NURS 611-Patho Exam 4 “WE ARE OUT THE DOOR” Q&A Summer 2020/2021

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NURS 611-Patho Exam 4 “WE ARE OUT THE DOOR” Q&A Summer 2020 1. Exposure to which substance protects the mucosal barrier of the stomach? 2. Glucose transport enhances the absorption of which electr... olyte? 3. What is the cause of gastroesophageal reflux disease? 4. By what mechanism does intussusception cause an intestinal obstruction? 5. What is the most immediate result of a small intestinal obstruction? 6. An intestinal obstruction at the pylorus or high in the small intestine causes metabolic alkalosis by causing which outcome? 7. What are the cardinal symptoms of small intestinal obstruction? 8. What is the primary cause of peptic ulcers? 9. A peptic ulcer may occur in all of the following areas except the: 10. After a partial gastrectomy or pyloroplasty, clinical manifestations that include increased pulse, hypotension, weakness, pallor, sweating, and dizziness are the results of which mechanism? 11. Which statement is consistent with dumping syndrome? 12. Which statement is false regarding the sources of increased ammonia that contribute to hepatic encephalopathy? 13. Which statement is false regarding the pathophysiologic process of acute pancreatitis? 14. Obesity is defined as a body mass index (BMI) greater than what measurement? 15. Which are the early (prodromal) clinical manifestations of hepatitis? (Select all that apply.) 16. Ulcerative colitis: 17. Crohn disease: 18. Kidney stones in the upper part of the ureter would produce pain referred to which anatomical area? 19. The glomerular filtration rate is directly related to which factor? 20. When renin is released, it is capable of which action? 21. How high does the plasma glucose have to be before the threshold for glucose is achieved? 22. What is the end-product of protein metabolism that is excreted in urine? 23. What provides the best estimate of the functioning of renal tissue? 24. Which renal change is found in older adults? 25. Compared with a younger individual, how is the specific gravity of urine in older adults affected? 26. How does progressive nephrons injury affect angiotensin II activity? 27. Which mineral accounts for the most common type of renal stone? 28. Regarding the formation of renal calculi, what function does pyrophosphate, potassium citrate, and magnesium perform? 29. What is the most common cause of uncomplicated urinary tract infections? 30. Which differentiating sign is required to make the diagnosis of pyelonephritis from that of cystitis? 31. Which clinical manifestations of a urinary tract infection may be demonstrated in an 85-year-old individual? 32. Pyelonephritis is usually caused by which type of organism? 33. Which abnormal laboratory value is found in glomerular disorders? 34. A patient exhibits symptoms including hematuria with red blood cell casts and proteinuria exceeding 3 to 5 g/day, with albumin as the major protein. These data suggest the presence of which disorder? 35. Hypothyroidism, edema, hyperlipidemia, and lipiduria characterize which kidney disorder? 36. How are glucose and insulin used to treat hyperkalemia associated with acute renal failure? 37. Creatinine is primarily excreted by glomerular filtration after being constantly released from what type of tissue? 38. What are considered risk factors for developing bladder and kidney cancers? (Select all that apply.) 39. Prerenal injury from poor perfusion can result from which condition? (Select all that apply.) 40. Which statements about the human papillolmavirus (HPV) and vaccine are true? (Select all that apply.) 41. The release of which chemical mediator causes primary dysmenorrhea? 42. Which condition is considered a clinical cause of amenorrhea? 43. What statement concerning the pathogenetic mechanisms of polycystic ovarian syndrome (POS)istrue? 44. What is the leading cause of infertility in women? 45. Which statement regarding pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is true? 46. Which term is used to identify the descent of the posterior bladder and trigone into the vaginal canal? 47. What type of cyst develops when an ovarian follicle is stimulated but no dominant follicle develops and completes the maturity process? 48. Which term is used to identify benign uterine tumors that develop from smooth muscle cells in the myometrium and are commonly called uterine fibroids? 49. The size of benign uterine tumors, such as leiomyomas, is thought to be caused by the influence of which hormone? (Select all that apply.) 50. What are the common clinical manifestations of endometriosis? (Select all that apply.) 51. How does the epididymis become infected? 52. Symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) are a result of which pathophysiologic condition? 53. Which infection has clinical manifestations that include the sudden onset of malaise, low back pain, and perineal pain with high fever and chills, dysuria, nocturia, and urinary retention? 54. Which statements are true regarding urethritis? (Select all that apply.) 