
35) Actinomycetes differ from fungi in that actinomycetes
A) are chemoheterotrophs.
B) lack a membrane-bounded nucleus.
C) require light.
D) are decomposers.
E) cause disease.
1
10
36) You have isolated an aerobic gram-positive, endospore-forming bacterium that grows well on nutrient agar. To which of the following groups does it most likely belong?
A) phototrophic bacteria
B) gammaproteobacteria
C) deltaproteobacteria
D) bacillales
E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
1
Analyzing
11.9
2
37) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) spirochete – axial filament
B) spirilum – aerobic, helical bacteria
C) enterics – gram-negative
D) mycobacteria – acid-fast
E) Pseudomonas – gram-positive
1
1
2
38) Which one of the following does NOT belong with the others?
A) Bartonella
B) Ehrlichia
C) Rickettsia
D) Staphylococcus
E) Wolbachia
1
5.1
1
2
39) Caulobacter are different from most bacteria in that they
A) are gram-negative.
B) are gram-positive.
C) have stalks.
D) lack cell walls.
E) are motile.
1
1
40) All of the following bacteria are motile. Which does NOT have flagella?
A) Escherichia
B) Spirillum
C) Pseudomonas
D) spirochetes
E) Salmonella
1
1
41) Bacteroides
A) are found in gingival crevices.
B) are found in the intestinal tract.
C) are strict aerobes.
D) are strict aerobes and found in gingival crevices.
E) are found in gingival crevices and in the intestinal tract.
1
1
42) Chlamydia differ from most other bacteria in that they
A) have a developmental cycle.
B) lack a cell wall.
C) are acid-fast.
D) produce endospores.
E) are photosynthetic.
1
1
43) Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?
A) elementary body – Escherichia
B) endospore – Bacillus
C) endospore – Clostridium
D) heterocyst – cyanobacteria
E) myxospore – gliding bacteria
1
1
44) Burkholderia was reclassified from the gammaproteobacteria to the betaproteobacteria because
A) it grows in disinfectants.
B) it is a gram-negative rod.
C) it causes infections in cystic fibrosis patients.
D) it causes melioidosis.
E) its rRNA sequence is similar to that of Neisseria.
1
1
45) A biological control method to reduce the reproductive success of mosquitoes involves the use of
A) Acinetobacter.
B) Gemmata.
C) Neisseria.
D) Pelagibacter.
E) Wolbachia.
1
1
5
1 True/False Questions
1) Bacterial predators such as Bdellovibrio are members of the betaproteobacteria.
1
1
2) Two distinguishing factors of the epsilonproteobacteria that they are motile and microaerophilic.
1
1
3) Myxobacteria are classified as actinobacteria due to fungal-like lifestyle.
1
1
4) The Gram stain is not suitable for identifying members of the Archaea.
1
11
5) The deinococci can be categorized as extremophiles.
1
3.3
1
6) All gram-negative bacteria are classified as proteobacteria.
1
1
7) The majority of bacterial species on Earth have not been successfully cultivated.
1
12
8) Photosynthetic organisms always produce oxygen gas as a metabolic byproduct.
1
3.1
1
9) Currently, no members of Archaea have been linked to human disease.
1
11
10) The human body is typically free of archaeal species.
1
11
1 Essay Questions
1) Explain the rationale for using molecular data for classification, in the place of morphology.
11.0
12
8
2) The use of culture-independent techniques has increased our of microbial diversity without cultivation. Therefore, do microbiologists still need to attempt to grow new microbial species? Explain.
1
8.3
12
8
3) Bacteroides and Escherichia are both gram-negative rods found in the large intestine. Why are they in different phyla?
1
Analyzing
1
8
4) A colleague proposes that the Archaea may be the oldest life forms currently inhabiting Earth. Do you agree? Explain.
1
11
8
5) Describe two factors that contribute to the limits of our knowledge of microbial diversity.
1
12
8
Microbiology: An Introduction, 13e (Tortora et al.)
Chapter 12 The Eukaryotes: Fungi, Algae, Protozoa, and Helminths
1 Multiple-Choice Questions
1) Which of the following statements regarding fungi is FALSE?
A) Most fungi are pathogenic for humans.
B) Fungi are eukaryotic heterotrophs.
C) Fungi reproduce by forming asexual or sexual spores.
D) Most fungi grow well in acidic culture condition.
E) Fungi tolerate low moisture conditions.
1
1
2) Which of the following statements about helminths is FALSE?
A) They are heterotrophic.
B) They are multicellular animals.
C) They have eukaryotic cells.
D) All are parasites.
E) Some have male and female reproductive organs in one animal.
12.6
14
3) Which of the following statements about the oomycote algae is FALSE?
A) They form hyphae.
B) They produce zoospores in a sporangium.
C) They cause plant diseases.
D) They have chlorophyll.
E) They reproduce sexually.
1
12.8
4) Seventeen patients in ten hospitals had cutaneous infections caused by Rhizopus. In all seventeen patients, Elastoplast bandages were placed over sterile gauze pads to cover wounds. Fourteen of the patients had surgical wounds, two had venous line insertion sites, and one had a bite wound. Lesions present when the bandages were removed ranged from vesiculopustular eruptions to ulcerations and skin necrosis requiring debridement. Fungi are more likely than bacteria to contaminate bandages because they
A) are aerobic.
B) can tolerate low-moisture conditions.
C) prefer a neutral environment (pH 7).
D) have a fermentative metabolism.
E) cannot tolerate high osmotic pressure.
1
Analyzing
1
2
5) Which of the following statements regarding lichens is FALSE?
A) Lichens are a mutualistic relationship between a fungus and a protozoan.
B) Lichens represent a mutualistic relationship between a fungus and an alga.
C) Lichens are often the first life form to colonize rock or soil.
D) The algal partner produces carbohydrates that are absorbed by the fungal partner.
E) The fungal partner provides a means of attachment and protects the algal partner from desiccation.
12.2
5.1
12.5
2
6) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) Basidiomycota – basidiospores
B) Ascomycota – conidiospores
C) Zygomycota – sporangiospores
D) microsporidia – lack mitochondria
E) anamorphs – lack spores
1
1
Table 1
1-Arthroconidium 5-Chlamydoconidium
2-Ascospore 6-Conidiospore
3-Basidiospore 7-Sporangiospore
4-Blastoconidium 8-Zygospore
7) In Table 1, which of these spores are characteristic of Penicillium?
A) 1 and 2
B) 3 and 4
C) 2 and 6
D) 1 and 4
E) 4 and 6
1
12.2
8) In Table 1, which of these spores are characteristic of Rhizopus?
A) 1 and 2
B) 6 and 7
C) 2 and 8
D) 1 and 4
E) 7 and 8
1
12.2
9) In Table 1, which is a thick-walled spore formed as a segment within a hypha?
A) 1
B) 3
C) 5
D) 7
1
12.2
10) In Table 1, which of these spores are asexual spores?
A) 1, 4, 5, 6, 7
B) 2, 3, 6, 8
C) 1, 3, 5, 8
D) 2, 4, 6, 7, 8
1
12.2
11) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) teleomorph – produces both sexual and asexual spores
B) dermatomycosis – fungal infection of the skin
C) dimorphic fungus – grows as a yeast or a mold
D) systemic mycosis – fungal infection of body organs
E) coenocytic hyphae – hyphae with cross-walls
1
1
12) Which of the following statements regarding protozoa is FALSE?
A) Protozoa are unicellular eukaryotes.
B) Nearly all protozoa cause disease.
C) Most protozoa reproduce asexually.
D) Protozoa are common in water and soil.
E) Some protozoan pathogens are transmitted by arthropod vectors.
12.4
10
13) In mid-December, a woman with insulin-dependent diabetes who had been on prednisone fell and received an abrasion on the dorsal side of her right hand. She was placed on penicillin. By the end of January, the ulcer had not healed, and she was referred to a plastic surgeon. On January 30, a swab of the wound was cultured at 35°C on blood agar. On the same day, a smear was made for Gram staining. The Gram stain showed large (10 µm) cells. Brownish, waxy colonies grew on the blood agar. Slide cultures set up on February 1 and incubated at 25°C showed septate hyphae and single conidia. The most likely cause of the infection is a
A) gram-negative bacterium.
B) dimorphic fungus.
C) parasitic alga.
D) yeast.
E) protozoan.
1
Analyzing
1
2
14) Which of the following tends to be more complex in a parasitic helminth than in free-living helminths?
A) digestive system
B) nervous system
C) reproductive system
D) digestive and nervous systems
12.6
14
15) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) Fungi produce sexual spores.
B) Fungi produce asexual spores.
C) Fungal spores are used in identification of fungi.
D) Fungal spores are highly resistant to heat and chemical agents.
E) Fungal spores are for asexual or sexual reproduction.
1
3.4
12.2
16) Which of the following pairs are mismatched?
1. arthroconidium – formed by fragmentation
2. sporangiospore – formed within hyphae
3. conidiospore – formed in a chain
4. blastoconidium – formed from a bud
5. chlamydoconidium – formed in a sac
A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 3
C) 2 and 5
D) 3 and 4
E) 4 and 5
1
12.2
17) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) dinoflagellates – paralytic shellfish poisoning
B) brown algae – algin
C) red algae – agar
D) diatoms – petroleum
E) green algae – prokaryotic
1
12.8
18) Helminthic diseases are usually transmitted to humans by
A) respiratory route.
B) genitourinary route.
C) gastrointestinal route.
D) vectors.
E) aerosols.
12.6
17
7
19) All of the following are characteristic of the Platyhelminthes EXCEPT that they
A) are hermaphroditic.
B) are dorsoventrally flattened.
C) have highly developed digestive and nervous systems.
D) can be divided into flukes and tapeworms.
E) are multicellular animals.
12.6
16
20) In the malaria parasite life cycle, humans are the ________ host, while mosquitoes are the ________ host as well as the vector.
A) definitive; intermediate
B) intermediate; intermediate
C) temporary; final
D) vector; intermediate
E) intermediate; definitive
12.7
12.20
21) Three weeks after a river rafting trip, three family members experienced symptoms of coughing, fever, and chest pain. During the rafting trip, the family had consumed crayfish that they caught along the river banks. An examination of the patients' sputum revealed helminth eggs, and serum samples were positive for antibodies to Paragonimus. All of the family members recovered following treatment with praziquantel. In the Paragonimus life cycle,
A) the crayfish are the definitive host and humans are the intermediate host.
B) humans are the definitive host and crayfish are the intermediate host.
C) both humans and crayfish are intermediate hosts.
D) both humans and crayfish are definitive hosts.
E) the source of the infection was the river water.
12.6
Analyzing
16
22) The encysted larva of the beef tapeworm is called a
A) redia.
B) cercaria.
C) cysticercus.
D) metacercaria.
E) proglottid.
12.6
16
23) Which of the following arthropods does NOT transmit diseases by sucking blood from a human host?
A) lice
B) fleas
C) houseflies
D) mosquitoes
E) kissing bugs
12.7
12.21
24) Which of the following statements about algae is FALSE?
A) They use light as their energy source.
B) They use CO2 as their carbon source.
C) They produce oxygen from hydrolysis of water.
D) All are unicellular.
E) Some are capable of sexual reproduction.
1
Analyzing
6.1
12.7
25) Below are paired items referring to the heartworm Dirofilaria immitis. Which of the pairs is mismatched?
A) dog – definitive host
B) dog – sexual reproduction
C) mosquito – vector
D) mosquito – definitive host
E) None of the pairs is mismatched.
12.6
Analyzing
17
2
26) All of the following are characteristic of algae EXCEPT which ONE of the following?
A) Most are photoautotrophs.
B) They are currently classified as plants.
C) They may be unicellular or multicellular.
D) Some produce harmful toxins.
E) They mostly live in aquatic habitats.
1
6.1
12.7
27) A definitive host harbors which stage of a parasite?
A) miracidium
B) cyst
C) adult
D) larva
E) All of the answers are correct.
12.6
17
28) What do tapeworms eat?
A) intestinal bacteria
B) host tissues
C) red blood cells
D) intestinal contents
E) plant matter
12.6
18
29) Giardia and Trichomonas are unusual eukaryotes because they
A) are motile.
B) lack mitochondria.
C) lack nuclei.
D) do not produce cysts.
E) do produce cysts.
12.4
2.4
11
7
30) The life cycle of the fish tapeworm is similar to that of the beef tapeworm. Which of the following is the most effective preventive measure to avoid human infection?
A) salting fish before eating
B) refrigerating stored fish
C) cooking fish before eating
D) wearing gloves while handling fish
E) not swimming in fish-infested waters
12.6
3.4
19
2
31) Which of the following is the most effective control for malaria?
A) vaccination
B) treating patients
C) eliminate Anopheles mosquitoes
D) eliminate the intermediate host
E) None of these is an effective control.
12.4
Analyzing
3.4
12
2
32) In the microscope, you observe multinucleated amoeboid cells with sporangia that form spores. This is a(n)
A) ascomycete.
B) cellular slime mold.
C) Euglenozoa.
D) tapeworm.
E) plasmodial slime mold.
12.5
Analyzing
13
2
33) You observe a mass of amoeba-like cells that swarm together, form a stalk, and produce spores. This is a(n)
A) ascomycete.
B) cellular slime mold.
C) Euglenozoa.
D) tapeworm.
E) plasmodial slime mold.
12.5
Analyzing
13
2
34) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) nematodes – complete digestive tract
B) cestodes – segmented body made of proglottids
C) trematodes – flukes
D) nematodes – many are free-living
E) cestodes – all are free-living
12.6
19
2
35) Which of the following is a nucleated, unicellular organism that, if you changed the incubation temperature, would form filaments with conidiospores?
A) ascomycete
B) cellular slime mold
C) euglenozoa
D) tapeworm
E) plasmodial slime mold
1
Analyzing
1
2
36) Which of the following organisms is photoautotrophic protozoan?
A) oomycote
B) cellular slime mold
C) Euglena
D) Phytophthora
E) plasmodial slime mold
12.4
Analyzing
3.3
11
37) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) tick – Rocky Mountain spotted fever
B) tick – Lyme disease
C) mosquito – malaria
D) mosquito – Pneumocystis
E) mosquito – encephalitis
12.7
12.21
38) Which of the following groups of algae does NOT produce compounds that are toxic to humans?
A) diatoms
B) dinoflagellates
C) green algae
D) red algae
1
12.9
39) The cells of plasmodial slime molds can grow to several centimeters in diameter because
A) they have organelles.
B) they distribute nutrients by cytoplasmic streaming.
C) the large surface can absorb nutrients.
D) they form spores.
E) they have a mouth to ingest nutrients.
12.5
13
2
40) Assume you have isolated a multicellular heterotrophic organism that produces coenocytic hyphae, motile zoospores, and cellulose cell walls. It is most likely a(n)
A) ascomycete fungus.
B) green alga.
C) oomycote alga.
D) tapeworm.
E) zygomycete fungus.
1
Analyzing
12.8
2
41) If a larva of Echinococcus granulosus is found in humans, humans are the
A) definitive host.
B) infected host.
C) intermediate host.
D) reservoir.
E) None of the answers is correct.
12.6
Analyzing
17
7
42) Ringworm is caused by a(n)
A) fungus.
B) cestode.
C) nematode.
D) protozoan.
E) trematode.
1
12.4
43) Yeast infections are caused by
A) Aspergillus.
B) Candida albicans.
C) Histoplasma.
D) Penicillium.
E) Saccharomyces cerevisiae.
1
12.4
44) All of the following are characteristic of lichens EXCEPT
A) they are arranged in foliose, fruticose, or crustose morphologies.
B) they are a major food source for tundra herbivores.
C) they are used as indicators of air pollution.
D) they are a symbiotic relationship between a fungus and a protozoan.
E) they serve as primary producers in rocky ecosystems.
12.2
5.1
12.5
2
45) You see acid-fast oocysts in a fecal sample from a patient who has diarrhea. What is the MOST likely cause?
A) Cryptosporidium
B) diatoms
C) Entamoeba
D) Giardia
E) Taenia
12.4
11
46) A wolf kills a deer that is infected with ________ of Echinococcus granulosis in its liver and eats it. After consuming the deer, the wolf's intestine becomes filled with a number of ________ produced from scoleces. These eventually release eggs into the wolf's intestines, which are released in its feces.
A) hydatid cysts; proglottids
B) proglottids; hydatid cysts
C) cysticerci; proglottids
D) cercariae; cysticerci
E) hydatid cysts; cercariae
12.6
15
47) When we say that a human is a dead end host for a parasite, we mean
A) the human will die from the parasitic infection before being able to transmit it to another organism.
B) the infected human is highly unlikely to transmit the infection to another organism.
C) humans lack the correct anatomical structures for the parasite to exit the body.
D) that the human isn't capable of being infected by the parasite.
12.6
17
48) In the roundworms, the females have 1-2 hardened ________ on their posterior ends
A) genital pores
B) proglottids
C) cercariae
D) spicules
E) scoleces
12.6
18
49) Infecting more than 2 billion people worldwide, ________ are the most common causes of chronic infectious diseases.
A) intestinal tapeworms
B) intestinal roundworms
C) fungi
D) algae
E) protozoa
12.6
19
50) The head of a tapeworm intestinal parasite is known as the ________.
A) proglottid
B) spicule
C) scolex
D) cysticerci
E) hydatid cyst
12.6
14
12.2 True/False Questions
1) Plasmogamy, karyogamy, and meiosis are stages of the fungal sexual life cycle.
1
12.2
2) Arthropod vectors are blood-sucking animals such as ticks, lice, and fleas that transmit microbial pathogens.
12.7
12.20
3) Cercariae, metacercaria, and redia are all life cycle stages of trematodes.
12.6
16
4) The Platyhelminthes group includes roundworms, tapeworms, and flukes.
12.6
16
5) Some species of dinoflagellates produce neurotoxins that cause fish kills and red tides.
1
3.2
12.9
6) Both the cellular slime molds and the plasmodial slime molds are members of the phylum Amoebozoa.
12.5
13
7) In helminth life cycles, the organism that harbors the adult sexually reproductive phase of the parasite is called the intermediate host.
12.6
17
8) The sporozoite, merozoite, gametocyte, and ring stages are all part of the Plasmodium life cycle.
12.4
11
9) The insect vectors have six legs and include spiders, ticks, mosquitoes, and lice.
12.7
12.20
10) Most cases of hookworm infection are acquired by ingestion of adult forms in contaminated food or water.
12.6
18
1 Essay Questions
1) Provide an explanation for the complex life cycles exhibited by parasitic helminths. Cite specific examples in your explanation.
12.6
a
18
8
2) Explain how the presence of algae can indicate either pollution or productivity of a body of water.
1
a
12.9
8
3) Contrast the economic benefits and the harmful effects of fungi.
1
a
12.4
8
4) West Nile Virus is transmitted by mosquitoes as they take a blood meal. Flies can also transmit pathogens, but not in the process of taking a blood meal. Differentiate the ways in which flies and mosquitoes acquire and transmit infectious agents, and suggest 1-2 ways in which these methods might be disrupted.
12.7
Creating
3.4
12.21
5) Slime molds are not molds. Based on their life cycles and processes, why do you think they were originally given this incorrect name?
12.5
13
Microbiology: An Introduction, 13e (Tortora et al.)
Chapter 13 Viruses, Viroids, and Prions
13.1 Multiple-Choice Questions
1) How do all viruses differ from bacteria?
A) Viruses are filterable.
B) Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites.
C) Viruses do not have any nucleic acid.
D) Viruses are not composed of cells.
E) Viruses do not reproduce.
13.1
13.1
2) A feature that may be found in viruses but never in bacteria is
A) the ability to pass through 0.22 micrometer pore filters.
B) may contain an RNA genome.
C) they cannot reproduce themselves outside a host.
D) a sensitivity to antibiotics.
E) an ability to infect more than one type of host.
13.1
Analyzing
13.1
2
3) Which of the following statements about viral spikes is FALSE?
A) They are composed of carbohydrate-protein complexes.
B) They are used for attachment.
C) They may cause hemagglutination.
D) They bind to receptors on the host cell surface.
E) They are found only on nonenveloped viruses.
13.2
2.5
13.2
4) Which of the following is NOT used as a criterion to classify viruses?
A) biochemical tests
B) morphology
C) nucleic acid
D) size
E) number of capsomeres
13.2
13.2
5) Which of the following is NOT utilized to culture viruses?
A) laboratory animals
B) culture media
C) embryonated eggs
D) animal cell cultures
E) bacterial cultures
13.4
13.5
6) Bacteriophages and animal viruses do NOT differ significantly in which one of the following steps?
A) attachment
B) penetration
C) uncoating
D) biosynthesis
E) release
13.5
Analyzing
13.8
2
7) The definition of lysogeny is
A) phage DNA is incorporated into host cell DNA.
B) lysis of the host cell due to a phage.
C) the period during replication when virions are not present.
D) when the burst time takes an unusually long time.
E) attachment of a phage to a cell.
13.5
2.5
13.9
8) A viroid is a(n)
A) complete, infectious virus particle.
B) infectious piece of RNA without a capsid.
C) capsid without nucleic acid.
D) provirus.
E) infectious protein.
13.9
13.15
Figure 13.1
9) In Figure 13.1, which structure is a complex virus?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) All of the structures are complex viruses.
13.2
13.2
10) The morphological types of viruses illustrated in Figure 13.1 are ultimately determined by the
A) nucleic acid.
B) envelope.
C) capsomeres.
D) viroids.
E) membrane spikes.
13.2
13.2
11) A clear area against a confluent "lawn" of bacteria is called a
A) phage.
B) pock.
C) cell lysis.
D) plaque.
E) rash.
13.4
13.5
12) Continuous cell lines differ from primary cell lines in that
A) viruses can be grown in continuous cell lines.
B) continuous cell lines always have to be re-isolated from animal tissues.
C) continuous cell lines are derived from primary cell lines.
D) continuous cell lines can be maintained through an indefinite number of generations.
E) continuous cell lines are from human embryos.
13.4
13.6
13) Which of the following is necessary for replication of a prion?
A) DNA
B) DNA polymerase
C) lysozyme
D) PrPSc
E) RNA
13.9
13.15
14) A persistent infection is one in which
A) the virus remains in equilibrium with the host without causing a disease.
B) viral replication is unusually slow.
C) the disease process occurs gradually over a long period.
D) host cells are gradually lysed.
E) host cells are transformed.
13.8
13.14
15) An example of a persistent viral infection is
A) Hepatitis A infection.
B) Influenza.
C) Herpes Simplex Virus infection.
D) Human Immunodeficiency Virus infection.
E) Varicellavirus infection.
13.8
2.5
13.14
16) Lysogeny can result in all of the following EXCEPT
A) immunity to reinfection by the same phage.
B) acquisition of new characteristics by the host cell.
C) immunity to reinfection by any phage.
D) specialized transduction.
E) phage conversion.
13.5
13.9
17) Which of the following would be the first step in biosynthesis of a virus with a - (minus) strand of RNA?
A) synthesis of DNA from an RNA template
B) synthesis of double-stranded RNA from an RNA template
C) synthesis of double-stranded RNA from a DNA template
D) transcription of mRNA from DNA
E) synthesis of DNA from a DNA template
13.5
2.5
13.10
18) An infectious protein is a
A) bacteriophage.
B) prion.
C) retrovirus.
D) viroid.
E) papovavirus.
13.10
13.17
19) An envelope is acquired during which of the following steps?
A) penetration
B) adsorption
C) uncoating
D) biosynthesis
E) release
13.5
2.5
13.10
20) Which of the following statements is NOT true of lysogeny?
A) It can give infected pathogens the genetic information for toxin production.
B) Prophage is inserted into the host genome.
C) Lytic cycle may follow lysogeny.
D) It is a "silent" infection; the virus does not replicate.
E) It causes lysis of host cells.
13.5
2.5
13.9
21) An example of a latent viral infection is
A) subacute sclerosing panencephalitis.
B) cold sores.
C) influenza.
D) smallpox.
E) mumps.
13.8
2.5
13.14
22) A virus's ability to infect an animal cell depends primarily upon the
A) host cell's ability to phagocytize viral particles.
B) presence of receptor sites on the cell membrane.
C) type of viral nucleic acid.
D) enzymatic activity of a host cell.
E) presence of pili on the host cell wall.
13.5
13.10
23) Assume you have isolated an unknown virus. This virus has a single, positive sense strand of RNA, and possesses an envelope. To which group does it most likely belong?
A) herpesvirus
B) picornavirus
C) retrovirus
D) togavirus
E) papovavirus
13.5
2.5
13.10
24) The mechanism whereby an enveloped virus leaves a host cell is called
A) transduction.
B) budding.
C) abduction.
D) lysogeny.
E) penetration.
13.5
2.5
13.10
25) The most conclusive evidence that viruses cause cancers was provided by
A) finding oncogenes in viruses.
B) the presence of antibodies against viruses in cancer patients.
C) cancer that developed in chickens following injection of cell-free filtrates.
D) treating cancer with antibodies.
E) some liver cancer patients having had hepatitis.
13.6
Analyzing
13.12
2
26) Bacteriophages derive all of the following from the host cell EXCEPT
A) lysozyme.
B) tRNA.
C) amino acids.
D) nucleotides.
E) ATP.
13.5
13.8
27) Bacteriophage replication differs from animal virus replication because only bacteriophage replication involves
A) adsorption to specific receptors.
B) assembly of viral components.
C) replication of viral nucleic acid.
D) injection of naked nucleic acid into the host cell.
E) lysis of the host cell.
13.5
Analyzing
13.8
2
28) Generally, in an infection caused by a DNA-containing virus, the host animal cell supplies all of the following EXCEPT
A) RNA polymerase.
B) nucleotides.
C) DNA polymerase.
D) tRNA.
E) None of the answers are correct; all of these are supplied by the host animal cell.
13.5
13.10
29) Which of the following places these items in the correct order for DNA-virus replication?
1. Maturation
2. DNA synthesis
3. Transcription
4. Translation
A) 1; 2; 3; 4
B) 2; 3; 4; 1
C) 3; 4; 1; 2
D) 4; 1; 2; 3
E) 4; 3; 2; 1
13.5
Analyzing
13.10
2
30) A viral species is a group of viruses that
A) has the same morphology and nucleic acid.
B) has the same genetic information and ecological niche.
C) infects the same cells and cause the same disease.
D) cannot be defined.
13.3
13.3
31) Viruses that utilize reverse transcriptase belong to the virus families
A) Retroviridae and Picornaviridae.
B) Herpesviridae and Retroviridae.
C) Hepadnaviridae and Retroviridae.
D) Herpesviridae and Poxviridae.
E) Rhabdoviridae and Herpesviridae.
13.3
2.5
13.4
32) DNA made from an RNA template will be incorporated into the virus capsid of
A) Retroviridae.
B) Herpesviridae.
C) Hepadnaviridae.
D) bacteriophage families.
E) influenzavirus.
13.5
Analyzing
2.5
13.10
33) Which of the following statements about viruses is FALSE?
A) Viruses contain DNA or RNA but never both.
B) Viruses contain a protein coat.
C) Viruses use the anabolic machinery of the cell.
D) Viruses use their own catabolic enzymes.
E) Viruses have genes.
13.1
2.5
13.1
34) A lytic virus has infected a patient. Which of the following would best describe what is happening inside the patient?
A) The virus is causing the death of the infected cells in the patient.
B) The virus is not killing any cells in the host.
C) The virus is incorporating its nucleic acid with that of the patient's cells.
D) The virus is slowly killing the patient's cells.
E) The virus is infecting cells and then releasing only small amounts of virus.
13.5
13.10
35) Some viruses, such as human herpesvirus 1, infect a cell without causing symptoms. These are called
A) latent viruses.
B) lytic viruses.
C) phages.
D) slow viruses.
E) unconventional viruses.
13.7
13.13
Figure 13.2
36) Assume a patient had chickenpox (human herpesvirus 3) as a child. Which line on the graph in Figure 13.2 would show the number of viruses present in this person as a 60-year-old with shingles (human herpesvirus 3)?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e
13.7
Analyzing
13.13
3
37) Assume a patient has influenza. During which time on the graph in Figure 13.2 would the patient show the symptoms of the illness?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e
13.8
Analyzing
2.5
13.14
3
38) The following steps occur during multiplication of herpesviruses. Which is the third step?
A) attachment
B) biosynthesis
C) penetration
D) release
E) uncoating
13.5
Analyzing
2.5
13.10
2
39) The following steps occur during multiplication of retroviruses. Which is the fourth step?
A) synthesis of double-stranded DNA
B) synthesis of +RNA
C) attachment
D) penetration
E) uncoating
13.5
Analyzing
2.5
13.10
2
40) Oncogenic viruses
A) cause acute infections.
B) are genetically unstable.
C) cause tumors to develop.
D) are lytic viruses that kill the host cell.
E) have no effect on the host cell.
13.6
13.12
41) Which one of the following steps does NOT occur during multiplication of a picornavirus?
A) synthesis of + strands of RNA
B) synthesis of - strands of RNA
C) synthesis of viral proteins
D) synthesis of DNA
E) None of the answers is correct.
13.5
2.5
13.10
42) Which of the following is most likely a product of an early gene?
A) capsid proteins
B) DNA polymerase
C) envelope proteins
D) spike proteins
E) lysozyme
13.5
2.5
13.10
43) Most RNA viruses carry which of the following enzymes?
A) DNA-dependent DNA polymerase
B) lysozyme
C) RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
D) reverse transcriptase
E) ATP synthase
13.5
2.5
13.10
44) What is NOT true regarding viruses that infect plants?
A) They can spread via pollination.
B) They must enter through a wound or be introduced by an inset feeding.
C) They can sometimes be cultured in insect cells.
D) They are often cultured in embryonated chicken eggs.
E) They are morphologically similar to animal viruses.
13.9
2.5
13.16
45) What contributes to antigenic shift in influenza viruses?
A) worldwide distribution of the virus
B) a segmented genome
C) attachment spikes
D) ease of virus transmission
E) different virus subtypes
13.4
2.5
13.10
46) ________ were first identified in cancer-causing viruses and can induce ________ in infected cells.
A) Herpes viruses; lesions
B) Oncogenes; transformation
C) T antigens; lysis
D) Glycoprotein spikes; syncytia formation
E) Segmented genomes; reassortment
13.6
13.11
2
47) What is an oncogene?
A) a problematic gene found exclusively in viruses
B) an altered form of a gene that may induce cancer
C) a toxin gene transferred by a virus
D) a viral polymerase
E) a viral ligand found in a family of viruses
13.6
13.12
48) What is the key characteristic of a transformed cell?
A) has acquired tumor-forming properties
B) is producing toxins affecting neighboring cells
C) is producing budding viruses
D) has undergone chromosomal rearrangements
E) is infected with a lytic virus
13.6
13.12
49) Shingles is an example of
A) reactivation of latent virus.
B) lytic virus.
C) persistent virus.
D) lysogeny.
E) transformation.
13.8
2.5
13.14
50) Why do most scientists agree that viruses are nonliving entities?
A) They cannot replicate outside host cells.
B) They are composed of relatively simple components.
C) They pass through filters.
D) They cause diseases in host cells.
E) They are not composed of cells.
13.1
13.1
13.2 True/False Questions
1) The basic mechanism of viral multiplication is similar for all viruses.
13.5
2.5
13.10
2
2) A viroid is a completely developed infectious agent composed of nucleic acid and surrounded by a capsid.
13.9
2.5
13.15
3) Binomial nomenclature is used to name viruses.
13.3
13.3
4) Glycoprotein spikes are found on the capsids of all viruses.
13.2
2.5
13.2
5) Positive sense RNA strands of viruses are treated like mRNA inside the host cell.
13.5
2.5
13.10
6) Dogs do not get measles because their cells lack the correct receptor sites for that virus.
13.5
2.5
13.10
2
7) Helical and icosahedral are terms used to describe the shapes of a virus envelope.
13.2
2.5
13.2
8) Viruses are the only known infectious agents that are obligatory intracellular parasites.
