PATHO 2410 Regulation/Metabolism Test Bank Questions And Answers( Complete Solution Rated A)

Document Content and Description Below

PATHO 2410 Regulation/Metabolism (CP #2) Test Bank Chapter 2 1. Choose the correct proportion of water to body weight to be expected in a healthy male adult’s body: a. 30% b. 45% c. 60% d. 70... % 2. Choose the correct proportion of blood (to body weight) in an adult male’s body: a. 30% b. 20% c. 10% d. 4% 3. Insensible fluid loss refers to water lost through: a. Perspiration only b. Feces only c. Perspiration and expiration d. Urine and feces 4. When the osmotic pressure of the blood is elevated above normal, water would shift from the: a. Blood into the cells b. Interstitial compartment into the cells c. Interstitial compartment into the blood d. Cells into the interstitial compartment 5. Which of the following would result from a deficit of plasma proteins? a. Increased osmotic pressure b. Decreased osmotic pressure c. Increased hydrostatic pressure d. Decreased hydrostatic pressure 6. Which of the following would cause edema? a. Decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure b. Increased capillary osmotic pressure c. Decreased capillary permeability d. Increased capillary permeability 7. Which of the following would likely be related to an elevated hematocrit reading? a. Fluid excess b. Fluid deficit c. Increased sodium level d. Decreased electrolytes 8. Which of the following is a typical sign of dehydration? a. Rapid, strong pulse b. Low hematocrit c. Increased urine output d. Rough oral mucosa 9. Which of the following terms refers to a combination of decreased circulating blood volume combined with excess fluid in a body cavity? a. Dehydration b. Third-spacing c. Hypovolemia d. Water retention 10. Which of the following is the primary cation in the extracellular fluid? a. Sodium b. Potassium c. Calcium d. Iron 11. Which of the following is a common cause of hyponatremia? a. Loss of the thirst mechanism b. Excessive sweating c. Excessive aldosterone secretion d. Prolonged period of rapid, deep respirations 12. Which of the following is a common effect of both hypokalemia and hyperkalemia? a. Skeletal muscle twitch and cramps b. Oliguria c. Elevated serum pH d. Cardiac arrhythmias 13. Choose the correct effect of increased parathyroid hormone. a. Increased movement of calcium ions into the bones b. Increased activation of vitamin D c. Increased absorption of calcium from the digestive tract d. Decreased reabsorption of calcium in the kidneys 14. Which of the following results from hypocalcemia? (Select all that apply) a. Low serum phosphate levels b. Nausea and constipation c. Skeletal muscle twitch and spasms d. Weak cardiac contractions 15. Which of the following causes tetany? a. Increased permeability of nerve membranes due to low serum calcium b. Excess calcium ions in skeletal muscle due to excess parathyroid hormone (PTH) c. Excess calcium ions inside somatic nerves as a result of neoplasms d. Increased stimulation of the nerves in the cerebral cortex 16. In which of the following processes is phosphate ion NOT a major component? a. Bone metabolism b. Metabolic processes involving adenosine triphosphate (ATP) c. Blood clotting d. Acid-base balance 17. Which of the following would be considered normal serum pH? a. 4.5-8 b. 7.0 c. 7.4 d. 8 18. When many excess hydrogen ions accumulate in the blood, what happens to serum pH? The pH: a. Decreases b. Increases c. Remains constant d. Varies based on metabolism 19. What is the slowest but most effective control for acid-base balance? a. Respiratory system b. Buffer systems in the blood c. Kidneys d. Brain 20. Which of the following is essential in order to maintain serum pH within normal range? a. Carbonic acid and bicarbonate ion must be present in equal quantities. b. All excess carbonic acid must be excreted by the kidneys. c. The concentration of bicarbonate ion must remain constant. d. The ratio of carbonic acid to bicarbonate ion must be 1:20. 