BIOL 250 Exam 1-5 Questions &Answers American Military University.

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BIOL 250 Exam1-5 Part 1 of 3 - Part 1 24.0/ 30.0 Points From chapter 17 Question 1 of 50 2.0/ 2.0 Points The adrenal glands are wedges of glandular and neuroendocrine tissue adhering to the to... p of the _________. • A. kidneys • B. liver • C. thyroid gland • D. spleen • E. hypothalamus Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 2 of 50 0.0/ 2.0 Points Cushing’s disease is a disorder caused by ________. • A. abnormally low levels of cortisol • B. abnormally high levels of epinephrine • C. abnormally high levels of aldosterone • D. abnormally low levels of aldosterone • E. abnormally high levels of cortisol Feedback:Cushing’s disease is a disorder caused by abnormally high levels of cortisol. Question 3 of 50 2.0/ 2.0 Points Which general type of hormone can easily pass through the cell membrane and into the cytoplasm of the cell? • A. Protein hormones • B. Water-soluble hormones • C. CNS hormones • D. Lipid-soluble hormones • E. Pituitary hormones Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 4 of 50 0.0/ 2.0 Points The female’s uterus secretes the following hormone: • A. FSH • B. Estrogen • C. None • D. Progesterone • E. hPL Feedback:The uterus does not synthesize nor secrete any hormones. Question 5 of 50 2.0/ 2.0 Points Which of the following is an anterior pituitary hormone? • A. Insulin • B. ADH • C. TSH • D. Cortisol • E. oxytocin Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 6 of 50 2.0/ 2.0 Points Which of the following can result from hyperparathyroidism? • A. increased bone deposition • B. fractures • C. convulsions • D. low blood calcium levels • E. All of the above are true. Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 7 of 50 2.0/ 2.0 Points In contrast to the nervous system, the endocrine system uses only one method of communication: _________ signaling. • A. chemical • B. electrical • C. direct • D. “hard wired” • E. transmitter Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 8 of 50 0.0/ 2.0 Points How many hormones are produced by the posterior pituitary? • A. 3 • B. 6 • C. 2 • D. 1 • E. 0 Feedback:The hormones oxytocin and ADH are released from the posterior pituitary, but no hormones are produced there. Question 9 of 50 2.0/ 2.0 Points The function of the placental hormone human placental lactogen (hPL) is to ________. • A. prepare the breasts for lactation • B. nourish the placenta • C. regulate the menstrual cycle • D. help the placenta to mature • E. All of the above are true. Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 10 of 50 2.0/ 2.0 Points The parathyroid glands are small structures located on the posterior thyroid gland that produce parathyroid hormone (PTH), which regulates blood ________ levels. • A. insulin • B. potassium • C. adrenalin • D. calcium • E. thyroid hormone Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 11 of 50 2.0/ 2.0 Points Which of the following statements about the thyroid gland is true? • A. It is located anterior to the trachea and inferior to the larynx. • B. The parathyroid glands are embedded within it. • C. It manufactures three hormones. • D. It is controlled by the anterior part of the pituitary gland. • E. All of the above are true. Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 12 of 50 2.0/ 2.0 Points The signaling done by the endocrine system is accomplished by the use of chemicals called _______. • A. electrons • B. electrical signals • C. action potentials • D. hormones • E. transmitters Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 13 of 50 2.0/ 2.0 Points The hypothalamus is functionally and anatomically connected to the posterior pituitary lobe by a bridge of ________. • A. muscle • B. bone • C. blood vessels • D. nerve axons • E. cartilage Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 14 of 50 2.0/ 2.0 Points Which of the following statements about insulin is true? • A. Insulin acts as a transport protein, carrying glucose across the cell membrane. • B. Insulin facilitates the movement of intracellular glucose transporters to the cell membrane. • C. Insulin stimulates the breakdown of stored glycogen into glucose. • D. Insulin stimulates the kidneys to reabsorb glucose into the bloodstream. • E. Two of the above are true statements. Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 15 of 50 2.0/ 2.0 Points The alpha cells of the pancreatic islets produce and secrete _________. • A. insulin • B. glucagon • C. epinephrine • D. alphagen • E. All of the above Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Part 2 of 3 - Part 2 30.0/ 30.0 Points From chapter 18 Question 16 of 50 2.0/ 2.0 Points The term formed elements in blood includes which of the following? • A. albumin • B. plasma • C. hematocrit • D. white blood cells • E. All of the above are considered formed elements. Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 17 of 50 2.0/ 2.0 Points Which of the following is the primary function of red blood cells? • A. To help fight off infection as part of the immune system. • B. To carry oxygen from the lungs to all cells of the body; to carry some carbon dioxide from the cells back to the lungs. • C. To bind some ions and molecules in the blood which are not water-soluble. • D. To help in the process of hemostasis, the stoppage of blood flow following damage to a blood vessel. • E. To bind and carry away waste products from most cells of the body. Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 18 of 50 2.0/ 2.0 Points The term hematocrit is a measure of the percentage of red blood cells (RBCs) in a sample of blood. Which of the following statements is true? • A. The normal hematocrit of a man averages about 41%. • B. The normal hematocrit of a woman averages about 46%. • C. The normal hematocrits of both men and women averages about 50%. • D. The normal hematocrit of a woman averages about 41%. • E. The normal hematocrit of a man averages about 50%. Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 19 of 50 2.0/ 2.0 Points Which of the following is/are true of the molecule named hemoglobin? • A. It contains four folded chains of a protein named globin. • B. It is a very simple protein structure. • C. It can bind to only one molecule of oxygen. • D. It functions as the nucleus in all mature erythrocytes. • E. It numbers approximately 1 to 2 million in each erythrocyte. Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 20 of 50 2.0/ 2.0 Points Which of the following is/are important in the process named coagulation? • A. Coagulation can only occur in the presence of two or three different “clotting factors.” • B. Coagulation is a very simple and straight-forward series of only two or three steps. • C. Neither an excess number of platelets nor having many too few platelets in the blood stream will cause any serious reaction. • D. A process which can reverse coagulation, named anticoagulation, can only occur when one or more medications are administered to the body. • E. Coagulation is a complicated cascade of reactions that result in the formation of a mesh of fibrin. Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 21 of 50 2.0/ 2.0 Points Which of the following is/are true of platelets? • A. They arise from cells called megakaryocytes. • B. They do not contain a nucleus. • C. They play an important part in the clotting of blood. • D. They are not cells. • E. All of the above are true. Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 22 of 50 2.0/ 2.0 Points Which of the following is/are true of red blood cells? • A. Their anatomical name is also erythrocyte. • B. In their mature form, they do not contain a nucleus. • C. Immature erythrocytes that may still contain fragments of organelles are called reticulocytes. • D. They contain one molecule of hemoglobin. • E. All of the above are true. Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 23 of 50 2.0/ 2.0 Points The total life span of an erythrocyte: • A. Is the same amount of time that it takes one RBC to cycle once through the blood stream. • B. Averages about 5-7 days. • C. Averages about 120 days. • D. Averages approximately 1-2 years. • E. None of the above. Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 24 of 50 2.0/ 2.0 Points Which of the following is/are true about the amount of oxygen being carried by RBCs? • A. Percent saturation of oxygen in the blood is normally monitored using a device known as a pulse oximeter. • B. The normal pulse oximeter readings range from 95--100%. • C. Lower pulse oximeter readings, e.g. less than 95%, are indicative of the condition named hypoxemia. • D. Many different diseases or conditions can result in hypoxemia. • E. All of the above are true. Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 25 of 50 2.0/ 2.0 Points In case an American needs an emergency blood transfusion, blood with the following blood type(s) can be given without fear of agglutination? • A. O+ • B. AB+ • C. AB- • D. Blood with the same blood type as the person needing the transfusion. • E. Either C or D can be given. Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 26 of 50 2.0/ 2.0 Points Which of the following is/are correct in describing thrombosis: • A. A condition characterized by excessive numbers of platelets that increases the risk for excessive clot formation, a condition known as thrombosis. • B. Thrombosis is a very common, always harmless condition that occurs in the body. • C. A thrombosis is always harmless because the thrombus which is formed always stays in a blood vessel precisely where it formed. • D. The blood stream contains several different anticoagulants that will result in the complete, normal breakdown of a thrombus. • E. Two of the above are correct. Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 27 of 50 2.0/ 2.0 Points The pH of a liquid is a measure of its acidity or alkalinity. The normal range of pH of blood is: • A. 2.0 to 3.0 • B. 3.55 to 4.55 • C. 4.35 to 4.45 • D. 5.0 to 6.0 • E. 7.45 to 7.55 Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 28 of 50 2.0/ 2.0 Points All formed elements found in blood arise from which of the following: • A. stem cells • B. erythrocytes • C. osteoblasts • D. immunoglobulins • E. albumin Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 29 of 50 2.0/ 2.0 Points Which of the following is/are true of platelets? • A. Platelets are sometimes referred to as thrombocytes. • B. Platelets are actually pieces of large cells called a megakaryocytes. • C. Platelets are very small, but very numerous, sometimes numbering 150,000 to 160,000 per microliter of blood. • D. Platelets are critical to hemostasis, the stoppage of blood flow following damage to a vessel. • E. All of the above are true. Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 30 of 50 2.0/ 2.0 Points About 7% of plasma is made up of proteins. The most abundant of these plasma proteins is: • A. fibrinogen • B. alpha globulins • C. albumin • D. gamma globulins • E. immunoglobulin Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Part 3 of 3 - Part 3 40.0/ 40.0 Points From chapter 19 Question 31 of 50 2.0/ 2.0 Points Let the left atrium = 1; the right atrium = 2; the left ventricle = 3; the right ventricle = 4. Blood then would flow through the heart in the following order: • A. 1, 2, 3, 4 • B. 3, 4, 2, 1 • C. 2, 1, 3, 4 • D. 2, 4, 1, 3 • E. 4, 3, 2, 1 Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 32 of 50 2.0/ 2.0 Points Which of the following statements is/are true? • A. A typical heart is approximately the size of your fist: 12 cm (5 in) in length, 8 cm (3.5 in) wide, and 6 cm (2.5 in) in thickness. • B. The weight of the adult male and female hearts is approximately 1000 grams. • C. The size of the adult heart is about the same as the size of a newborn baby’s head. • D. The size of a well-trained athlete’s heart is usually smaller than normal. • E. A female’s heart usually weighs more than a male’s heart. Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 33 of 50 2.0/ 2.0 Points In case of damage to the SA node, there are other sites in the heart which can depolarize and establish a rate of contraction of the cardiac muscle cells. For example: • A. The AV node itself can depolarize at rates of 40-60 times per minute. • B. The cardiac muscle cells themselves can depolarize spontaneously at about 10 times per minute. • C. The bundle branches can each depolarize at rates of approximately 50-60 times per minute. • D. The Purkinje fibers can themselves depolarize at rates of about 5-10 times per minute. • E. Various other cells in either atrium can establish a heart rate of 100-140 beats per minute. Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 34 of 50 2.0/ 2.0 Points The spontaneous action potential established in cardiac contractile cells is highly dependent on which of the following? • A. The sodium ion, Na+ • B. The potassium ion, K+ • C. The calcium ion, Ca2+ • D. Various voltage-gated ion channels • E. All of the above Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 35 of 50 2.0/ 2.0 Points The QRS-complex of an ECG represents which of the following: • A. The depolarizing of both atria. • B. The depolarization as it travels through the AV node. • C. The repolarizing of the ventricles. • D. The depolarization of the ventricles. • E. The repolarizing of both atria. Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 36 of 50 2.0/ 2.0 Points A pacemaker, which depolarizes spontaneously, establishes the rate of contraction of the heart muscle. The most common pacemaker of the heart • A. is called the AV node. • B. establishes a resting heart rate of about 60 to 80 contractions per minute. • C. functions also under the control of both the sympathetic and the parasympathetic nervous systems. • D. is located in the muscle of the left atrium. • E. Two of the above are true. Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 37 of 50 2.0/ 2.0 Points The specific fibers which spread the electrical impulse to the cardiac muscle fibers are called: • A. bundle branches • B. AV fibers • C. depolarizing sites • D. vagus nerve fibers • E. Purkinje fibers Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 38 of 50 2.0/ 2.0 Points The opening of any heart valve only occurs when: • A. the cardiac muscle surrounding the valve contracts. • B. papillary muscles push it open. • C. blood tries to flow in an incorrect/opposite direction. • D. the blood pressure in the heart chamber from which blood is flowing is higher than the blood pressure in the chamber to which the blood is supposed to flow. • E. the chordae tendinae pull it open. Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 39 of 50 2.0/ 2.0 Points Which of the following statement(s) is (are) true? • A. The force the heart must overcome in order to pump blood is known as the its stroke volume. • B. The term preload refers to a tension, or pressure, that the left ventricle must develop in order for the heart to function properly. • C. The preload and afterload are the primary factors that cause the heart rate to change. • D. Contractility of the heart muscle refers to the force of contraction that this muscle can exert. • E. Both C and D are true. Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 40 of 50 2.0/ 2.0 Points Which of the following parts of an ECG represents the depolarization of the atria? • A. The ST interval • B. The T-wave • C. The P-wave • D. The PR-interval • E. The QRS-complex Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 41 of 50 2.0/ 2.0 Points What can cause the normal heart rate to increase or decrease? • A. Nervous control over HR is centralized within the two paired cardiovascular centers of the medulla oblongata in the brain stem. • B. Very few other chemicals or medications can cause the heart rate to either increase or decrease. • C. The parasympathetic nervous system will cause the heart rate to increase. • D. The hormone named epinephrine will cause the heart rate to decrease. • E. The sympathetic nervous system will cause the heart rate to decrease. Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 42 of 50 2.0/ 2.0 Points When a coronary artery is totally obstructed to any one portion of the heart muscle, what occurs? • A. That specific part of heart muscle immediately receives blood from a different artery. • B. That muscle immediately spasms and then ruptures open. • C. The person usually feels no pain at all. • D. All heart muscle immediately stops contracting. • E. A heart attack, or myocardial infarction, very likely occurs. Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 43 of 50 2.0/ 2.0 Points The arteries that supply blood to the myocardium of the heart are called: • A. myocardial arteries • B. penetrating arteries • C. coronary arteries • D. pericardial arteries • E. valvular arteries Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 44 of 50 2.0/ 2.0 Points Which of the following statements are considered to be normal? • A. Normal heart rates vary from 30 beats/minute up to 200 beats/minute. • B. A heart rate less than or equal to 60 beats/minute is called bradycardia. • C. A heart rate greater than or equal to 100 or 120 beats/minute is called tachycardia. • D. A person’s heart rate will change depending on the needs of the body. • E. B, C, and D are all correct. Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 45 of 50 2.0/ 2.0 Points Which of the following statements is/are correct when describing heart sounds? • A. In a normal, healthy heart, there are only two audible heart sounds: S1 and S2. • B. Normally you will hear at least three or four heart sounds. • C. A heart murmur is always considered to be a normal heart sound. • D. Very few individuals are able to hear any heart sounds. • E. The normal heart sounds do not have anything to do with the opening or closing of a heart valve. Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 46 of 50 2.0/ 2.0 Points Which of the following statements about the internal structure of the heart is/are correct? • A. The mitral valve is a bicuspid valve. • B. The mitral valve is located between the left atrium and the left ventricle. • C. The aortic valve is one of the semilunar valves. • D. The tricuspid valve is located between the vena cavae and the right atrium. • E. A, B, and C are correct. Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 47 of 50 2.0/ 2.0 Points Which of the following statements about valves in the heart is/are true? • A. A valve enables blood to only flow in one direction. • B. A valve keeps blood from flowing in a reverse direction. • C. All of the valves open when the blood pressure on one side of the valve is higher than on the other side of the valve. • D. Statements A and B are correct. Statement C is incorrect. • E. Statements A, B, and C are correct. Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 48 of 50 2.0/ 2.0 Points The period of time that begins with contraction of the atria and ends with ventricular relaxation is known as: • A. an ECG. • B. systole. • C. the P-wave. • D. diastole. • E. the cardiac cycle. Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 49 of 50 2.0/ 2.0 Points Which of the following statements about the left ventricle is/are true? • A. Blood entering the left ventricle is usually quite low in its oxygen concentration. • B. Blood exits the left ventricle through the aortic valve into the aorta. • C. The left ventricle contracts at the same time as the left atrium. • D. The wall of the left ventricle is very thin but also is very strong. • E. Both B and D are correct. Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 50 of 50 2.0/ 2.0 Points A cardiac muscle cell is: • A. a voluntary muscle just like skeletal muscle. • B. contracts spontaneously. • C. is joined to other cardiac muscle cells by structures called intercalated discs. • D. has numerous nuclei. • E. Two of the statements above are correct. Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! UNIT 2 Part 1 of 3 - Part 1 28.0/ 30.0 Points From chapter 20 Question 1 of 40 2.0/ 2.0 Points Capillaries that have a perforated lining are called__________. • A. Sinusoid capillaries • B. Continuous capillaries • C. Perforated capillaries • D. Fenestrated capillaries • E. Gap Capillaries Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 2 of 40 2.0/ 2.0 Points Which tunic of an artery is responsible for maintaining blood pressure? • A. Tunic intima • B. Tunica media • C. Tunica externa • D. Tunica interna • E. None of the above. Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 3 of 40 2.0/ 2.0 Points Which of the following does not play a role in blood pressure? • A. Blood volume • B. Blood vessel diameter • C. Cardiac output • D. Peripheral resistance • E. All of the above play a role in blood pressure. Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 4 of 40 0.0/ 2.0 Points Venous return is affected by all EXCEPT: • A. Skeletal and muscle activity • B. Values lining the veins • C. Thorax pressure changes • D. Temperature changes in the body • E. All of the above affect venous return. Feedback:The temperature changes do not affect venous return. Question 5 of 40 2.0/ 2.0 Points __________ is a condition where the heart is beating over 100 beats per minute. • A. Tachycardia • B. Irregular Heart Beat (IHR) • C. Nodal Block • D. Arrhythmia • E. Bradycardia Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 6 of 40 2.0/ 2.0 Points What is the sequence of layers of the blood vessels (veins or arteries) from outside to the inside? • A. Tunica externa, tunica intima, tunica media • B. Tunica media, tunica externa, tunica intima • C. Tunica intima, tunica media, tunica externa • D. Tunica intima, tunica media, tunica externa • E. Tunica externa, tunica media, tunica intima Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 7 of 40 2.0/ 2.0 Points The pulmonary arteries carry blood to the______. • A. Lungs • B. Heart • C. Systemic system • D. Aorta • E. Ventricles Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 8 of 40 2.0/ 2.0 Points Cardiac output equals: • A. Blood flow through the entire vascular system • B. Blood leaving one ventricle during one beat of the heart. • C. Systolic pressure plus diastolic pressure • D. Heart rate • E. Stroke volume Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 9 of 40 2.0/ 2.0 Points During vigorous exercise, one would expect: • A. Blood to be diverted from the brain • B. Blood to be diverted to the kidneys • C. Blood to be diverted to the muscles doing the work • D. The heart rate to become slow but more contractile. • E. Two of the above are correct. Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 10 of 40 2.0/ 2.0 Points Systolic pressure minus diastolic pressure is another term for: • A. peripheral resistance • B. Stroke volume • C. Pulse pressure • D. Cardiac output • E. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 11 of 40 2.0/ 2.0 Points The following is a list of vessels. Place them in the order that blood would go through entering the systemic circulation. 1. Left ventricle 2. Aorta 3. Vena cavae 4. Pulmonary trunk 5. Pulmonary veins 6. Right atrium 7. Right ventricle 8. Left atrium • A. 8,1,3, 6, 7, 5, 2, 4, • B. 1, 7, 3, 8, 5, 6, 2, 4 • C. 3, 6, 7, 4, 5, 8, 1, 2 • D. 3, 5, 8, 4, 1, 2, 7, 6 • E. 6, 7, 3, 5, 2, 1, 4, 8 Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 12 of 40 2.0/ 2.0 Points The exchange of substances between the blood vessels and the surrounding tissues can only happen in the ___________. • A. Arterioles • B. Venules • C. Capillaries • D. Arteries • E. Veins Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 13 of 40 2.0/ 2.0 Points The amount of blood pumped by either ventricle in one minute is called. • A. Systolic volume • B. End systolic volume • C. Cardiac output • D. Starling output • E. Stroke volume Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 14 of 40 2.0/ 2.0 Points These control the blood flow through a capillary bed. • A. Arterioles • B. Precapillary sphincters • C. AV values • D. Vasorum • E. Thoroughfare channel Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 15 of 40 2.0/ 2.0 Points Capillaries that are lined with phagocytes are called _________. • A. Venules • B. Sinusoid capillaries • C. Arterioles • D. Fenestrated capillaries • E. Continuous capillaries Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Part 2 of 3 - Part 2 28.0/ 30.0 Points From chapter 21 Question 16 of 40 2.0/ 2.0 Points The inflammatory response does not: • A. Replaces damaged tissue with healthy tissue • B. Prevents the spread of disease to surrounding tissues • C. Starts the repair process of the tissue • D. Disposes of the cellular debris • E. The inflammatory response does all of the above. Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 17 of 40 2.0/ 2.0 Points The only antibodies that can cross the placenta are the ___________. • A. IgG • B. IgE • C. IgD • D. a. IgA • E. IgM Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 18 of 40 2.0/ 2.0 Points The majority of the lymph returns to the blood system by way of the __________. • A. Cisterna chili • B. Thoracic duct • C. Right lymphatic duct • D. Aorta • E. Both the superior and inferior vena cava Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 19 of 40 2.0/ 2.0 Points Cancer cells and virus cells can be killed by • A. T lymphocytes • B. Natural Killer Cells • C. Antibodies • D. Phagocytes • E. Eosinophils Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 20 of 40 2.0/ 2.0 Points The cells responsible for humoral immunity are the __________. • A. B cells • B. erythrocytes • C. Natural killer cells • D. Helper T cells • E. platelets Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 21 of 40 2.0/ 2.0 Points If a person is given antibodies after a rattlesnake bite, this is considered: • A. Active natural immunity • B. Active artificial immunity • C. Passive natural immunity • D. Passive artificial immunity • E. None of the above Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 22 of 40 2.0/ 2.0 Points Part of the second line of defense includes: • A. Cilia • B. Antibodies • C. Phagocytes • D. Platlets • E. Sebum on the skin Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 23 of 40 0.0/ 2.0 Points Antibodies: • A. Require haptens to function • B. Make up part of the primary immune system • C. Are made from T cells • D. Are made from plasma cells • E. None of the above Feedback:Antibodies are made from plasma cells. Question 24 of 40 2.0/ 2.0 Points Which Immunoglobulin class is found attached to the surface of B cells? • A. IgD • B. IgE • C. d. IgG • D. IgM • E. IgA Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 25 of 40 2.0/ 2.0 Points The body’s nonspecific defense includes everything except: • A. Antibodies • B. Inflammation • C. Interferons • D. Compliment system • E. All of the above are nonspecific defenses. Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 26 of 40 2.0/ 2.0 Points The white pulp area in the spleen contains large amounts of __________. • A. Foam cells • B. Lymphocytes • C. Red blood cells • D. Platlets • E. Lymph Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 27 of 40 2.0/ 2.0 Points Fever: • A. Slows the body’s metabolic rate to conserve energy • B. Is always considered dangerous • C. Influences the liver to release large amounts of iron into the system • D. Is the resetting of the body’s temperature by chemicals. • E. Two of the above are correct. Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 28 of 40 2.0/ 2.0 Points Looking inside the deep cortical region of a lymph node, mostly _________cells will be found. • A. B cells • B. eosinophils • C. T Cells • D. A mixture of many cells • E. Natural Killer Cells Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 29 of 40 2.0/ 2.0 Points The largest collection of lymphoid tissue in an adult is in the __________. • A. tonsils • B. spleen • C. Liver • D. peyers patches • E. thymus Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 30 of 40 2.0/ 2.0 Points Macrophages are derived from __________. • A. neutrophils • B. lymphocytes • C. eosinophils • D. monocytes • E. basophils Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Part 3 of 3 - Part 3 40.0/ 40.0 Points From chapter 22 Question 31 of 40 4.0/ 4.0 Points _________ percent of CO2 is transported to the lungs bound by hemoglobin. • A. 5 • B. 20 • C. 70 • D. 10 • E. 30 Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 32 of 40 4.0/ 4.0 Points What would happen if the body allowed us to exhale all of the air out of our lungs? • A. Nothing, we could easily fill them up when we inhaled again • B. The alveoli would collapse • C. The trachea would collapse • D. All of the above • E. None of the above Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 33 of 40 4.0/ 4.0 Points What is the name of the muscular structure which borders the right and left lung inferiorly? • A. Stomach • B. Small intestine • C. Diaphragm • D. Large intestine • E. Pancreas Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 34 of 40 4.0/ 4.0 Points The act of moving the air in and out of the lungs is referred to as which of the following? • A. Pulmonary ventilation • B. Respiration • C. Intrapleural pressure • D. Atmospheric pressure • E. None of the above Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 35 of 40 4.0/ 4.0 Points The exchange of gases in internal and external respiration occurs due to _____________. • A. Simple diffusion • B. Facilitated diffusion • C. Osmosis • D. Active transport • E. None of the above Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 36 of 40 4.0/ 4.0 Points How many molecules of oxygen can one molecule of hemoglobin carry? • A. 2 • B. 3 • C. 4 • D. 5 • E. 1 Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 37 of 40 4.0/ 4.0 Points The oropharynx is a passageway for which of the following? • A. Air only • B. Food only • C. Both air and food • D. Neither air nor food • E. None of the above Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 38 of 40 4.0/ 4.0 Points Under normal circumstances, bronchoconstriction is caused by ________________ and bronchodilation is caused by ________________. • A. Sympathetic nervous system; parasympathetic nervous system • B. Parasympathetic nervous system; sympathetic nervous system • C. Voluntary control; involuntary control • D. Involuntary control; voluntary control • E. None of the above Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 39 of 40 4.0/ 4.0 Points ____________ is the maximum amount of air one can exhale by force after a normal expiration. • A. Inspiratory reserve volume • B. Expiratory reserve volume • C. Tidal volume • D. Vital capacity • E. Residual volume Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 40 of 40 4.0/ 4.0 Points Which of the following are some of the functions of the respiratory system? • A. Helps to maintain acid-base balance • B. Provides oxygen to body tissues and removes waste such as CO2 • C. Helps in sensing odors • D. Helps in the production of speech • E. All of the above Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! UNIT 3 Part 1 of 3 - Part 1 40.0/ 40.0 Points From chapter 25 Question 1 of 22 4.0/ 4.0 Points The volume of filtrate formed by both kidneys per minute is termed the ______________ . • A. uremic coefficient • B. anuric coefficient • C. glomerular filtration rate (GFR) • D. filtration quantity • E. None of the above Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 2 of 22 4.0/ 4.0 Points Which of these beverages does not contain diuretic compounds? • A. Coca Cola • B. coffee • C. tea • D. milk • E. alcohol Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 3 of 22 4.0/ 4.0 Points A cross-sectional view of a kidney shows the outer _______ of the organ and the inner ______ of the organ. • A. Cortex, pelvis • B. Papilla, cortex • C. Medulla, pelvis • D. Cortex, collecting system • E. Cortex, medulla Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 4 of 22 4.0/ 4.0 Points The principle task of the nephron population is to balance the plasma to homeostatic set points and excrete potential toxins in the urine. They do this by: • A. Filtration of blood • B. Reabsorption • C. Secretion • D. A and B • E. All of the above Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 5 of 22 4.0/ 4.0 Points Urine that is produced in the kidney will follow the following pathway before it is expelled outward: • A. Urethra, renal pelvis, ureter, urinary bladder • B. Renal pelvis, ureter, urinary bladder, urethra • C. Urinary bladder, renal pelvis, ureter • D. Urinary bladder, ureter, renal pelvis, urethra • E. None of the above is true Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 6 of 22 4.0/ 4.0 Points The arterial pathway for blood flowing into the kidney is as follows: • A. Efferent artery, segmental artery, interlobar artery, arcuate artery, afferent artery • B. Renal artery, segmental artery, interlobar artery, arcuate artery, cortical radiate artery, afferent artery • C. Segmental artery, interlobar artery, afferent artery, efferent artery • D. Afferent artery, segmental artery, renal artery, interlobar artery, efferent artery • E. Renal artery, segmental artery, afferent artery, efferent artery Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 7 of 22 4.0/ 4.0 Points Which of the following statement(s) is/are true of the kidney? • A. Each kidney is approximately the same size as an adult’s fist. • B. Is located posterior to the abdominal peritoneum. • C. Are well protected by ribs 10 – 12. • D. Is very poorly vascularized. • E. A, B, and C are correct. Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 8 of 22 4.0/ 4.0 Points Which of the following statements is/are true of the urinary bladder? • A. When it is stretched, the micturition reflex is stimulated. • B. It collects urine from both kidneys. • C. It is able to contain between 200 – 250 mL of urine before it becomes painful. • D. Will often spontaneously contract and empty through the urethra if it contains • E. A, B, and D are true. Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 9 of 22 4.0/ 4.0 Points Production of less than 50 mL/day of urine is called ________. • A. normal • B. anuria • C. oliguria • D. polyuria • E. hyperuria Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 10 of 22 4.0/ 4.0 Points The urinary system has some of the following roles in the human body: • A. Ridding the body of wastes • B. Regulation of blood pH • C. Regulation of blood pressure • D. Stimulate the production of red blood cells • E. All of the above are true. Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Part 2 of 3 - Part 2 30.0/ 30.0 Points From chapter 26.1-3 Question 11 of 22 5.0/ 5.0 Points Solute contributes to the movement of water between cells and the surrounding medium by what force? • A. Hydrostatic pressure • B. Brownian movement • C. Random motion • D. Osmotic pressure Feedback:Correct. This can be found in the OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology section. Section 26.1. Question 12 of 22 5.0/ 5.0 Points The largest amount of water leaves the body through this route. • A. The lungs through expiration. • B. The GI tract. • C. The kidneys via urine. • D. The skin as sweat. Feedback:Correct. This can be found in the OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology section. Section 26.2. Question 13 of 22 5.0/ 5.0 Points What is the term for having a higher-than-normal concentration of potassium, usually due to an increased dietary intake of potassium? • A. Hyponatremia • B. Hyperkalemia • C. Hypernatremia • D. Hypokalemia Feedback:Correct. This can be found in the OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology section. Section 26.3. Question 14 of 22 5.0/ 5.0 Points What is the major cation found in the extracellular fluid? • A. Potassium • B. Calcium • C. Sodium • D. Chloride Feedback:Correct. This can be found in the OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology section. Section 26.3. Question 15 of 22 5.0/ 5.0 Points How are most electrolytes typically lost? • A. Sweating • B. Respiration • C. Renal Function • D. Feces Feedback:Correct. This can be found in the OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology section. Section 26.3. Question 16 of 22 5.0/ 5.0 Points Where is most of the body's calcium found? • A. Bone • B. Teeth • C. Plasma • D. Extracellular fluids Feedback:Correct. This can be found in the OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology section. Section 26.3. Part 3 of 3 - Part 3 30.0/ 30.0 Points From chapter 26.4-5 Question 17 of 22 5.0/ 5.0 Points Which one of the following is an example of an "alkaline" solution? • A. Soda • B. Vinegar • C. Lemon juice • D. Bleach Feedback:Correct. This can be found in the OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology section. Section 26.4. Question 18 of 22 5.0/ 5.0 Points Which one of the following is a cause of respiratory acidosis? • A. Hypokalemia • B. Emphysema • C. Increased blood ketones • D. Increased aldosterone Feedback:Correct. This can be found in the OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology section. Section 26.5. Question 19 of 22 5.0/ 5.0 Points Which of the following is the most important buffer inside red blood cells? • A. Phosphate buffers • B. Plasma proteins • C. Bicarbonate-carbonic acid buffer • D. Hemoglobin Feedback:Correct. This can be found in the OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology section. Section 26.4. Question 20 of 22 5.0/ 5.0 Points Which one of the following is a cause of metabolic acidosis? • A. Prolonged use of diuretics • B. Increased aldosterone • C. Excessive HCl loss • D. Diarrhea Feedback:Correct. This can be found in the OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology section. Section 26.5. Question 21 of 22 5.0/ 5.0 Points Which explanation best describes why plasma proteins can function as buffers? • A. Plasma proteins combine with bicarbonate to make a stronger buffer. • B. Plasma proteins are immune to damage from acids. • C. Proteins have both positive and negative charges on their surface. • D. Proteins are alkaline. Feedback: Correct. This can be found in the OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology section. Section 26.4. Question 22 of 22 5.0/ 5.0 Points Which one of the following is a cause of metabolic alkalosis? • A. Diarrhea • B. Too much CO2 is exhaled from the lungs • C. Strenuous exercise • D. Ingestion of antacids Feedback:Correct. This can be found in the OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology section. Section 26.5. UNIT 4 Part 1 of 3 - Part 1 40.0/ 40.0 Points From chapter 23 Question 1 of 22 4.0/ 4.0 Points What helps to break down the fat we eat during digestion? • A. Lipases • B. Salivary amylase • C. Pepsin • D. Pepsinogen • E. None of the above Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 2 of 22 4.0/ 4.0 Points Where are carbohydrates first digested? • A. Stomach • B. Small intestine • C. Liver • D. Mouth • E. Esophagus Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 3 of 22 4.0/ 4.0 Points In which organ below does the majority of digestion occur? • A. Pancreas • B. Large intestine • C. Small intestine • D. Liver • E. Stomach Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 4 of 22 4.0/ 4.0 Points The correctly sequenced sections of the small intestine are: ____________, _____________, ____________. • A. Duodenum; jejunum; ileum • B. Ileum, jejunum; duodenum • C. Duodenum; ileum; jejunum • D. Jejunum; duodenum; ileum • E. None of the above is correct Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 5 of 22 4.0/ 4.0 Points The ___________ is the thin layer of the mucosa responsible for pulling the mucosa into its many folds which increases the surface area of the alimentary canal. • A. Muscularis (externa) • B. Submucosa • C. Serosa • D. Muscularis mucosa • E. None of the above Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 6 of 22 4.0/ 4.0 Points Mechanical digestion occurs when food is broken into smaller pieces, but the chemical makeup of the food does not change. The following is associated with mechanical digestion except ____________. • A. Enzymes • B. Segmentation • C. Churning • D. Chewing • E. Mastication Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 7 of 22 4.0/ 4.0 Points Our body’s ability to absorb vitamins from foods and supplements we take is vital to our health. Why do you think consuming some fat in the diet is important? • A. We need fat to help with absorption of fat-soluble vitamins such as A, D, E, and K • B. We need fat to help with absorption of water-soluble vitamins such as C, B1, B6 and B9 • C. We need fat to help with absorption of protein • D. We need fat to help with absorption of fiber • E. None of the above Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 8 of 22 4.0/ 4.0 Points Which are three features of the mucosa and submucosa that are different and unique to the small intestine? • A. Microvilli, villi, and rugae • B. Villi, lateals, and rugae • C. Circular folds, villi, and microvilli • D. Haustra, circular folds, villi • E. All the above are features of the small intestine Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 9 of 22 4.0/ 4.0 Points How many lobes does the liver have? • A. 3 • B. 2 • C. 1 • D. 4 • E. 5 Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 10 of 22 4.0/ 4.0 Points The two regulatory mechanisms (controls) of the digestive system are _________ and __________. • A. Neural and hormonal • B. Hormonal and enzymatic • C. Neural and enzymatic • D. The digestive system only has enzymatic control and nothing else • E. None of the above Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Part 2 of 3 - Part 2 25.0/ 30.0 Points From chapter 24.1-4 Question 11 of 22 5.0/ 5.0 Points During glycolysis, one glucose molecule yields how many ATP molecules? • A. 0 • B. 1 • C. 2 • D. 4 Feedback:Correct. This can be found in the OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology section. Section 24.2. Question 12 of 22 5.0/ 5.0 Points Lipids in the diet can be all of the following EXCEPT? • A. Broken down into energy for the body. • B. Converted into acetyl CoA. • C. Used to build new proteins. • D. Stored as triglycerides for later use. Feedback:Correct. This can be found in the OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology section. Section 24.3. Question 13 of 22 5.0/ 5.0 Points Amino acids are needed to do which one of the following? • A. Supply energy for the cell. • B. Serve as fat stores. • C. Create red blood cells. • D. Build new proteins. Feedback:Correct. This can be found in the OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology section. Section 24.4. Question 14 of 22 0.0/ 5.0 Points A monosaccharide is formed from a polysaccharide in what kind of reaction? • A. Anabolic reaction • B. Catabolic reaction • C. Oxidation-reduction reaction • D. biosynthetic reaction Feedback:Incorrect. This can be found in the OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology section. Section 24.1. Question 15 of 22 5.0/ 5.0 Points What process takes place in the liver and is the creating of new glucose molecules from pyruvate, lactate, glycerol, or amino acids? • A. Glycolysis • B. Gluconeogenesis • C. Glucokinase • D. Glycogen Feedback:Correct. This can be found in the OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology section. Section 24.2. Question 16 of 22 5.0/ 5.0 Points Throughout the entire process of aerobic respiration (glycolysis, pyruvate to acetyl CoA, Krebs cycle, and the electron transport chain) how many molecules of ATP are formed from each molecule of glucose? • A. 2 • B. 4 • C. 8 • D. 36 Feedback:Correct. This can be found in the OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology section. Section 24.2. Part 3 of 3 - Part 3 30.0/ 30.0 Points From chapter 24.5-7 Question 17 of 22 5.0/ 5.0 Points Which one of the following is NOT a water-soluble vitamin? • A. A • B. B1 • C. B12 • D. C Feedback: Correct. This can be found in the OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology section. Section 24.7. Question 18 of 22 5.0/ 5.0 Points The nutritional Calorie (C) is the amount of heat it takes to raise 1000 g of water by how many degree(s) Celsius? • A. 1 • B. 5 • C. 10 • D. 100 Feedback:Correct. This can be found in the OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology section. Section 24.7. Question 19 of 22 5.0/ 5.0 Points Which one of the following is NOT considered a Trace Mineral? • A. Chloride • B. Iodine • C. Manganese • D. Zinc Feedback:Correct. This can be found in the OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology section. Section 24.7. Question 20 of 22 5.0/ 5.0 Points The heat you feel on your chair when you stand up was transferred from your skin via which method of heat exchange? • A. Evaporation • B. Conduction • C. Radiation • D. Convection Feedback:Correct. This can be found in the OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology section. Section 24.6. Question 21 of 22 5.0/ 5.0 Points Which method of heat exchange is caused by the changing of the form of water from a liquid state to a gas? • A. Convection • B. Radiation • C. Conduction • D. Evaporation Feedback:Correct. This can be found in the OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology section. Section 24.6. Question 22 of 22 5.0/ 5.0 Points The accumulation of how many calories adds one pound of weight? • A. 200 • B. 1500 • C. 2000 • D. 3500 Feedback:Correct. This can be found in the OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology section. Section 24.7. UNIT 5 Part 1 of 3 - Part 1 40.0/ 40.0 Points From chapter 28 Question 1 of 22 4.0/ 4.0 Points The inner cell mass of the trophoblast developments into the primary germ layers which are named the _______, _______, and _______. • A. endoderm, ectoderm, mesoderm • B. zygote, morula, blastocyst • C. endometrium, myometrium, perimetrium • D. zygote, embryo, fetus • E. epithelium, muscle, nervous, connective Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 2 of 22 4.0/ 4.0 Points The placenta