13.1
13.1
9) A segmented genome can result in antigenic shift.
13.5
2.5
13.10
10) Most drugs that interfere with viral multiplication also interfere with host cell function.
13.1
13.1
13.3 Essay Questions
1) Bacteriophages are used as vectors in genetic engineering to insert new genes into bacteria. Describe the process that makes this genetic recombination possible.
13.5
13.9
7
2) Compare and contrast the lytic cycle of infection of a DNA virus and an RNA virus.
13.5
13.10
8
3) Discuss why viruses are considered infectious "particles" on the borderline between living and non-living.
13.1
13.1
7
4) Explain the steps involved in bacteriophage DNA entering a bacterial cell.
13.5
2.5
13.8
8
5) How is the replication of the viral genome of retroviruses unique among the viruses?
13.5
2.5
13.10
8
6) Researchers studying tissues of diseased marine mammals have identified what appear to be viral particles by electron microscopy. Describe three methods you might use to attempt to culture this virus for further study.
13.4
13.7
8
Microbiology: An Introduction, 13e (Tortora et al.)
Chapter 14 Principles of Disease and Epidemiology
14.1 Multiple-Choice Questions
1) A commensal bacterium
A) does not receive any benefit from its host.
B) is beneficial to its host.
C) may also be an opportunistic pathogen.
D) isn't capable of causing disease in its host.
E) always causes disease in its host.
14.2
14.3
2
2) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A) Both members are harmed in a symbiotic relationship.
B) Members of a symbiotic relationship cannot live without each other.
C) A parasite is not in symbiosis with its host.
D) Symbiosis always refers to different organisms living together and benefiting from each other.
E) At least one member must benefit in a symbiotic relationship.
14.2
14.3
2
3) A healthcare-associated infection (traditionally known as a nosocomial infection) is
A) always present, but is inapparent at the time of hospitalization.
B) acquired during the course of hospitalization.
C) always caused by medical personnel.
D) only a result of surgery.
E) always caused by pathogenic bacteria.
14.7
14.15
4) The major significance of Robert Koch's work is that
A) microorganisms are present in a diseased animal.
B) diseases can be transmitted from one animal to another.
C) microorganisms can be cultured.
D) microorganisms cause disease.
E) microorganisms are the result of disease.
14.3
7.4
14.5
5
5) Which of the following is NOT a verified exception in the use of Koch's postulates?
A) Some diseases have poorly defined etiologies.
B) Some pathogens can cause several disease conditions.
C) Some human diseases have no other known animal host.
D) Some diseases are not caused by microbes.
E) Some diseases are noncommunicable.
14.3
7.4
14.5
5
6) Which of the following diseases is NOT spread by droplet infection?
A) botulism
B) tuberculosis
C) measles
D) the common cold
E) diphtheria
14.6
14.14
7) Biological transmission differs from mechanical transmission in that biological transmission
A) occurs when a pathogen is carried on the feet of an insect.
B) involves fomites.
C) involves reproduction of a pathogen in an arthropod vector prior to transmission.
D) requires direct contact.
E) works only with noncommunicable diseases.
14.6
14.14
8) Which of the following definitions is INCORRECT?
A) endemic: a disease that is constantly present in a population
B) epidemic: a disease that is constantly present across the world
C) pandemic: a disease that affects a large number of people in the world in a short time
D) sporadic: a disease that affects a population occasionally
E) incidence: number of new cases of a disease
1
14.7
9) Focal infections initially start out as
A) sepsis.
B) bacteremia.
C) local infections.
D) septicemia.
E) systemic infections.
1
14.8
10) The rise in herd immunity amongst a population can be directly attributed to
A) increased use of antibiotics.
B) improved handwashing.
C) vaccinations.
D) antibiotic-resistant microorganisms.
E) None of the answers is correct.
1
14.9
5
11) Koch observed Bacillus anthracis multiplying in the blood of cattle. What is the condition specifically called when bacteria are multiplying in the blood?
A) bacteremia
B) focal infection
C) local infection
D) septicemia
E) systemic infection
14.3
14.5
2
12) Which one of the following does NOT contribute to the incidence of healthcare-associated infections?
A) antibiotic resistance
B) lapse in aseptic techniques
C) gram-negative cell walls
D) lack of handwashing
E) lack of disinfecting surfaces
14.7
14.17
7
13) Transient microbiota differ from normal microbiota in that transient microbiota
A) cause diseases.
B) are found in a certain location on the host.
C) are always acquired by direct contact.
D) are present for a relatively short time.
E) never cause disease.
14.2
14.2
14) Which of the following statements about healthcare-associated infections is FALSE?
A) They occur in compromised patients.
B) They may be caused by opportunists.
C) They may be caused by drug-resistant bacteria.
D) They may be caused by normal microbiota.
E) The patient was infected before hospitalization.
14.7
14.15
2
15) One effect of washing regularly with antibacterial agents is the removal of normal microbiota. This can result in
A) body odor.
B) fewer diseases.
C) increased susceptibility to disease.
D) normal microbiota returning immediately.
E) no bacterial growth because washing removes their food source.
14.2
14.3
7
16) Which of the following is NOT a reservoir of infection?
A) a sick person
B) a healthy person
C) a sick animal
D) a hospital
E) None of the answers is correct; all of these can be reservoirs of infection.
14.6
14.12
2
17) Which of the following is NOT a communicable disease?
A) malaria
B) AIDS
C) tuberculosis
D) tetanus
E) typhoid fever
1
14.6
18) Which of the following is a fomite?
A) water
B) droplets from a sneeze
C) pus
D) insects
E) a hypodermic needle
14.6
14.13
19) Which of the following statements about biological transmission is FALSE?
A) The pathogen reproduces in the vector.
B) The pathogen may enter the host in the vector's feces.
C) Houseflies are an important vector.
D) The pathogen may be injected by the bite of the vector.
E) The pathogen may require the vector as a host.
14.6
14.14
2
20) Which of the following definitions is INCORRECT?
A) acute: a short-lasting primary infection
B) inapparent: infection characteristic of a carrier state
C) chronic: a disease that develops slowly and lasts for months
D) primary infection: an initial illness
E) secondary infection: a long-lasting illness
1
14.8
21) Symptoms of disease differ from signs of disease in that symptoms
A) are changes felt by the patient.
B) are changes observed by the physician.
C) are specific for a particular disease.
D) always occur as part of a syndrome.
1
14.6
22) The science that deals with when diseases occur and how they are transmitted is called
A) ecology.
B) epidemiology.
C) communicable disease.
D) morbidity and mortality.
E) public health.
14.9
14.20
5
Refer to figure 14.1
23) Figure 14.1 shows the incidence of influenza during a typical year in the northern hemisphere. Which letter on the graph indicates the endemic level?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
1
Analyzing
7.1b
14.7
3
24) In Figure 14.1, which letter on the graph indicates the epidemic level?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
1
Analyzing
7.1b
14.7
3
25) In Figure 14.1, which letter indicates the gradual end of the epidemic outbreak?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
1
Analyzing
7.1b
14.7
3
26) Would you expect the graph to change if this was for the southern hemisphere, rather than the northern hemisphere? If so, how?
A) No, the graph would not change. Influenza epidemics occur at the same time each year.
B) Yes, because the population in the northern hemisphere is less than that in the southern hemisphere, the peak of the graph would be higher.
C) Yes, because the weather is hotter in the southern hemisphere than in the northern hemisphere, you could expect to see less cases overall in the graph, leading to a lower peak.
D) Yes, because the seasons are reversed in the southern hemisphere. While weather doesn't directly cause influenza outbreaks, the cold, dry air and human crowding indoors contribute to increased cases. The southern hemisphere would still have a peak, but it would be at a different time of year than the northern hemisphere.
1
Analyzing
7.1b
14.7
3
27) Emergence of infectious diseases can be attributed to all of the following EXCEPT
A) antibiotic resistance.
B) climatic changes.
C) new strains of previously known agents.
D) ease of travel.
E) The emergence of infectious diseases can be attributed to all of these.
14.8
14.19
7
28) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) malaria – foodborne transmission
B) salmonellosis – vehicle transmission
C) syphilis – direct contact
D) influenza – droplet infection
14.6
14.14
29) Which of the following can contribute to postoperative infections?
A) using syringes more than once
B) normal microbiota on the operating room staff
C) errors in aseptic technique
D) antibiotic resistance
E) All of the answers are correct.
14.7
14.17
Refer to Figure 14.2
30) In Figure 14.2, when is the prevalence the highest?
A) July
B) January
C) February
D) March
1
Analyzing
7.1b
14.7
3
31) In Figure 14.2, which one of the following choices has the highest morbidity rate?
A) July
B) October
C) November
D) December
1
Analyzing
7.1b
14.7
3
32) A cold transmitted by a facial tissue is an example of
A) direct contact.
B) droplet transmission.
C) fomite.
D) vector.
E) vehicle transmission.
14.6
14.14
33) A researcher has performed a prospective study on a disease. To which specific kind of epidemiological study is this referring?
A) analytical
B) case control
C) descriptive
D) experimental
E) prodromal
14.9
14.20
1
34) The CDC is located in
A) Atlanta, GA.
B) Washington, DC.
C) New York City, NY.
D) Los Angeles, CA.
E) Chicago, IL.
14.9
14.21
35) A disease in which the causative agent remains inactive for a time before producing symptoms is referred to as
A) subacute.
B) subclinical.
C) latent.
D) zoonotic.
E) acute.
1
14.8
36) A needlestick is an example of
A) direct contact.
B) droplet transmission.
C) indirect contact transmission by fomite.
D) direct biological transmission by vector.
E) vehicle transmission.
14.6
14.14
2
37) Which of the following is NOT a predisposing factor of disease?
A) lifestyle
B) genetic background
C) climate
D) occupation
E) All of these are predisposing factors of disease.
14.5
14.10
7
38) In which of the following diseases can gender be considered a viable predisposing factor?
A) urinary tract infections
B) pneumonia
C) salmonellosis
D) tetanus
E) anthrax
14.5
14.10
7
39) In which of the following patterns of disease does the patient experience no signs or symptoms?
A) prodromal
B) decline
C) convalescence
D) incubation
E) both incubation and convalescence
14.5
14.11
2
Situation 14.1
During a six-month period, 239 cases of pneumonia occurred in a town of 300 people. A clinical case was defined as fever ≥ 39°C lasting >2 days with three or more symptoms (i.e., chills, sweats, severe headache, cough, aching muscles/joints, fatigue, or feeling ill). A laboratory-confirmed case was defined as a positive result for antibodies against Coxiella burnetii. Before the outbreak, 2000 sheep were kept northwest of the town. Of the 20 sheep tested from the flock, 15 were positive for C. burnetii antibodies. Wind blew from the northwest, and rainfall was 0.5 cm compared with 7 to 10 cm during each of the previous three years.
40) Situation 14.1 is an example of
A) human reservoirs.
B) a zoonosis.
C) a nonliving reservoir.
D) a vector.
E) a focal infection.
14.6
Analyzing
14.14
2
41) The etiologic agent of the disease in Situation 14.1 is
A) sheep.
B) soil.
C) Coxiella burnetii.
D) pneumonia.
E) wind.
14.1
Analyzing
14.1
2
42) The method of transmission of the disease in Situation 14.1 was
A) direct contact.
B) droplet.
C) indirect contact.
D) vector-borne.
E) vehicle.
14.6
Analyzing
14.14
2
43) Which of the following is NOT an example of microbial antagonism?
A) acid production by bacteria
B) bacteriocin production
C) bacteria occupying host receptors
D) bacteria causing disease
E) bacteria producing vitamin K
14.2
14.2
2
44) The yeast Candida albicans does NOT normally cause disease because of
A) symbiotic bacteria.
B) antagonistic bacteria.
C) parasitic bacteria.
D) commensal bacteria.
E) other fungi.
14.2
14.2
45) If a prodromal period exists for a certain disease, it should occur prior to
A) incubation.
B) illness.
C) decline.
D) convalescence.
14.5
14.11
46) Which one of the following is NOT a zoonosis?
A) cat-scratch disease
B) Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome
C) rabies
D) tapeworm
E) All of these are zoonoses.
14.6
14.14
2
47) Pseudomonas bacteria colonized the bile duct of a patient following his liver transplant surgery. This is an example of a
A) communicable disease.
B) latent infection.
C) nosocomial infection.
D) sporadic disease.
E) None of the answers is correct.
14.7
14.15
2
Refer to Figure 14.3 for the next several questions.
48) The graph in Figure 14.3 shows the incidence of polio in the United States. The period between 1945 and 1955 indicates a(n)
A) endemic level.
B) epidemic level.
C) sporadic infection.
D) communicable disease.
E) pandemic.
1
Analyzing
7.1b
14.7
3
49) Interpreting this graph, can we conclude that polio has been eradicated globally? Why or why not?
A) Yes, as the number of reported cases goes to zero around 1965.
B) No, because polio is part of the normal microbiota, and could become resurgent if vaccination efforts lapse.
C) No, because the graph only depicts incidence of polio in the United States.
D) Yes, because a zero incidence rate for over 40 years clearly indicates there are no longer any susceptibles left in the global population.
1
Analyzing
7.1b
14.7
3
50) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) Antimicrobial therapy for hemodialysis-associated infections increases antibiotic resistance.
B) S. aureus is differentiated from other mannitol+ cocci by the coagulase test.
C) The M in MRSA stands for mannitol.
D) The USA100 strain accounts for most hospital-acquired MRSA.
E) The USA300 strain accounts for most community-acquired MRSA.
14.8
14.19
14.2 True/False Questions
1) For a particular disease at a specific time period, morbidity rates should always be equal or greater than mortality rates.
14.9
14.22
2
2) Testing the effectiveness of a new drug for anthrax would be best performed as an experimental study.
14.9
3.4
14.20
1
3) MMWR is a publication by the CDC that reports specifically and only on emerging diseases.
14.9
14.21
5
4) A researcher only needs to select a cohort group when implementing an analytical epidemiological study.
14.8
7.1
14.20
1
5) Diseases that are referred to as emerging infectious diseases have only been discovered in the past fifty years.
14.8
14.19
7
6) A burn patient is one example of a compromised host.
14.7
14.16
7) A host is not considered diseased until an infection changes one's state of health.
14.5
14.11
8) Reservoirs of infections are always inanimate objects.
14.6
14.12
9) Bloodstream infections are the least common forms of nosocomial infections.
14.7
14.15
10) Both normal and transient flora can become opportunistic pathogens.
14.2
14.2
14.3 Essay Questions
1) Situation 14.2
A 37-week-old infant was delivered by cesarean section and discharged from a Connecticut hospital when he was ten days old. Two days later he was lethargic and had a fever. When he was readmitted to the hospital, he had multiple brain abscesses caused by Citrobacter diversus. After a prolonged illness, the baby died. A second infant with a normal pregnancy and delivery died of C. diversus meningitis after a short illness. Nine infants in the hospital nursery had umbilical cord colonization by C. diversus. Environmental cultures were negative for hospital equipment.
Refer to Situation 14.2 What is the normal habitat of this gram-negative, facultatively anaerobic, non-endospore-forming, lactose-positive rod? Provide a plan for identifying the source of infection and preventing further infection.
14.7
Creating
7.1a
14.17
8
2) Figure 1
Salmonella Heidelberg gastroenteritis occurred on three cruises aboard the T.S.S. Festivale. Figure 1 shows on-board clinic visits for diarrheal illness between February 10 and March 3. Explain the incidence pattern shown on the graph. What are probable modes of transmission? What changes would you recommend before the ship books more cruises after March 3?
14.9
Creating
7.1b
14.20
3
3) Zika virus infection, a zoonotic disease, produced somewhat sizable outbreaks recently in certain areas of Central America, but not in the U.S (although there were some infected individuals uncovered in the U.S.). Provide two plausible explanations for this dichotomy, and explain.
14.8
a
14.19
8
4) When studying the epidemiology of a particular disease, why are retrospective studies commonly undertaken before prospective studies?
14.9
a
14.20
1
5) Would you expect all EIDs to be on the notifiable infectious disease list? Explain.
14.8
a
14.19
8
Microbiology: An Introduction, 13e (Tortora et al.)
Chapter 15 Microbial Mechanisms of Pathogenicity
15.1 Multiple-Choice Questions
1) The most frequently used portal of entry for pathogens is the
A) mucous membranes of the respiratory tract.
B) mucous membranes of the gastrointestinal tract.
C) skin.
D) parenteral route.
E) All of these portals are used equally.
15.1
15.1
2) The ability of some microbes, such as Trypanosoma or Giardia to alter their surface molecules and evade destruction by the host's antibodies is called
A) antigenic variation.
B) lysogenic conversion.
C) virulence.
D) cytopathic effect.
E) cytocidal effect.
15.2
15.6
3) Most pathogens that gain access through the skin
A) can penetrate intact skin.
B) just infect the skin itself.
C) enter through hair follicles and sweat ducts.
D) must adhere first while their invasive factors allow them to penetrate.
E) must be injected.
15.1
15.1
4) The ID50 is
A) a measure of pathogenicity.
B) the dose that will cause an infection in 50 percent of the test population.
C) the dose that will kill some of the test population.
D) the dose that will cause an infection in some of the test population.
E) the dose that will kill 50 percent of the test population.
15.1
15.2
5) All of the following contribute to a pathogen's invasiveness EXCEPT
A) toxins.
B) capsules.
C) cell wall components.
D) hyaluronidase.
E) coagulases.
15.2
15.5
6) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) Leukocidins destroy neutrophils.
B) Hemolysins lyse red blood cells.
C) Hyaluronidase breaks down substances between cells.
D) Kinase destroys fibrin clots.
E) Coagulase destroys blood clots.
15.2
15.5
7) Which of the following statements about exotoxins is generally FALSE?
A) They are more potent than endotoxins.
B) They are composed of proteins.
C) They are resistant to heat.
D) They have specific methods of action.
E) They are produced by gram-positive bacteria.
15.3
15.11
8) Endotoxins are
A) associated with gram-positive bacteria.
B) molecules that bind nerve cells.
C) part of the gram-negative cell wall.
D) excreted from the cell.
E) A-B toxins.
15.3
15.11
9) Which of the following is NOT a membrane-disrupting toxin?
A) A-B toxin
B) hemolysin
C) leukocidin
D) streptolysin O
E) streptolysin S
15.3
15.11
10) Cytopathic effects are changes in host cells due to
A) viral infections.
B) protozoan infections.
C) fungal infections.
D) bacterial infections.
E) helminthic infections.
1
15.15
11) Which disease-associated fungi or fungal characteristics are mismatched?
A) ergot - sclerotia
B) trichothecenes - inhibit protein synthesis
C) Cryptococcus neoformans - capsules
D) Claviceps purpura - aflatoxin
E) Amantia - neurotoxin
15.5
15.16
12) All of the following are methods of avoiding host antibodies EXCEPT
A) antigenic changes.
B) IgA proteases.
C) invasins.
D) membrane-disrupting toxins.
E) inducing endocytosis.
15.2
15.6
13) Siderophores are bacterial proteins that compete with the host's
A) antibodies.
B) red blood cells.
C) iron-transport proteins.
D) white blood cells.
E) receptors.
15.3
3.2
15.9
14) The fimbriae of Neisseria gonorrhea and enteropathogenic E. coli are examples of
A) adhesins.
B) ligands.
C) receptors.
D) adhesins and ligands.
E) adhesins, ligands, and receptors.
15.1
15.3
15) All of the following are examples of entry via the parenteral route EXCEPT
A) injection.
B) bite.
C) surgery.
D) hair follicle.
E) skin cut.
15.1
15.1
16) Superantigens produce intense immune responses by stimulating lymphocytes to produce
A) endotoxins.
B) exotoxins.
C) cytokines.
D) leukocidins.
E) interferons.
15.3
15.12
17) Botulism is caused by ingestion of a proteinaceous exotoxin; therefore, it can easily be prevented by
A) boiling food prior to consumption.
B) administering antibiotics to patients.
C) not eating canned food.
D) preventing fecal contamination of food.
E) filtering food.
15.3
3.4
15.11
18) All of the following organisms produce exotoxins EXCEPT
A) Salmonella typhi.
B) Clostridium botulinum.
C) Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
D) Clostridium tetani.
E) Staphylococcus aureus.
15.3
15.10
19) Which of the following cytopathic effects is cytocidal?
A) inclusion bodies
B) giant cells
C) antigenic changes
D) transformation
E) release of enzymes from lysosomes
1
15.15
20) All of the following are used by bacteria to attach to host cells EXCEPT
A) M protein.
B) ligands.
C) fimbriae.
D) capsules.
E) A-B toxins.
15.1
15.3
21) Symptoms of protozoan and helminthic diseases are due to
A) tissue damage due to growth of the parasite on the tissues.
B) waste products excreted by the parasite.
C) products released from damaged tissues.
D) tissue damage due to growth of the parasite on the tissues and waste products excreted by the parasite.
E) tissue damage due to growth of the parasite on the tissues, waste products excreted by the parasite, and products released from damaged tissues.
15.5
15.16
22) Which of the following statements about staphylococcal enterotoxin is FALSE?
A) It causes vomiting.
B) It causes diarrhea.
C) It is an exotoxin.
D) It is produced by Staphylococcus aureus growing in the host's intestines.
E) It is a superantigen.
15.3
15.11
23) Which of the following contributes to the virulence of a pathogen?
A) numbers of microorganisms that gain access to a host
B) evasion of host defenses
C) toxin production
D) numbers of microorganisms that gain access to a host and evasion of host defenses
E) numbers of microorganisms that gain access to a host, evasion of host defenses, and toxin production
15.3
15.10
24) Lysogenic bacteriophages contribute to bacterial virulence because bacteriophages
A) give new gene sequences to the host bacteria.
B) produce toxins.
C) carry plasmids.
D) kill the bacteria, causing release of endotoxins.
E) kill human cells.
15.3
15.14
25) Twenty-five people developed symptoms of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea three to six hours after attending a church picnic where they ate a ham and green bean casserole with cream sauce. The most likely cause of this case of food intoxication is
A) botulinum toxin.
B) aflatoxin.
C) staphylococcal enterotoxin.
D) erythrogenic toxin.
E) cholera toxin.
15.3
Analyzing
15.11
2
26) Which of the following statements about M protein is FALSE?
A) It is found on Streptococcus pyogenes.
B) It is found on fimbriae.
C) It is heat- and acid-resistant.
D) It is readily digested by phagocytes.
E) It is a protein.
15.2
1
27) Symptoms of intense inflammation and shock occur in some gram-positive bacterial infections due to
A) A-B toxins.
B) lipid A.
C) membrane-disrupting toxins.
D) superantigens.
E) erythrogenic toxin.
15.3
15.10
28) Which of the following is an example of direct damage due to bacterial infection?
A) the uncontrolled muscle contractions in Clostridium tetani infection
B) the invasion and lysis of intestinal cells by E. coli
C) the hemolysis of red blood cells in a staphylococcal infection
D) the fever, nausea, and low blood pressure in a Salmonella infection
E) the excessive secretion of fluids in a Vibrio cholera infection
15.3
Analyzing
15.10
2
29) Polio is transmitted by ingestion of water contaminated with feces containing polio virus. What portal of entry does polio virus use?
A) skin only
B) parenteral only
C) mucous membranes only
D) skin and parenteral
E) skin, parenteral, and mucous membranes
15.1
15.1
30) All of the following bacteria release endotoxin EXCEPT
A) Clostridium botulinum.
B) Salmonella Typhi.
C) Neisseria meningitidis.
D) Proteus vulgaris.
E) Haemophilus influenzae.
15.3
15.11
31) Cholera toxin polypeptide A binds to surface gangliosides on target cells. If the gangliosides were removed,
A) polypeptide A would bind to target cells.
B) polypeptide A would enter the cells.
C) polypeptide B would not be able to enter the cells.
D) Vibrio would not produce cholera toxin.
E) Vibrio would bind to target cells.
15.3
15.12
32) Bacteria such as E. coli and Salmonella produce invasins that bind host cells, thus causing the cells to
A) release TNF.
B) produce iron-binding proteins.
C) engulf the bacteria.
D) destroy the bacteria.
E) release cytokines.
15.2
15.7
33) Which of the following mechanisms is used by gram-negative bacteria to cross the blood-brain barrier?
A) producing fimbriae
B) inducing endocytosis
C) producing toxins
D) inducing TNF
E) antigenic variation
15.3
15.10
34) Injectable drugs are tested for endotoxins by
A) the Limulus amoebocyte lysate test.
B) counting the viable bacteria.
C) filtering out the cells.
D) looking for turbidity.
E) culturing bacteria.
15.3
15.13
35) Endotoxins in sterile injectable drugs could cause
A) infection.
B) septic shock symptoms.
C) giant cell formation.
D) nerve damage.
E) no damage, because they are sterile.
15.3
15.10
36) Gram-negative septic shock results from the following events. What is the second step?
A) Body temperature is reset in the hypothalamus.
B) Fever occurs.
C) IL-1 is released.
D) LPS is released from gram-negative bacteria.
E) Phagocytes ingest gram-negative bacteria.
15.3
Analyzing
15.11
2
37) Antibiotics can lead to septic shock if used to treat
A) viral infections.
B) gram-negative bacterial infections.
C) gram-positive bacterial infections.
D) protozoan infections.
E) helminth infestations.
15.3
15.11
38) Which of the following is NOT a cytopathic effect of viruses?
A) cell death
B) host cells fusing to form multinucleated syncytia
C) inclusion bodies forming in the cytoplasm or nucleus
D) increased cell growth
E) toxin production
1
15.15
39) Table 15.1
Bacterium Portal of Entry ID50
Staphylococcus aureus Wound <10
Staphylococcus aureus Wound + Ampicillin 300
Table 15.1 shows the ID50 for Staphylococcus aureus in wounds with and without the administration of ampicillin before surgery. Based on the data, the administration of ampicillin before surgery
A) decreases the risk of staphylococcal infection.
B) increases the risk of staphylococcal infection.
C) has no effect on risk of infection.
D) replaces tetracycline.
E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
15.1
15.2
3
Table 15.2
Bacterium ID50
E. coli O157:H7 20
Legionella pneumophila 1
Shigella 10
Treponema pallidum 57
40) Which organism in Table 15.2 most easily causes an infection?
A) E. coli O157:H7
B) Legionella pneumophila
C) Shigella
D) Treponema pallidum
E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
15.1
15.2
3
41) Which organism in Table 15.2 causes the most severe disease?
A) E. coli O157:H7
B) Legionella pneumophila
C) Shigella
D) Treponema pallidum
E) It cannot be determined from the information provided.
15.1
Analyzing
15.2
3
42) Bacteria that cause periodontal disease have adhesins for receptors on streptococci that colonize on teeth. This indicates that
A) streptococci get bacterial infections.
B) streptococcal colonization is necessary for periodontal disease.
C) bacteria that cause periodontal disease adhere to gums and teeth.
D) bacteria that cause periodontal disease adhere to teeth.
E) streptococci cause periodontal disease.
15.1
15.3
43) Nonpathogenic Vibrio cholerae can acquire the cholera toxin gene by
A) phagocytosis.
B) lysogenic conversion.
C) conjugation.
D) transformation.
E) infecting a pathogenic Vibrio cholerae.
15.3
15.14
44) In response to the presence of endotoxin, phagocytes secrete tumor necrosis factor. This causes
A) the disease to subside.
B) a decrease in blood pressure.
C) a fever.
D) a gram-negative infection.
E) an increase in red blood cells.
15.3
15.11
45) Patients developed inflammation a few hours following eye surgery. Instruments and solutions were sterile, and the Limulus assay was positive. The patients' inflammation was due to
A) bacterial infection.
B) viral infection.
C) endotoxin.
D) exotoxin.
E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
15.3
15.13
46) The best description of direct damage by a pathogen is
A) host cells destroyed when pathogens metabolize and multiply.
B) capsule components of pathogens kill cells.
C) poisonous substances secreted by viruses kill cells.
D) superantigens cause cytokine release which then cause symptoms of disease.
E) protein synthesis is interrupted by toxins.
15.3
15.10
47) Which is NOT specifically employed by pathogens to avoid destruction by phagocytosis?
A) producing a capsule
B) possessing ability to replicate within a phagolysosome
C) producing superantigens
D) possessing ability to remain dormant within a phagocyte
E) forming biofilms
15.2
1
48) A retired contract administrator who enjoyed gardening sought medical attention for what appeared to be a sinus infection. He received antimicrobials but the conditioned worsened and he was experiencing severe painful spasms in his jaw. He admitted to injuring himself with a gardening tool while wearing sandals in the yard but did not seek medical attention for the wound. The man is likely experiencing
A) septic shock.
B) LPS-mediated inflammatory response.
C) intoxication caused by a focal C. tetani infection.
D) allergic rhinitis.
E) meningitis.
15.3
15.11
49) For what reason might the ID50 for Salmonella Typhi decrease when a rat simultaneously ingests sulfa drugs with the pathogen?
A) It would not; the ID50 goes up.
B) The antimicrobial interferes with the microbiome enabling the pathogen to more easily establish infection.
C) There would not be an effect on the ID50.
D) The antimicrobial inactivates stomach acid and allows the pathogen to more readily pass to the intestine.
E) Salmonella Typhi becomes stronger in the presence of sulfa drugs.
15.1
15.2
50) Which pathogen and virulence factor are mismatched?
A) Streptococcus pneumoniae - capsule
B) Streptococcus pyogenes - M protein
C) Clostridium - hyaluronidase
D) Shigella sonnei - coagulase
E) Neisseria gonorrhoeae - IgA protease
15.2
15.5
15.2 True/False Questions
1) In general, the LD50 for exotoxins is much greater than the LD50 for endotoxins.
15.1
15.2
2) Biofilms provide pathogens with an adhesion mechanism and aid in resistance to antimicrobial agents.
15.1
5.2
15.3
3) The M protein enhances the virulence of Streptococcus by preventing phagocytosis.
15.2
1
4) In A-B exotoxins, the A component binds to the host cell receptor so that the B component can enter the cell.
15.3
15.12
5) The Limulus amoebocyte assay is used to detect minute amounts of endotoxin in drugs and medical devices.
15.3
15.13
6) Cytopathic effects, such as inclusion bodies and syncytium formation, are the visible signs of viral infections.
1
15.15
7) Ergot and aflatoxin are toxins sometimes found in grains contaminated with fungi.
15.5
15.16
8) Most symptoms of endotoxins can be treated with administration of anti-endotoxin antibodies.
15.3
15.11
9) Infections with some viruses may induce chromosomal changes that alter the growth properties of host cells.
1
15.15
10) Many pathogens use the same portal for entry and exit from the body.
15.6
15.17
15.3 Essay Questions
1) Antibiotics can kill gram-negative bacteria, but symptoms of fever and low blood pressure can persist. Why?
15.3
15.11
8
2) Some pathogens evade phagocytosis, while other pathogens evade host defenses by entering host cells. Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of both of these evasion strategies.
15.2
Analyzing
15.8
8
3) Compare and contrast endotoxins and exotoxins. Why are exotoxins more potent than endotoxins?
15.3
Analyzing
15.11
8
Microbiology: An Introduction, 13e (Tortora et al.)
Chapter 16 Innate Immunity: Nonspecific Defenses of the Host
16.1 Multiple-Choice Questions
1) Innate immunity
A) is slower than adaptive immunity in responding to pathogens.
B) is nonspecific and present at birth.
C) involves a memory component.
D) involves T cells and B cells.
E) provides increased susceptibility to disease.
16.1
16.1
2) All of the following protect the skin and mucous membranes from infection EXCEPT
A) multiple layers of cells.
B) tears.
C) saliva.
D) HCl.
E) the "ciliary escalator."
16.2
1
3) The function of the "ciliary escalator" is to
A) propel inhaled dust and microorganisms away from the mouth, toward the lower respiratory tract.
B) remove microorganisms from the gastrointestinal tract.
C) remove microorganisms from the lower respiratory tract.
D) trap microorganisms in mucus in the upper respiratory tract.