21. Which is the correct effect on the body of abnormally slow respirations? a. Increased carbonic acid b. Decreased carbonic acid c. Increased bicarbonate ion d. Decreased bicarbonate ion 22. Which condition is likely to cause metabolic acidosis? a. Slow, shallow respirations b. Prolonged diarrhea c. Mild vomiting d. Excessive fluid in the body 23. What would a serum pH of 7.33 in a patient with kidney disease indicate? a. Metabolic alkalosis b. Metabolic acidosis c. Respiratory alkalosis d. Respiratory acidosis 24. Which serum value indicates decompensated metabolic acidosis? a. pH is below normal range b. pH is above normal range c. Bicarbonate level decreases d. Bicarbonate level increases 25. What is the effect on blood serum when excessive lactic acid accumulates in the body? a. Bicarbonate ion levels decrease b. Bicarbonate ion levels increase c. Carbonic acid levels increase d. pH increases 26. The direct effects of acidosis are manifested primarily in the functioning of the: a. Digestive system b. Urinary system c. Nervous system d. Respiratory system 27. Compensation mechanisms in the body for dehydration would include: a. Increased antidiuretic hormone (ADH). b. Decreased aldosterone. c. Slow, strong heart contraction. d. Peripheral vasodilation. 28. Which acid-base imbalance results from impaired expiration due to emphysema? a. Metabolic acidosis b. Metabolic alkalosis c. Respiratory acidosis d. Respiratory alkalosis 29. In patients with impaired expiration associated with emphysema, effective compensation for the acid-base imbalance would be: a. Increased rate and depth of respiration. b. Decreased rate and depth of respiration. c. Increased urine pH and decreased serum bicarbonate. d. Decreased urine pH and increased serum bicarbonate. 30. An anxiety attack often causes hyperventilation leading to: a. Increased PCO2. b. Decreased PCO2. c. Respiratory acidosis. d. Metabolic acidosis. 31. One of the factors involved in the increased need for water in infants is: a. Proportionally smaller body surface area. b. Higher metabolic rate. c. Smaller respiratory capacity. d. Greater surface area of exposed mucous membranes. 32. Compensation for respiratory system depression due to anesthesia and sedation would be: a. Decreased reabsorption of bicarbonate ions in the kidneys. b. Increased secretion of hydrogen ions into the filtrate. c. Increased respiratory rate and depth. d. Increased renin secretion. 33. A prolonged state of metabolic acidosis often leads to: a. Hypokalemia b. Hyperkalemia c. Hyponatremia d. Hypercalcemia 34. Strenuous physical exercise on a hot day is likely to result in: a. Hypokalemia b. Hypernatremia c. Hypochloremia d. Hypovolemia 35. Place the following events in the correct sequence of events when ketoacids increase in the blood of a diabetic patient. Not all options are used in the answers. 1. Serum pH decreases 2. Serum bicarbonate decreases 3. PCO2 decreases 4. Respiration decreases 5. Respiration increases 6. Serum pH increases 7.Urine pH decreases a. 1, 3, 7, 4, 2, 6 b. 5, 2, 7, 3, 4, 1 c. 2, 1, 5, 3, 7, 6 d. 3, 1, 2, 5, 7, 6 36. Which of the following is a manifestation of respiratory alkalosis? a. Bradycardia and deep rapid breathing b. Drowsiness and general lethargy c. Increased nervous system irritability d. Decreased urine pH 37. Prolonged diarrhea results in: a. Loss of fluid and bicarbonate ions, leading to metabolic acidosis. b. Increased fluid and serum bicarbonate ions, leading to metabolic acidosis. c. Loss of chloride ions only, leading to metabolic alkalosis. d. Surplus bicarbonate ions, leading to respiratory alkalosis. 38. In the initial stage, vomiting results in: a. Metabolic acidosis b. Metabolic alkalosis c. Respiratory alkalosis d. None of the above 39. Which two ions are most important for acid-base balance in the body? a. K+, Na+ b. Cl– and HCO3– c. Ca++, Na+ d. Na+, Cl– 40. The bicarbonate-carbonic acid buffer system helps maintain serum pH. The balance of the carbonic acid and bicarbonate ion levels are controlled by the: a. Liver and pancreas b. Lungs and kidneys c. Lungs and plasma proteins d. Kidneys and bone marrow 41. Alkalosis increases irritability and spontaneous stimulation of nerves by: a. Blocking normal nerve conduction. b. Increasing the permeability of nerve membranes. c. Blocking movement of calcium ions. d. Decreasing phosphate ion levels. 