55. Which statements are true regarding prostate cancer? (Select all that apply.) 56. What unique factor causes adolescent girls to have a high risk for sexually transmitted infections (STIs)? 57. Which sexually transmitted infection frequently coexists with gonorrhea? 58. Aspiration is most likely to occur in the right mainstem bronchus because it: 59. Where in the lung does gas exchange occur? 60. Surfactant produced by type II alveolar cells facilitates alveolar distention and ventilation by which mechanism? 61. The adequacy of a person’s alveolar ventilation is assessed best by monitoring which mechanism? 62. Which normal physiologic change occurs in the aging pulmonary system? 63. Which substances cause airway epithelium to constrict? 64. If a patient develops acidosis, the nurse would expect the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to react in which manner? 65. Decreased lung compliance means that the lungs are demonstrating which characteristic? 66. Hypoventilation that results in the retention of carbon dioxide will stimulate which receptors in an attempt to maintain a normal homeostatic state? 67. How low must the partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2)drop before the peripheral chemoreceptors influence ventilation? 68. What is the most important cause of pulmonary artery constriction? 69. What is the purpose of the spirometry measurement? 70. Regarding the respiratory process referred to as remodeling, which statements are true? (Select all that apply.) 71. What are the effects of aging on the pulmonary system?(Select all that apply.) 72. Besides dyspnea, what is the most common characteristic associated with pulmonary disease? 73. Sitting up in a forward-leaning position generally relieves which breathing disorder? 74. Kussmaul respirations as a respiratory pattern may be associated with which characteristic(s)? 75. Respirations that are characterized by alternating periods of deep and shallow breathing are a result of which respiratory mechanism? 76. With a total hemoglobin of 9 g/dl, how many grams per deciliter of hemoglobin must become desaturated for cyanosis to occur? 77. Which statement is true regarding ventilation? 78. Pulmonary edema and pulmonary fibrosis cause hypoxemia by which mechanism? 79. Which condition is capable of producing alveolar dead space? 80. What is the most common cause of pulmonary edema? 81. What causes pneumoconiosis? 82. Which condition is a fulminant form of respiratory failure characterized by acute lung inflammation and diffuse alveolocapillary injury? 83. Which structure(s) in acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) release inflammatory mediators such as proteolytic enzymes, oxygen-free radicals, prostaglandins, leukotrienes, and platelet-activating factor? 84. Pulmonary edema in acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is the result of an increase in: 85. In acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), alveoli and respiratory bronchioles fill with fluid as a result of which mechanism? 86. Which type of pulmonary disease requires more force to expire a volume of air? 87. Which immunoglobulin (Ig) may contribute to the pathophysiologic characteristics of asthma? 88. Which statement about the late asthmatic response is true? 89. Clinical manifestations of inspiratory and expiratory wheezing, dyspnea, nonproductive cough, and tachypnea are indicative of which condition? 90. The most successful treatment for chronic asthma begins with which action? 91. Which factor contributes to the production of mucus associated with chronic bronchitis? 92. Clinical manifestations of decreased exercise tolerance, wheezing, shortness of breath, and productive cough are indicative of which respiratory disorder? 93. Clinical manifestations that include unexplained weight loss, dyspnea on exertion, use of accessory muscles, and tachypnea with prolonged expiration are indicative of which respiratory disorder? 94. Which of the following is the most common route of lower respiratory tract infection? 95. What is the initial step in the management of emphysema? 96. In tuberculosis, the body walls off the bacilli in a tubercle by stimulating which action? 97. The progression of chronic bronchitis is best halted by which intervention? 98. Clinical manifestations of inspiratory crackles, increased tactile fremitus, egophony, and whispered pectoriloquy are indicative of which respiratory condition? 99. What medical term is used to identify the presence of pus in the pleural space? 100. What medical term is used for a condition that results from pulmonary hypertension, creating chronic pressure overload in the right ventricle? 101. What are the causes of dyspnea? (Select all that apply.) 102. Which inflammatory mediators are produced in asthma? (Select all that apply.) 103. Which clinical manifestation is associated with pulmonary hypertension? (Select all that apply.) 104. Which statements regarding Mycobacterium tuberculosis are true regarding the bacilli’s ability to go into dormancy? (Select all that apply.) [Show More]

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