E) trap inhaled dust and microorganisms in mucus and propel it away from the lower respiratory tract.
16.2
3.4
1
2
4) Which of the following exhibits the highest phagocytic activity?
A) eosinophils
B) erythrocytes
C) macrophages
D) basophils
E) neutrophils
1
3.4
16.6
5) TLRs attach to all of the following EXCEPT
A) AMPs.
B) flagellin.
C) LPS.
D) PAMPs.
E) peptidoglycan.
16.1
3.4
16.2
6) A differential cell count is used to determine each of the following EXCEPT
A) the total number of white blood cells.
B) the numbers of each type of white blood cell.
C) the number of red blood cells.
D) leukocytosis.
E) leukopenia.
1
16.7
7) The complement protein cascade is the same for the classical pathway, alternative pathway, and lectin pathway after the point in the cascade where the activation of ________ takes place.
A) C1
B) C2
C) C3
D) C5
E) C6
16.8
16.16
2
8) All of the following increase blood vessel permeability EXCEPT
A) kinins.
B) prostaglandins.
C) lysozymes.
D) histamine.
E) leukotrienes.
16.6
16.13
9) A child falls and suffers a deep cut on her leg. The cut went through her skin and she is bleeding. Which of the following defense mechanisms will participate in eliminating contaminating microbes?
A) mucociliary escalator
B) normal skin flora
C) phagocytosis in the inflammatory response
D) acidic skin secretions
E) lysozyme
16.6
Analyzing
3.4
16.11
2
10) Margination refers to
A) the adherence of phagocytes to microorganisms.
B) the chemotactic response of phagocytes.
C) adherence of phagocytes to the lining of blood vessels.
D) dilation of blood vessels.
E) the movement of phagocytes through walls of blood vessels.
16.6
16.13
11) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A) All three types of interferons have the same effect on the body.
B) Alpha interferon promotes phagocytosis.
C) Gamma interferon causes bactericidal activity by macrophages.
D) Alpha interferon acts against specific viruses.
E) Beta interferon attacks invading viruses.
16.8
Analyzing
3.4
16.19
12) Which of the following is found normally in serum?
A) complement
B) interferon
C) histamine
D) leukocytosis-promoting factor
E) TLRs
16.8
Analyzing
16.15
13) Each of the following is an effect of complement activation EXCEPT
A) interference with viral replication.
B) bacterial cell lysis.
C) opsonization.
D) increased phagocytic activity.
E) increased blood vessel permeability.
16.8
Analyzing
16.17
14) Which of the following is an effect of opsonization?
A) increased adherence of phagocytes to microorganisms
B) increased margination of phagocytes
C) increased diapedesis of phagocytes
D) inflammation
E) cytolysis
16.5
3.4
16.10
15) Normal microbiota provide protection from infection in each of the following ways EXCEPT
A) they produce antibacterial chemicals.
B) they compete with pathogens for nutrients.
C) they make the chemical environment unsuitable for nonresident bacteria.
D) they produce lysozyme.
E) they change the pH of the environment.
16.2
Analyzing
16.5
2
16) Each of the following provides protection from phagocytic digestion EXCEPT
A) M protein.
B) capsules.
C) formation of phagolysosomes.
D) leukocidins.
E) biofilms.
16.5
Analyzing
16.10
17) The antimicrobial effects of AMPs include all of the following EXCEPT
A) inhibition of cell wall synthesis.
B) lysis of bacterial cells.
C) destruction of nucleic acids.
D) pore formation in bacterial membranes.
E) inhibition of phagocytosis.
16.8
3.4
16.21
18) The swelling associated with inflammation decreases when the fluid
A) returns to the blood.
B) goes into lymph capillaries.
C) is excreted in urine.
D) is lost as perspiration.
E) is transported into macrophages.
16.6
16.11
19) Which of the following statements about fixed macrophages is FALSE?
A) They are found in certain tissues and organs.
B) They develop from neutrophils.
C) They are cells of the mononuclear phagocytic system.
D) They are mature monocytes.
E) They gather at sites of infection.
1
16.6
20) Phagocytes utilize all of the following to optimize interaction with (getting to and getting hold of) microorganisms EXCEPT
A) trapping a bacterium against a rough surface.
B) opsonization.
C) chemotaxis.
D) lysozyme.
E) complement.
16.5
3.4
16.9
2
21) All of the following are effects of histamine EXCEPT
A) vasodilation.
B) fever.
C) swelling.
D) redness.
E) pain.
16.6
16.12
22) All of the following are effects of kinins EXCEPT
A) vasodilation.
B) increased blood vessel permeability.
C) chemotaxis of phagocytic granulocytes.
D) drawing in neutrophils to infected or injure area.
E) production of antibodies.
16.6
16.12
23) A chill is a sign that
A) body temperature is falling.
B) body temperature is rising.
C) body temperature is not changing.
D) the metabolic rate is decreasing.
E) blood vessels are dilating.
16.7
16.14
24) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A) There are at least thirty complement proteins.
B) All of the complement proteins are constantly active in serum.
C) Factors B, D, and P cause cytolysis.
D) Complement activity is antigen-specific.
E) Complement increases after immunization.
16.8
16.16
25) Which of the following is mismatched?
A) diapedesis – movement of leukocytes between capillary walls cells out of blood and into tissue
B) chemotaxis – chemical degradation inside a phagolysosome
C) abscess – a cavity created by tissue damage and filled with pus
D) pus – tissue debris and dead phagocytes in a white or yellow fluid
E) scab – dried blood clot over injured tissue
16.6
16.13
26) All of the following are part of the mechanism of action of alpha and beta interferons EXCEPT
A) they bind to the surface of uninfected cells.
B) they are effective for long periods.
C) they initiate manufacture of antiviral proteins.
D) they disrupt stages of viral multiplication.
E) they initiate transcription.
16.8
Analyzing
3.4
16.19
27) The alternative pathway for complement activation is initiated by
A) lipid-carbohydrate complexes and C3.
B) C5-C9.
C) antigen-antibody reactions.
D) factors released from phagocytes.
E) factors released from damaged tissues.
16.8
3.4
16.16
28) The classical pathway for complement activation is initiated by
A) lipid-carbohydrate complexes and C3.
B) C5-C9.
C) antigen-antibody reactions.
D) factors released from phagocytes.
E) factors released from damaged tissues.
16.8
3.4
16.16
29) Activation of C3a results in
A) acute inflammation.
B) increased blood vessel permeability.
C) opsonization.
D) attraction of phagocytes.
E) cell lysis.
16.8
Analyzing
16.17
30) Neutrophils with defective lysosomes are unable to
A) undergo chemotaxis.
B) migrate.
C) produce toxic oxygen products.
D) attach to microorganisms and other foreign material.
E) engulf microorganisms and other foreign material.
16.5
Analyzing
16.10
2
31) Innate immunity includes all of the following EXCEPT
A) phagocytosis.
B) inflammation.
C) production of antibody.
D) production of interferon.
E) activation of complement.
16.1
16.1
32) After ingesting a pathogen, lysosomal enzymes produce all of the following EXCEPT
A) complement.
B) O2-.
C) H2O2.
D) OH.
E) HOCl.
16.5
3.4
16.10
33) Activation of C5-C9 results in
A) activation of C3.
B) fixation of complement.
C) lysis of microbial cells.
D) phagocytosis.
E) inflammation.
16.8
3.4
16.17
34) All of the following are true regarding NK cells EXCEPT
A) they are a type of lymphocyte.
B) they are found in tissues of the lymphatic system.
C) they have the ability to kill infected body cells and some tumor cells.
D) they destroy infected body cells by phagocytosis.
E) they release toxic substances that cause cell lysis or apoptosis.
1
16.6
35) Which of the following is involved in resistance to parasitic helminths?
A) basophils
B) eosinophils
C) lymphocytes
D) monocytes
E) neutrophils
1
3.4
16.6
36) Macrophages arise from which of the following?
A) basophils
B) eosinophils
C) lymphocytes
D) monocytes
E) neutrophils
1
16.6
37) All of the following pertain to fever EXCEPT that it
A) accelerates microbial growth by increasing iron absorption from the digestive tract.
B) stimulates T lymphocyte activity.
C) is caused by interleukin-1 and TNF-alpha coming into contact with the hypothalamus.
D) intensifies the effect of antiviral interferons.
E) can be initiated by specific types of pathogens.
16.7
Analyzing
16.14
2
38) All of the following are iron-binding proteins found in humans EXCEPT
A) lactoferrin.
B) transferrin.
C) hemoglobin.
D) siderophorin.
E) ferritin.
16.8
16.20
39) All of the following occur during inflammation. What is the first step?
A) diapedesis
B) margination
C) phagocyte migration
D) repair
E) vasodilation
16.6
16.11
40) The lectin pathway for complement action is initiated by
A) mannose on host membranes.
B) mannose on the surface of microbes.
C) lectins of the microbe.
D) gram-negative cell walls.
E) gram-positive cell walls.
16.8
16.16
41) All of the following are components of the inflammatory process EXCEPT
A) dilation of blood vessels.
B) release of histamines and prostaglandins.
C) chemotaxis.
D) diapedesis.
E) antibody synthesis.
16.6
Analyzing
16.11
42) Several inherited deficiencies in the complement system occur in humans. Which of the following would be the MOST severe?
A) deficiency of C3
B) deficiency of C5
C) deficiency of C6
D) deficiency of C7
E) deficiency of C8
16.8
16.17
2
43) Which of the following statements about the classical pathway of complement activation is FALSE?
A) C1 is the first protein activated in the classical pathway.
B) The C1 protein complex is initiated by antigen-antibody complexes.
C) C3 is not involved in the classical pathway.
D) Cleaved fragments of some of the proteins act to increase inflammation.
E) C3b causes opsonization.
16.8
Analyzing
16.16
44) Lysozyme and the antibiotic penicillin have similar mechanisms of action in that they both cause damage to the bacterial
A) cell membrane.
B) capsule.
C) cell wall.
D) DNA.
E) ribosomes.
16.5
2.2
16.10
7
45) Which non-specific defense mechanism is mismatched with its associated body structure or body fluid?
A) lysozyme – tears and saliva
B) mucociliary escalator – intestines
C) very acidic pH – stomach
D) keratin and tightly packed cells – skin
E) cerumen and sebum – ear
16.2
16.4
46) Leukotrienes are inflammatory vasoactive mediators produced by
A) neutrophils.
B) eosinophils.
C) skin cells.
D) macrophages.
E) mast cells and basophils.
16.6
16.12
47) Which one of the following compounds intensifies the effects of histamine and helps phagocytes migrate through capillary walls?
A) kinins
B) prostaglandins
C) antibodies
D) leukotrienes
E) IFN-γ
16.6
16.12
48) Chronic inflammation can result in a(n) ________, which can cause impairment of normal tissue function.
A) abscess
B) fever
C) scar tissue/fibrosis
D) parenchyma
E) blood clot
16.6
16.11
49) Death results if body temperature rises above
A) 35° to 37° C.
B) 30° to 32° C.
C) 39° to 41° C.
D) 44° to 46° C.
16.7
16.14
50) Which one of the following is a regulatory protein that prevents the assembly of C9 molecules in the complement cascade, effectively shutting down MAC production?
A) C3b
B) properdin
C) C3a
D) C3a receptor
E) CD59
16.8
16.17
16.2 True/False Questions
1) The dermis is composed of connective tissue and serves the primary purpose of providing direct protection from the external environment.
16.2
1
7
2) Microorganisms that are members of the normal microbiota are also known to cause disease.
16.2
16.5
7
3) Maturation of stem cells into mature blood cells occurs in the red bone marrow.
1
16.6
4) The inflammatory response can only be triggered by an infection.
16.6
16.12
2
5) Histamine and kinins cause increased blood flow and capillary permeability.
16.6
16.12
6) Aspirin alleviates pain, inflammation, and fever by inhibiting prostaglandins.
16.6
16.12
7) Complement proteins in their intact and nonactivated form act as opsonins by binding to microorganisms and promoting phagocytosis.
16.8
16.17
8) Digestion of microorganisms occurs in phagosomes.
16.5
3.4
16.10
7
9) An example of a TLR would be peptidoglycan found in the cell wall of gram-positive bacteria.
16.1
3.4
16.2
10) Ingestion of certain lactic acid bacteria (LABs) has been shown to be beneficial for function and health of the intestinal tract.
16.2
16.5
7
1 Essay Questions
1) If you were interested in seeking new sources of antimicrobial drugs from natural sources, you might look to antimicrobial peptides. Identify possible sources for these drugs, and then describe how you might go about testing for their desired effects.
16.8
Creating
16.21
8
2) The complement system is extremely important in the innate defense response. It can be said that this system is a cascade system. Explain this statement.
16.8
3.4
16.17
8
3) Describe the nonspecific antimicrobial effects of mucus, lysozyme, and acidic pH. For each of these substances, list where they are found in the body and how they function in fighting pathogens.
16.2
3.4
16.4
8
4) Describe and differentiate between the three pathways of activating complement.
16.8
3.4
16.16
8
5) Iron is an important item for the growth of microorganisms in a pathogenic state in the human body. Describe two ways in which bacteria might attempt to obtain iron from human cells or tissues for their own use. Then, describe a way in which this bacterial iron-scavenging might be disrupted without harming the human cells/tissues in the process.
17.8
Creating
3.4
16.20
Microbiology: An Introduction, 13e (Tortora et al.)
Chapter 17 Adaptive Immunity: Specific Defenses of the Host
17.1 Multiple-Choice Questions
1) What type of immunity results from vaccination?
A) innate immunity
B) naturally acquired active immunity
C) naturally acquired passive immunity
D) artificially acquired active immunity
E) artificially acquired passive immunity
17.10
2.2
17.20
5
2) What type of immunity results from transfer of antibodies from one individual to a susceptible individual by means of injection?
A) innate immunity
B) naturally acquired active immunity
C) naturally acquired passive immunity
D) artificially acquired active immunity
E) artificially acquired passive immunity
17.10
3.4
17.20
5
3) What type of immunity results from recovery from mumps?
A) innate immunity
B) naturally acquired active immunity
C) naturally acquired passive immunity
D) artificially acquired active immunity
E) artificially acquired passive immunity
17.10
2.2
17.20
4) Which of the following is the best definition of epitope?
A) specific regions on antigens that interact with T-cell receptors
B) specific regions on antigens that interact with MHC class molecules
C) specific regions on antigens that interact with haptens
D) specific regions on antigens that interact with antibodies
E) specific regions on antigens that interact with perforins
17.4
2.2
17.4
5) Newborns' immunity due to the transfer of antibodies across the placenta is an example of
A) innate immunity.
B) naturally acquired active immunity.
C) naturally acquired passive immunity.
D) artificially acquired active immunity.
E) artificially acquired passive immunity.
17.11
2.2
17.20
6) Which of the following statements is NOT a possible outcome of antigen-antibody reaction?
A) clonal deletion
B) activation of complement
C) opsonization
D) ADCC
E) agglutination
17.6
2.2
17.11
7) Which of the following cells is NOT an APC?
A) dentritic cells
B) macrophages
C) mature B cells
D) natural killer cells
E) None of the answers is correct; all of these are APCs.
17.7
2.2
17.16
8) When an antibody binds to a toxin, the resulting action is referred to as
A) agglutination.
B) opsonization.
C) ADCC.
D) apoptosis.
E) neutralization.
17.6
2.2
17.11
9) CD4+ T cells are activated by
A) interaction between CD4+ and MHC II.
B) interaction between TCRs and MHC II.
C) cytokines released by dendritic cells.
D) cytokines released by B cells.
E) complement.
17.7
2.2
17.14
10) Which of the following recognizes antigens displayed on host cells with MHC II?
A) TC cell
B) B cell
C) TH cell
D) natural killer cell
E) basophil
17.7
2.2
17.13
11) The specificity of an antibody is due to
A) its valence.
B) the H chains.
C) the L chains.
D) the constant portions of the H and L chains.
E) the variable portions of the H and L chains.
17.4
17.5
12) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of B cells?
A) They originate in bone marrow.
B) They have antibodies on their surfaces.
C) They are responsible for the memory response.
D) They are responsible for antibody formation.
E) They recognize antigens associated with MHC I.
17.5
17.8
13) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of cellular immunity?
A) The cells originate in bone marrow.
B) Cells mature in the thymus gland.
C) Response to abnormal cells.
D) B cells make antibodies.
E) T cells interact with epitopes in MHC molecules.
17.7
2.2
17.12
14) Plasma cells are activated by a(n)
A) antigen.
B) T cell.
C) B cell.
D) memory cell.
E) APC.
17.5
2.2
17.8
15) The antibodies found in mucus, saliva, and tears are
A) IgG.
B) IgM.
C) IgA.
D) IgD.
E) IgE.
17.4
17.6
16) The antibodies found almost entirely and only on the surface of B cells (not secreted from them), and which always exist as monomers, are
A) IgG.
B) IgM.
C) IgA.
D) IgD.
E) IgE.
17.4
17.6
17) The antibodies that typically bind to large parasites are
A) IgG.
B) IgM.
C) IgA.
D) IgD.
E) IgE.
17.4
17.6
18) In addition to IgG, the antibodies that can fix complement are
A) IgM.
B) IgA.
C) IgD.
D) IgE.
E) None of the answers is correct.
17.4
17.6
19) Large antibodies that agglutinate antigens are
A) IgG.
B) IgM.
C) IgA.
D) IgD.
E) IgE.
17.4
17.6
20) The most abundant class of antibodies in serum is
A) IgG.
B) IgM.
C) IgA.
D) IgD.
E) IgE.
17.4
17.6
Figure 17.1
21) In Figure 17.1, which letter on the graph indicates the patient's secondary response to a repeated exposure with the identical antigen?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e
17.9
Analyzing
7.2a
17.19
3
22) In Figure 17.1, which letter on the graph indicates the highest antibody titer during the patient's response to a second and distinct/different antigen?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e
17.9
Analyzing
7.2a
17.19
3
23) In Figure 17.1, the arrow at time (d) indicates
A) the time of exposure to the same antigen as at time (a).
B) the secondary response.
C) the primary response.
D) exposure to a new antigen.
E) the T-cell response.
17.9
Analyzing
7.2a
17.19
3
24) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) The variable region of a heavy chain is partially responsible for binding with antigen.
B) The variable region of a light chain is partially responsible for binding with antigen.
C) The Fc region may attach to a host cell.
D) The constant region of a heavy chain is the same for all antibodies.
E) All of the answers are correct.
17.4
2.2
17.5
25) Which of the following is the best definition of antigen?
A) something foreign in the body
B) a chemical that elicits an antibody response and can combine with these antibodies
C) a chemical that combines with antibodies
D) a pathogen
E) a protein that combines with antibodies
17.4
2.2
17.4
26) Which of the following are NOT lymphocytes?
A) cytotoxic T cells
B) helper T cells
C) NK cells
D) M cells
E) B cells
17.7
17.12
27) The following events elicit an antibody response. What is the third step?
A) Antigen-digest goes to surface of APC.
B) APC phagocytizes antigen.
C) B cell is activated.
D) TH cell recognizes antigen-digest and MHC II.
E) TH cell produces cytokines.
17.5
2.2
17.9
Figure 17.2
28) In Figure 17.2, which areas are similar for all IgG antibodies?
A) a and b
B) a and c
C) b and c
D) c and d
E) b and d
17.4
17.5
29) In Figure 17.2, which areas are different for all IgM antibodies?
A) a and b
B) a and c
C) b and c
D) c and d
17.4
17.5
30) In Figure 17.2, which areas represent antigen-binding sites?
A) a and b
B) a and c
C) b and c
D) c and d
E) b and d
17.4
17.5
31) In Figure 17.2, what portion will typically attach to a host cell?
A) a and c
B) b
C) b and c
D) a and d
E) e
17.4
17.5
32) Which of the following bacterial components would most likely result in B cell stimulation by T-independent antigens?
A) capsule
B) flagellum
C) pili
D) ribosome
E) plasmid
17.5
2.2
17.7
33) The presence of which of the following indicates a current infection rather than a previous infection or vaccination?
A) IgA
B) IgG
C) IgM
D) IgD
E) IgE
17.4
8.3
17.6
34) Which of the following destroys virus-infected cells?
A) CTL
B) Treg
C) TH
D) dendritic cells
E) B cells
17.7
3.4
17.12
35) The following events occur in cellular immunity, leading to a response from TH cells. What is the third step?
A) Antibodies are produced.
B) Dendritic cell takes up antigen.
C) Antigen enters M cell.
D) TH cell produces cytokines.
E) TH cells proliferate.
17.7
17.13
36) Cytokines released by TH1 cells
A) activate CD8+ cells to CTLs.
B) convert TH1 cells to TH2 cells.
C) convert TH2 cells to TH1 cells.
D) directly kill parasites.
E) convert B cells to T cells.
17.7
17.14
37) Which one of the following causes transmembrane channels in target cells?
A) granzymes
B) hapten
C) IL-1
D) IL-2
E) perforin
17.7
17.12
38) At a minimum, the human immune system is capable of recognizing approximately how many different antigens?
A) 105
B) 1010
C) 1015
D) 1020
E) 1025
17.5
17.10
39) Thymic selection
A) destroys T cells that do not recognize self-molecules of MHC.
B) destroys B cells that make antibodies against self.
C) destroys MHC molecules.
D) destroys CD4+ cells that attack self.
E) activates B cells.
17.7
17.14
40) Which of the following statements about natural killer cells is FALSE?
A) They destroy virus-infected cells.
B) They destroy tumor cells.
C) They destroy cells lacking MHC I.
D) They are stimulated by an antigen.
E) None of the answers are correct; all of these statements are true.
17.7
17.12
41) An antibody's Fc region can be bound by
A) antibodies.
B) macrophages.
C) T helper cells.
D) B cells.
E) CTLs.
17.4
17.5
42) A Treg cell deficiency could result in
A) increased number of viral infections.
B) increased number of bacterial infections.
C) autoimmunity.
D) increased severity of bacterial infections.
E) transplant rejection.
17.7
7.12
43) ADCC is a process that is most effective in destroying
A) eukaryotic pathogens.
B) prions.
C) extracellular viruses.
D) bacterial pathogens.
E) bacterial toxins.
17.9
17.18
44) IL-2, produced by TH cells,
A) activates macrophages.
B) stimulates TH cell maturation.
C) causes phagocytosis.
D) activates antigen-presenting cells.
E) activates TC cells to CTLs.
17.7
17.14
45) NK cells do all of the following EXCEPT
A) bind to Fc regions of bound antibodies.
B) kill cells not expressing MHCI.
C) participate in antibody dependent cell cytotoxicity.
D) become activated by TH-2 cells.
E) comprise 10-15% of circulating lymphocytes.
17.8
17.7
46) Which terms regarding components of adaptive immunity are mismatched?
A) Dendritic cells- Langerhans cell.
B) activated macrophage - membrane ruffling.
C) M cell - microfolds.
D) TH cells - MHCI interaction.
E) TH-17 cells - recruit neutrophils.
17.7
2.2
17.12
47) Which of the following statements about cytokines is FALSE?
A) They are soluble proteins or glycoproteins.
B) They are produced by immune cells in response to a stimulus.
C) Some have multiple functions.
D) They are chemical communication between cells.
E) There are 10 types.
1
1
48) A cell undergoing apoptosis
A) bursts and releases intracellular contents.
B) was necessarily bound by antibodies.
C) is employed as an infection-fighting mechanism.
D) is a malfunction of the immune system.
E) will likely damage nearby cells.
17.7
2.2
17.12
49) The importance of M cells concerns
A) facilitation of contact between antigens in the intestinal tract and the immune system.
B) presentation of epitopes in MHCII molecules.
C) having microvilli to facilitate antigen capture.
D) preventing damage to adaptive immune system cells.
E) ability to migrate along the intestinal tract.
17.7
17.12
50) Which of the following terms regarding roles of chemical messengers is mismatched?
A) hematopoetic cytokine - development of blood cells
B) interleukins - communication between white blood cells
C) chemokines - stimulate chemotaxis
D) interferons - interruption of viral infection
E) tumor necrosis factor - stimulate tumor metastasis
1
1
17.2 True/False Questions
1) Apoptosis results in significant leakage of cellular contents.
17.7
17.15
2) Cytokines are protein-based chemical messengers that allow for communication between cells of the immune system.
1
1
3) Only dendritic cells produce interleukins.
1
1
4) The production of interferons at an infection site is critical for chemotaxis.
1
1
5) Cytokine storms negatively impact human health.
1
1
6) The variable region of the antibody is solely responsible for the response to the significant diversity of antigen targets.
17.7
2.2
17.12
7) Plasma cells will eventually differentiate into memory cells.
17.5
17.8
8) Memory cells do not require B cell receptors.
17.5
17.8
9) The implementation of vaccinations occurred prior to experimental support for the germ theory of disease.
17.1
2.2
17.1
5
10) When haptens attach to carrier molecules, an epitope forms on hapten which then can be bound to antibody.
17.4
17.4
1 Essay Questions
1) A person has antibodies against the measles virus. Identify three ways in which these antibodies could be acquired.
17.10
17.20
8
2) Describe the production of antibodies using the clonal selection theory.
17.5
2.2
17.9
8
3) A very ill 48-year-old man comes to the Emergency Room and is diagnosed with pneumonia and thrush. Suspicious, the attending physician orders an HIV antibody test which comes back positive within a few hours. Why does a patient with acquired immunodeficiency have antibodies to HIV?
1
1
8
4) Can natural killer cells successfully perform duties without antibodies? Explain.
17.8
17.17
8
5) What adaptive immune responses, if any, could one expect to function normally in a human born without a thymus?
17.7
17.14
8
Microbiology: An Introduction, 13e (Tortora et al.)
Chapter 18 Practical Applications of Immunology
18.1 Multiple-Choice Questions
1) All of the following are generally used in vaccines EXCEPT
A) toxoids.
B) parts of bacterial cells.
C) live, attenuated viruses.
D) inactivated viruses.
E) antibodies.
18.1
18.3
2) Patient's serum, influenza virus, and red blood cells are mixed in a tube. What happens if the patient has antibodies against influenza virus?
A) agglutination
B) hemagglutination
C) complement fixation
D) hemolysis
E) hemagglutination-inhibition
18.2
Analyzing
18.14
2
3) A patient shows the presence of antibodies against diphtheria toxin. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) The patient may have the disease.
B) The patient may have had the disease and has recovered.
C) The patient may have been vaccinated.
D) A recent transfusion may have passively introduced the antibodies.
E) The patient was near someone who had the disease.
18.1
18.5
2
4) In an agglutination test, eight serial dilutions to determine antibody titer were set up. Tube #1 contained a 1:2 dilution; tube #2, a 1:4, etc. If tube #6 is the last tube showing agglutination, what is the antibody titer?
A) 6
B) 1:6
C) 64
D) 1:32
E) 32
18.2
18.11
4
5) An ELISA for Hepatitis C has 95 percent sensitivity and 90 percent specificity. This means that the test
A) detects 95 percent of the true positive samples and has 10 percent false positive results.
B) detects 5 percent of the true positive samples and has 90 percent false positive results.
C) detects 90 percent of the true positive samples and has 5 percent false positive results.
D) detects 95 percent of the true positive samples and has 90 percent false positive results.
E) detects 5 percent of the true positive samples and has 10 percent false positive results.
18.2
Analyzing
18.8
2
6) Which of the following are sources of antibodies for serological testing?
A) vaccinated animals
B) cells producing monoclonal antibodies
C) viral cultures
D) vaccinated animals and cells producing monoclonal antibodies
E) vaccinated animals, cells producing monoclonal antibodies, and viral cultures
18.2
Analyzing
18.9
7) A reaction between an antibody and soluble antigen, forming larger, interlocking molecular lattices, is called a(n)
A) agglutination reaction.
B) complement fixation.
C) immunofluorescence.
D) neutralization reaction.
E) precipitation reaction.
18.2
18.10
8) A reaction between antibody and particulate antigen is called a(n)
A) agglutination reaction.
B) complement fixation.
C) immunofluorescence.
D) neutralization reaction.
E) precipitation reaction.
18.2
18.12
9) A reaction that uses the absence of hemolysis of red blood cells to indicate an antigen–antibody reaction is called a(n)
A) agglutination reaction.
B) complement fixation.
C) immunofluorescence.
D) neutralization reaction.
E) precipitation reaction.
18.2
18.16
10) A DNA plasmid encoding a protein antigen from West Nile virus is injected into muscle cells of a horse. This is an example of a(n)
A) subunit vaccine.
B) conjugated vaccine.
C) nucleic acid vaccine.
D) attenuated whole-agent vaccine.
E) live whole-agent vaccine.
18.1
Analyzing
18.4
11) Toxoid vaccines, such as the vaccines against diphtheria and tetanus, elicit a(n)
A) TC cell response.
B) immune complex.
C) dendritic cell proliferation.
D) antibody response against these bacterial toxins.
E) antibody response against gram-positive bacteria.
18.1
Analyzing
3.4
18.3
12) The clumping of test red blood cells indicates a negative test result (no antibodies against the virus in the patient's serum) in the
A) direct agglutination test.
B) indirect agglutination test.
C) complement-fixation test.
D) precipitation test.
E) neutralization test.
18.2
8.3
18.14
13) What type of vaccine involves host synthesis of viral antigens?
A) conjugated vaccine
B) subunit vaccine
C) nucleic acid vaccine
D) attenuated whole-agent vaccine
E) toxoid vaccine
18.1
18.4
14) Purified protein from Bordetella pertussis is used in a(n)
A) conjugated vaccine.
B) subunit vaccine.
C) nucleic acid vaccine.
D) attenuated whole-agent vaccine.
E) toxoid vaccine.
18.1
18.3
5
15) What type of vaccine is the live, weakened measles virus?
A) conjugated vaccine
B) subunit vaccine
C) nucleic acid vaccine
D) attenuated whole-agent vaccine
E) toxoid vaccine
18.1
18.3
5
16) A test used to identify antibodies against Treponema pallidum in a patient's serum is the
A) direct fluorescent-antibody test.
B) indirect fluorescent-antibody test.
C) direct agglutination test.
D) direct ELISA test.
E) neutralization test.
18.2
8.3
18.17
17) A test used to identify Streptococcus pyogenes in a patient's throat swab is the
A) direct fluorescent-antibody test.
B) indirect fluorescent-antibody test.
C) hemagglutination test.
D) neutralization test.
E) indirect ELISA test.
18.2
8.3
18.17
18) A test used to detect anti-Rickettsia antibodies in a patient's serum is the
A) direct fluorescent-antibody test.
B) indirect fluorescent-antibody test.
C) direct ELISA test.
D) direct agglutination test.
18.2
Analyzing
8.3
18.17
2
19) Which of the following is a pregnancy test used to find the fetal hormone HCG in a woman's urine using anti-HCG and latex spheres?
A) direct agglutination reaction
B) indirect agglutination reaction
C) immunofluorescence
D) neutralization reaction
E) precipitation reaction
18.2
Analyzing
18.11
2
20) Which of the following is a test to determine a patient's blood type by mixing the patient's red blood cells with antisera?
A) direct agglutination reaction
B) passive agglutination reaction
C) immunofluorescence
D) neutralization reaction
E) precipitation reaction
18.2
Analyzing
18.11
2
21) Which of the following is a test to determine the presence of soluble antigens in a patient's saliva?
A) direct agglutination reaction
B) passive agglutination reaction
C) immunofluorescence
D) neutralization reaction
E) precipitation reaction
18.2
Analyzing
18.10
2
22) A patient's serum, Mycobacterium, guinea pig complement, sheep red blood cells, and anti-sheep red blood cell antibodies are mixed in a test tube. What happens if the patient has antibodies to Mycobacterium?
A) Bacteria fluoresce.
B) Hemagglutination occurs.
C) Hemagglutination-inhibition occurs.
D) Hemolysis occurs.
E) No hemolysis occurs.