42. Hypocalcemia causes weak cardiac contractions because: a. Permeability of nerve membranes increases. b. Insufficient calcium ions are available for muscle contraction. c. Low phosphate ion levels prevent muscle contraction. d. Excessive amounts of calcium are stored in cardiac muscle. 43. Serum potassium levels are affected by: (Select all that apply) a. ADH b. Aldosterone c. serum H+ levels. d. Insulin levels 44. Which of the following is the primary control of serum Na+ levels? a. ADH b. Aldosterone c. Serum H+ levels d. Serum K+ levels 45. The control center for thirst is located in the: a. Kidneys b. Thalamus c. Medulla d. Hypothalamus 46. Which statements apply to atrial natriuretic peptide? (Select all that apply) a. It is secreted by heart muscle cells. b. It is a hormone secreted by the kidneys. c. It helps to control water and sodium balance. d. It is released in response to low blood pressure. 47. What are the three mechanisms that control or compensate for serum pH? a. Hypothalamus, metabolic changes by digestive system, lymphatic system filtration b. Buffer pairs in blood, change in kidney excretion rate, change in respiration rate c. Neural feedback, increase in heart rate, decrease in calcium intake d. Modification of water intake, increased capillary permeability, decrease in blood volume 48. Hypokalemia refers to a condition in which the serum has a very low level of which ion? a. Sodium b. Phosphate c. Calcium d. Potassium 49. In the blood and extracellular fluids, hypernatremia refers to: a. A deficient sodium level b. An excess phosphate level c. An excess sodium level d. An excessively low phosphate level 50. Increased milk and/or antacid intake can contribute to development of “milk-alkali syndrome,” which can cause which of the following? a. Hyponatremia b. Hyperkalemia c. Hypercalcemia d. Hypovolemia Chapter 16 1. What kind of control mechanism is indicated when increased blood glucose levels stimulate increased secretion of insulin? a. Control by releasing hormones b. Control by tropic hormones c. Negative feedback control d. Hypothalamus/hypophysis coordination 2. What is the most common cause of endocrine disorders? a. Malignant neoplasm b. Infection c. Congenital defect d. Benign tumor 3. Choose the statement that applies to type 1 diabetes mellitus. a. Onset often occurs during childhood. b. Relative insufficiency of insulin or insulin resistance develops. c. It can be treated by diet, weight control and exercise, or oral hypoglycemics. d. Complications rarely occur. 4. Why does polyuria develop with diabetes mellitus? a. Increased thirst and hypoglycemia b. Ketoacidosis c. Osmotic pressure due to glucose d. Diabetic nephropathy 5. What is the cause of diabetic ketoacidosis? a. Excess insulin in the body b. Loss of glucose in the urine c. Failure of the kidney to excrete sufficient acids d. Increased catabolism of fats and proteins 6. What is a precipitating factor for diabetic ketoacidosis? a. Skipping a meal b. Snorexia c. Serious infection d. Insulin overdose 7. Which of the following may cause insulin shock to develop? a. Strenuous exercise b. Missing an insulin dose c. Eating excessively large meals d. Sedentary lifestyle 8. Which of the following indicates hypoglycemia in a diabetic? a. Deep, rapid respirations b. Flushed dry skin and mucosa c. Thirst and oliguria d. Staggering gait, disorientation, and confusion 9. Which of the following are signs of diabetic ketoacidosis in an unconscious person? a. Pale moist skin b. Thirst and poor skin turgor c. Deep rapid respirations and fruity breath odor d. Tremors and strong rapid pulse 10. Immediate treatment for insulin shock may include: a. Administration of bicarbonates. b. Consumption of fruit juice or candy. c. Induced vomiting. d. Consumption of large amounts of water. 