NR 602 Week 7 Quiz With Verified Answers Graded A LATEST VERSION

NR 602 Week 7 Quiz Question 1 2 / 2 pts An eighteen-year-old patient presents with secondary amenorrhea. On physical exam, there is normal secondary sex characteristics in addition to the appearance of normal genitali ...

NR 602 Week 7 Quiz Question 1 2 / 2 pts An eighteen-year-old patient presents with secondary amenorrhea. On physical exam, there is normal secondary sex characteristics in addition to the appearance of normal genitalia. Pregnancy has been ruled out through urine human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG). Which of the following signs or symptoms would necessitate further evaluation in this patient? Correct! Galactorrhea Hirsutism Elevated blood cholesterol levels Androgen deficiency Question 2 2 / 2 pts A twenty-two-year-old female presents with an initial onset of herpes simplex on the external genitalia. During the patient education, which of the following statements is most important to include? Cesarean section will be necessary for any pregnancy and delivery. The sexual partner will not contract herpes if lesions are not present. Correct! Symptoms of the initial outbreak of the lesions are typically worse than subsequent outbreaks. Antiviral medications will be useful in treating and curing an outbreak. Question 3 2 / 2 pts A patient has been diagnosed with trichomoniasis. Which of the following single dose medications would be the best option? Ofloxacin 500 mg Clindamycin 300 mg Azithromycin 1 g Correct! Metronidazole 2 g Question 4 0 / 2 pts A woman presents to your practice with vaginal itching and a white discharge. She has been in good health except for recent treatment for strep throat. Pelvic examination reveals a tender vulvovaginal area with edema and non-malodorous white patches. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this problem? Lactobacillus overgrowth Trichomonas Candidiasis You Answered Bacterial vaginitis Question 5 2 / 2 pts You are completing a well visit on a fourteen-year-old female who is currently not menstruating. Primary amenorrhea is best described as ________. cessation of menstruation for six months after menarche failure of menstruation to occur by age seventeen cessation of menstruation for six months Correct! failure of menstruation to occur by age thirteen Question 6 2 / 2 pts Treatment options for patients with condyloma acuminatum include: Metronidazole Correct! Imiquimod (Aldera) Azithromycin Acyclovir Question 7 2 / 2 pts A twenty-four-year-old female patient has been diagnosed with primary dysmenorrhea. Which of the following medications would be used as a first line to help control her symptoms? Antianxiety agents Correct! Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs Progesterone-only contraception Oral steroids Question 8 2 / 2 pts A seventeen-year-old female patient presents with amenorrhea for four months. She did experience menarche at the age of fifteen but had not had a menstrual cycle since. On physical examination, it is noted that she has normal secondary sexual characteristics. The nurse practitioner will consider a progesterone challenge to determine the presence of adequate __. L-thyroxine follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) Correct! endogenous estrogen prolactin Question 9 2 / 2 pts A teenage patient presents with amenorrhea and normal secondary sex characteristics. A progesterone challenge is ordered. The purpose is to determine the presence of ______. follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) luteinizing hormone (LH) prolactin Correct! endogenous estrogen Question 10 2 / 2 pts A nurse practitioner is performing a wet mount with potassium hydroxide (KOH) to assist with a diagnosis in a woman experiencing vaginal discharge. Which of the following would this confirm? Herpes simplex Gonorrhea Chlamydia Correct! Candidiasis