18.2
Analyzing
8.3
18.16
2
23) A vaccine against HIV proteins made by a genetically-engineered vaccinia virus that has infected a eukaryotic cell line is a(n)
A) conjugated vaccine.
B) subunit vaccine.
C) nucleic acid vaccine.
D) inactivated whole-agent vaccine.
E) toxoid vaccine.
18.1
Analyzing
18.3
2
24) Inactivated tetanus toxin is a(n)
A) conjugated vaccine.
B) subunit vaccine.
C) nucleic acid vaccine.
D) inactivated whole-agent vaccine.
E) toxoid vaccine.
18.1
18.3
25) A hybridoma results from the fusion of a(n)
A) B cell with a T cell.
B) B cell with a myeloma cell.
C) antigen with an antibody.
D) antigen with a B cell.
E) myeloma cell with a virus.
18.2
18.9
Table 18.1
Antibody Titer
Day 1 Day 7 Day 14 Day 21
Patient A 0 0 256 512
Patient B 128 256 512 1024
Patient C 0 0 0 0
Patient D 128 128 128 128
26) In Table 18.1, who probably has the disease?
A) Patients A and B
B) Patients B and C
C) Patients A and C
D) Patients C and D
E) Patients A and D
18.2
Analyzing
7.1b
18.11
3
27) In Table 18.1, who is most likely protected from the disease, as observed by the test results over time?
A) Patient A
B) Patient B
C) Patient C
D) Patient D
18.2
Analyzing
7.1b
18.11
3
28) In Table 18.1, who showed seroconversion during these observations?
A) Patient A
B) Patient B
C) Patient C
D) Patient D
18.2
Analyzing
7.1b
18.11
3
29) In Table 18.1, what is the most likely and reasonable explanation for the results observed in Patient C?
A) The patient has advanced HIV/AIDS, with no ability to make an immune response.
B) The patient was not exposed to the pathogen and has not become infected, so no response is being produced over time.
C) The patient has significantly stronger innate immunity than adaptive immunity mechanisms.
D) The patient is producing a protective adaptive response that doesn't involve antibodies.
18.2
7.1b
18.11
30) If the table continued on to another week of testing, what is the one outcome below that you might NOT expect to see for Patient B at Day 28?
A) a drop to zero antibody titer
B) antibody titer continuing to rise
C) antibody titer leveling off
D) antibody titer starting to decrease slightly
18.2
7.1b
18.11
Figure 18.1
31) Which component in Figure 18.1 came from the patient in this indirect ELISA test?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e
18.2
18.18
3
32) Figure 18.1 is an illustration of a(n)
A) negative indirect ELISA test.
B) positive indirect ELISA test.
C) complement fixation test.
D) hemagglutination test.
E) precipitation test.
18.2
Analyzing
18.18
33) In Figure 18.1, which component represents the substrate for the enzyme in the assay?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e
18.2
18.18
34) In Figure 18.1, items c and e are different from each other. How are they different?
A) Item c is the enzyme that modifies item e, the substrate.
B) Item e is the enzyme that modifies the substrate, item c.
C) Item c is the substrate acted on by the enzyme in the assay, and item e is the colored end product of that enzymatic reaction.
D) Item e is the substrate acted on by the enzyme in the assay, and item c is the colored end product of that enzymatic reaction.
18.2
18.18
35) Monoclonal antibodies are used in diagnostic tests and disease treatments because they
A) are highly specific.
B) can be produced in large quantities.
C) contain a mixture of antibodies.
D) are highly specific and they can be produced in large quantities.
E) are highly specific, they can be produced in large quantities, and they contain a mixture of antibodies.
18.2
8.3
18.20
36) The following steps are used to produce monoclonal antibodies. What is the fourth step?
A) A B cell is activated to produce antibodies.
B) Culture the hybridoma in a selective medium.
C) Fuse a B cell to a myeloma cell.
D) Isolate antibody-producing B cells.
E) Vaccinate a mouse.
18.2
Analyzing
18.20
37) Palivizumab is used to treat respiratory syncytial virus disease. This antiviral drug is a(n)
A) toxoid.
B) monoclonal antibody.
C) vaccine.
D) immunosuppressive.
E) nucleoside analog.
18.2
Analyzing
3.4
18.20
5
38) Live weakened polio virus can be used directly in a(n)
A) inactivated whole-agent vaccine.
B) attenuated whole-agent vaccine.
C) conjugated vaccine.
D) subunit vaccine.
E) toxoid vaccine.
18.1
Analyzing
18.3
5
39) Haemophilus capsule polysaccharide plus diphtheria toxoid is a(n)
A) inactivated whole-agent vaccine.
B) attenuated whole-agent vaccine.
C) conjugated vaccine.
D) subunit vaccine.
E) toxoid vaccine.
18.1
Analyzing
18.3
2
40) Dead Bordetella pertussis can be used in a(n)
A) inactivated whole-agent vaccine.
B) attenuated whole-agent vaccine.
C) conjugated vaccine.
D) subunit vaccine.
E) toxoid vaccine.
18.1
Analyzing
18.3
2
41) Isolated and purified hepatitis B virus surface antigen can be used in a(n)
A) inactivated whole-agent vaccine.
B) attenuated whole-agent vaccine.
C) conjugated vaccine.
D) subunit vaccine.
E) toxoid vaccine.
18.1
Analyzing
18.3
2
42) In a direct ELISA test to screen for drugs in a patient's urine, what is the third step in the test process?
A) Substrate for the enzyme is added.
B) Enzyme-labeled antibody against the drug being tested is added.
C) The patient's urine sample is diluted.
D) Antibody against the drug being tested is added.
18.2
18.18
43) Which item is from the patient in a direct ELISA test?
A) substrate for the enzyme
B) antigen
C) antihuman immune serum
D) antibodies against the antigen
18.2
8.3
18.18
44) Which of the following tests is MOST useful in determining the presence of AIDS antibodies?
A) agglutination
B) complement fixation
C) neutralization
D) indirect ELISA
E) direct fluorescent-antibody
18.2
8.3
18.18
2
45) Which of the following uses fluorescent-labeled antibodies?
A) agglutination
B) complement fixation
C) precipitation
D) flow cytometry
E) neutralization
18.2
18.17
46) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of live attenuated vaccine agents?
A) They elicit lifelong immunity.
B) They stimulate by cell-mediated and humoral immune responses.
C) They occasionally revert to virulent forms.
D) They require few or no booster immunizations.
E) The immune response generated by the vaccine closely mimics a real infection.
18.1
18.7
2
47) In an immunodiffusion test to diagnose the fungal disease histoplasmosis, a patient's serum is placed in a well in an agar plate. In a positive test, a precipitate forms as the serum diffuses from the well and meets material diffusing from a second well. In this test process, what is the most likely identity of the material in the second well?
A) antibodies
B) a purified fungal antigen
C) entire fungal cells
D) a purified protozoan antigen
E) red blood cells
18.2
8.3
18.10
48) In an immunodiffusion test to diagnose histoplasmosis, a patient's serum is placed in a well in an agar plate. In a positive test, a line forms as the serum diffuses from the well and meets material diffusing from a second well. What type of test is this?
A) an agglutination reaction
B) a precipitation reaction
C) a complement-fixation test
D) an indirect ELISA test
E) a direct ELISA test
18.2
8.3
18.10
49) Which of the following statements about measles is FALSE?
A) It is a serious disease.
B) It is preventable by vaccination.
C) Annually, it kills thousands of children worldwide.
D) The disease has been eradicated in the United States.
E) Complications include pneumonia, encephalitis, and death.
18.1
18.7
50) When producing monoclonal antibodies, the use of ________ is critical after fusion to specifically allow only hybrid cells to grow.
A) selective medium
B) neutralizing antibodies
C) enzymatically-labeled antibodies
D) fluorescently-labeled antibodies
E) complement
18.2
18.9
18.2 True/False Questions
1) Vaccines are preparations of organisms or fractions of organisms that are used to induce protective immune responses.
18.1
18.1
5
2) In a vaccine preparation, the term "attenuated" means that the agent does NOT replicate.
18.1
3.4
18.3
3) An injection of "naked" DNA into muscle cells to induce an immune response against the proteins encoded by the DNA is an example of a subunit vaccine.
18.1
3.4
18.4
4) Adjuvants such as aluminum salts are used in vaccines to directly produce highly-specific immune responses.
18.1
3.4
18.6
5
5) Blood typing tests are examples of hemagglutination reactions.
18.2
18.13
5
6) A positive complement-fixation test is indicated by the lysis of the sheep red blood cells added in the indicator phase of the test.
18.2
18.16
2
7) The home pregnancy test kit is an example of a direct ELISA.
18.2
18.18
5
8) Western blotting uses DNA probes to detect specific sequences in a mixture of proteins.
18.2
18.19
9) A highly specific diagnostic test will be unlikely to indicate a positive result if a specimen being tested is a true negative.
18.2
8.3
18.8
2
10) Agglutination tests use particulate antigens while precipitation tests use soluble antigens.
18.2
8.3
18.12
18.3 Essay Questions
1) Describe an ELISA test to detect the presence of HIV antibodies in a patient.
18.2
8.3
18.18
8
2) Design a serological test to detect botulinum toxin in food.
18.2
7.4
18.9
8
3) In your work in a county public health clinic, you encounter parents of a three-month-old who are considering not vaccinating their child. What concerns might the parents raise regarding vaccine safety? As a microbiology student and public health care worker, what do you say to these parents regarding the risks of not vaccinating their child?
18.1
7.4
18.7
8
4) In a recent influenza epidemic, physicians were utilizing a rapid diagnostic test to determine which patients were infected with influenza type A, type B, or not infected with influenza virus. Such a test was not available in the massive 1918 outbreak that killed millions of people around the globe. How might the availability of such a test have impacted that outbreak, and why?
18.2
8.3
18.20
5) One of the objections many people have about vaccinations is the amount and variety of chemicals in them. Many people don't realize how easy the ingredients are to find — they're required in the product inserts for each vaccination produced. Using the internet, go and find a product insert for a typical vaccine (e.g. influenza vaccine, HPV vaccine, hepatitis B vaccine, etc.). Identify each component contained within it, the amount of that component, and briefly describe what that component does.
18.1
7.4
18.5
Microbiology: An Introduction, 13e (Tortora et al.)
Chapter 19 Disorders Associated with the Immune System
19.1 Multiple-Choice Questions
1) All of the following are true of hypersensitivity EXCEPT
A) it occurs in the presence of an antigen.
B) it is synonymous with "allergy."
C) it occurs when an individual is exposed to an allergen for the first time.
D) it is due to an altered immune response.
E) it requires previous exposure to an antigen.
19.1
19.1
2) The chemical mediators of anaphylaxis are
A) found in basophils and mast cells.
B) antibodies.
C) antigens.
D) antigen-antibody complexes.
E) the proteins of the complement system.
19.1
19.3
3) Which of the following may result from systemic anaphylaxis?
A) hay fever
B) asthma
C) shock
D) hives
E) immunodeficiency
19.1
19.3
4) Which antibodies will be in the serum of a person with blood type B, Rh+?
A) anti-A, anti-B, anti-Rh
B) anti-A, anti-Rh
C) anti-A
D) anti-B, anti-Rh
E) anti-B
19.1
19.8
5) Which of the following types of transplant is least compatible?
A) autograft
B) allograft
C) isograft
D) xenotransplant
E) All of these types of transplant are equally compatible.
19.3
19.17
6) When testing donated blood for compatibility you would find a person with O type blood
A) has O type antigens on their red blood cells.
B) will lack plasma antibodies to A and B type antigens.
C) will lack A and B red blood cell antigens.
D) lacks HLA and MHC antigens.
E) will have anti-O antibodies in their plasma.
19.1
8.5
19.7
7) Graft-versus-host disease will most likely be a complication of a(n)
A) skin graft.
B) bone marrow transplant.
C) blood transfusion.
D) Rh incompatibility between mother and fetus.
E) corneal transplant.
19.3
19.18
8) A positive tuberculin skin test is an example of
A) delayed cell-mediated immunity.
B) autoimmunity.
C) acute contact dermatitis.
D) psoriasis.
E) innate immunity.
19.1
19.10
9) A healthy immune system destroys cancer cells with
A) tumor-specific antigens.
B) CTLs.
C) CTLs and activated macrophages.
D) activated macrophages.
E) CD+ T cells.
19.4
19.20
10) The symptoms of an immune complex reaction are due to
A) destruction of the antigen.
B) complement activation.
C) phagocytosis.
D) antibodies against self.
E) cytokines.
19.1
19.9
11) Rheumatoid arthritis is due to deposition of
A) IgG and IgA complexes in joints.
B) IgA antibodies in joints.
C) IgD and IgE complexes in joints.
D) complement in joints.
E) complexes of IgM and IgG and also complement in joints.
19.2
19.12
12) Allergic contact dermatitis is due to
A) sensitized T cells.
B) IgG antibodies.
C) IgE antibodies.
D) IgM antibodies.
E) activated macrophages.
19.1
19.10
13) Attachment of HIV to the target cell depends on
A) gp120 combining with the CD4+ receptor.
B) gp120 combining with the chemokine receptor CCR5.
C) gp41 binding to the CD4+ receptor.
D) gp120 binding to the CD4+ plasma membrane.
E) CXCR4 binding to the CD4+ receptor.
19.6
19.24
14) Which of the terms regarding treatments after transplantation of an organ is mismatched?
A) cyclosporine-suppression of B cells.
B) cyclosporine- kidney toxicity.
C) sirolimus-inhibit cell mediated and humoral immunity.
D) basiliximab-chimeric monoclonal.
E) tacrolimus-suppression of IL-2 secretion.
19.3
19.19
5
15) The process of desensitization to prevent allergies involves the injection of increasing amounts of
A) IgE.
B) IgG.
C) antihistamine.
D) antigen.
E) RhoGAM.
19.1
19.5
5
16) Which of the following statements about type I reactions is FALSE?
A) They involve helper T cells.
B) They involve IgE antibodies.
C) The symptoms are due to histamine.
D) Antibodies bind to mast cells and basophils.
E) The symptoms occur soon after exposure to an antigen.
19.1
19.2
17) Which of the following statements about type IV reactions is FALSE?
A) Reactions are primarily due to T cell proliferation.
B) Reactions are not apparent for a day or more.
C) Cytokines initiate tissue damage.
D) Allergic contact dermatitis is an example.
E) Hemolytic disease of the newborn is an example.
19.1
19.10
18) Table 19.1
Donor Recipient
1. AB, Rh- AB, Rh+
2. A, Rh+ A, Rh-
3. A, Rh+ O, Rh+
4. B, Rh- B, Rh+
5. B, Rh+ A, Rh+
Which blood transfusions in Table 19.1 are incompatible?
A) 2 and 5
B) 1, 2, and 3
C) 2, 3, and 5
D) 3 and 4
E) 1 and 2
19.1
Analyzing
19.8
2
19) Hemolytic disease of the newborn can result from an
A) Rh+ mother with an Rh- fetus.
B) Rh- mother with an Rh+ fetus.
C) AB mother with a B fetus.
D) AB mother with an O fetus.
E) Rh- mother and an A fetus.
19.1
19.8
20) Which is true regarding Herceptin therapy?
A) It neutralizes the growth factor EGF.
B) It acts as an immunotoxin to target and kill cancer cells.
C) It is used to treat some breast cancer patients.
D) It is a vaccine to prevent the development of cancer.
E) It is an endotoxin that stimulates TNF by macrophages.
19.4
19.21
5
21) Which of the following utilizes a combination of monoclonal antitumor antibody and immunotoxin?
A) immunologic enhancement
B) immunologic surveillance
C) immunotherapy
D) immunosuppression
E) immune complex
19.4
19.21
5
22) All of the following are reasons why an HIV vaccine has not been developed EXCEPT
A) there is no known animal model of natural immunity for HIV infection.
B) use of a weakened virus would potentially transmit the infection.
C) small, inexpensive animals which could be used for HIV vaccine research are not available.
D) vaccines are not effective against viral infections.
E) HIV has a high mutation rate so one vaccination would not be effective to treat the world-wide pandemic.
19.6
3.4
19.21
23) Treatment with certain drugs to reduce transplant rejection can cause
A) immunologic enhancement.
B) immunologic surveillance.
C) immunotherapy.
D) immunosuppression.
E) autoimmunity.
19.3
19.14
24) The reasons for investigating stem cells to replace damaged organs and tissues in a patient include all of the following EXCEPT
A) the patient will not reject tissues produced with their stem cells.
B) adult stem cells can be successfully induced to develop into some specifically needed cell types.
C) embryonic stem cells can be coaxed into developing into any cell type in the body.
D) umbilical cord blood cells are less likely to cause GVHD than adult stem cell grafts.
E) pluripotent stem cells naturally occur even late in life in mammals.
19.3
19.16
5
Figure 19.1
25) In immune complex reaction shown in Figure 19.1, what is the small, circular/spherical structure labeled "a"?
A) antibody
B) antigen
C) complement
D) neutrophil
E) mast cell
19.1
19.92
26) In immune complex reaction shown in Figure 19.1, what is the end result of the reaction?
A) IgG is directed against cell membrane antigens.
B) Complement is activated.
C) Neutrophils are attracted and release enzymes.
D) Endothelial cells are damaged.
E) Antibodies destroy neutrophils.
19.1
19.9
27) Worldwide, the primary method of transmission of HIV is
A) heterosexual intercourse.
B) homosexual intercourse.
C) intravenous drug use.
D) blood transfusions.
E) nosocomial.
19.6
19.29
28) HIV spikes attach to CD4+ receptors found on
A) T helper cells.
B) macrophages.
C) dendritic cells.
D) T helper cells and macrophages.
E) T helper cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells.
19.6
19.24
29) Which of the following is the least likely vaccine against HIV?
A) attenuated virus
B) glycoprotein
C) protein core
D) subunit
E) All of these vaccines are equally likely.
19.6
19.31
5
30) Which of the following is a possible outcome of an HIV infection?
A) Virions may remain latent.
B) There may be persistent yeast infections.
C) Infection may initially be asymptomatic.
D) The disease does not progress to AIDS.
E) All of the answers are correct.
19.6
19.26
31) Which of the following regions has the greatest distribution of HIV infection and AIDS in the world?
A) North America
B) Eastern Europe and Central Asia
C) South and Southeast Asia
D) sub-Saharan Africa
E) Latin America
19.6
19.30
32) Chemotherapy to inhibit the progression of HIV infection utilizes all of the following mechanisms EXCEPT
A) termination of viral DNA.
B) inhibition of viral proteases.
C) blockage of viral attachment.
D) prohibition of viral integration into host cell DNA.
E) destruction of viral ribosomes.
19.6
3.4
19.31
5
33) Detecting HIV antibodies during HIV infection
A) is not possible due to immunosuppression during infection.
B) is used to diagnose infection.
C) is possible after a few weeks after infection.
D) is possible after a few weeks and is used to diagnose infection.
E) can occur during phase 2 and 3 of infection.
19.6
8.3
19.28
5
34) Anaphylaxis is the term for reactions caused when certain antigens combine with
A) IgE antibodies.
B) macrophages.
C) IgG antibodies.
D) complement.
E) histamine.
19.1
19.2
35) All of the following regarding "immune privileged sites" are true EXCEPT
A) they include corneal and brain tissue.
B) they do not have lymphatic vessels.
C) they are rarely rejected.
D) they include any tissue transplanted from a pig.
E) they explain how animals tolerate pregnancies without rejecting the fetus.
19.3
19.15
36) All of the following are considered examples of type I hypersensitivity EXCEPT
A) asthma.
B) dust allergies.
C) severe reactions to insect venom.
D) pollen allergies.
E) transplant rejections.
19.1
19.10
37) All of the following lead to drug-induced thrombocytopenic purpura. Which occurs first?
A) Antibodies and complement react with platelets.
B) Antibodies against haptens are formed.
C) Drug binds to platelets.
D) Platelets are destroyed.
E) Purpura occurs on the skin.
19.1
19.6
38) Immunodeficiencies are a result of all of the following EXCEPT
A) HIV infection.
B) cyclosporine.
C) DiGeorge syndrome.
D) Hodgkin's disease.
E) corneal transplantation.
19.5
19.22
39) Which of the following describes a cytotoxic autoimmune reaction?
A) Antibodies react to cell-surface antigens.
B) Antibodies are not made.
C) Cells are killed.
D) Immune complexes form.
E) Mediated by T cells.
19.2
19.12
40) Symptoms of delayed cell-mediated reactions are due to
A) IgE antibodies.
B) neutrophils.
C) cytokines.
D) IgG antibodies.
E) antigens.
19.1
19.10
41) Desensitization involves injection of
A) antigens.
B) IgG antibodies.
C) IgE antibodies.
D) antihistamine.
E) histamine.
19.1
8.5
19.5
5
42) In the serological method for tissue typing, if human cells expressing HLA-I are mixed with anti-HLA-I, complement, and trypan blue, what would indicate the cells are HLA-I?
A) Enzyme is released from neutrophils.
B) Cells are damaged by complement.
C) Trypan blue enters the cells.
D) Anti-HLA antibodies bind to HLAs on lymphocytes.
E) None of the answers are correct; the T cells are missing.
19.3
8.5
19.13
5
43) In rheumatoid arthritis, IgM, IgG, and complement deposit in joints. This is an example of
A) cytotoxic autoimmunity.
B) immune complex autoimmunity.
C) cell-mediated autoimmunity.
D) immunosuppression.
E) acquired immunodeficiency.
19.2
19.12
44) The number of T cells drops to below 200 cells/microliter in which phase of HIV infection?
A) phase 1
B) phase 2
C) phase 3
D) initial phase
E) asymptomatic phase
19.6
19.26
45) HIV can evade host antibodies by
A) remaining an inactive provirus.
B) causing cell-to-cell fusion.
C) remaining an inactive provirus, causing cell to cell fusion, and virions remaining latent in vacuoles.
D) lowering the CD4+ cell count.
E) virions remaining latent in vacuoles.
19.6
19.25
46) Increases in the numbers of Kaposi's sarcoma and Pneumocystis pneumonia cases seen in the 1980s
A) are examples of newly discovered diseases.
B) were due to increased numbers organ transplantations.
C) were examples of emerging diseases correlating with an increased population experiencing loss of normal immune function.
D) were unusual phenomena due to climate change.
E) were typical and expected.
19.6
19.23
7
47) Which of the following statements is true of phase 3 HIV infection?
A) HIV in blood stabilizes at 1000-10,000 per ml of blood.
B) CD4+ cell population drops to less than 200 cells per μl of blood.
C) HIV peaks to 10 million per ml of blood.
D) asymptomatic infection.
E) Seroconversion occurs.
19.6
19.26
48) An inherited immunodeficiency is termed ________ and a secondary immunodeficiency is also known as ________.
A) congenital; acquired
B) birth defect; inherited
C) dysgenesis; congenital
D) aplasia; SCID
E) immune syndrome; lymphoma
19.5
19.22
49) Which autoimmune diseases and terms are mismatched?
A) Multiple sclerosis - myelin sheath destruction
B) Grave's disease - prevention of thyroid hormone production
C) Myasthenia gravis - blocked acetocholine receptors
D) Systemic lupus erythematosus - immune complex reactions
E) Rheumatoid arthritis - IgM binds Fc of IgG
19.2
19.12
50) Support for the concept that cancer arises due to a failure of the immune response is found in all of the following statements EXCEPT
A) cancers arise more frequently in the elderly.
B) cancers occur more often in immunosuppressed individuals.
C) cancers arise in the very young more frequently than in adolescents.
D) tumor cells acquire tumor-associated antigens that stimulate cell-mediated responses.
E) development of hyperacute rejection reactions.
19.4
19.20
19.2 True/False Questions
1) Individuals who do not express CCR5 are highly resistant to infection by HIV.
19.6
19.24
2) Vaccines against HIV have proven to be very effective in halting the spread of disease.
19.6
19.31
5
3) All hypersensitivities involve antibody-antigen reactions.
19.1
19.10
4) Skin tests are reliable indicators for the diagnosis of food-related allergies.
19.1
19.4
5) HIV attack of CD4+ T cells causes suppression of both cell-mediated and humoral immune responses.
19.6
19.27
6) Autoimmune diseases occur when the immune system is unable to discriminate "self" from "nonself."
19.2
19.11
7) Xenotransplantation is an effective alternative to using isografts.
19.2
19.12
5
8) All stem cells are derived from embryonic stem cells.
19.3
19.16
5
9) Cancer is similar to an infectious disease in that it is due to a failure of the body's defenses.
19.4
19.20
10) HIV is believed to have arisen by mutation of a virus endemic to wild animals in Africa.
19.6
19.23
11) A hypersensitivity reaction refers to immune responses to antigens beyond what would be normal.
19.1
19.1
19.3 Essay Questions
1) Differentiate type II from type III hypersensitivity reactions.
19.1
Analyzing
19.8
8
2) Even though AIDS is an infectious disease caused by a virus, why is it also considered an immunodeficiency disease?
19.6
19.27
8
3) What is desensitization? Explain how this treatment can induce systemic anaphylaxis. How is systemic anaphylaxis treated?
19.1
Analyzing
19.5
8
4) A health care worker had a needlestick injury while drawing blood from an AIDS patient. Lab tests on the worker's serum were negative. Explain why the worker can still be infected even though her lab tests were negative. How should her health care be monitored?
19.6
Analyzing
8.3
19.28
8
5) Explain why a transplant tissue would be rejected if that tissue had different HLAs compared to the HLAs of the recipient. How can this rejection be decreased?
19.3
Analyzing
a
19.14
8
6) Explain the relationship between thymic selection of maturing T cells and self-tolerance.
19.2
Analyzing
a
19.11
8
Microbiology: An Introduction, 13e (Tortora et al.)
Chapter 20 Antimicrobial Drugs
20.1 Multiple-Choice Questions
1) Penicillin was considered a "miracle drug" for all of the following reasons EXCEPT
A) it was the first antibiotic.
B) it does not affect eukaryotic cells.
C) it inhibits gram-positive cell wall synthesis.
D) it has selective toxicity.
E) it kills bacteria.
20.1
20.1
5
2) A drug that inhibits mitosis, such as griseofulvin, would be more effective against
A) gram-positive bacteria.
B) gram-negative bacteria.
C) fungi.
D) wall-less bacteria.
E) mycobacteria.
20.4
3.4
20.13
7
3) Most of the available antimicrobial agents are effective against
A) viruses.
B) bacteria.
C) fungi.
D) protozoa.
20.2
3.4
20.3
5
4) Antimicrobial peptides (AMPs) frequently work by
A) inhibiting protein synthesis.
B) disrupting the plasma membrane.
C) complementary base pairing with DNA.
D) inhibiting cell-wall synthesis.
E) hydrolyzing peptidoglycan.
20.3
3.4
20.5
5) In what way are semisynthetic penicillins and natural penicillins alike?
A) Both are broad spectrum.
B) Both are resistant to penicillinase.
C) Both are resistant to stomach acids.
D) Both are bactericidal.
E) Both are based on β-lactam.
20.4
3.4
20.7
5
6) Which one of the following antibiotics is NOT bactericidal?
A) aminoglycosides
B) cephalosporins
C) polyenes
D) rifampins
E) penicillin
20.4
3.4
20.13
7) Which one of the following does NOT belong with the others?
A) bacitracin
B) cephalosporin
C) monobactam
D) penicillin
E) streptomycin
20.3
3.4
20.5
Figure 20.1
8) The antibiotic tetracycline binds to the 30S subunit of the ribosome, as shown by the dark black bar on the right portion of the diagram in Figure 20.1. The effect is to
A) prevent attachment of DNA.
B) prevent peptide bond formation.
C) prevent transcription.
D) stop the ribosome from moving along the mRNA.
E) interfere with the attachment of the tRNA to mRNA-ribosome complex.
20.4
3.4
20.9
7
9) In Figure 20.1, why is tetracycline selectively toxic against bacteria?
A) Eukaryotic cells will enzymatically destroy the drug.
B) Eukaryotic cells will actively pump the drug out of their interiors.
C) The drug affects peptidoglycan synthesis, and eukaryotic cells have no peptidoglycan.
D) The drug binds to the 30S small ribosomal subunit — eukaryotes have a 40S small subunit.
E) Eukaryotes lack a small ribosomal subunit, so the drug cannot negatively affect them.
20.4
3.4
20.9
Figure 20.2
10) The antibiotic chloramphenicol binds to the 50S subunit of the ribosome, as shown in Figure 20.2. The effect is to
A) prevent mRNA-ribosome binding in eukaryotes.
B) prevent peptide bond formation in prokaryotes.
C) prevent polypeptide elongation in eukaryotes.
D) prevent transcription in prokaryotes.
E) prevent ribosome formation in bacteria.
20.4
Analyzing
3.4
20.9
7
11) In Figure 20.2, chloramphenicol binds to the 50S ribosome subunit. What effect would occur if this drug is administered to a eukaryote?
A) Nothing — eukaryotes have a 60S large ribosomal subunit, not a 50S.
B) The drug would effectively shut down protein synthesis in the eukaryote.
C) The drug would bind instead to the 30S ribosome subunit, but still shut down protein synthesis.
D) The drug would bind to the 50S ribosome subunit, but at a different location, and protein synthesis would continue.
20.4
3.4
20.9
12) Which of the following antimicrobial agents has the fewest side effects?
A) streptomycin
B) tetracycline
C) penicillin
D) erythromycin
E) chloramphenicol
20.4
3.4
20.6
13) Which of the following drugs does NOT act by competitive inhibition?
A) ethambutol
B) isoniazid
C) streptomycin
D) sulfonamide
E) trimethoprim
20.3
3.4
20.5
14) Which of the following methods of action would be bacteriostatic?
A) competitive inhibition with folic acid synthesis
B) inhibition of protein synthesis
C) injury to plasma membrane
D) inhibition of cell wall synthesis
E) competitive inhibition with DNA gyrase
20.3
3.4
20.5
15) Which of the following antibiotics is recommended for use against gram-negative bacteria?
A) polyenes
B) bacitracin
C) cephalosporin
D) penicillin
E) polymyxin
20.4
3.4
20.10
16) Which of the following antimicrobial agents is recommended for use against fungal infections?
A) amphotericin B
B) bacitracin
C) cephalosporin
D) penicillin
E) polymyxin
20.4
3.4
20.13
Table 20.1
The following data were obtained from a broth dilution test.
Concentration of Antibiotic X Growth Growth in Subculture
2 μg/ml + +
10 μg/ml - +
15 μg/ml - -
25 μg/ml - -
17) In Table 20.1, as illustrated by the data shown, the minimal bactericidal concentration of antibiotic X is
A) 2 μg/ml.
B) 10 μg/ml.
C) 15 μg/ml.
D) 25 μg/ml.
E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
20.5
Analyzing
7.1b
20.16
3
18) In Table 20.1, the minimal inhibitory concentration of antibiotic X is
A) 2 μg/ml.
B) 10 μg/ml.
C) 15 μg/ml.
D) 25 μg/ml.
E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
20.5
Analyzing
7.1b
20.16
3
19) From the data in Table 20.1, you can predict that the effect of the drug on a different microbe
A) will be the same.
B) will be weaker.
C) will be stronger.
D) can't be predicted from the information provided.
20.5
7.1b
20.16
20) More than half of our antibiotics are
A) produced by fungi.
B) produced by bacteria.
C) synthesized in laboratories.
D) produced by Fleming.
E) produced by eukaryotic organisms.
20.1
20.2
5
21) To date, most of our natural antibiotics have been found to be produced by members of what genus?
A) Streptomyces
B) Bacillus
C) Penicillium
D) Paenibacillus
E) Cephalosporium
20.1
20.2
22) Which of the following is mismatched?
A) Ehrlich – "magic bullet" theory
B) Fleming – initial identification of penicillin's effect on gram-positive microbial growth
C) Florey and Chain – identification of Penicillium as the producer of penicillin
D) Kirby and Bauer – disc-diffusion method
E) None of these is mismatched.
20.1
3.4
20.1
5
23) Which compound would be the most useful to treat candidiasis?