11. What causes loss of consciousness in a person with diabetic ketoacidosis? a. Toxic effects of excessive insulin b. Excessive glucose in the blood c. Metabolic acidosis d. Lack of glucose in brain cells 12. Which of the following does NOT usually develop as a complication of diabetes? a. Osteoporosis b. Nephropathy c. Impotence d. Peripheral neuropathy 13. How do many oral hypoglycemic drugs act? a. To replace insulin in patients with insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (IDDM) b. To transport glucose into body cells c. To prevent gluconeogenesis d. To stimulate the pancreas to produce more insulin 14. Diabetes may cause visual impairment through damage to the lens; this is referred to as: a. Cataracts b. Macular degeneration c. Myopia d. Strabismus 15. Which of the following applies to diabetic macro-angiography? (Select all that apply) a. It affects the small arteries and arterioles. b. It is related to elevated serum lipids. c. It leads to increased risk of myocardial infarction and peripheral vascular disease. d. It frequently causes damage to the kidneys. 16. Why is amputation frequently a necessity in diabetics? a. Necrosis and gangrene in the feet and legs b. Lack of glucose to the cells in the feet and legs c. Severe dehydration in the tissues d. Elevated blood glucose increasing blood viscosity 17.A type of diabetes that may develop during pregnancy and disappear after delivery is called: a. Temporary maternal diabetes. b. Fetal diabetes. c. Acute developmental diabetes. d. Gestational diabetes. 18. Which one of the following develops hypoglycemia more frequently? a. Type 1 diabetic patients b. Type 2 diabetic patients c. Patients with a poor stress response d. Patients with a regular exercise and meal plan 19. Which of the following hormonal imbalances causes Addison’s disease? a. Increased glucocorticoids b. Decreased glucocorticoids c. Deficit of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) d. Deficit of T3 and T4 20. Which of the following hormonal imbalances causes myxedema? a. Increased glucocorticoids b. Decreased glucocorticoids c. Deficit of ADH d. Deficit of T3 and T4 21. Which of the following hormonal imbalances causes diabetes insipidus? a. Increased insulin b. Decreased glucocorticoids c. Deficit of ADH d. Deficit of T3 and T4 22. What is caused by hyperparathyroidism? a. Hypocalcemia b. Tetany c. Bone demineralization d. Deficit of vitamin D 23. What is caused by hypocalcemia due to hypoparathyroidism? (Select all that apply) a. Skeletal muscle twitching or spasm b. Weak cardiac contraction c. Increased secretion of parathyroid hormone (PTH) d. Decreased serum phosphate level 24. Which of the following applies to acromegaly? a. It occurs in infants and children. b. It causes excessive longitudinal bone growth. c. It results from excessive secretion of growth hormone (GH). d. It does not change soft tissue growth. 25. Which of the following may cause goiter? (Select all that apply) a. Hyperthyroidism b. Hypothyroidism c. Lack of iodine in the diet d. Pheochromocytoma 26. Which signs are typical of Graves’ disease? a. Facial puffiness, bradycardia, and lethargy b. Exophthalmos and tachycardia c. Delayed physical and intellectual development d. Goiter and decreased basal metabolic rate (BMR) 27. Characteristics of Cushing’s syndrome include all of the following EXCEPT: a. Heavy body and round face b. Atrophied skeletal muscle in the limbs c. Staring eyes with infrequent blinking d. Atrophy of the lymph nodes 28. Which of the following is an effect of long-term glucocorticoid therapy? a. Decreased secretion from the adrenal cortex gland b. An increased inflammatory response to irritants c. Hypotension and poor circulation d. Increased number of hypersensitivity reactions 29. Which of the following is an effect of Addison’s disease? a. Elevated blood glucose levels b. High blood pressure c. Low serum potassium levels d. Poor stress response 30. What is the most common cause of type 1 diabetes mellitus? a. Increased glucose production in the liver b. Destruction of pancreatic cells by an autoimmune reaction c. Increased resistance of body cells to insulin action d. Chronic obesity 31. Why does glucosuria occur in diabetics? a. Excess ketoacids displace glucose into the filtrate. b. Excess water in the filtrate draws more glucose into the urine. c. The amount of glucose in the filtrate exceeds the renal tubule transport limit. d. Sufficient insulin is not available for glucose reabsorption. 