is formed by endometrial tissue of the uterine lining and the ________. • A. myometrium of the uterus • B. yolk sac • C. inner cell mass of the trophoblast • D. chorionic villi of the trophoblast • E. amnionic fluid Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 3 of 22 4.0/ 4.0 Points The first stage of labor is marked by dilation of the uterine ________. • A. neck • B. fundus • C. vagina • D. body • E. cervix Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 4 of 22 4.0/ 4.0 Points Which hormone is responsible for mammary gland development at puberty? • A. estrogen • B. follicle stimulating hormone • C. prolactin • D. oxytocin • E. luteinizing hormone Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 5 of 22 4.0/ 4.0 Points The usual site of embryo implantation and growth is the ___________. • A. myometrium • B. uterine tube • C. peritoneal cavity • D. endometrium • E. perimetrium Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 6 of 22 4.0/ 4.0 Points Which part of a mature sperm contains enzymes which digest the coverings surrounding the ovulated oocyte? • A. acrosome • B. nucleus • C. nucleus • D. middle piece • E. flagellum Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 7 of 22 4.0/ 4.0 Points All of the following events occur during the embryonic period of growth EXCEPT development of __________. • A. bone tissue • B. blood cells in the liver • C. genitalia by which sex can be determined • D. a heart capable of pumping blood • E. 4 limbs Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 8 of 22 4.0/ 4.0 Points In the months preceding birth, the hormone which causes pelvic ligaments to become more flexible to enable widening of the pelvis during delivery is ________. • A. luteinizing hormone • B. prolactin • C. human chorionic gonadotropin • D. prostaglandin • E. relaxin Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 9 of 22 4.0/ 4.0 Points How is a zygote transported to the uterus? • A. the uterine tube is lined with cilia and undergoes peristalsis • B. the uterine tube is lined with microvilli • C. gravity • D. the zygote migrates by ameboid movement • E. the zygote has a flagellum Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 10 of 22 4.0/ 4.0 Points “False labor” or Braxton Hicks contractions are weak, irregular contractions of the myometrium triggered by _________. • A. high levels of prostaglandin • B. high blood levels of estrogen • C. low levels of progesterone • D. high levels of testosterone • E. low levels of oxytocin Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Part 2 of 3 - Part 2 30.0/ 30.0 Points From chapter 27.1 Question 11 of 22 5.0/ 5.0 Points In men during sexual arousal, penile erections occur due to Nitric Oxide being released from what structures? • A. Nerve endings. • B. Testes. • C. Epididymis. • D. Prostate gland. Feedback:Correct. This can be found in the OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology section. Section 27.1. Question 12 of 22 5.0/ 5.0 Points In addition to testosterone being released into intratesticular secretion, it is also released into systemic circulation for the role of all but which one of the following? • A. Muscle development. • B. Development of secondary sex characteristics. • C. Bone growth. • D. Nervous tissue development. Feedback:Correct. This can be found in the OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology section. Section 27.1. Question 13 of 22 5.0/ 5.0 Points What is the function of the epididymis? • A. Sperm maturation and storage. • B. Provides nitric oxide needed for erections. • C. Produces the bulk of seminal fluid. • D. Spermatogenesis. Feedback:Correct. This can be found in the OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology section. Section 27.1. Question 14 of 22 5.0/ 5.0 Points What is the purpose of Leydig cells? • A. To support spermatogenesis. • B. To secrete testosterone. • C. To activate the sperm flagellum. • D. To secrete seminal fluid. Feedback:Correct. This can be found in the OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology section. Section 27.1. Question 15 of 22 5.0/ 5.0 Points In the testes, sperm cells replicate and differentiate in the _________. • A. septum • B. tunica albuginea • C. urethra • D. ductus deferens • E. seminiferous tubules Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 16 of 22 5.0/ 5.0 Points Which hypothalamic hormone contributes to the regulation of the male reproductive system? • A. Luteinizing hormone. • B. Follicle-stimulating hormone. • C. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone. • D. Androgens. Feedback:Correct. This can be found in the OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology section. Section 27.1. Part 3 of 3 - Part 3 25.0/ 30.0 Points From chapter 27.2-3 Question 17 of 22 5.0/ 5.0 Points The timing of puberty can be influenced by all of the following EXCEPT? • A. Amount of body fat • B. Stress • C. Peer pressure • D. Genes Feedback:Correct. This can be found in the OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology section. Section 27.3. Question 18 of 22 5.0/ 5.0 Points After ovulation, the secondary oocyte is drawn from the peritoneal cavity into the uterine tube by _________. • A. cilia • B. microvilli • C. fimbriae • D. flagella • E. mucous Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 19 of 22 5.0/ 5.0 Points Which layer of the uterus is shed during menstruation? • A. perimetrium • B. basilar zone of endometrium • C. serous membrane • D. functional zone of endometrium • E. myometrium Feedback:Good work; your answer is correct! Question 20 of 22 5.0/ 5.0 Points What are the female gonads called? • A. Oviducts • B. Ova • C. Oocytes • D. Ovaries Feedback:Correct. This can be found in the OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology section. Section 27.2. Question 21 of 22 0.0/ 5.0 Points Without SRY expression, an embryo will develop: • A. male reproductive structures. • B. no reproductive structures. • C. female reproductive structures. • D. male reproductive structures 50% of the time and female reproductive structures 50% of the time. Feedback:Incorrect. This can be found in the OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology section. Section 27.3. Question 22 of 22 5.0/ 5.0 Points What controls whether an embryo will develop testes or ovaries? • A. Y chromosome • B. Presence or absence of estrogen • C. Hypothalamus • D. Pituitary gland Feedback:Correct. This can be found in the OpenStax Anatomy and Physiology section. Section 27.3. [Show More]

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