A) uracil
B) thymine
C) flucytosine
D) guanine
E) penicillin
20.4
3.4
20.13
24) Which of the following antibiotics are used to treat fungal infections?
1. aminoglycosides
2. cephalosporins
3. griseofulvin
4. polyenes
5. bacitracin
A) 1, 2, and 3
B) 3 and 4
C) 3, 4, and 5
D) 4 and 5
E) All of these antibiotics are used to treat fungal infections.
20.4
3.4
20.13
25) Which of the following antibiotics does NOT interfere with cell wall synthesis?
A) cephalosporins
B) macrolides
C) natural penicillins
D) semisynthetic penicillins
E) vancomycin
20.4
3.4
20.9
26) The antimicrobial drugs with the broadest spectrum of activity are
A) aminoglycosides.
B) chloramphenicol.
C) penicillin G.
D) macrolides.
E) tetracyclines.
20.2
3.4
20.4
7
27) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) Fluoroquinolone inhibits DNA synthesis.
B) Acyclovir inhibits DNA synthesis.
C) Amantadine inhibits the release of viral nucleic acid.
D) Interferon inhibits glycolysis.
E) Azoles inhibit plasma membrane synthesis.
20.4
Analyzing
3.4
20.14
28) Protozoan and helminthic diseases are difficult to treat because
A) their cells are structurally and functionally similar to human cells.
B) they replicate inside human cells.
C) they do not have ribosomes.
D) they do not reproduce.
E) they have more genes than bacteria.
20.2
3.4
20.3
7
29) Which of the following organisms would MOST likely be sensitive to natural penicillin?
A) helminths
B) Streptococcus pyogenes
C) penicillinase-producing Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D) Penicillium
E) Mycoplasma
20.4
3.4
20.7
30) Which of the following statements about drug resistance is FALSE?
A) It may be carried on a plasmid.
B) It may be transferred from one bacterium to another during conjugation.
C) It may be due to enzymes that degrade some antibiotics.
D) It is found only in gram-negative bacteria.
E) It may be due to decreased uptake of a drug.
20.6
3.3
20.17
7
31) Which of the following does NOT constitute an advantage of using two antibiotics together?
A) It can prevent drug resistance.
B) It lessens the toxicity of individual drugs.
C) Two are always twice as effective as one.
D) It allows treatment to be provided prior to diagnosis.
E) All of these are advantages of using two antibiotics together.
20.8
3.4
20.18
32) Drug resistance occurs
A) because bacteria are normal microbiota.
B) when antibiotics are used indiscriminately.
C) against antibiotics and not against synthetic chemotherapeutic agents.
D) when antibiotics are taken after the symptoms disappear.
E) All of the answers are correct.
20.6
3.3
20.17
7
Table 20.2
The following results were obtained from a disk-diffusion test for microbial susceptibility to antibiotics. Staphylococcus aureus was the test organism.
Antibiotic Zone of Inhibition
A 3 mm
B 7 mm
C 0 mm
D 10 mm
33) In Table 20.2, the most effective antibiotic tested was
A) A.
B) B.
C) C.
D) D.
E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
20.5
Analyzing
7.1b
20.16
3
34) In Table 20.2, the antibiotic that exhibited bactericidal action was
A) A.
B) B.
C) C.
D) D.
E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
20.5
Analyzing
7.1b
20.16
3
35) In Table 20.2, which antibiotic would be most useful for treating a Salmonella infection?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
20.5
Analyzing
7.1b
20.16
3
36) If you tested a 2nd strain of S. aureus with the same method and concentrations of drugs as indicated in Table 20.2, but you found that the zone of inhibition caused by drug D had dropped to 2 mm, what does this indicate?
A) The 2nd strain of bacteria is likely resistant to drug D.
B) The 2nd strain of bacteria is much more sensitive to drug D.
C) The experiment wasn't conducted properly, and is giving inaccurate results.
D) There is no functional difference between how the 2 strains react to the drug.
20.5
7.1b
20.16
37) Which of the following would be selective against the tubercle bacillus?
A) bacitracin – inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis
B) ethambutol – inhibits mycolic acid synthesis
C) streptogramin – inhibits protein synthesis
D) streptomycin – inhibits protein synthesis
E) vancomycin – inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis
20.4
3.4
20.8
5
38) In the presence of penicillin, a cell dies because
A) it lacks a cell wall.
B) it plasmolyzes.
C) it undergoes lysis.
D) it lacks a cell membrane.
E) its contents leak out.
20.3
3.4
20.5
39) Lamisil is an allylamine used to treat dermatomycoses. Lamisil's method of action is similar to that of
A) polymyxin B.
B) azole antibiotics.
C) echinocandins.
D) griseofulvin.
E) bacitracin.
20.4
Analyzing
3.4
20.13
40) Niclosamide prevents ATP generation in mitochondria. You would expect this drug to be effective against
A) gram-negative bacteria.
B) gram-positive bacteria.
C) helminths.
D) Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
E) viruses.
20.4
3.4
20.15
7
41) Table 20.3
The following data were obtained from a broth dilution test:
Concentration of Antibiotic X Growth
2.0 μg/ml -
1.0 μg/ml -
0.5 μg/ml -
0.25 μg/ml +
0.125 μg/ml +
0 +
Bacteria from the 0.25 μg/ml tube were transferred to new growth media
containing antibiotic X with the following results:
Concentration of Antibiotic X Growth
2.0 μg/ml -
1.0 μg/ml +
0.5 μg/ml +
0.25μg/ml +
The data in Table 20.3 show that these bacteria
A) are pathogenic.
B) developed resistance to antibiotics.
C) were killed by 0.125 μg/ml of antibiotic X.
D) were killed by 0.5 μg/ml of antibiotic X.
E) were resistant to 1.0 μg/ml at the start of the experiment.
20.5
Analyzing
7.1b
20.16
3
42) Which of the following statements about drugs that competitively inhibit DNA polymerase or RNA polymerase is FALSE?
A) They can potentially cause mutations.
B) They are used against viral infections.
C) They can affect host cell DNA synthesis.
D) They cause cellular plasmolysis.
E) They interfere with protein synthesis.
20.3
3.4
20.5
7
43) Figure 20.3
The substrate for transpeptidase used to synthesize peptidoglycan is shown in Figure 20.3. Which of the drugs shown would inhibit peptidoglycan synthesis?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e
20.3
Analyzing
3.4
20.5
2
44) Figure 20.4
The structures of the influenza drug Tamiflu and sialic acid, the substrate for influenza virus's neuramidase, are shown in Figure 20.4. What is the method of action of Tamiflu?
A) inhibits cell wall synthesis
B) inhibits plasma membrane synthesis
C) inhibits synthesis of neuramidase
D) competitive inhibition
E) prevents synthesis of virus spikes
20.4
Analyzing
3.4
20.14
2
45) Which of the following does NOT affect eukaryotic cells?
A) antiprotozoan drugs
B) antihelminthic drugs
C) antifungal drugs
D) nucleotide analogs
E) semisynthetic penicillins
20.4
3.4
20.7
2
46) Mebendazole is used to treat cestode infections. It interferes with microtubule formation; therefore, it would NOT affect
A) bacteria.
B) fungi.
C) helminths.
D) human cells.
E) protozoa.
20.4
3.4
20.15
2
47) Which of the following antibiotics causes misreading of mRNA?
A) aminoglycoside – changes shape of 30S units
B) chloramphenicol – inhibits peptide bonds at 50S subunit
C) oxazolidinone – prevents formation of 70S ribosome
D) streptogamin – prevents release of peptide from 70S ribosome
E) tetracyclines – bind with 30S subunit
20.4
3.4
20.9
48) The antibiotic actinomycin D binds between adjacent G-C pairs, thus interfering with
A) transcription.
B) translation.
C) cellular respiration.
D) plasma membrane function.
E) peptide bond formation.
20.3
3.4
20.5
2
49) Use of antibiotics in animal feed leads to antibiotic-resistant bacteria because
A) bacteria from other animals replace those killed by the antibiotics.
B) the few surviving bacteria that are affected by the antibiotics develop immunity to the antibiotics, which they pass on to their progeny.
C) the antibiotics cause new mutations to occur in the surviving bacteria, which results in resistance to antibiotics.
D) the antibiotics kill susceptible bacteria, but the few that are naturally resistant live and reproduce, and their progeny repopulate the host animal.
E) the antibiotics persist in soil and water.
20.6
3.3
20.17
7
50) Which one of the following anti-protozoan drugs was a traditional Chinese medicine for controlling fevers, but which has also exhibited useful anti-malarial properties?
A) Quinacrine
B) Metronidazole
C) Miltefosine
D) Mebendazole
E) Artemisinin
20.4
3.4
20.15
20.2 True/False Questions
1) An antibiotic that attacks the LPS layer would be expected to have a broad spectrum of activity, effective against Gram negative and Gram positive cells.
20.2
3.4
20.4
2) PABA serves as the competitive inhibitor in the action of sulfanilamides.
20.3
3.4
20.5
3) Undergrowth of fungi after antibiotic use is commonly referred to as a superinfection.
20.2
3.3
20.4
4) Due to its target, rifamycins such as rifampin can be effective over a broad spectrum.
20.4
3.4
20.11
5) Both trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole inhibit reactions along the same metabolic pathway.
20.3
3.4
20.5
6) Penicillin and streptomycin are commonly used in synergism because they display the same mode of action.
20.8
3.4
20.18
2
7) Only microbes produce antimicrobial peptides.
20.1
20.2
8) Community-acquired MRSA is typically less virulent than healthcare-associated MRSA.
20.6
20.17
9) Antiviral drugs target viral processes that occur during viral infection.
20.4
3.4
20.14
10) Phage therapy has been used in the past as an effective, common antiviral treatment.
20.4
3.4
20.14
2
20.3 Essay Questions
1) Explain why penicillin was called the "miracle drug" when it was first used in the 1940s.
20.1
20.1
5
2) Penicillin does not directly kill bacteria. Why, then, is it considered to be bacteriocidal?
20.2
a
20.4
8
3) Explain the difficulties in developing antiviral drugs against DNA viruses, when compared to RNA viruses.
20.2
a
20.3
7
4) Can you determine both MIC and MBC from an E-test? Explain.
20.5
a
20.16
8
5) An official from an international health agency predicts that if all countries enacted legislation to only sell antibiotics with a prescription, then the rate of antibiotic resistant would "grind to a halt." Do you agree? Explain.
20.6
a
20.17
5
Microbiology: An Introduction, 13e (Tortora et al.)
Chapter 21 Microbial Diseases of the Skin and Eyes
2 Multiple-Choice Questions
1) All of the following are normal microbiota of the skin EXCEPT
A) Streptococcus.
B) Micrococcus.
C) Staphylococcus.
D) Propionibacterium.
E) Corynebacterium.
2
2
2) An eight-year-old girl has scabs and pus-filled vesicles on her face and throat. Three weeks earlier she had visited her grandmother, who had shingles. What infection does the eight-year-old have?
A) chickenpox
B) measles
C) fever blisters
D) scabies
E) rubella
2
2
3) Which of the following is NOT true of acne?
A) It can be treated by eliminating fatty foods from the diet.
B) It is often due to the action of Propionibacterium.
C) Drugs that inhibit sebum formation are useful in treating inflammatory acne.
D) Mild cases are treated with topical agents.
E) Antibiotics may be prescribed for moderate cases.
2
2
4) Warts are caused by
A) papillomavirus.
B) poxvirus.
C) herpesvirus.
D) parvovirus.
E) Staphylococcus aureus.
2
2
5) All of the following are characteristic of Pseudomonas aeruginosa EXCEPT
A) gram-positive cell wall.
B) resistance to many types of disinfectants and antibiotics.
C) growth in moist environments.
D) production of pyocyanin.
E) rod-shaped.
2
2
6) Koplik spots are a diagnostic indicator of
A) chickenpox.
B) smallpox.
C) fifth disease.
D) rubella.
E) measles.
2
2
7) All of the following are transmitted via the respiratory route EXCEPT
A) smallpox.
B) chickenpox.
C) rubella.
D) tinea.
E) measles.
2
2
8) All of the following are protective factors of the skin and its secretions EXCEPT
A) keratin.
B) tightly packed cells.
C) lysozyme production.
D) pyocyanin production.
E) salt.
2
3.4
2
9) Thrush and vaginitis are caused by
A) herpesvirus.
B) Chlamydia trachomatis.
C) Candida albicans.
D) Staphylococcus aureus.
E) Streptococcus pyogenes.
2
2
10) The greatest single cause of blindness in the world is
A) neonatal gonorrheal ophthalmia.
B) keratoconjunctivitis.
C) trachoma.
D) inclusion conjunctivitis.
E) pinkeye.
2
20
11) All of the following are characteristic of the Group A beta-hemolytic streptococci EXCEPT
A) methicillin resistance.
B) M proteins.
C) the ability to damage cell membranes.
D) the ability to dissolve blood clots.
E) hyaluronidase production.
2
2
12) Which of the following cause(s) ringworm?
A) Microsporum
B) Epidermophyton
C) Mycobacterium
D) Microsporum and Epidermophyton
E) Microsporum, Epidermophyton, and Mycobacterium
2
2
13) Newborns' eyes are treated with an antibiotic
A) when Neisseria gonorrhoeae is isolated from the eyes.
B) when the mother is blind.
C) when the mother has genital herpes.
D) when the mother has gonorrhea.
E) as a routine precaution.
2
3.4
20
14) A possible complication of chickenpox is
A) encephalitis.
B) fever blisters.
C) subacute sclerosing panencephalitis.
D) congenital rubella syndrome.
E) macular rash.
2
2
15) Which of the following is a subcutaneous mycosis?
A) tinea capitis
B) sporotrichosis
C) erysipelas
D) athlete's foot
E) Buruli ulcer
2
2
16) Which region of the skin supports the largest bacterial population?
A) armpits
B) scalp
C) forearms
D) feet
E) All of these support similarly sized bacterial populations.
2
2
17) Staphylococcus aureus is responsible for all of the following EXCEPT
A) pimples.
B) sties.
C) boils.
D) carbuncles.
E) acne.
2
2
18) Exfoliative toxin is responsible for
A) otitis externa.
B) impetigo.
C) fever blisters.
D) scalded skin syndrome.
E) thrush.
2
2
19) All of the following are causative agents of conjunctivitis EXCEPT
A) Chlamydia trachomatis.
B) herpes simplex.
C) adenovirus.
D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
E) Haemophilus influenzae.
2
20
20) In which of the following respects is measles similar to German measles (rubella)?
A) They have a similar type of rash.
B) They are caused by the same virus.
C) Encephalitis is a possible complication.
D) Congenital complications may occur.
E) They can be controlled by vaccination.
2
2
2
21) Why is vaccination for rubella recommended?
A) It has a high mortality rate in school-age children.
B) Death from secondary infections is common.
C) There is a high incidence of congenital infections and birth defects.
D) Health care workers have a high incidence of infection.
E) It is no longer recommended; rubella has been eradicated.
2
3.4
2
2
22) Which of the following statements about congenital rubella syndrome is FALSE?
A) It is contracted during the first trimester of pregnancy.
B) It may be fatal to the unborn child.
C) It may result in deafness, blindness, and mental retardation.
D) It does not occur with subclinical infections.
E) It can be prevented by vaccinating women prior to pregnancy.
2
2
23) Which of the following are incorrectly matched?
A) varicella-zoster – chickenpox
B) parvovirus – fifth disease
C) HHV-6 – roseola
D) herpes zoster – shingles
E) poxvirus – fever blisters
2
2
24) Which of the following is NOT caused by HSV-1?
A) cold sores
B) canker sores
C) herpes gladiatorum
D) herpes whitlow
E) herpes encephalitis
2
2
25) Which of the following statements about Reye syndrome is FALSE?
A) It is associated with aspirin use.
B) It is a complication that may occur in chickenpox infection.
C) It mostly affects older adults.
D) Symptoms may include vomiting, drowsiness, or behavior changes.
E) Prolonged neurological problems may occur.
2
2
26) The eradication of smallpox was possible because
A) it was a relatively mild disease.
B) insect vectors were eliminated.
C) there are no animal reservoirs of the virus.
D) it can be prevented with the same vaccine used to prevent chickenpox.
E) it occurs only in the tropics.
2
2
5
27) Which of the following is used to treat herpetic keratitis?
A) penicillin
B) sulfonamide
C) trifluridine
D) fungicide
E) acyclovir
2
3.4
21
5
28) Which of the following is used to treat shingles?
A) penicillin
B) sulfonamide
C) trifluridine
D) fungicide
E) acyclovir
2
3.4
2
5
29) Which of the following is used to treat sporotrichosis?
A) penicillin
B) sulfonamide
C) trifluridine
D) oral potassium iodide
E) acyclovir
2
3.4
2
5
30) Which of the following is used to treat candidiasis of the skin or mucous membranes?
A) penicillin
B) sulfonamide
C) trifluridine
D) miconazole
E) acyclovir
2
3.4
2
5
31) Scabies is a skin disease caused by a
A) slow virus.
B) protozoan.
C) mite.
D) bacterium.
E) prion.
2
2
32) Scabies is transmitted by
A) fomites.
B) food.
C) water.
D) soil.
E) respiratory secretions.
2
2
33) A patient has pus-filled vesicles and scabs on her face, throat, and lower back. She most likely has
A) measles.
B) mumps.
C) chickenpox.
D) rubella.
E) smallpox.
2
2
34) Furuncles, toxic shock syndrome, and scalded skin syndrome all are caused by
A) Streptococcus pyogenes.
B) Staphylococcus aureus.
C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
D) Candida albicans.
E) Propionibacterium acnes.
2
2
2
35) Buruli ulcer is caused by
A) gram-positive bacteria.
B) acid-fast bacteria.
C) a fungus.
D) a virus.
E) a mite.
2
2
36) The patient has a papular rash. Microscopic examination of skin scrapings reveals small eight-legged animals. The etiology is
A) Candida.
B) Microsporum.
C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
D) Staphylococcus aureus.
E) Sarcoptes.
2
2
37) The patient has vesicles and scabs over her forehead. Microscopic examination of skin scrapings shows gram-positive cocci in clusters. The etiology is
A) Candida.
B) Microsporum.
C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
D) Staphylococcus aureus.
E) Sarcoptes.
2
2
38) The patient has scaling skin on his fingers. Conidiospores are seen in microscopic examination of skin scrapings. The etiology is
A) Candida.
B) Microsporum.
C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
D) Staphylococcus aureus.
E) Mycobacterium ulcerans.
2
2
39) A 45-year-old man has pus-filled vesicles distributed over his back in the upper right quadrant, over his right shoulder, and upper right quadrant of his chest. His symptoms are most likely due to
A) Candida albicans.
B) herpes simplex virus.
C) Staphylococcus aureus.
D) Streptococcus pyogenes.
E) varicella-zoster virus.
2
2
40) A 35-year-old woman has a red, raised rash on the inside of her thighs. Gram-stained skin scrapings show large budding cells with pseudohyphae. The infection is caused by
A) Candida albicans.
B) herpes simplex virus.
C) Staphylococcus aureus.
D) Streptococcus pyogenes.
E) varicella-zoster virus.
2
2
41) Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
A) Haemophilus influenzae – pinkeye
B) Chlamydia trachomatis – trachoma
C) Neisseria gonorrhea – opthalmia neonatorum
D) Acanthamoeba – keratitis
E) Pseudomonas – inclusion conjunctivitis
2
20
42) Assume that your lab partner swabs the side of his face and uses the swab to inoculate a nutrient agar plate. The next day, he performs a Gram stain on the colonies. They are gram-positive cocci. You advise him that he should next look for
A) an acid-fast reaction.
B) a coagulase reaction.
C) conidiospores.
D) pseudohyphae.
E) pseudopods.
2
8.3
2
43) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) chickenpox – poxvirus
B) conjunctivitis – Chlamydia trachomatis
C) keratitis – Acanthamoeba
D) otitis externa - Pseudomonas
E) Buruli ulcer – Mycobacterium
2
2
44) A 17-year-old boy has pus-filled cysts on his face and upper back. Microscopic examination reveals gram-positive rods. This infection is caused by
A) Acanthamoeba.
B) herpes simplex virus.
C) Propionibacterium acnes.
D) Staphylococcus aureus.
E) Streptococcus pyogenes.
2
2
45) Which of the following is likely to spread MRSA among athletes?
A) physical contact
B) whirlpool baths
C) taping gels
D) shared equipment
E) All of the answers are correct.
2
2
46) Inflammation of the thin clear membrane lining the eyelid and eye is properly termed
A) keratititis.
B) trachoma.
C) ophthalmia neonatorum.
D) conjunctivitis.
E) whitlow.
2
21.9
47) You are examining a scraping of an infected cornea under the brightfield microscope and see eukaryotic cells. This is probably a case of
A) Ophthalmia neonatorum.
B) Trachoma.
C) Trichiasis.
D) Acanthomoeba keratitis.
E) Herpetic keratitis.
2
21
48) Which disease commonly leads to blindness in parts of the world but can be largely controlled through sanitary practices and health education?
A) Yaws
B) Buruli ulcer
C) Trachoma
D) Acanthomoeba keratitis
E) Herpetic keratitis
2
20
5
49) Which infectious agent causes conjunctivitis and may be contracted from non-chlorinated swimming pools?
A) Haemophilus influenzae
B) Chlamydia trachomatis
C) Treponema pallidum
D) Simplexvirus
E) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
2
20
50) A newborn infant develops a whitish overgrowth on the tongue and inner lips. This newborn is suffering from an infection with
A) Acanthomoeba.
B) Pediculus humanus.
C) Trichophyton.
D) Sporothrix schenkii.
E) Candida albicans
2
2
2 True/False Questions
1) Pathogens of the skin often enter via hair follicles and ducts of the sweat glands.
2
2
2) The majority of the staphylococci isolated from human skin are coagulase-positive.
2
2
3) The abbreviation "GAS" refers to pathogenic strains of Staphylococcus.
2
8.3
2
4) Haemophilus influenzae is the most common bacterial cause of pinkeye.
2
21.9
5) Candidiasis often occurs following antibiotic therapy for bacterial infections.
2
2
6) Only infestation with the body louse Pediculus humanus corporis, and not the head louse, spreads diseases.
2
2
7) Blue-green pus is characteristic of Pseudomonas wound infections.
2
2
8) The normal flora of the skin is predominantly gram-negative rods.
2
2
9) Acanthamoeba infections are usually transmitted via insects.
2
21
10) The varicella-zoster virus is the causative agent of chickenpox and shingles.
2
2
2 Essay Questions
1) Compare and contrast the virulence factors associated with Staphylococcus and Streptococcus. Which of these agents is the most difficult to treat? Explain your answer.
2
Analyzing
2
8
2) Currently, the only remaining stocks of smallpox are located in the United States and in Russia. Several dates for the destruction of these stocks have been set, but then postponed. Discuss the pros and cons of destroying these remaining smallpox stocks. Do you feel they should be destroyed? Explain your answer.
2
7.4
2
8
3) List the disease symptoms and virulence factors associated with Pseudomonas infections. Why can Pseudomonas be difficult to control in a hospital environment?
2
Analyzing
2
8
4) Describe the protective characteristics of the skin and mucus membranes and the ways pathogens may circumvent these to cause infections.
2
2
8
5) A patient reports to the eye clinic associated with the regional health center with a painful inflamed left cornea. The patient reports that he typically wears contacts. What types of infectious agent might be causing the problem? What further information would you seek? Describe how you would confirm you suspicion and choose a drug to treat this individual.
2
21
8
Microbiology: An Introduction, 13e (Tortora et al.)
Chapter 22 Microbial Diseases of the Nervous System
2 Multiple-Choice Questions
1) All of the following are true regarding African trypanosomiasis EXCEPT
A) it is also known as "sleeping sickness."
B) all subspecies of Trypanosoma brucei have multiple hosts.
C) it is transmitted by the tsetse fly.
D) death ultimately occurs without proper treatment.
E) Trypanosoma brucei gambiense is the more common cause of disease.
22.5
23
2) Bacterial encephalitis and meningitis are difficult to treat because
A) no medications exist for treatment of these infections.
B) antibiotics damage nervous tissue.
C) many antibiotics cannot penetrate the blood-brain barrier.
D) the infections move along peripheral nerves.
E) it is very difficult to determine the causative microbe.
22.2
3.4
22.4
3) All of the following organisms cause meningitis EXCEPT
A) Neisseria meningitidis.
B) Haemophilus influenzae.
C) Cryptococcus neoformans.
D) Streptococcus pneumoniae.
E) Mycobacterium leprae.
2
22.2
4) Which of the following statements about Neisseria meningitis is FALSE?
A) A healthy carrier state can exist.
B) It is encapsulated.
C) It is typically transmitted by droplet aerosols or direct contact with secretions.
D) Its most distinguishing feature is a unique rash.
E) It is a gram-positive anaerobe.
22.2
2
2
5) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) Neisseria meningitidis – produces deadly endotoxins
B) Haemophilus influenzae – virulence due to capsule
C) Mycobacterium leprae – grows in armadillos
D) Cryptococcus neoformans – acid-fast rod
E) Naegleria fowleri – causes amoebic meningoencephalitis
22.4
22
2
6) All of the following organisms are correctly matched to the recommended treatment EXCEPT
A) Neisseria meningitidis – cephalosporins.
B) Haemophilus influenzae – cephalosporins.
C) Cryptococcus neoformans – amphotericin B.
D) Mycobacterium leprae – dapsone.
E) poliovirus – amphotericin B.
2
3.4
22.8
2
7) Which of the following statements about leprosy is FALSE?
A) It is rarely fatal.
B) Patients with leprosy must be isolated.
C) It is transmitted by direct contact.
D) Diagnosis is based on skin biopsy.
E) The etiologic agent is acid-fast.
22.2
Analyzing
22.7
2
8) All of the following organisms are transmitted via the respiratory route EXCEPT
A) Neisseria meningitidis.
B) Haemophilus influenzae.
C) Listeria monocytogenes.
D) Cryptococcus neoformans.
E) None of the answers is correct; all of these organisms are transmitted by the respiratory route.
22.2
2
9) Which of the following statements about rabies is FALSE?
A) It is caused by Lyssavirus.
B) Hydrophobia is associated with the disease.
C) Most infections in the U.S. are the result of bites from infected dogs.
D) Diagnosis is based on immunofluorescent techniques.
E) Average incubation period is 30 to 50 days after initial infection.
2
20
10) The symptoms of tetanus are due to
A) endospore formation.
B) systemic infection.
C) sustained relaxation of muscles.
D) tetanospasmin.
E) inflammation.
22.2
22.5
11) All of the following diseases are caused by arbovirus EXCEPT
A) St. Louis encephalitis.
B) eastern equine encephalitis.
C) West Nile encephalitis.
D) primary amebic meningoencephalitis (PAM).
E) None of the answers is correct; all of these diseases are caused by arbovirus.
2
20
12) A 30-year-old woman was hospitalized after she experienced convulsions. On examination, she was alert and oriented and complained of a fever, headache, and stiff neck. Any of the following organisms could be responsible for her symptoms EXCEPT
A) Clostridium botulinum.
B) Listeria monocytogenes.
C) Haemophilus influenza.
D) Streptococcus pneumoniae.
E) Any of these organisms could be the causative agent.
22.2
Analyzing
2
2
13) The most effective control of mosquito-borne disease is
A) treatment of infected humans.
B) treatment of infected wild animals.
C) elimination of the mosquito population.
D) avoidance of endemic areas.
E) treatment of uninfected humans.
2
3.4
21
7
14) Initial treatment for tetanus in an unimmunized person with a puncture wound is
A) tetanus toxoid.
B) tetanus immune globulin.
C) penicillin.
D) none; no action is necessary.
E) debridement.
22.2
Analyzing
3.4
22.5
5
15) Initial treatment for tetanus in a fully immunized person with a puncture wound is
A) tetanus toxoid (inactivated tetanus toxin) booster.
B) tetanus immune globulin.
C) penicillin.
D) supportive rehydration therapy.
E) debridement.
22.2
Analyzing
22.5
5
16) The most common route of central nervous system invasion by pathogens is through
A) the skin.
B) the circulatory system.
C) the gastrointestinal system.
D) the parenteral route.
E) direct penetration into nerves.
2
2
17) The prodromal (i.e., pre-acute disease stage) symptoms of bacterial meningitis are
A) mild cold symptoms.
B) fever and headache.
C) stiff neck and back pains.
D) convulsions.
E) fever, headache, and stiff neck.
22.2
22.4
18) All of the following are associated with botulism outbreaks EXCEPT
A) type A toxin is most virulent.
B) endospores of C. botulinum have been recovered from honey.
C) type E toxin is associated with seafood.
D) Alaskan natives have the lowest rate of botulism in the world.
E) antibodies are not an effective method of treatment.
22.2
22.6
7
19) A pathologist detects Negri bodies while examining a brain section taken at autopsy. What was the cause of death?
A) rabies
B) meningococcal meningitis
C) eastern equine encephalitis
D) Hansen's disease
E) poliomyelitis
2
Analyzing
8.3
20
2
20) Encephalitis is more common in the summer months because
A) pathogens are present in swimming pools and lakes.
B) ameba populations increase in swimming pools.
C) ticks are encountered while hiking in the woods.
D) mosquito populations increase.
E) people encounter more bats during warm summer evenings.
2
Analyzing
20
7
21) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) leprosy – direct contact
B) poliomyelitis – respiratory route
C) meningococcal meningitis – respiratory route
D) rabies – direct contact
E) listeriosis – ingestion
2
Analyzing
20
2
22) A 30-year-old woman was hospitalized after she experienced convulsions. On examination, she was alert and oriented and complained of a fever, headache, and stiff neck. Which of the following is most likely to provide rapid identification of the cause of her symptoms?
A) Gram stain of cerebrospinal fluid
B) Gram stain of throat culture
C) biopsy of brain tissue
D) check serum antibodies
E) None of these would provide rapid identification.
22.2
Analyzing
8.3
22.4
2
23) Each of the following is caused by prions EXCEPT
A) sheep scrapie.
B) kuru.
C) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease.
D) bovine spongiform encephalopathy.
E) rabies.
22.6
Analyzing
24
2
24) Which of the following vaccine characteristics is (are) mismatched with their respective vaccine type?
Salk Vaccine Sabin Vaccine 1. Consists of a formalin-inactivated virus 4. Consists of a live, attenuated polio virus
2. Administered orally 5. Administered orally
3. Requires booster doses 6. Provides community immunity
A) 1, 3, and 5
B) 4, 5, and 6
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 2 only
E) None of the answers are correct; all these characteristics are correctly matched.
2
Analyzing
22.8
5
25) An eight-year-old girl in rural Wisconsin has chills, headache, and fever and reports having been bitten by mosquitoes. How would you confirm your diagnosis of arboviral encephalitis?
A) ELISA test for IgM antibodies
B) brain biopsy for Negri bodies
C) Gram stain of cerebrospinal fluid
D) examination of local mosquitoes
E) complement fixation test for IgG antibodies
2
Analyzing
8.3
20
2
26) All of the following are true of chronic fatigue syndrome EXCEPT
A) it may have a genetic component.
B) it is also known as myalgic encephalomyelitis.
C) it is a psychological disorder.
D) it often begins with flu-like symptoms that do not go away.
E) it may be triggered by a viral infection.
22.7
25
27) A physician diagnoses a patient with lepromatous Hansen's disease. All of the following pertain to the patient EXCEPT
A) disfiguring nodules form all over the body.
B) the disease has progressed from the tuberculoid stage.
C) a skin biopsy will be taken to aid diagnosis.
D) treatment will include injections of penicillin.
E) infection probably occurred as a result of prolonged contact with another infected individual.
22.2
22.7
28) Arboviruses cause ________ and are transmitted by ________.
A) meningitis; bee stings
B) meningitis; mosquitoes
C) encephalitis; dog bites
D) encephalitis; mosquitoes
E) both meningitis and encephalitis; mosquitoes
2
20
29) Naegleria fowleri meningoencephalitis is commonly acquired by
A) exposure to bird droppings.