32. Which of the following are common early signs of a pituitary adenoma? (Select all that apply) a. Persistent headaches b. Hemianopia c. Hypertension d. Papilledema 33. Which of the following does NOT apply to inappropriate ADH syndrome? a. The cause is excess ADH secretion. b. Severe hyponatremia results. c. Excessive sodium is retained. d. Fluid retention increases. 34. What is/are the effect(s) of thyrotoxic crisis? a. Hyperthermia and heart failure b. Hypotension and hypoglycemia c. Toxic goiter and hypometabolism d. Decreased stress response 35. Which of the following conditions may precipitate or exacerbate hyperglycemia? a. Hypothyroidism b. Cushing’s disease c. Addison’s disease d. Growth hormone deficit 36. Which of the following conditions may cause immunosuppression? a. Graves’ disease b. Acromegaly c. Cushing’s disease d. Diabetes insipidus 37. Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic coma (HHNC) more frequently develops in patients with: a. Type 1 diabetes. b. Type 2 diabetes. c. Grave’s disease. d. Hyperparathyroidism. 38. Which of the following is recommended for immediate treatment of hypoglycemic shock? (Select all that apply) a. If conscious, immediately give sweet fruit juice, honey, candy, or sugar. b. If unconscious, give nothing by mouth (require intravenous glucose 50%). c. Treat immediately with insulin. d. Give large quantity of clear fluids for shock. 39. All these tissues use glucose without the aid of insulin EXCEPT: a. Liver b. Digestive system c. Exercising skeletal muscle d. Brain 40. Differences between type 1 and type 2 diabetes include which of the following? a. Type 1 diabetes weight gain is common, and type 2 weight loss often occurs. b. Type 1 diabetes leads to fewer complications than does type 2 diabetes. c. Type 1 diabetes may be controlled by adjusting dietary intake and exercise, but type 2 diabetes requires insulin replacement. d. Type 1 diabetes occurs more frequently in children and adolescents, and type 2 diabetes occurs more often in adults. 41. Complications of diabetes mellitus include: a. Peripheral neuropathy b. Frequent infections c. Cataracts d. All of the above 42. Which of the following often causes hyperparathyroidism? a. A malignant tumor in the parathyroid glands b. End-stage renal failure c. Osteoporosis d. Radiation involving the thyroid gland and neck area 43. Dwarfism is caused by: a. Excessive levels of somatotropin (GH). b. A deficit of somatotropin (GH). c. Excessive levels of insulin. d. Excessive levels of parathyroid hormone. 44. Which of the following results from a deficit of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)? a. Inappropriate ADH syndrome b. Gigantism c. Diabetes insipidus d. Myxedema 45. Goiters occur more frequently in persons living in the: a. Great Lakes or mountainous regions. b. Southwest United States. c. Temperate regions. d. Areas bordering the oceans. 46. Which of the following is caused by Graves’ disease? a. Hypermetabolism b. Decreased size of thyroid gland c. Bradycardia and hypothermia d. Decreased blood levels of T3, T4, and TSH 47. Goiters may be caused by: a. Hypothyroid conditions only. b. Either hypothyroid or hyperthyroid conditions. c. Hyperthyroid conditions only. d. Fungal infections such as candidiasis. 48. Severe impairment of all aspects of growth and development, including difficulty feeding, mental retardation, and stunted skeletal growth, are associated with: a. Myxedema. b. Cushing’s syndrome. c. Diabetes insipidus. d. Cretinism. e. Graves’ disease. 49.A benign tumor of the adrenal medulla that secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine is called: a. Pheochromocytoma. b. Cushing’s syndrome. c. Graves’ disease. d. Addison’s disease. 50. The anterior pituitary gland secretes all of the following hormones EXCEPT: a. Prolactin (PRL). b. Glucagon. c. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). d. Growth hormone (GH). 51. Which of the following applies to oxytocin? (Select all that apply) a. It stimulates contraction of the uterus after delivery b. It stimulates ejection of breast milk during lactation. c. It stimulates mammary gland production of milk. d. It is released from the adenohypophysis. 