B) mosquito bites.
C) swimming in warm ponds or streams.
D) ingestion of water contaminated with fecal material.
E) exposure to body fluids of a contaminated individual.
22.5
23
30) Diagnosis of rabies is confirmed by
A) Gram stain.
B) direct fluorescent-antibody test.
C) patient's symptoms.
D) passive agglutination.
E) patient's death.
2
8.3
20
31) Which of the following is treated with antibiotics?
A) botulism
B) tetanus
C) streptococcal pneumonia
D) polio
E) All of these diseases can be successfully treated with antibiotics.
22.2
Analyzing
3.4
22.4
7
32) Which one of the following causes the most severe illness in humans, with a mortality rate of 30 percent?
A) western equine encephalitis
B) eastern equine encephalitis
C) St. Louis encephalitis
D) California encephalitis
E) West Nile encephalitis
2
20
33) Which of the following is/are a free-living amoeba that can cause encephalitis?
A) Acanthamoeba
B) Naegleria
C) Entamoeba
D) Naegleria and Acanthamoeba
E) Entamoeba and Naegleria
22.5
23
34) Microscopic examination of cerebrospinal fluid reveals gram-positive rods. What is the organism?
A) Haemophilus
B) Listeria
C) Naegleria
D) Neisseria
E) Streptococcus
22.2
Analyzing
22.4
2
35) On June 30, a 47-year-old man was hospitalized with dizziness, blurred vision, slurred speech, difficulty swallowing, and nausea. Examination revealed facial paralysis. He reported eating home-canned green beans and stew containing roast beef and potatoes 24 hours before onset of symptoms. The patient should be treated with
A) antibiotics.
B) toxin.
C) surgery.
D) vaccination.
E) supportive care, including respiratory assistance.
22.2
3.4
22.6
7
36) On October 5, a pet store sold a kitten that subsequently died. On October 22, rabies was diagnosed in the kitten. Between September 19 and October 23, the pet store had sold 34 kittens. Approximately 1000 people responded to health care providers following local media alerts. These people were given
A) antibiotics.
B) human diploid cell vaccine.
C) immune globulin injections.
D) antiviral medications.
E) postexposure prophylaxis.
2
3.4
22.9
5
37) Vaccination is available for all the following EXCEPT
A) Haemophilus meningitis.
B) Neisseria meningitis.
C) tetanus.
D) rabies.
E) botulism.
22.2
3.4
22.6
5
38) Patients with leprosy usually die from complications such as
A) brain damage.
B) loss of nerve function.
C) tuberculosis.
D) pneumonia.
E) cardiac arrest.
22.2
22.7
39) All of the following are acquired by ingestion EXCEPT
A) botulism.
B) cryptococcosis.
C) listeriosis.
D) poliomyelitis.
E) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease.
22.4
22
40) A one-year-old boy was listless, irritable, and sleepy. Encapsulated Gram-negative rods were cultured from his cerebrospinal fluid. His symptoms were caused by
A) Neisseria meningitidis.
B) rabies.
C) Clostridium tetani.
D) Haemophilus influenzae.
E) a prion.
22.2
Analyzing
2
2
41) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) tetanus – releases potent neurotoxin
B) botulism – stimulates transmission of nerve impulse
C) poliomyelitis – multiplication of virus occurs in throat and small intestine
D) rabies virus – destroys cells of the CNS
E) leprosy – deformation of nose and hands can occur
22.2
22.6
42) All of the following microorganisms can directly cause meningitis EXCEPT
A) protozoa.
B) virus.
C) fungi.
D) bacteria.
E) mosquitoes.
2
22.2
2
43) Which of the following vaccines can cause the disease it is designed to prevent?
A) tetanus toxoid vaccine
B) oral polio vaccine
C) inactivated polio vaccine
D) Haemophilus influenzae capsule vaccine
E) meningococcal capsule vaccine
2
22.8
7
44) All of the following are true of M. leprae EXCEPT
A) it grows best at temperatures below 37°C.
B) it survives ingestion by macrophages.
C) it invades cells of the PNS.
D) it can be cultured in armadillos.
E) it has a very short generation time of approximately twelve hours.
22.2
22.7
2
45) All of the following are true of poliomyelitis EXCEPT
A) infection is due to ingestion of contaminated water.
B) initial sites of viral replication are the throat and small intestine.
C) most cases result in muscle paralysis.
D) the majority of cases are asymptomatic.
E) the oral polio vaccine contains attenuated strains of the virus.
2
20
46) Which one of the following diseases may cause a polio-like paralysis in older adults?
A) West Nile virus infection
B) cryptococcosis
C) Bell's palsy
D) chronic fatigue syndrome
2
20
47) Which one of the following statements about West Nile virus is FALSE?
A) The disease is maintained in a horse-human-horse cycle.
B) The disease is maintained in a bird-mosquito-bird cycle.
C) Most human cases are subclinical or mild.
D) The disease caused by the virus can sometimes cause a fatal encephalitis.
E) The virus was introduced to the United States in 1999 in the New York City area.
2
20
48) Which one of the following diseases causes symptoms in fewer than 1% of infected individuals, but has a mortality rate in symptomatic patients of about 20%?
A) Eastern equine encephalitis
B) Western equine encephalitis
C) St. Louis encephalitis
D) California encephalitis
E) West Nile virus encephalitis
2
20
49) Which one of the following statements on Zika virus is FALSE?
A) It is a member of the Flaviviridae.
B) It is transmitted primarily through the bite of infected Aedes spp. Mosquitoes.
C) It causes temporary and self-resolving facial muscle paralysis.
D) It greatly increases the risks of a fetus developing microcephaly if the mother contracts the virus while pregnant.
E) The virus was first discovered in 1947 in the Zika forest in Uganda.
2
20
50) Which disease listed below, results in symptoms of a drooping eyelid or mouth on one side of the face, and is caused when a facial muscle nerve becomes inflamed?
A) St. Louis encephalitis
B) Eastern equine encephalitis
C) Bell's palsy
D) chronic fatigue syndrome
E) bovine spongiform encephalopathy
22.7
25
22.2 True/False Questions
1) CSF contains high levels of complement and circulating antibodies, as well as a patrolling group of specialized T lymphocytes, to prevent infection of the brain and spinal cord.
2
2
2) Bacterial meningitis is much more common than viral meningitis and tends to cause a milder form of disease.
22.2
22.4
3) Lifelong immunity is conferred once an individual has had botulism and recovered.
22.2
3.4
22.6
7
4) Poliomyelitis is caused by a virus and usually leads to paralysis in those affected.
2
22.8
2
5) If a normal protein typically found on the surface of nervous tissue cells comes into contact with an abnormally folded protein, it can lead to prion-related disease.
22.6
24
6) The most common host of the virus causing eastern equine encephalitis is horses.
2
22.8
2
7) The number of leprosy cases in the United States is around 100 reported cases each year.
2
22.7
7
8) Autopsy of a stillborn fetus reveals the cause of death to be meningitis. Cultures show the presence of a gram-positive rod. The likely pathogen is Haemophilus influenza.
22.2
2
2
9) Botulism and tetanus are directly caused by bacterial endospores commonly found in the soil.
22.2
22.5
2
10) Cryptococcus neoformans is a gram-negative cocci with a thick capsule.
22.4
22
2
2 Essay Questions
1) There is an antitoxin for botulism. Why, then, is the outcome of botulism often fatal?
22.2
a
22.6
8
2) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of the Salk and Sabin vaccines.
2
a
22.9
8
3) Explain the transmission and etiology of meningococcal meningitis.
22.2
a
2
8
4) Describe the challenges produced by prion diseases in herds of animals used for human food supplies.
22.6
24
5) What is chronic fatigue syndrome, and how is it diagnosed? What are some of the challenges facing clinicians trying to help CFS patients?
22.7
25
Microbiology: An Introduction, 13e (Tortora et al.)
Chapter 23 Microbial Diseases of the Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
23.1 Multiple-Choice Questions
1) Which of the following statements about sepsis is FALSE?
A) Symptoms include fever and decreased blood pressure.
B) Lymphangitis may occur.
C) It most always is self-limiting
D) It usually is caused by gram-positive bacteria.
E) It may be aggravated by antibiotics.
23.2
23.2
2) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) subacute bacterial endocarditis – alpha-hemolytic streptococci
B) acute bacterial endocarditis – Staphylococcus aureus
C) rheumatic fever– Streptococcus pyogenes
D) puerperal sepsis – Staphylococcus aureus
E) Burkitt's lymphoma – Epstein-Barr virus
23.2
23.3
3) Which of the following is NOT a recognized form of anthrax?
A) cutaneous
B) inhalationial
C) septic
D) gastrointestinal
E) None of the answers are correct; all of these are recognized forms of anthrax.
23.2
23.7
4) Which of the following is NOT typically treated with penicillin?
A) serious wounds at risk for gas gangrene
B) tularemia
C) patients at risk for rheumatic fever
D) puerperal sepsis
E) rat-bite fever
23.2
3.4
23.5
5
5) Which of the following statements about tularemia is FALSE?
A) It is caused by Francisella tularensis.
B) The most common reservoir is rabbits.
C) It may be transmitted by arthropods.
D) It may be transmitted by direct contact.
E) It occurs only in California.
23.2
23.5
6) Which of the following is a symptom of brucellosis?
A) gastroenteritis
B) relapsing fever
C) undulant fever
D) pneumonia
E) jaundice
23.2
23.6
7) Which of the following is NOT transmitted in raw milk?
A) toxoplasmosis
B) anthrax
C) brucellosis
D) listeriosis
E) All of these can be transmitted in raw milk.
23.4
23.16
7
8) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Bacillus anthracis?
A) is aerobic
B) is gram-positive
C) forms endospores
D) found in soil
E) produces endotoxins
23.2
23.7
9) The symptoms of gas gangrene are due to all of the following EXCEPT
A) microbial fermentation.
B) necrotizing exotoxins.
C) proteolytic enzymes.
D) hyaluronidase.
E) endocarditis
23.2
23.8
7
10) Which of the following is NOT a bacterial pathogen transmitted by the bite of an animal?
A) Pasteurella multocida
B) Streptobacillus
C) Bartonella henselae
D) Plasmodium vivax
E) None of the answers is correct; all of these bacterial infections can be transmitted by dog or cat bites.
23.2
23.9
11) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) malaria – Anopheles (mosquito)
B) dengue – Aedes (mosquito)
C) epidemic typhus – Pediculus (louse)
D) Rocky Mountain spotted fever – Dermacentor (tick)
E) encephalitis – Ixodes (tick)
23.3
23.11
12) Unsanitary and crowded conditions increase the incidence of all of the following diseases EXCEPT
A) plague.
B) epidemic typhus.
C) endemic murine typhus.
D) Rocky Mountain spotted fever.
E) relapsing fever.
23.2
23.10
5
13) Which of the following statements about toxoplasmosis is FALSE?
A) It is caused by a protozoan.
B) The reservoir is cats.
C) It is transmitted by the gastrointestinal route.
D) It typically is a severe illness in adults.
E) It can be congenital.
23.4
23.16
14) Which of the following pairs does NOT apply to Chagas' disease?
A) causative agent – Trypanosoma cruzi
B) vector – kissing bug
C) reservoir – rodents
D) diagnosis of acute phase – serological tests for antibodies
E) treatment – nifurtimox
23.4
23.16
15) Which of the following is NOT caused by a bacterium?
A) epidemic typhus
B) tickborne typhus
C) malaria
D) plague
E) relapsing fever
23.4
23.16
16) Which is NOT considered a potential agent of bioterrorism?
A) Brucella melitensis
B) Anaplasma phagocytophilium
C) Franciella tularensis
D) Bacillus anthracis
E) All of these agents are potential bioterrorism agents.
23.2
23.11
17) Which of the following statements about puerperal sepsis is FALSE?
A) It is transmitted from mother to fetus.
B) It is caused by health care personnel.
C) It begins as a focal infection.
D) It is a complication of abortion or childbirth.
E) Its frequency of occurrence has decreased because of antibiotics and aseptic techniques.
23.2
23.3
18) Which of the following statements about schistosomiasis is FALSE?
A) The cercariae penetrate human skin.
B) The symptoms are caused by immune reactions to the eggs shed in the human host.
C) The intermediate host is an aquatic snail.
D) It is caused by a roundworm.
E) The female lives in a groove that runs down the body of the male.
23.5
23.18
19) Which of the following statements about rheumatic fever is FALSE?
A) It is a complication of a group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection.
B) It is an inflammation of the heart.
C) It is an inflammation of the joints.
D) Once resolved, a patient rarely experiences a reoccurrence.
E) The incidence has declined in the last ten years.
23.2
23.4
20) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) Rickettsia – intracellular parasite
B) Brucella – gram-negative aerobic rods
C) Francisella – gram-positive facultatively anaerobic pleomorphic bacillus
D) Bacillus – gram-positive endospore-forming rods
E) None of the pairs is mismatched.
23.2
23.5
21) Which of the following can be transmitted from an infected mother to her fetus across the placenta?
A) Borrelia
B) cytomegalovirus
C) Spirillum
D) anthrax
E) Yersinia
23.3
23.13
22) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) Borrelia – relapsing fever
B) Yersinia – plague
C) Streptobacillus – rat-bite fever
D) Pasteurella – cat-scratch disease
E) Rickettsia- typhus.
23.2
23.9
23) A patient returning from an extended trip into Mexico has an ulcerating papule at the site of a previous bug bite. Microscopic examination of the papule reveals nucleated amastigotes in white blood cells. The patient most likely has
A) anthrax.
B) brucellosis.
C) leishmaniasis.
D) malaria.
E) schistosomiasis.
23.4
Analyzing
23.16
2
24) Human-to-human transmission of plague is usually by
A) rat flea.
B) dog flea.
C) the respiratory route.
D) wounds.
E) unsanitary conditions.
23.2
23.10
25) A characteristic symptom of plague is
A) small red spots on the skin.
B) swollen lymph nodes.
C) rose-colored spots.
D) recurrent fever.
E) nausea and vomiting.
23.2
23.10
26) Which of the following pairs regarding the epidemiology of malaria is mismatched?
A) vector – Ixodes
B) etiology – Plasmodium
C) enter liver cells – sporozoites
D) diagnosis – presence of merozoites
E) treatment – chloroquine when possible
23.4
23.16
27) A predisposing factor for infection by Clostridium perfringens is
A) gangrene.
B) burns.
C) debridement.
D) hyperbaric treatment.
E) an infected finger.
23.2
23.8
28) Which of the following is NOT a zoonosis?
A) puerperal sepsis
B) Hantavirus infection
C) anthrax
D) brucellosis
E) tularemia
23.2
23.3
29) Arthropods can serve as a reservoir for all of the following diseases EXCEPT
A) plague.
B) brucellosis.
C) epidemic typhus.
D) yellow fever.
E) malaria.
23.2
23.6
30) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) cat-scratch disease – malignant pustule developing into septicemia
B) brucellosis – a temperature of 40°C each evening
C) tularemia – a localized infection appearing as a small ulcer
D) Borrelia – rash and flulike
E) toxoplasmosis – congenital brain damage
23.2
23.9
31) Which of the following CANNOT be transmitted to humans from domestic cats?
A) toxoplasmosis
B) plague
C) Chagas' disease
D) Bartonella
E) None of the answers is correct; all of these diseases can be transmitted to humans from domestic cats.
23.2
23.10
32) Which of the following is the same for both relapsing fever and undulant fever?
A) rising and falling body temperature
B) mode of transmission
C) presence of rash
D) rodent reservoir
E) treatment with tetracycline
23.2
23.11
33) Which of the following is NOT treated with antibiotics?
A) plague
B) tularemia
C) Lyme disease
D) Ebola
E) anthrax
23.3
3.4
23.15
7
34) Which of the following produces a permanent carrier state following infection?
A) Borrelia
B) cytomegalovirus
C) Spirillum
D) Toxoplasma
E) Yersinia
23.3
23.13
35) Epstein-Barr virus has been implicated in all of the following EXCEPT
A) endocarditis.
B) infectious mononucleosis.
C) Burkitt's lymphoma.
D) nasopharyngeal carcinoma.
E) Hodgkin's disease.
23.3
23.13
36) Which of the following leads to all the others?
A) subcutaneous hemorrhaging
B) presence of antirickettsial antibodies
C) blockage of capillaries
D) bacterial growth in endothelial cells
E) breakage of capillaries
23.2
Analyzing
23.10
2
37) A patient complains of fever, severe muscle and joint pain, and a rash. The patient reports returning from a Caribbean vacation one week ago. Which of the following do you suspect?
A) Lassa fever
B) dengue
C) Hantavirus hemorrhagic fever
D) typhus
E) yellow fever
23.3
Analyzing
23.13
2
38) Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched for Gram reaction?
A) Lyme disease – gram-negative
B) tularemia – gram-negative
C) anthrax – gram-positive
D) Rocky Mountain spotted fever – gram-negative
E) Ehrlichia – gram-positive
23.2
23.11
39) Scrapings from a patient's rash reveal cercariae. The disease is most likely
A) Lyme disease.
B) Rocky Mountain spotted fever.
C) relapsing fever.
D) swimmer's itch.
E) Chagas' disease.
23.5
23.18
40) You advise your pregnant friend to not adopt a new kitten from her neighbor because she could contract
A) plague.
B) Burkitt's Lymphoma.
C) toxoplasmosis.
D) listeriosis.
E) infectious mononucleosis.
23.4
23.16
41) Which of the following is evidence that the arthritis afflicting children in Lyme, Connecticut, was due to bacterial infection?
A) treatable with penicillin
B) not contagious
C) accompanied by a rash
D) affected mostly children
E) transmitted by ticks
23.2
Analyzing
23.10
2
42) Which of the following is NOT controlled by a mosquito eradication program?
A) chikungunya fever
B) yellow fever
C) dengue fever
D) schistosomiasis
E) malaria
23.5
3.4
23.18
5
43) A 62-year-old man was hospitalized with an eight-day history of fever, chills, sweats, and vomiting. His temperature on admission was 40°C (104°F). A routine peripheral blood smear revealed ring-shaped bodies in the RBCs. What treatment would you prescribe?
A) hyperbaric oxygen
B) mefloquine
C) no treatment
D) penicillin
E) streptomycin
23.4
Analyzing
23.16
2
44) Which of the following statements about group B streptococci is FALSE?
A) They are present in healthy carriers.
B) They cause gram-positive sepsis.
C) They cause strep throat.
D) They cause neonatal sepsis.
E) They are classified as Streptococcus agalactiae.
23.2
23.3
45) Brucella bacteria are considered a potential agent of bioterrorism because
A) they are not susceptible to antibiotics.
B) they easily become airborne.
C) infection causes a fever.
D) they are endospore-forming bacteria.
E) they cause ulcerating lesions of the skin.
23.2
Analyzing
23.6
2
46) What is NOT true about gram-negative sepsis?
A) The progression to lethal stages is rapid.
B) The rapid progression is almost impossible to treat effectively.
C) Potent exotoxins cause shock.
D) LPS is released upon death of the cells.
E) The site of infection itself may not be the bloodstream.
23.2
23.2
47) Which is NOT true regarding Rocky Mountain spotted fever?
A) It is also known as tick-borne typhus.
B) It is caused by Rickettsia rickettsii.
C) It is most common in the Rocky Mountain region.
D) The organism passes from one generation of Dermacentor to the next.
E) The macular rash is sometimes mistaken for measles.
23.2
23.10
48) Yellow fever
A) is transmitted by Anopheles mosquitoes.
B) has a mortality rate of 5%.
C) was eradicated from the U.S. in the early 1900s.
D) cannot be transmitted human to human.
E) has an effective component vaccine available.
23.3
23.14
49) Which set of pairs is mismatched?
A) Dengue - Aedes aegypti
B) Chikungunya - Anopheles
C) Yellow fever - Aedes aegypti
D) Trypanosoma cruzi - Reduviid bug
E) Marburg virus -African monkeys
23.3
23.14
50) Which is NOT true concerning Babesiosis?
A) It is a tickborne disease.
B) It has rodent reservoirs.
C) It is caused by an obligate intracellular bacterium.
D) It is sometimes mistaken for malaria.
E) The parasite can be found within red blood cells in patient samples.
23.4
23.16
23.2 True/False Questions
1) All lymph that returns to the heart must pass through at least one lymph node.
23.1
23.1
2) HHV-1 is clearly associated with Burkitt's lymphoma via empirical evidence and scientific research.
23.3
23.13
3) Pathogens must be blood-borne in order to initiate sepsis.
23.2
23.2
4) Neonatal sepsis is most commonly caused by group A streptococci.
23.2
23.2
5) Subacute bacterial endocarditis is commonly the result of infections initially focused on the oral cavity.
23.2
23.4
6) Rodent urine is the source of the Lassa virus.
23.3
23.15
7) Netting modified for sandflies should also be useful in preventing malaria.
23.4
3.4
23.16
8) Tularemia is considered to be a potential bioterrorism agent due its high infective dose.
23.2
23.5
9) All forms of typhus are associated with arthropod vectors.
23.2
23.12
10) The most likely primary site of replication during mononucleosis is the B lymphocyte.
23.3
23.13
23.3 Essay Questions
1) Humans are not the normal hosts for Ixodes and Xenopsylla. How, then, do humans contract Lyme disease and plague?
23.2
23.12
8
2) On June 1, a 32-year-old hiker was bitten by a tick. After one week, he noticed an erythematous ring at the location of the bite. Four weeks later, a physician found a large, macular, centrifugally spreading ring. During the next month, it expanded to 35 cm and faded. Over the next 2.5 years, the man experienced recurrent inflammation of a knee. Identify the periods of incubation, prodromal, illness, and decline. What is the etiology? What caused the symptoms? What treatment should have been administered in July? What treatment should be administered two years later?
23.2
23.10
8
3) Worldwide, which disease is the most serious public health threat: malaria, Chagas' disease, or brucellosis? Explain why, and provide a plan to reduce the incidence of the disease.
23.4
23.17
8
4) Yellow fever and chikungunya fever are not currently endemic in the United States. Is it possible that they could become established in the future? What factors would play a role? Be sure to include a comparison of the causative agents and vectors in your answer.
23.3
23.14
8
5) Compare and contrast the diseases plague, Lyme disease, and Rocky Mountain spotted fever. Include the causative agents, vectors, reservoirs, symptoms and treatments in your answer.
23.2
23.10
8
Microbiology: An Introduction, 13e (Tortora et al.)
Chapter 24 Microbial Diseases of the Respiratory System
24.1 Multiple-Choice Questions
1) The lower respiratory tract is protected by all of the following EXCEPT
A) competition with the normal flora of the lungs.
B) IgA antibodies.
C) mucous secretions.
D) the ciliary escalator.
E) alveolar macrophages.
24.1
24.1
2) Which one of the following pairings is mismatched?
A) pharyngitis – sore throat
B) laryngitis – voice loss
C) epiglottitis – sore throat
D) sinusitis – headache and nasal mucous
E) otitis media – earache
24.2
24.3
3) Members of the group A streptococci (GAS) cause all of the following EXCEPT
A) strep throat.
B) scarlet fever.
C) rheumatic fever.
D) pharyngitis.
E) epiglottitis.
24.3
2
4) Which one of the following statements about mycoplasmal pneumonia is TRUE?
A) The causative agent is a virus.
B) The symptoms resemble pneumococcal pneumonia.
C) The causative agent cannot be cultured.
D) Treatment is tetracyclines.
E) Annual vaccination can prevent infection.
24.5
3.4
24.7
7
5) Which one of the following is NOT a typical symptom of influenza?
A) fever
B) chills
C) headache
D) diarrhea
E) muscle aches
24.6
24.9
6) Which one of the following pairings is mismatched?
A) Corynebacterium – gram-positive rod
B) Mycobacterium – acid-fast rod
C) Mycoplasma – gram-positive pleomorphic rod
D) Bordetella – gram-negative pleomorphic rod
E) Haemophilus – gram-negative rod
24.5
24.7
7) Which one of the following microorganisms causes symptoms most like tuberculosis?
A) Histoplasma
B) Coccidioides
C) Legionella
D) Mycoplasma
E) Influenza virus
24.7
Analyzing
5.3
24.10
2
8) All of the following can lead to a positive tuberculin skin test EXCEPT
A) vaccination.
B) current tuberculosis infection.
C) previous tuberculosis infection.
D) immunity to tuberculosis.
E) being near someone with tuberculosis.
24.5
24.6
9) Which one of the following diseases is NOT correctly matched to its vaccine?
A) tuberculosis – toxoid
B) whooping cough – heat-killed bacteria
C) diphtheria – toxoid
D) influenza – viruses grown in embryonated eggs
E) pneumococcal pneumonia – capsular polysaccharides
24.5
24.6
7
10) Which one of the following diseases has a cutaneous form, especially in individuals over 30 years of age?
A) coccidioidomycosis
B) diphtheria
C) legionellosis
D) scarlet fever
E) psittacosis
24.3
2
11) Which one of the following requires treatment with both antibiotics and antitoxins?
A) diphtheria
B) tuberculosis
C) whooping cough
D) scarlet fever
E) psittacosis
24.3
3.4
2
7
12) Which one of the following is mismatched?
A) epiglottitis – Haemophilus
B) Q fever – Rickettsia
C) psittacosis – Chlamydia
D) whooping cough – Bordetella
E) melioidosis – Burkholderia
24.5
24.7
13) Which one of the following does NOT cause otitis media?
A) Streptococcus pneumoniae
B) Haemophilus influenzae
C) Streptococcus pyogenes
D) Moraxella catarrhalis
E) Coxiella burnetii
24.3
2
14) Which one of the following causes opportunistic infections in AIDS patients?
A) Pneumocystis
B) Aspergillus
C) Rhizopus
D) Mucor
E) All of the answers are correct.
24.7
24.10
15) Which one of the following diseases is NOT correctly matched to its reservoir?
A) tuberculosis – cattle
B) histoplasmosis – soil
C) psittacosis – parakeets
D) coccidioidomycosis – air
E) pneumocystis – humans
24.7
Analyzing
5.1
24.10
2
16) All of the following are true of the common cold EXCEPT
A) it is caused by rhinoviruses and coronaviruses.
B) it is transmitted via aerosols and contact.
C) early treatment will drastically reduce the disease symptoms.
D) complications include laryngitis and otitis media.
E) the duration of symptoms is approximately one week.
2
24.5
17) Which one of the following causes a disease characterized by the catarrhal, paroxysmal, and convalescent stages?
A) Bordetella pertussis
B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D) Streptococcus pyogenes
E) respiratory syncytial virus
24.5
24.6
18) Which one of the following is an irregular, gram-positive rod?
A) Bordetella pertussis
B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C) Burkholderia pseudomallei
D) Streptococcus pyogenes
E) Pneumocystis jirovecii
24.3
2
19) Infection by which one of the following results in the formation of Ghon complexes?
A) Bordetella pertussis
B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D) Streptococcus pyogenes
E) Blastomyces dermatidis
24.5
24.6
20) Which one of the following produces the most potent exotoxin?
A) Bordetella pertussis
B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D) Streptococcus pyogenes
E) Streptococcus pneumoniae
24.3
2
21) The most effective means of preventing influenza is
A) annual vaccination.
B) isolation of carriers.
C) vector control.
D) pasteurization of milk.
E) administration of amantadine.
24.6
3.4
24.9
7
22) Which one of the following is an opportunistic pathogen?
A) Pneumocystis
B) Legionella
C) Histoplasma
D) Mycoplasma
E) rhinovirus
24.7
3.3
24.10
7
23) Which one of the following etiologic agents results in the formation of abscesses?
A) Staphylococcus
B) Mycoplasma
C) Streptococcus
D) Blastomyces
E) Coccidioides
24.7
24.10
24) The primary victims of the influenza pandemic of 1918-1919 were
A) members of the military.
B) infants and the elderly.
C) residents of Spain; therefore, it was known as the "Spanish Flu."
D) young adults.
E) residents of the U.S.
24.6
24.9
25) All of the following are used as first-line drugs for treating tuberculosis EXCEPT
A) ethambutol.
B) isoniazid.
C) fluoroquinolones.
D) rifampin.
E) pyrazinamide.
24.5
3.4
24.6
5
26) Infection by which one of the following is often confused with viral pneumonia?
A) Blastomyces
B) Coccidioides
C) Mycoplasma
D) Streptococcus
E) Mycobacterium
24.5
24.7
27) Which one of the following causes a disease characterized by a red rash?
A) Blastomyces
B) Coccidioides
C) Mycoplasma
D) Streptococcus
E) RSV
24.3
Analyzing
2
2
28) Inhalation of arthroconidia is responsible for infection by which one of the following organisms?
A) Blastomyces
B) Coccidioides
C) Mycoplasma
D) Streptococcus
E) Chlamydophila
24.7
24.10
29) Soil is a reservoir for the pathogen for all of the following diseases EXCEPT
A) Q fever.
B) melioidosis.
C) blastomycosis.
D) histoplasmosis.
E) coccidioidomycosis.
24.7
3.3
24.10
2
30) A patient has pneumonia. Gram-negative rods are cultured on nutrient agar from a sputum sample. The etiology is
A) Burkholderia pseudomallei.
B) Chlamydophila psittaci.
C) Haemophilus influenzae.
D) Legionella pneumophila.
E) Staphylococcus aureus.
24.5
Analyzing
8.3
24.8
2
31) The patient is suffocating because of an inflamed epiglottis. What is the etiology of the symptoms?
A) Corynebacterium
B) Haemophilus
C) Bordetella
D) Mycobacterium
E) RSV
24.2
Analyzing
24.3
2
32) The patient has a sore throat. What is the etiology of the symptoms?
A) Corynebacterium
B) Rhinovirus
C) Bordetella
D) Streptococcus
E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
24.2
Analyzing
24.3
2
33) The patient is suffocating because of the accumulation of dead tissue and fibrin in her throat. What is the etiology of the symptoms?
A) Corynebacterium
B) Haemophilus
C) Bordetella
D) Mycobacterium
E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
24.3
Analyzing
2
2
34) Which one of the following pairings is mismatched?
A) Burkholderia – melioidosis
B) Coxiella – Q fever
C) Mycoplasma – walking pneumonia
D) Chlamydophila – psittacosis
E) Mycobacterium – whooping cough
24.6
24.6
35) All of the following are classified as fungi EXCEPT
A) Blastomyces.
B) Coccidioides.
C) Histoplasma.
D) Mycobacterium.
E) Pneumocystis.
24.7
24.10
36) Microscopic examination of a lung biopsy shows thick-walled cysts. What is the etiology of the symptoms?
A) Blastomyces
B) Coccidioides
C) Histoplasma
D) Mycobacterium
E) Pneumocystis
24.7
24.10
2
37) Microscopic examination of a lung biopsy shows spherules. What is the etiology of the symptoms?
A) Blastomyces
B) Coccidioides
C) Histoplasma
D) Mycobacterium
E) Pneumocystis
24.7
24.10
2
38) Which one of the following statements regarding tuberculosis is FALSE?
A) Nearly 1/3 of the world's population is infected with tuberculosis.
B) Nearly 1/3 of the world's population shows symptoms of tuberculosis.
C) It is responsible for nearly 2 million deaths per year.
D) At least 1/3 of those who are TB-positive are also HIV-positive.
E) Treatment requires at least six months of antibiotic therapy.
24.5
24.6
39) A patient has a paroxysmal cough and mucus accumulation. What is the etiology of the symptoms?
A) Bordetella
B) Corynebacterium
C) Burkholderia
D) Mycobacterium
E) Mycoplasma
24.5
24.6
2
40) A patient who presents with red throat and tonsils can be diagnosed as having
A) streptococcal pharyngitis.
B) scarlet fever.
C) diphtheria.
D) the common cold.
E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
24.2
Analyzing
24.3
2
41) A patient has fever, difficulty breathing, chest pains, fluid in the alveoli, and a positive tuberculin skin test. Gram-positive cocci are isolated from the sputum. The patient most likely has
A) tuberculosis.
B) influenza.
C) pneumococcal pneumonia.
D) mycoplasmal pneumonia.
E) the common cold.
24.5
Analyzing
8.3
24.7
2
42) Which one of the following is responsible for epidemics of respiratory disease in infants?
A) rhinovirus
B) adenovirus
C) respiratory syncytial virus
D) influenza
E) Mycoplasma
24.6
24.9
43) Which one of the following is NOT an intracellular parasite?
A) Chlamydophila
B) Coccidioides
C) Coxiella
D) Influenza virus
E) RSV
24.6
24.9
44) Which one of the following produces small "fried-egg" colonies on medium containing horse serum and yeast extract?
A) Chlamydophila
B) Legionella
C) Mycobacterium
D) Mycoplasma
E) Streptococcus
24.5
8.3
24.7
45) Legionella is transmitted by
A) airborne transmission.
B) foodborne transmission.
C) person-to-person contact.
D) fomites.
E) vectors.
24.5
24.7
46) Melioidosis is a relatively new disease. Its means of transmission is primarily via
A) sexual contact.
B) contaminated water.
C) inhalation.
D) blood-borne transmission.
E) surgical wound contamination.
24.5
24.8
47) The causative agent of melioidosis is
A) Burkholderia pseudomallei.
B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
C) RSV.
D) influenza virus.
E) Mycoplasma.
24.5
24.8
48) The best diagnostic method for detection of chlamydial pneumonia is
A) direct brightfield light microscopic examination.
B) PCR detection.
C) biochemical testing of cultured microbes.
D) serological testing of the patient's blood.
E) fluorescent microscopy.
24.5
8.3
24.7
49) In Q fever cases, involvement of which organ/system is responsible for the rare fatalities observed?
A) gastrointestinal tract
B) central nervous system
C) heart tissue
D) kidneys/urinary tract
E) pancreas/endocrine system
24.5
24.7
50) In cases of psittacosis, mortality is approximately ________ in the absence of antibiotic therapy via tetracyclines.
A) 1-3%
B) 80-90%
C) 0% (this infection is not lethal)
D) 15-20%
E) 5-10%
24.5
24.7
24.2 True/False Questions
1) It is common for a normal, healthy individual to carry potentially pathogenic organisms in their upper respiratory tract.
24.2
24.2
2) Most cases of sinusitis and otitis media do not require treatment with antibiotics. They will usually resolve on their own due to natural immune responses.
24.3
3.4
2
3) The symptoms of diphtheria are due to an exotoxin that blocks proteins synthesis in host cells.
24.3
2
4) The most common causative agent of bacterial pneumonia is Streptococcus pneumoniae.
24.5
24.7
5) A positive tuberculosis skin test indicates that the patient has active tuberculosis.
24.5
24.6
6) Vaccination with the influenza vaccine confers lifelong immunity to influenza virus.
24.6
24.9
7) Coccidioides immitis causes Valley fever, a fungal pulmonary disease that is endemic to the Mississippi Valley.
24.7
24.10
8) Mycoplasma pneumoniae causes atypical pneumonia, also known as "walking pneumonia."
24.5
24.7
9) Risks for Q fever include contact with infected cattle and drinking unpasteurized milk.
24.5
24.7
10) Infections with Legionella pneumophila are usually transmitted via aerosols from contaminated air conditioning systems, showers, and humidifiers.
24.5
24.7
24.3 Essay Questions
1) Compare and contrast antigenic shift and antigenic drift in influenza virus. How do antigenic shifts and drifts contribute to the need for annual vaccinations to prevent influenza?
24.6
a
24.9
8
2) Pneumonia is diagnosed by the presence of fluid (dark shadows in an X-ray image) in the alveoli. Given that pneumonia usually is caused by a microorganism, what causes the fluid accumulation? Name a bacterium, a virus, a fungus, a protozoan, and a helminth that can cause pneumonia.
24.7
a
24.10
8
3) Using diphtheria and whooping cough as examples, discuss why it is necessary to continue to vaccinate against diseases that are relatively rare in the U.S. today.
24.5
a
24.6
8
4) Tuberculosis and influenza are both worldwide problem infections. Compare and contrast prevention and treatment options for both diseases. Make and support an argument for prevention or treatment as the best option for either one of the two infections.
24.6
Creating
24.9
5) Characterize the disease melioidosis, then draft a control plan to prevent the spread of the infection if it should reach the United States.
24.5
Creating
a
24.8
Microbiology: An Introduction, 13e (Tortora et al.)
Chapter 25 Microbial Diseases of the Digestive System
25.1 Multiple-Choice Questions
1) Which of the following is directly involved in the initiation of dental caries?
A) sucrose
B) lysozyme
C) lactic acid
D) crevicular fluid
E) dentin
25.3
5.2
25.3
2) Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea is usually preceded by
A) eating contaminated food.
B) a blood transfusion.
C) extended use of antibiotics.
D) improper food storage.
E) travel to an underdeveloped country.
2
2
3) Which of the following statements about salmonellosis is FALSE?
A) It is a bacterial infection.
B) Severity of disease depends on number of organisms ingested.
C) A healthy carrier state exists.
D) The mortality rate is high.
E) It is often associated with poultry products.
2
2
4) Disease-causing exotoxins are produced by all of the following organisms EXCEPT
A) Clostridium perfringens.
B) Vibrio cholerae.
C) Shigella dysenteriae.
D) Staphylococcus aureus.
E) Clostridium botulinum.
2
Analyzing
2
2
5) Which one of the following diseases of the gastrointestinal system is transmitted by the respiratory route?
A) staphylococcal enterotoxicosis
B) mumps
C) Vibrio gastroenteritis
D) bacillary dysentery
E) traveler's diarrhea
25.5
25.5
6) The digestive tract is essentially one long tube. The order of the structures, beginning with the mouth, is
A) pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine.
B) esophagus, pharynx, stomach, small intestine, large intestine.
C) pharynx, esophagus, stomach, large intestine, small intestine.
D) esophagus, stomach, pharynx, small intestine, large intestine.
E) pharynx, stomach, esophagus, small intestine, large intestine.
25.1
25.1
7) Which of the following helminthic diseases is a common infestation found in the southeastern United States?
A) Enterobius vermicularis
B) Ascaris lumbricoides
C) Taenia saginata
D) Trichuris trichiura
E) Echinococcus granulosus
25.8
25.10
8) Poultry products are a likely source of infection by
A) Helicobacter pylori.
B) Salmonella enterica.
C) Vibrio cholerae.
D) Shigella spp.
E) Clostridium perfringens.
2
2
9) All of the following infections can result from drinking contaminated water EXCEPT
A) Cyclospora infection.
B) giardiasis.
C) trichinellosis.
D) cholera.
E) cryptosporidiosis.
25.7
Analyzing
25.9
2
10) Which of the following organisms is shed in the feces of humans and animals, including beavers, and can contaminate water?
A) Giardia lamblia
B) Escherichia coli
C) Taenia spp.
D) Vibrio parahaemolyticus
E) Entamoeba histolytica
25.7
25.9
11) In humans, beef tapeworm infestations are acquired by ingesting
A) the eggs of Taenia saginata.
B) segments of Taenia solium tapeworms.
C) water contaminated with Diphyllobothrium latum eggs.
D) cysticerci of Taenia saginata in undercooked meat.
E) cysticerci of Taenia solium in undercooked meat.
25.8
25.10
12) Which of the following statements about staphylococcal food poisoning is FALSE?
A) It is caused by ingesting an enterotoxin.
B) It can be prevented by adequate refrigeration of food.
C) It can be prevented by heating foods to 50°C for 15 minutes.
D) It is treated by replacing water and electrolytes.
E) It is characterized by rapid onset and short duration of symptoms.
2
2
13) The most common cause of traveler's diarrhea is
A) Shigella spp.
B) Salmonella enterica.
C) Giardia lamblia.
D) Escherichia coli.
E) Campylobacter jejuni.
2
2
14) Acute gastroenteritis that occurs after an incubation period of two to three days, persists for about a week, and commonly affects children is probably caused by
A) Giardia.
B) rotavirus.
C) Salmonella.
D) Staphylococcus aureus.
E) Trichinella.
25.5
Analyzing
25.7
2
15) Which of the following is mismatched?
A) Echinococcus granulosus – most benign of human tapeworm infections
B) Taenia solium – cysticerosis
C) trichinellosis – humans eat larva of parasite in undercooked meat
D) pinworm infestation – humans ingest parasite's eggs
E) hookworm infestation – heavy infections may cause pica
25.8
25.10
2
16) Thorough cooking of food will prevent all of the following EXCEPT
A) trichinellosis.
B) beef tapeworm.
C) staphylococcal food poisoning.
D) salmonellosis.
E) shigellosis.
2
2
2
17) Most of the normal microbiota of the digestive system are found in the
A) mouth.
B) stomach.
C) stomach and small intestine.
D) small intestine and large intestine.
E) accessory structures.
25.2
25.2
2
18) Gums bleeding while brushing one's teeth is most commonly associated with
A) halitosis.
B) cavities.
C) gingivitis.
D) periodontitis.
E) trench mouth.
25.3
25.3
19) Typhoid fever differs from salmonellosis in that in typhoid fever
A) the microorganisms multiply within macrophages.
B) the organism is only spread in the feces of humans.
C) the incubation period is much shorter.
D) the organism first invades the intestinal mucosa.
E) infection occurs due to ingestion of endospores.
25.5
2
2
20) Which of the following organisms is likely to be transmitted via contaminated shrimp?
A) Trichinella spiralis
B) Vibrio parahaemolyticus
C) Giardia lamblia
D) Clostridium perfringens
E) Staphylococcus aureus
2
2
21) Which of the following organisms is likely to be transmitted via undercooked pork and horse?
A) Salmonella enterica
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Trichinella spiralis
D) Entamoeba histolytica
E) Shigella spp.
25.8
25.10
22) A vaccine to provide active immunity to HBV is prepared from
A) viruses grown in tissue culture.
B) genetically modified yeast.
C) pooled gamma globulin.
D) viruses grown in embryonated eggs.
E) viral particles in patients.
25.5
3.4
25.6
23) Aflatoxin is a(n) ________ associated with ingestion of contaminated ________.
A) mycotoxin; peanuts
B) mycotoxin; rye or other cereal grains
C) enterotoxin; peanuts
D) enterotoxin; rye or other cereal grains
E) endotoxin; peanuts
25.6
25.8
24) Which of the following causes inflammation of the liver?
A) Salmonella enterica
B) Shigella spp.
C) hepatitis A virus
D) Vibrio cholerae
E) Escherichia coli
25.5
25.6
25) "Rice water stools" are characteristic of
A) salmonellosis.
B) cholera.
C) bacillary dysentery.
D) amebic dysentery.
E) tapeworm infestation.
2
2
26) Epidemics related to bacterial infection of the digestive system are typically caused by
A) biological vectors.
B) contaminated food and water.
C) unpasteurized milk.
D) the respiratory route.
E) exposure to contaminated soil.
2
2
2
27) Many bacterial infections of the lower digestive tract are treated with
A) antitoxin.
B) penicillin.
C) water and electrolytes.
D) quinacrine.
E) thorough cooking.
2
3.4
2
28) Dental plaque is an example of
A) a pellicle.
B) a biofilm.
C) gingivitis.
D) dentin.
E) tooth enamel.
25.3
5.2
25.3
7
29) Which of the following is mismatched?
A) ergot – gangrene
B) Salmonella endotoxin – lyses red blood cells
C) Vibrio enterotoxin – secretion of Cl-, K+, and H2O
D) aflatoxin – liver cancer
E) shiga toxin – tissue destruction
2
2
7
30) Bacterial intoxications differ from bacterial infections of the digestive system in that intoxications
A) are transmitted via contaminated water.
B) are more severe.
C) have shorter incubation times.
D) are treated with antibiotics.
E) are accompanied by high fever.
2
Analyzing
2
2
31) The most common mode of HAV transmission is
A) contamination of food during preparation.
B) respiratory route.
C) blood transfusion.
D) contaminated hypodermic needles.
E) airborne.
25.5
25.6
32) Which of the following correctly lists the stages of tooth decay?
A) plaque accumulation, destruction of enamel, advancement of decay through enamel, decay in dentin, decay in tooth pulp
B) decay in dentin, plaque accumulation, destruction of enamel, advancement of decay through enamel, decay in tooth pulp
C) plaque accumulation, destruction of enamel, decay in tooth pulp, advancement of decay through enamel, decay in dentin
D) destruction of enamel, advancement of decay through enamel, plaque accumulation, decay in dentin, decay in tooth pulp
E) destruction of enamel, plaque accumulation, advancement of decay through enamel, decay in dentin, decay in tooth pulp
25.3
5.2
25.3
33) A 38-year-old man had onset of fever, chills, nausea, and myalgia while vacationing on the Gulf of Mexico. On April 29, he had eaten raw oysters and gone wading in the warm coastal waters. On May 2, he was admitted to a hospital because of a fever of 39°C and two circular necrotic lesions on the left leg. He had a history of alcoholic liver disease. He was transferred to the ICU; therapy with antibiotics was initiated. On May 4, he died. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
A) Bacillus cereus
B) Cyclospora cayetanensis
C) Salmonella Typhi
D) Vibrio vulnificus
E) hepatitis C virus
2
Analyzing
2
2
34) Which of the following is included in GALT?
A) thymus
B) Peyer's patches
C) tonsils
D) liver
E) salivary glands
25.1
25.1
35) Microscopic examination of a patient's fecal culture shows spiral bacteria. The bacteria probably belong to the genus
A) Campylobacter jejuni.
B) Escherichia coli.
C) Salmonella Typhi.
D) Shigella spp.
E) Vibrio cholerae.
2
2
36) Which of the following pertains to typhoid fever?
A) It is typically acquired via ingestion of contaminated eggs.
B) Enterotoxin spreads via the blood.
C) It is caused by several different species of Salmonella.
D) Causative microorganism multiplies in patient phagocytes.
E) It is also called bacillary dysentery.
2
2
37) All of the following are gram-negative rods that cause gastroenteritis EXCEPT
A) Clostridium perfringens.
B) Escherichia coli.
C) Salmonella Typhi.
D) Shigella spp.
E) Yersinia enterocolitica.
2
2
38) Helicobacter pylori can grow in the stomach because it
A) hides in macrophages.
B) makes a capsule.
C) possesses an enzyme that neutralizes HCl.
D) makes HCl.
E) invades epithelial cells.
2
3.3
2
2
39) All of the following are eukaryotic organisms that cause diarrheal disease EXCEPT
A) Cryptosporidium.
B) Cyclospora.
C) Entamoeba.
D) Giardia.
E) Campylobacter.
2
2
40) All of the following pertain to pinworm infections EXCEPT
A) transmission is typically by contact with fomites or inhalation of eggs.
B) diagnosis is by detecting eggs on transparent tape pressed to the perianal area.
C) all family members living with the patient must also be treated.
D) it is most commonly transmitted by cysts in water.
E) it is a helminth disease.
25.8
25.10
41) What is a Dane particle?
A) the chlorine-resistant virus that causes HAV
B) the infectious virion that causes HBV
C) the spherical particles found in serum of patients with HBV
D) the filamentous particles that cause HAV
E) another name for an HBV surface antigen
25.5
25.6
42) Which of the following is mismatched?
A) beef – E. coli O157:H7
B) custard and cream pies – Staphylococcus aureus
C) eggs – Trichinella spiralis
D) chicken – Campylobacter jejuni
E) oysters – Vibrio parahaemolyticus
25.8
Analyzing
25.10
2
Situation 25.1
Following a county fair, 160 persons complained of gastrointestinal symptoms. Symptoms included diarrhea (84 percent), abdominal cramps (96 percent), nausea (84 percent), vomiting (82 percent), body aches (50 percent), fever (60 percent; median body temperature = 38.3°C); median duration of illness 6 days (range 10 hr to 13 days).
43) In Situation 25.1, fecal samples should be cultured for all of the following EXCEPT
A) Salmonella enterica.
B) Shigella spp.
C) Campylobacter jejuni.
D) enteropathogenic Escherichia coli.
E) Giardia lamblia.
25.7
Analyzing
25.9
2
44) In Situation 25.1, fecal samples were found to be negative when cultured. The next step in diagnosing the cause of illness would be
A) to begin antibiotic therapy.
B) blood cultures.
C) microscopic examination of feces for oocysts.
D) microscopic examination of feces for viruses.
E) muscle biopsy.
25.7
Analyzing
25.9
2
45) Table 25.1
Food Relative Risk
Black beans 0.58
Corn soup 0.75
Jalapeño peppers 34.13
Roma tomatoes 0
The relative risks shown in Table 25.1 were calculated for foods suspected of transmitting Salmonella. Which food is the most likely source of infection?
A) black beans
B) corn soup
C) jalapeño peppers
D) roma tomatoes
E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
2
Analyzing
7.2
2
3
46) Which structure or component of the small intestine is important to antimicrobial defense?
A) salivary glands
B) stomach acid
C) Paneth cells
D) gall bladder
E) crevicular fluid
25. 2
25.2
47) A rushed homemaker prepared a stew from a large cut of beef but the family only consumed a small portion for dinner. The still-hot large pot was placed in the refrigerator overnight. The next day the stew was warmed for lunch. By the evening the entire family was suffering from varying degrees of diarrhea, abdominal cramping and nausea. You most likely suspect the culprit of this event is
A) Salmonella.
B) H. pylori.
C) Shigella.
D) C. perfringes.
E) B. cereus.
2
Analyzing
2
48) Which is true of the Mumps virus?
A) It is transmitted by the fecal-oral route.
B) It typically begins with symptoms of gastroenteritis.
C) The portal of entry is the respiratory route.
D) A component vaccine is part of the MMR.
E) Male sterility occurs in 40% of infections.
25. 5
25.5
49) Which is NOT true of HBV?
A) 1/3 of the world population shows serological evidence of past infection.
B) 5% of acute HBV infections progress to chronic infection.
C) Filamentous particles are not infectious.
D) Acute HBV infection may be subclinical.
E) Individuals infected as adults are the most likely to become carriers of the virus.
25. 5
2
50) A young child received a red-eared slider turtle as a birthday gift. Within a week the child was suffering from a severe gastroenteritis that required a visit to urgent care. What is the child likely suffering from?
A) salmonellosis
B) Campylobacter infection
C) shigellosis
D) hepatitis A infection
E) cholera
25. 4
2
25.2 True/False Questions
1) Campylobacter gastroenteritis is the leading cause of foodborne illness in the United States.
2
2
2) Clostridium perfringens typically causes a self-limiting gastroenteritis.
2
5.2
2
3) Bacterial infections, but not intoxications, can cause diarrhea.
2
2
4) An outbreak of viral gastroenteritis occurs in a pediatrics ward. Rotavirus is the most likely causative agent.
25.5
Analyzing
25.7
2
5) Aflatoxin poisoning is associated with liver cancer.
25.6
25.8
6) Approximately 30 percent of the body's immune system is located in the intestinal tract.
25.1
25.1
7) Humans infected with Enterobius vermicularis may have hydatid cysts within their lungs or other organs.
25.8
25.10
8) Gastroenteritis due to ingestion of food contaminated with Staphylococcus aureus is due to intoxication by enterotoxins.
2
2
9) EHEC is a major cause of diarrhea in developing countries and may result in the death of small children.
2
Analyzing
2
2
10) H. pylori is able to survive the acidic environment of the stomach as a result of adaptations that allow it to increase the pH of the immediate environment.
2
3.3
2
7
25.3 Essay Questions
1) Mary made her family's favorite cream of broccoli soup for lunch. Lunch was forgotten when her son suddenly remembered he had a soccer game at noon. The family finally returned several hours later and sat down to eat. Although Mary reheated the soup (which had been left out at room temperature while they were gone), why is this no guarantee that Mary and her family will not become sick due to food poisoning?
2
2
8
2) Discuss why cholera epidemics are often associated with floods.
2
2
8
3) Compare the modes of transmission for hepatitis A, B, and C.
25.5
Analyzing
25.6
8
4) Describe the process of periodontal disease.
25.3
Analyzing
25.3
8
5) Multiple pathovars of E. coli are well characterized. Identify four different pathogenic strains and discuss the mechanism of disease for each.
2
Analyzing
2
8
6) Thinking of a mumps infection, how do the symptoms involve the GI tract, yet lead to airborne transmission of the disease? Why isn't the disease transmitted by fecal-oral contamination instead?
25.5
Analyzing
25.5
8
Microbiology: An Introduction, 13e (Tortora et al.)
Chapter 26 Microbial Diseases of the Urinary and Reproductive Systems
26.1 Multiple-Choice Questions
1) Normal microbiota of the adult vagina consists primarily of
A) Lactobacillus.
B) Streptococcus.
C) Mycobacterium.
D) Neisseria.
E) Candida.
2
2
2) Cystitis is most often caused by
A) Escherichia coli.
B) Leptospira interrogans.
C) Candida albicans.
D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
E) Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
26.4
26.5
3) Pyelonephritis may result from
A) urethritis.
B) cystitis.
C) ureteritis.
D) systemic infections.
E) All of the answers are correct.
26.4
26.5
4) All of the following result from N. gonorrhoeae infection. Which one leads to the others?
A) Antibody production is stopped.
B) CD4+ T lymphocytes do not activate.
C) There is an increased risk of other STIs.
D) Opa protein attaches to CD4+ T lymphocytes.
E) CD4+ T lymphocytes do not proliferate.
26.5
26.6
2
5) Pyelonephritis usually is caused by
A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
B) Proteus spp.
C) Escherichia coli.
D) Enterobacter aerogenes.
E) Streptococcus pyogenes.
26.4
26.5
6) The most common reservoir for leptospirosis within the United States is
A) humans.
B) water.
C) domestic dogs.
D) domestic cats.
E) rats.
26.4
26.5
7) Which one of the following is NOT primarily a sexually transmitted infection (STI)?
A) lymphogranuloma venereum
B) genital herpes
C) gonorrhea
D) chancroid
E) bacterial vaginosis
26.5
26.6
8) Which one of the following is treated with penicillin?
A) genital herpes
B) genital warts
C) candidiasis
D) syphilis
E) trichomoniasis
26.5
3.4
26.6
9) Which one of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) trichomoniasis – fungus
B) gonorrhea – gram-negative cocci
C) chancroid – gram-negative rod
D) Gardnerella – clue cells
E) syphilis – gram-negative spirochete
26.8
26.9
10) One form of NGU is lymphogranuloma venereum caused by
A) Leptospira interrogans.
B) Chlamydia trachomatis.
C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
D) Treponema pallidum.
E) Candida albicans.
26.5
26.6
11) All of the following can cause congenital infection or infections of the newborn EXCEPT
A) syphilis.
B) gonorrhea.
C) nongonococcal urethritis.
D) genital herpes.
E) pyelonephritis.
26.6
26.7
2
12) Which one of the following recurs at the initial site of infection?
A) gonorrhea
B) syphilis
C) genital herpes
D) chancroid
E) LGV
26.6
26.7
13) Which one of the following is diagnosed by detection of antibodies against the causative agent?
A) nongonococcal urethritis
B) gonorrhea
C) syphilis
D) lymphogranuloma venereum
E) candidiasis
26.5
8.3
26.6
14) Nongonococcal urethritis can be caused by all of the following EXCEPT
A) Mycoplasma homini.
B) Candida albicans.
C) Trichomonas vaginalis.
D) streptococci.
E) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
26.5
26.6
15) Which of the following is caused by an opportunistic pathogen?
A) trichomoniasis
B) genital herpes
C) candidiasis
D) gonorrhea
E) chancroid
26.7
26.8
2
16) The pH of the adult vagina is acidic due to the conversion of ________ to ________ by bacteria.
A) glucose; ethanol
B) protein; acetic acid
C) glycogen; lactic acid
D) mucosal cells; lactic acid
E) urine; lactic acid
2
3.3
2
7
17) A "clean" urine sample collected directly from the urinary bladder of a healthy individual
A) should be largely devoid of common skin microbiota.
B) contains fewer than 100 pathogens/ml.
C) contains fewer than 10,000 pathogens/ml.
D) contains more than 100,000 pathogens/ml.
E) has leukocyte esterase.
2
2
18) Most nosocomial infections of the urinary tract are caused by
A) Escherichia coli.
B) Enterococcus.
C) Proteus.
D) Klebsiella.
E) Pseudomonas.
26.4
26.5
19) Which of the following is NOT an antimicrobial feature of the urinary system?
A) physiological valves found in the ureter
B) pH of the urine
C) flushing action of urine
D) the use of the urethra for movement of seminal fluid in women
E) None of the answers is correct; all of these are antimicrobial features of the urinary system.
26.1
Analyzing
3.4
26.1
20) Which of the following is NOT a predisposing factor to cystitis in females?
A) the proximity of the anus to the urethra
B) the length of the urethra
C) sexual intercourse
D) poor personal hygiene
E) None of the answers is correct; all of these are predisposing factors.
26.4
26.5
21) The most common reportable disease in the United States is
A) cystitis.
B) lymphogranuloma venereum.
C) gonorrhea.
D) syphilis.
E) candidiasis.
26.5
26.6
22) Which of the following is NOT a complication of gonorrhea?
A) arthritis
B) pelvic inflammatory disease
C) endocarditis
D) meningitis
E) None of the answers are correct; all of these are potential complications of gonorrhea.
26.5
26.6
23) Which of the following is the most difficult to treat with chemotherapeutic agents?
A) genital herpes
B) gonorrhea
C) syphilis
D) trichomoniasis
E) leptospirosis
26.6
3.4
26.7
7
24) Vaginal itching and cheesy discharge are symptoms of
A) Gardnerella vaginosis.
B) genital herpes.
C) candidiasis.
D) trichomoniasis.
E) lymphogranuloma venereum.
26.7
26.8
25) Recurring vesicles on the surface of human skin are symptoms of
A) Gardnerella vaginosis.
B) genital herpes.
C) candidiasis.
D) trichomoniasis.
E) lymphogranuloma venereum.
26.6
26.7
26) Leukocytes at the infected site are a symptom of
A) Gardnerella vaginosis.
B) genital herpes.
C) candidiasis.
D) trichomoniasis.
E) lymphogranuloma venereum.
26.8
26.9
27) Which one of the following is caused by Chlamydia?
A) Gardnerella vaginosis
B) genital herpes
C) candidiasis
D) trichomoniasis
E) lymphogranuloma venereum
26.5
26.6
28) A positive LE test and greater than 100 CFU/ml of a single species in urine indicates
A) cystitis.
B) gonorrhea.
C) urethritis.
D) pyelonephritis.
E) genital herpes.
26.4
26.5
2
29) Which of the following diseases causes a skin rash, hair loss, malaise, and fever?
A) gonorrhea
B) syphilis
C) NGU
D) trichomoniasis
E) genital herpes
26.5
26.6
30) Staphylococcus saprophyticus causes
A) cystitis.
B) pyelonephritis.
C) vaginitis.
D) gonorrhea.
E) syphilis.
26.4
26.5
31) Which one of the following statements about genital warts is FALSE?
A) It is transmitted by direct contact.
B) It is caused by papillomaviruses.
C) Lesions are always precancerous.
D) It can be treated by removing them.
E) It can lead to cervical cancer in women.
26.6
26.7
32) The most common NGU in the United States is treated with
A) penicillin.
B) cephalosporins.
C) acyclovir.
D) AZT.
E) doxycycline.
26.5
Analyzing
3.4
26.6
5
33) Which one of the following statements about pelvic inflammatory disease is FALSE?
A) It can cause sterility and chronic pain.
B) It can be caused by N. gonorrhoeae.
C) It can be transmitted sexually.
D) It can be caused by C. trachomatis.
E) It can be caused by T. pallidum.
26.5
26.6
34) Which one of the following genera of microorganisms causes gonorrhea?
A) Chlamydia
B) Mycoplasma
C) Neisseria
D) Ureaplasma
E) None of the answers is correct; all of these cause gonorrhea.
26.5
26.6
35) Infants born to asymptomatic mothers with recurrent genital herpes are less likely to acquire herpesvirus at birth than infants born to newly infected mothers because
A) maternal antibodies offer protection.
B) the disease cannot be transmitted to newborns.
C) the disease is not communicable.
D) prophylactic antibiotics are administered to the newborn.
E) the virus is not growing.
26.6
26.7
2
36) Which of the following is greater?
A) the number of reported cases of gonorrhea last year
B) the number of reported cases of AIDS last year
C) The number of reported cases of gonorrhea and AIDS are likely equal.
26.5
26.6
37) A patient presents with fever and extensive lesions of the labia minora. Her VDRL test was negative. What is the most likely treatment?
A) metronidazole
B) cephalosporins
C) acyclovir
D) miconazole
E) No treatment is available.
26.6
Analyzing
3.4
26.7
2
38) A patient is experiencing profuse greenish-yellow, foul-smelling discharge from her vagina. She is complaining of itching and irritation. What is the most likely treatment?
A) metronidazole
B) cephalosporins
C) acyclovir
D) miconazole
E) No treatment is available.
26.8
Analyzing
3.4
26.9
2
39) A 25-year-old man presented with fever, malaise, and a rash on his chest, arms, and feet. Which one of the following causative agents is most likely to cause these symptoms?
A) Nesseria
B) HPV
C) HSV-2
D) Candida
E) Treponema
26.5
Analyzing
26.6
2
40) A 25-year-old man presented with fever, malaise, and a rash on his chest, arms, and feet. Which of the following will be most useful for a rapid diagnosis?
A) bacterial culture
B) microscopic examination of blood
C) serological test for antibodies
D) serological test for antigen
E) viral culture
26.5
Analyzing
8.3
26.6
2
41) A 25-year-old man presented with fever, malaise, and a rash on his chest, arms, and feet. Diagnosis was based on serological testing. The patient then reported that he had an ulcer on his penis two months earlier. What stage of disease is the patient in?
A) NGU
B) primary
C) secondary
D) tertiary
26.5
Analyzing
26.6
2
42) A 25-year-old male presented with fever, malaise, and a rash on his chest, arms, and feet. Diagnosis was based on serological testing. The patient then reported that he had an ulcer on his penis two months earlier. This disease can be treated with
A) acyclovir.
B) metronidazole.
C) miconazole.
D) penicillin.
E) surgery.
26.5
Analyzing
3.4
26.6
2
43) A pelvic examination of a 23-year-old woman showed vesicles and ulcerated lesions on her labia. Cultures were negative for Neisseria and Chlamydia; the VDRL test was negative. Which treatment is appropriate?
A) acyclovir
B) metronidazole
C) miconazole
D) penicillin
E) surgery
26.6
Analyzing
3.4
26.7
2
44) A pelvic examination of a 23-year-old woman showed vesicles and ulcerated lesions on her labia. Cultures were negative for Neisseria and Chlamydia; the VDRL test was negative. Which of the following is probable?
A) candidiasis
B) genital herpes
C) gonorrhea
D) NGU
E) syphilis
26.6
Analyzing
26.7
2
45) Which of the following is treated with cephalosporins because the organism is resistant to penicillin and fluoroquinolones?
A) Mycoplasma hominis
B) Haemophilus ducreyi
C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D) Treponema pallidum
E) Gardnerella vaginalis
26.5
3.4
26.6
46) Which one of the following is a STI that may be confused with syphilis due to its ulcer formation on the genitalia?
A) gonorrhea
B) candidiasis
C) chancroid (soft chancre)
D) leptospirosis
E) nongonococcal urethritis
26.5
26.6
47) The causative agent of chancroid is
A) Treponema pallidum.
B) Haemophilus ducreyi.
C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
D) HSV-2.
E) HPV.
26.5
26.6
48) There are many types of HPV, and the available vaccines don't (can't) cover all of them. However, the vaccine is still recommended for helping to control the disease caused by the virus. Why?
A) The vaccine covers strains frequently associated with development of cancerous states.