52. Which of the following is a major function of the hormone norepinephrine? a. Inhibition of an excessive stress response b. Visceral and cutaneous vasoconstriction c. Increased force of heart contraction d. Vasodilation in skeletal muscle 53. Early signs of hyperglycemia include polyphagia, which means: a. Thirst b. Increased urine output c. Hunger d. Glucose in the urine 54. Which of the following hormones is involved in both the stress response and the anti-inflammatory response? a. Aldosterone b. Norepinephrine c. Thyroxine d. Cortisol 55. Polydipsia occurs with diabetes mellitus when: a. Lack of insulin causes hunger. b. Ketone levels rise in the blood. c. Polyuria causes dehydration. d. Glucosuria causes ketoacidosis. 56. Metabolic syndrome is marked by: a. Abnormal lipid and glucose metabolism. b. Periodic hypotension. c. Deficit of glucagon. d. Early onset of type 1 diabetes mellitus. 57. Compensation mechanisms occurring in the early stage of diabetic ketoacidosis include: a. Kussmaul’s respirations. b. Polydipsia c. Ketonuria d. Seizures 58. Which of the following may occur with a pituitary adenoma? a. Low blood pressure and bradycardia b. Headache and seizures c. Vomiting and diarrhea d. Loss of vision in one eye 59. Which of the following may cause hypertension? a. Hypoparathyroidism b. Hypoglycemia c. Pheochromocytoma d. Addison’s disease 60. Catabolic effects of Cushing’s syndrome include: a. Osteoporosis b. Hypertension c. Increased erythrocyte production d. Moon face and buffalo hump 61. Blood glucose levels are increased by: (Select all that apply) a. Glucocorticoids b. Glucagon c. Epinephrine d. Norepinephrine e. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) 62. Which of the following are likely present in a patient immobilized for a long period of time? a. Hypocalcemia and low serum parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels b. Hypocalcemia and high serum PTH levels c. Hypercalcemia and low serum PTH levels d. Hypercalcemia and high serum PTH levels 63. Which of the following may cause high serum levels of parathyroid hormone? a. Hypoparathhyroidism b. Chronic renal failure c. Hypercalcemia d. Adenoma in the thyroid gland 64. Diabetic retinopathy results from: a. Degeneration of large blood vessels supplying the eye. b. Abnormal metabolism in the lens of the eye. c. Neuropathy affecting the optic nerve. d. Obstruction or rupture of retinal blood vessels. 65. Why does hypocalcemia cause tetany? a. Skeletal muscle contractions are weaker. b. Nerves to skeletal muscle are more excitable. c. Calcium is not stored in skeletal muscle cells. d. Serum phosphate levels are low Chapter 14 1. Through what area does the cerebrospinal fluid circulate around the brain and spinal cord? a. Between the double layers of the dura mater b. In the subdural space c. In the subarachnoid space d. Through the arachnoid villi 2. Which of the following is the usual location of language centers? a. Left hemisphere b. Right hemisphere c. Brainstem d. Hypothalamus 3. What would be the effect of damage to the auditory association area in the left hemisphere? a. Loss of hearing in both ears b. Inability to understand what is hears c. Loss of hearing in the left ear d. Inability to determine the source of sound 4. Which of the following applies to the corticospinal tract? a. It is an ascending tract b. The nerve fibers conduct sensory impulses c. It is an extrapyramidal tract d. It is a pyramidal tract for efferent impulses 5. What is a major function of the limbic system? a. Overall control of fluid balance b. Required for logical thinking, reason, and decision making c. Determines emotional responses d. Responsible for artistic and musical talents 6. Where are 1-adrenergic receptors located? a. Bronchiolar walls b. Arteriolar walls c. Cardiac muscle d. Glands of the intestinal tract 7. What does a vegetative state refer to? a. Depression of the reticular activating system (RAS) and inability to initiate action b. Loss of awareness and intellectual function but continued brainstem function c. Continuing intellectual function but inability to communicate or move d. Disorientation and confusion with decreased responsiveness 8. Which of the following conditions is NOT part of the criteria for a declaration of “brain death”? a. No activity on EEG b. Absence of all reflexes c. No spontaneous respirations d. Presence of any head injury 9. What is the best definition of aphasia? a. The inability to comprehend or express language appropriately b. Difficulty swallowing c. Loss of the visual field contralateral to the area of damage d. The inability to articulate words clearly 10. What is an early indicator of increased intracranial pressure? a. Papilledema b. Bilateral fixed dilated pupils c. Decreased responsiveness d. Rapid heart rate 11. What is the rationale for vomiting in a patient who has increased intracranial pressure? a. Chemoreceptors responding to changes in the blood b. Pressure extending to spinal nerves c. Pressure on the emetic center in the medulla d. Stimuli to the hypothalamic center for hunger and thirst 12. What is the typical change in blood pressure in a patient who has increased intracranial pressure? a. Erratic diastolic pressure b. Decreasing systolic pressure c. Systolic and diastolic pressures decreasing proportionately d. Increasing pulse pressure 13. The largest category of primary malignant brain tumors that arise from cells in the central nervous system (CNS) are called: a. Gliomas b. Sarcomas c. Lymphomas d. Myelomas 14. Which of the following causes papilledema? a. Increased pressure of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) at the optic disc b. Increased intraocular pressure c. Pressure on the oculomotor nerve d. Pressure on the optic chiasm 15. What is the effect of an enlarging brain abscess on cardiovascular activity? a. Increased heart rate and systemic vasodilation b. Low blood pressure and irregular heart and respiratory rates c. Systemic vasoconstriction and slower heart rate d. Immediate depression of the cardiac control centers 16. As intracranial pressure rises, the pupil of the eye, ipsilateral to the lesion, becomes dilated and unresponsive to light because of pressure on the: a. Optic nerve b. Peripheral nervous system (PSNS) fibers in cranial nerve III c. Sympathetic nervous system (SNS) nerve to the eye d. Occipital lobe 17. Which of the following characteristics indicates that the CSF is normal? a. Cloudy and pale yellow color b. Presence of erythrocytes c. Presence of numerous leukocytes d. Clear and colorless fluid 18. Which of the following statements is TRUE about malignant brain tumors? a. Most brain tumors arise from malignant neurons. b. Primary brain tumors rarely metastasize outside the CNS. c. The blood-brain barrier prevents secondary brain tumors. d. Brainstem tumors do not manifest signs until they are quite large. 19. Secondary brain tumors usually arise from: a. Severe head trauma b. Metastasized breast or lung tumors c. Exposure to carcinogenic agents d. Exposure to radiation 20. Why are focal or generalized seizures sometimes an early indication of a brain tumor? a. Surrounding inflammation stimulates neurons to discharge spontaneously. b. Malignant tumors cause alkalosis, exciting the CNS. c. Systemic effects of the brain tumor may cause seizures. d. Metabolic effects of cancer change blood chemistry to trigger seizures. 21. Which of the following is a TRUE statement about transient ischemic attacks (TIAs)? a. They usually cause necrosis and permanent brain damage. b. They may be caused by rupture of an aneurysm or a damaged artery. c. They usually indicate systemic hypertension. d. They can warn of potential cerebrovascular accidents. 