B) The vaccine gives cross-protection against bacterial STIs.
C) The protection initiated against some strains of the virus gives cross-protection to a lesser extent against all HPV strains.
D) The vaccine specifically and only provides protection against HPV types that produce genital warts.
26.6
3.4
26.7
49) Which one of the following is an effective means of treatment for genital warts?
A) surgery
B) cryotherapy
C) podofilox and imiquimod gels
D) acyclovir
E) nine-valent vaccination
26.6
3.4
26.7
50) In the United States, approximately how many people over the age of 30 are infected with HSV-2?
A) 1-3%
B) approximately 25%
C) 90%
D) approximately 75%
E) 5-10%
26.6
26.7
26.2 True/False Questions
1) Anatomically, women have more portals of entry in the reproductive system compared to men.
26.2
26.2
2) Women and men typically have the same normal microbiota in their reproductive systems.
2
2
3) A microbe that enters the vagina would likely cause cystitis if left untreated.
26.4
26.5
4) Candida is a normal flora fungal microorganism found in the majority (greater than 50%) of women.
26.7
26.8
5) The male urethra is typically sterile.
2
2
6) Genital candidiasis is a disease that only affects women.
26.7
26.8
7) Trichomoniasis is the only known STI caused by a protozoan.
26.8
26.9
8) Microscopic tests using fluorescently-labeled monoclonal antibodies are commonly used for detection of primary syphilis.
26.5
8.3
26.6
9) Only HSV-2 can cause genital herpes.
26.6
26.7
2
10) Most UTI infections in the population are a result of catheterization in a hospital setting.
26.4
26.4
2 Essay Questions
1) Why are the unreported cases of STIs an important public health concern?
26.5
a
26.6
7
2) Nearly 70 percent of the patients seen in STI clinics are men. Offer a reason men are more likely to seek treatment than women. Why is it important that women seek treatment for STIs?
26.5
7.4
26.6
7
3) Would you expect reported cases of urethritis to be higher than pyelonephritis? Explain.
26.4
a
26.5
8
4) Would you expect the incidence of leptospirosis to be higher in urban or rural communities? Explain.
26.4
7.4
26.5
8
5) Differentiate neonatal herpes from genital herpes. What are risks to the fetus if the mother is HSV-2 positive prior to conception, and how can those risks be reduced? What about if the mother becomes HSV-2 positive during the pregnancy?
26.6
26.7
Microbiology: An Introduction, 13e (Tortora et al.)
Chapter 27 Environmental Microbiology
27.1 Multiple-Choice Questions
1) All of the following are habitats for extremophiles EXCEPT
A) an acid mine wash.
B) the topmost portions of the Atlantic Ocean.
C) inside rock.
D) a salt-evaporating pond.
E) 100°C water.
27.1
5.1
27.1
2) Which of the following organisms is using sulfur as a source of energy?
A) Thiobacillus: H2S → S0
B) Desulfovibrio: SO42- → H2S
C) Proteus: Amino acids → H2S
D) Redwood tree: SO42- → Amino acids
E) Photosynthetic bacteria: H2S → S0
27.2
3.1
27.8
2
3) Which of the following is NOT a symbiotic pair of organisms?
A) elk and rumen bacteria
B) orchid and mycorrhizae
C) termites and cellulose-degrading bacteria
D) bean plant and Rhizobium
E) sulfur and Thiobacillus
27.1
5.1
27.2
2
4) All of the following are true of mycorrhizae EXCEPT
A) they are fungi that form beneficial relationships with plants.
B) an example is the food delicacy truffles.
C) the arbuscular mycorrhizae are a type of ectomycorrhizae.
D) they enable plants to absorb soil nutrients.
E) ectomycorrhizae extend the surface area of roots for nutrient absorption.
27.2
5.1
2
5) The guano deposited by seabirds is used a source for which of the following fertilizer components?
A) phosphate
B) nitrate
C) sulfate
D) carbonate
E) potassium
27.2
27.10
6) Adding untreated sewage to a freshwater lake would cause the biochemical oxygen demand to
A) increase.
B) decrease.
C) stay the same.
D) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
2
Analyzing
3.2
27.20
2
7) In freshwater lakes and ponds, the majority of photosynthetic microbes are located in the ________ zone(s).
A) benthic
B) profundal
C) limnetic
D) littoral
E) benthic and profundal
2
5.1
27.13
8) All of the following are used in secondary sewage treatment EXCEPT
A) trickling filters.
B) sludge granules or floc formation.
C) aeration.
D) anaerobic digestion.
E) activated sludge.
2
27.18
5
9) 6H2S + 6CO2 6S0 + glucose
A) takes place under aerobic conditions.
B) takes place under anaerobic conditions.
C) The amount of oxygen does not make any difference.
27.2
3.1
27.8
2
10) Which of the following requires aerobic conditions?
A) nitrogen fixation
B) sludge digestion
C) primary sewage treatment
D) secondary sewage treatment
E) water treatment
2
27.18
5
11) All of the following organisms are involved in carbon fixation EXCEPT
A) green and purple sulfur bacteria.
B) cyanobacteria.
C) lichens.
D) algae.
E) mycorrhizae.
27.2
6.1
27.10
2
12) Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate set of terms. In a(n) ________ sludge digester, ________ bacteria decrease organic solids by degrading them.
A) activated; benthic
B) sedimentation; suspended
C) tertiary; Zooglea
D) anaerobic; methane-producing
E) aerobic; hydrogen-gas producing.
2
27.19
13) NH3 → NO2-
A) takes place under aerobic conditions.
B) takes place under anaerobic conditions.
C) The amount of oxygen does not make any difference.
27.2
3.1
27.7
14) Bioremediation of petroleum
A) takes place under aerobic conditions.
B) takes place under anaerobic conditions.
C) The amount of oxygen does not make any difference.
27.2
27.12
5
15) Biochemical oxygen demand is a measure of the
A) number of bacteria present in a water sample.
B) amount of oxygen present in a water sample.
C) amount of organic matter present in a water sample.
D) amount of undissolved solid matter present in a water sample.
E) amount of nitrogen in a water sample.
2
3.2
27.20
16) For the biogeochemical cycles of the following elements, which does NOT have an atmospheric cycle?
A) carbon
B) phosphorus
C) sulfur
D) nitrogen
27.2
6.1
27.10
17) Which of the following is required for composting?
A) addition of non-biodegradable materials
B) addition of nitrogen and phosphorus sources
C) periodic turning or raking of the compost pile
D) addition of thermophilic microbes
E) constant anaerobic conditions
27.2
27.11
Figure 27.1
18) Which step in Figure 27.1 represents anaerobic respiration?
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV
E) V
27.2
Analyzing
3.1
27.6
2
19) Which term in Figure 27.1 describes step V?
A) ammonification
B) denitrification
C) dissimilation
D) nitrification
E) nitrogen fixation
27.2
3.1
27.6
2
20) Which step in Figure 27.1 represents the following reaction: amino acid (-NH2) → NH3?
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV
E) V
27.2
Analyzing
6.1
27.6
2
21) Nitrification is beneficial to farmers. It is represented by which step in Figure 27.1?
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV
E) V
27.2
6.1
27.7
2
22) Which of the following terms describes step III in Figure 27.1?
A) ammonification
B) denitrification
C) nitrification
D) nitrogen fixation
E) assimilation
27.2
3.1
27.7
2
23) Which of the following terms describes NO3- → NO2- → N2O → N2?
A) ammonification
B) denitrification
C) nitrification
D) nitrogen fixation
E) anaerobic respiration
27.2
3.1
27.7
2
24) Which of the following is an assimilation process?
A) Thiobacillus: H2S → S0
B) Desulfovibrio: SO42- → H2S
C) Proteus: Sulfhydryl-containing amino acids → H2S
D) Redwood tree: SO42- → Sulfhydryl groups of amino acids
E) Photosynthetic bacteria: H2S → S0
27.2
3.1
27.8
25) Which wastewater treatment process is responsible for removal of most of the BOD in sewage?
A) anaerobic sludge digestion
B) primary sewage treatment
C) secondary sewage treatment
D) tertiary sewage treatment
E) water treatment
2
27.18
5
26) Which wastewater treatment process produces BOD-containing effluent used for irrigation?
A) anaerobic sludge digestion
B) primary sewage treatment
C) secondary sewage treatment
D) tertiary sewage treatment
E) water treatment
2
27.18
5
27) Besides the use of chlorine, other method(s) used to disinfect municipal water include
A) ozone.
B) nitrite.
C) flocculant.
D) UV light.
E) both UV light and ozone.
2
3.4
27.17
5
28) Sedimentation of sludge occurs in
A) anaerobic sludge digestion.
B) primary sewage treatment.
C) secondary sewage treatment.
D) tertiary sewage treatment.
E) water treatment.
2
27.18
5
29) The product of which process contains the highest BOD?
A) anaerobic sludge digestion
B) primary sewage treatment
C) secondary sewage treatment
D) tertiary sewage treatment
E) water treatment
2
27.18
5
30) Zoogloea form flocculent masses in
A) anaerobic sludge digestion.
B) primary sewage treatment.
C) activated sludge digestion.
D) tertiary sewage treatment.
E) water treatment.
2
27.18
5
31) Drinking water supplies are routinely tested for the presence of
A) Giardia.
B) Cryptosporidium.
C) fecal coliforms.
D) fecal viruses.
E) Vibrio.
2
27.16
5
32) Aerobic respiration occurs in
A) anaerobic sludge digestion.
B) primary sewage treatment.
C) secondary sewage treatment.
D) tertiary sewage treatment.
E) water treatment.
2
27.18
5
33) In the ONPG and MUG test for fecal coliforms, a sample that is positive for E. coli will be
A) positive for ONPG; fluorescent in UV light.
B) negative for ONPG; fluorescent in UV light.
C) positive for ONPG; non-fluorescent in UV light.
D) negative for ONPG; non-fluorescent in UV light.
2
27.16
5
34) Filtration to remove protozoa occurs in
A) anaerobic sludge digestion.
B) primary sewage treatment.
C) secondary sewage treatment.
D) tertiary sewage treatment.
E) water treatment.
2
3.4
27.17
5
35) Which of the following do NOT fix atmospheric nitrogen?
A) cyanobacteria
B) lichens
C) mycorrhizae
D) Rhizobium
E) Azotobacter
27.2
3.1
27.6
36) Which of the following is mismatched?
A) CO2 + 4H2 → CH4 + 2H2O – Methane-producing bacteria
B) 2 NO2- + O2→ 2 NO3 – Nitrobacter
C) 6CO2 + 6H2O → C6H12O6 + 6O2 – Clostridium
D) N2 + 6H+ → 2NH3 – Beijerinckia
E) SO42- + 10H+ → H2S + 4H2O – Desulfovibrio
27.2
3.1
27.10
2
37) Bacteria can increase the Earth's temperature by
A) generating a great deal of heat in metabolism.
B) producing CH4, which is a greenhouse gas.
C) using the greenhouse gas CO2.
D) providing nutrients for plant growth.
E) oxidizing CH4.
27.2
3.2
27.5
7
38) Which of the following is NOT characteristic of fecal coliforms?
A) gram-negative
B) non-spore forming
C) rod-shaped
D) lactose-fermenting
E) pathogenic
2
27.16
39) Which one of the following processes in sewage treatment requires bacterial metabolism?
A) chlorination
B) primary treatment
C) removal of BOD
D) sedimentation
E) None of the answers is correct.
2
27.18
5
Figure 27.2
40) Where are photosynthetic bacteria most likely to be found in Figure 27.2?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) a and b
E) b and c
2
Analyzing
6.1
27.13
41) Where are the benthic microbes such as Desulfovibrio and Clostridium most likely to be found in Figure 27.2?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) a and b
E) b and c
2
5.1
27.13
42) What is true about the seawater microbiota?
A) Large Archaea populations exist under the seafloor.
B) In seawater ecosystems nitrogen is not fixed but obtained from run-off from land sources.
C) Ocean life depends on the marine phytoplankton.
D) Estimate places 1/3 of all life on the planet within the seafloor.
E) Large Archaea populations exist under the seafloor and the marine phytoplankton supports all ocean life.
2
3.2
27.13
5
43) The release of phosphate-containing detergents into a river would
A) kill algae.
B) increase algal growth.
C) kill bacteria.
D) improve the water quality.
E) None of the answers is correct.
2
27.15
44) Untreated sewage is released into a river. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) The untreated sewage is a health hazard.
B) The untreated sewage increases the BOD.
C) The untreated sewage decreases the dissolved oxygen.
D) The untreated sewage kills bacteria.
E) All of the statements are true.
2
27.14
45) One problem related to numerous septic systems in sandy soil is that
A) the high porosity can lead to contamination of water supplies with leached chemicals or pathogens.
B) the systems may become impaired because the effluent will not drain properly.
C) few microbes exist in sandy soil to completely degrade the leached organic matter.
D) grains of sand clog the systems.
E) some human pathogens tend to multiply within a sand matrix increasing the likelihood of disease transmission.
2
3.4
27.14
46) If nitrates are important in the nitrogen cycle, why are they also contaminants of the water systems?
A) If ingested, nitrate is converted to nitrogen gas, which is toxic at low levels.
B) When ingested, nitrate is converted to nitrite and competes for oxygen in the blood, which is especially harmful to infants.
C) It indicates the presence of fecal contamination.
D) It is the major cause of eutrophication.
E) None of these pertain to nitrate.
2
27.14
47) What is true about the nitrogen cycle?
A) The form of nitrogen present in significant levels in the atmosphere is easily assimilated by most organisms.
B) Most of the nitrogen in the atmosphere exists as organic molecules.
C) The activity of specific types of microorganisms is important to convert atmospheric nitrogen molecules into usable forms.
D) Both most of the nitrogen in the atmosphere exists as organic molecules and the activity of specific types of microorganisms is important to convert atmospheric nitrogen molecules into usable forms.
E) All organisms can incorporate atmospheric nitrogen into their proteins and nucleic acids.
2
3.1
27.14
48) What is true about the sulfur cycle?
A) H2S is the oxidized form of sulfur.
B) Green and purple photosynthesizing bacteria oxidize H2S.
C) Sulfates are utilized to become part of the carbohydrate molecules.
D) H2S represents a source of energy for some autotrophic bacteria.
E) Both green and purple photosynthesizing bacteria oxidize H2S and H2S represents a source of energy for some autotrophic bacteria.
27.2
6.1
27.8
49) Put the stages of anaerobic sludge digestion in order
I. anaerobic fermentation produces carbon dioxide and organic acids
II. methane produced from product of previous stage
III. hydrogen and carbon dioxide produced from product of previous stage
A) I, II, III
B) II, I, III
C) I, III, II
D) II, III, I
E) III, II, I
2
3.1
27.19
50) Bioaugmentation involves
A) adding nitrogen and phosphorus to an area in need of remediation.
B) adding specialized microbes to an area in need of remediation.
C) producing humus from plant waste.
D) producing a methane by-product for powering facility equipment.
E) using microbes to filter out impurities from leach water.
27.2
27.12
5
27.2 True/False Questions
1) In water treatment, the purpose of flocculation is to remove microbes, such as Giardia and Cryptosporidium.
2
3.4
27.18
5
2) Bioremediation involves the use of microbes to degrade or detoxify pollutants.
27.2
27.12
5
3) The water from tertiary sewage treatment can be used as drinking water.
2
3.4
27.18
5
4) Coliforms detected in water samples always have a fecal source.
2
8.3
27.16
5) The BOD is a measurement of the amount of bacteria present before and after the sewage treatment process.
2
27.18
6) The bacteriological safety of drinking water is determined by testing water samples for the presence of human pathogens.
2
8.3
27.16
5
7) The dense growth of algae in an algal bloom leads to increased oxygen levels in lakes that enhance the habitat for fish.
2
3.2
27.15
8) Microorganisms in deep-sea vents and caves serve as autotrophic primary producers in the absence of sunlight.
27.2
3.1
27.9
9) Nitrogen fixation by bacteria occurs only in the root nodules of leguminous plants.
27.2
3.1
27.6
10) In small communities lacking municipal sewage systems, sewage is treated in septic systems or oxidation ponds.
2
3.4
27.20
5
2 Essay Questions
1) What is the effect of discharging primary-treated sewage on the BOD and dissolved O2 (DO) of the receiving body of water? What is the effect of secondary-treated sewage on the BOD and DO?
2
3.2
27.14
8
2) A newspaper headline reported "Algal Bloom Kills Fish." What actually caused fish death, given that the algae were not toxic? What could have caused the algal bloom?
2
3.2
27.15
8
3) Based on your knowledge of extremophiles and endoliths, describe the characteristics you would expect of microorganisms capable of living on Mars or other non-Earth environments.
27.1
3.2
27.1
8
4) Differentiate endomycorrhizae from ectomycorrhizae and give an example of each.
27.1
3.2
27.1
8
5) An oil spill occurred in the waters near a local beach and the oil is depositing on the shore. Describe the methods that might be used to clean up the spill that involve the activity of microorganisms. Include a discussion of the limitations for each method.
27.2
3.2
27.12
5
Microbiology: An Introduction, 13e (Tortora et al.)
Chapter 28 Applied and Industrial Microbiology
28.1 Multiple-Choice Questions
1) A baker forgets to put yeast in his bread dough. Which of the following do you expect to happen to the bread as a result?
A) It will take longer to bake.
B) Bacterial contaminants will now be able to grow.
C) The bread will not rise.
D) The bread will look normal but will be tough.
E) The bread will have a sour taste.
28.1
28.3
2) Spoilage of canned foods stored at high temperatures, accompanied by gas production, is
A) thermophilic anaerobic spoilage.
B) flat sour spoilage.
C) spoilage by mesophilic bacteria.
D) caused by acid-tolerant fungi.
E) putrefactive anaerobic spoilage.
28.1
3.3
28.1
3) Spoilage of canned foods due to inadequate processing, NOT accompanied by gas production, is
A) thermophilic anaerobic spoilage.
B) flat sour spoilage.
C) spoilage by mesophilic bacteria.
D) caused by acid-tolerant fungi.
E) putrefactive anaerobic spoilage.
28.1
3.4
28.1
4) Which one of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) Propionibacterium – Swiss cheese
B) Penicillium – blue cheese
C) Lactobacillus – yogurt
D) Acetobacter – vinegar
E) Bacillus – beer
28.1
Analyzing
28.3
2
5) Which one of the following pertains to an improperly canned food product on a store shelf that has a bad odor and putrefaction of the canned material?
A) mesophilic spoilage
B) flat sour spoilage
C) bacterial soft rot
D) thermophilic anaerobic spoilage
E) hydrogen sulfide spoilage
28.1
3.4
28.2
6) All of the following are fuels produced by microorganisms EXCEPT
A) cellulose.
B) ethanol.
C) hydrogen.
D) methane.
E) oil from algae.
28.2
Analyzing
28.8
5
7) Microorganisms play an active role in the formation of industrial products. Which one of the following is mismatched?
A) Penicillium – treatment of disease
B) Saccharomyces cerevisiae – for fermentation
C) Rhizobium – increases nitrogen in the soil
D) Bacillus thuringiensis – insecticide
E) algae – citric acid
28.2
3.1
28.6
8) Which one of the following is an undesirable contaminant in wine-making due to its production of vinegar rather than ethanol?
A) Acetobacter
B) lactic acid bacteria
C) Clostridium botulinum endospores
D) Saccharomyces
28.1
28.2
2
9) Commercial sterilization differs from complete sterilization in that commercial sterilization
A) kills all microorganisms.
B) kills only bacteria.
C) may result in the survival of thermophiles.
D) employs a higher temperature.
E) may result in the survival of fungal spores.
28.1
3.4
28.2
5
Figure 28.1
10) In Figure 28.1, assume the cells are your desired product and you want to maintain a continuous culture. Remember, the top lines/markings indicate the different phases observed in the curve below them. When would you harvest cells to maximize your yield?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
28.2
7.1b
28.4
3
11) In Figure 28.1, assume that a secondary metabolite is your desired product. Remember, the top lines/markings indicate the different phases observed in the curve below them. When would you be able to obtain it?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
28.2
7.1b
28.5
3
12) In Figure 28.1, assume the cells are producing penicillin which is collected during the idiophase. Remember, the top lines/markings indicate the different phases observed in the curve below them. When would you be able to collect the penicillin?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
28.2
7.1b
28.5
3
13) Which one of the following reactions is performed by yeast in wine-making?
A) sugar → ethanol
B) ethanol → acetic acid
C) malic acid → lactic acid
D) carbon dioxide → sucrose
E) sugar → CO2 + H2O
28.1
28.3
2
14) Which one of the following reactions makes wine less acidic, and is important for good flavor when grapes with higher acidity are used?
A) sugar → ethanol
B) ethanol → acetic acid
C) malic acid → lactic acid
D) carbon dioxide → sucrose
E) sugar → CO2 + H2O
28.1
Analyzing
28.3
2
15) Commercial sterilization of processed canned foods uses a 12D treatment which is based upon a theoretical population of 1012 C. botulinum endospores in a can of food. After treatment, there would theoretically be how many endospores left?
A) 120 endospores
B) 10 endospores
C) 100 endospores
D) 12 endospores
E) 1 endospore
28.1
3.4
28.2
4
16) All of the following are advantages of a bioreactor instead of a flask culture EXCEPT
A) larger culture volumes can be grown.
B) instrumentation for monitoring environmental conditions.
C) uniform aeration and mixing.
D) aseptic sampling.
E) None of the answers is correct; all of these are advantages of using a bioreactor instead of a flask culture.
28.2
8.5
28.4
2
17) Microbial products can be improved by all of the following EXCEPT
A) isolating new strains.
B) mutating existing strains.
C) genetically modifying strains.
D) modifying culture conditions.
E) sterilization.
28.2
4.1
28.7
5
18) Which of the following microorganisms is usually used in the fermentation of alcoholic beverages?
A) Propionobacterium
B) Lactobacillus
C) Rhizopus
D) Saccharomyces
E) Penicillium
28.1
28.3
5
19) All of the following are true of irradiation methods used for food preservation and sterilization EXCEPT
A) they prolong shelf-life of fruits and vegetables.
B) residual radioactivity is left behind on many foods.
C) ionizing radiation such as X rays or gamma rays is used.
D) they are used for the sterilization of many spices.
E) they greatly reduce the number of pathogens present in meats and poultry.
28.1
3.4
28.2
5
20) All of the following are industrial products produced in very large amounts by microbes and then purified for use EXCEPT
A) amino acids in food supplements.
B) antibiotics.
C) industrial enzymes.
D) wine.
E) vitamin B12 and riboflavin.
28.2
28.6
5
21) All of the following are industrial products produced using microbial fermentations EXCEPT
A) aspartic acid.
B) citric acid.
C) glutamic acid.
D) riboflavin.
E) saccharin.
28.2
28.6
5
22) All of the following foods are produced using microbial fermentations EXCEPT
A) sauerkraut.
B) ketchup.
C) sour cream.
D) yogurt.
E) coffee.
28.1
28.3
5
23) Which of the following microbes produces a natural biopesticide?
A) Penicillium chryssogenum
B) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
C) Bacillus thuringiensis
D) Lactobacillus buggaricus
E) Thiobacillus ferroxidans
28.2
28.6
5
24) Biomass is a renewable energy source derived from the organic matter produced by living organisms. All of the following are sources of biomass EXCEPT
A) oxidation of metals.
B) crops.
C) bacteria.
D) landfill sites.
E) algae.
28.2
28.8
5
25) All of the following are industrial enzymes made by microbial fermentations EXCEPT
A) glucose isomerase.
B) rennin.
C) proteases.
D) amylases.
E) vitamin C.
28.2
28.6
5
26) What process does yeast use to produce ethanol for automobile fuel from corn?
A) anaerobic respiration
B) fermentation
C) the Krebs cycle
D) oxidation
E) photosynthesis
28.2
28.8
5
27) The following steps are required for making cheese. What is the second step, which helps to provide the characteristic flavors and aromas of the cheese?
A) enzymatic coagulation of milk
B) fermentation of curd
C) inoculation with lactic acid bacteria
D) inoculation with Penicillium
E) separation of curds and whey
28.1
Analyzing
28.3
2
28) As cheese ages, it gets
A) more acidic.
B) more whey.
C) more protein.
D) saltier.
E) more alcoholic.
28.1
3.2
28.3
29) Acidithiobacillus ferrooxidans is used for the recovery of ________ from ore.
A) sulfur
B) copper
C) iron
D) sulfuric acid
E) gold
28.2
28.7
5
30) What role do lactic acid bacteria play in cheese production?
A) curd formation
B) production of holes in Swiss cheese
C) ripening the cheese
D) providing characteristic flavor and smell
E) Lactic acid bacteria carry out each of these roles in cheese production.
28.1
28.3
2
31) You are growing Bacillus subtilis, an aerobic bacterium that can also carry out fermentation, when required, in a bioreactor and notice that the growth rate has slowed and the pH has decreased. You suspect the bacteria are
A) using the Krebs cycle.
B) fermenting.
C) photosynthesizing.
D) using proteins.
E) dead.
28.2
3.4
28.4
2
32) You are growing Bacillus subtilis, an aerobic bacterium that can also carry out fermentation, when required, in a bioreactor and notice that the growth rate has slowed and the pH has decreased. What could you add?
A) glucose
B) lactose
C) peptides
D) oxygen
E) lactic acid
28.2
3.4
28.4
2
33) Aseptic packaging utilizes which of the following to sterilize laminated paper or plastic prior to filling with food?
A) hot HCl solution
B) gamma radiation
C) hot hydrogen peroxide solution
D) X rays
E) autoclave
28.1
3.4
28.2
34) All of the following are uses for ionizing or ultraviolet radiation EXCEPT
A) heating cold food.
B) sterilizing spices.
C) inactivation of Trichinella larvae.
D) killing of insect eggs and larva.
E) prevention of sprouting.
28.1
Analyzing
3.4
28.2
2
35) Canning preserves food
A) through use of aseptic packaging.
B) by exposure to chemicals.
C) by exposure to high heat.
D) by exposure to radiation.
E) by exposure to high pH.
28.1
3.4
28.2
36) Microorganisms themselves are commercial products. Which of the following microbes is available as (or in) a product sold in retail stores?
A) Bacillus thuringiensis
B) Lactobacillus
C) Rhizobium
D) Saccharomyces
E) All of these organisms can be found in various commercial products.
28.1
28.3
5
Figure 28.2
37) Figure 28.2 shows the growth curves of Acetobacter under different conditions. Which culture would produce the highest amount of the primary metabolite acetic acid?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e
28.2
Analyzing
7.1b
28.5
3
38) Which of the growth curves in Figure 28.2 will give the highest yield of a secondary metabolite?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e
28.2
Analyzing
7.1b
28.5
3
39) Which of the growth curves in Figure 28.2 is indicating the culture has reached the trophophase?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e
28.2
7.1b
28.5
40) Which of the growth curves in Figure 28.2 is indicating the culture has reached the idiophase?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e
28.2
7.1b
28.5
41) Canning works to preserve foods through
A) creation of an anaerobic environment.
B) creation of an anaerobic environment and exposure to high heat.
C) exposure to high heat.
D) mutation of bacterial DNA.
E) increasing pH.
28.1
3.4
28.2
42) Aseptic packaging of non-metal containers (where the packaging itself is rendered sterile) helps to preserve foods through
A) creation of an anaerobic environment in the packaging.
B) creation of an anaerobic environment in the packaging and exposure of the packaging to high heat/hydrogen peroxide.
C) exposure of the packaging to high heat/hydrogen peroxide.
D) mutation of bacterial DNA by exposure to the packaging material.
E) increasing pH in the food contained in the packaging.
28.1
Analyzing
3.4
28.2
2
43) Radiation works to preserve foods through
A) creation of an anaerobic environment.
B) creation of an anaerobic environment and high heat.
C) exposure to high heat.
D) lethal mutation/destruction of bacterial DNA.
E) increasing pH.
28.1
3.4
28.2
2
44) All of the following are reasons for utilizing algae for biofuel production EXCEPT
A) they do not take up land needed for food production.
B) they produce more energy per acre than corn.
C) their main requirement is abundant light.
D) they can utilize agriculturally poor land.
E) they produce a nondegradable waste product.
28.2
Analyzing
28.8
5
45) What will be produced if wine is aerated and inoculated with bacteria of the genera Acetobacter and Gluconobacter?
A) ethanol + CO2
B) CO2 + H2O
C) CH4
D) acetic acid
E) None of the answers is correct.
28.1
28.3
2
46) Bioreactors are widely used for industrial fermentation. Which of the following conditions must be closely monitored for optimal fermentation?
A) temperature
B) oxygen levels
C) pH
D) both temperature and pH
E) temperature, pH, and oxygen levels
28.2
3.3
28.4
2
47) Xanthan used in household products is produced by bacteria
A) that were genetically modified.
B) that were irradiated to mutate them.
C) selected for their ability to utilize lactose rather than glucose.
D) that are plant pathogens.
E) selected for their ability to utilize lactose rather than glucose and that are plant pathogens.
28.1
28.3
5
48) The field of study related to study of small molecule chemical fingerprints of cellular processes is known as
A) metabolomics.
B) bioconversion.
C) fermentation.
D) food preservation.
E) biofuel production.
28.2
8.3
28.5
49) Pascalization is
A) the use of extremely low pressure as a food preservation method.
B) the leeching of valuable metals out of ore via microbial processes.
C) use of damaging ionizing radiation for sterilization of food or other items.
D) the use of extremely high pressure as a food preservation method.
E) a microbial process that allows for production of biofuels.
28.1
3.4
28.2
50) Which one of the following is NOT an advantage of the food preservation method known as pascalization?
A) It prevents concerns regarding irradiation.
B) It requires strong regulatory approval and oversight.
C) It preserves colors of foods well.
D) It preserves tastes of foods better than other methods.
E) It kills many pathogenic and nonpathogenic strains of microbes, improving food safety and shelf life.
28.1
3.4
28.2
28.2 True/False Questions
1) The blue-green clumps observed in Roquefort cheese are a result of mold growth.
28.1
28.3
2) The longer interior-ripened cheeses are permitted to ripen, the milder the taste of the cheese.
28.1
28.3
3) Mesophilic bacteria grow best at temperatures of 60°C.
28.1
3.3
28.1
4) High-pressure processing of foods such as deli meats and precooked chicken strips targets pathogens such as Salmonella and Listeria.
28.1
Analyzing
3.4
28.2
2
5) Rhizobium and Bradyrhizobium are mixed with peat moss to increase nitrogen fixation.
28.2
28.7
6) The production of vinegar relies on the microbial oxidation of ethanol to acetic acid.
28.1
28.3
7) Industrial canning, as opposed to home canning, is achieved using a pressure cooker which operates in a manner similar to an autoclave.
28.1
3.4
28.2
5
8) A large industry exists based on the synthesis of amino acids by microorganisms.
28.2
28.6
5
9) If an industrial microbiologist works with Acidithiobacillus ferrooxidans, he is likely to be involved in copper mining.
28.2
28.7
5
10) Vitamins C and B12 are commonly produced by microorganisms.
28.2
28.5
5
28.3 Essay Questions
1) Discuss the production of four different foods that require microbial fermentation in their products. In your discussion, name the specific microorganisms used and describe the fermentation by-product(s) needed for the production of each food item.
28.1
28.3
2) Discuss the production of three different non-food/beverage substances that utilize microorganisms in their production. Your discussion should include the specific microorganisms involved and their role in the production of each substance.
28.2
28.6
8
3) Explain how ionizing radiation can be used to preserve foods. Discuss its advantage over canning as a method of preservation.
28.1
28.2
8
4) Vessels used for industrial fermentation reactions are known as bioreactors. Explain the difference between batch production and continuous flow production using a bioreactor.
28.2
28.4
8
5) Use of fossil fuels is beginning to change in modern society. Describe what a biofuel is, and identify/discuss the pros and cons of biofuels.
28.2
28.8
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Microbiology: An Introduction Plus Mastering Micro
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