22. What is the probable source of an embolus causing a cerebrovascular accident (CVA)? a. Right ventricle of the heart b. Femoral vein c. Common carotid artery d. Pulmonary artery 23. Collateral circulation is most likely to be present when a CVA results from: a. Rupture of a cerebral artery b. An embolus c. Atherosclerosis d. Vasospasm in the cerebral circulation 24. All of the following apply to CVA EXCEPT: a. The common cause is an atheroma with thrombus. b. Maximum necrosis and infarction develop within several hours of onset. c. Warning signs may appear with partial obstruction of the artery. d. Increasing neurological deficits usually develop during the first few days. 25. Signs and symptoms of a stroke depend upon: a. Location of obstruction, size of artery, and area affected b. Duration of the blockage, distance from the heart, and type of obstruction c. Health of the victim, area affected, and collateral circulation d. Size of the obstruction, condition of the heart, and duration of blockage 26. In the weeks following CVA, why might some neurological function return? (Select all that apply) a. Presence of collateral circulation b. Immediate therapy to dissolve thrombi and maintain perfusion c. Reduced inflammation in the area d. Development of alternative neuronal pathways 27. Which of the following statements about berry aneurysms in the brain is NOT true? a. They usually develop at points of bifurcation in the circle of Willis. b. They are usually asymptomatic for many years. c. CSF remains free of blood. d. Following rupture, blood appears in the subarachnoid space. 28. In a case of bacterial meningitis, where does swelling and purulent exudate form? a. In the pia mater, arachnoid, and surface of the entire brain b. In the dura mater and epidural space c. At the site of the injury or entry point of the microbes d. Primarily around the spinal cord 29. What are significant signs of acute bacterial meningitis? a. Severe headache, nuchal rigidity, and photophobia b. Fatigue and lethargy, fever, and anorexia c. Focal signs, such as progressive paralysis in a limb d. Ascending paralysis beginning in the legs 30. In many types of encephalitis, such as St. Louis encephalitis, how are the viruses transmitted? a. Carriers b. Mosquito and tick bites c. Respiratory droplet d. Septic emboli in the circulation 31. All of the following apply to tetanus infection EXCEPT: a. It is caused by an anaerobic, spore-forming bacillus b. The exotoxin causes strong skeletal muscle spasms c. Death usually results from respiratory failure d. Signs of fever, vomiting, stiff neck, and paralysis 32. In cases of Guillain-Barré syndrome, what does the pathophysiology include? a. Damage and loss of function in the motor neurons of the spinal cord and medulla b. Encephalopathy, with disorientation, headache, and coma c. Infection and inflammation of the motor cortex d. Inflammation and demyelination of peripheral nerves, leading to ascending paralysis 33. How does a depressed skull fracture cause brain damage? a. A bone fragment penetrates and tears brain tissue. b. A section of the skull is missing, leaving the brain unprotected. c. A section of skull bone is displaced below the level of the skull, causing pressure on the brain. d. Many fracture lines are present, causing instability. e. The contrecoup injury is the cause of brain damage. 34. Following a head injury, what is the most likely cause of secondary damage to the brain? a. Hematoma or infection b. Laceration by foreign objects c. Hypoxia or acidosis d. Tearing of blood vessels as the brain rotates across the inside of the skull 35. An epidural hematoma is located between the: a. Dura mater and the arachnoid mater b. Dura mater and the skull c. Arachnoid mater and the pia mater d. Pia mater and the brain 36. What does the term otorrhea mean? a. Bleeding from the nose b. CSF leaking from the ear c. Torn meninges but no skull fracture d. Hemorrhage from the ear 37. Vertebral fractures are classified as: a. Simple, compression, wedge, dislocation b. Compound, open, closed, shattered c. Complex, torsion, open, multiple d. Pressure, complex, simple, variable 38. Following a spinal injury at C5, what is the expected effect during the period of spinal shock? a. Spastic paralysis below the level of injury b. Urinary incontinence c. Labile body temperature d. Increased sensation in the legs 39. Following an injury at L2 to L3, what would indicate recovery from spinal shock? a. Spastic paraplegia b. Urinary retention c. Labile body temperature d. Increased sensation in the legs 40. What are the signs of autonomic dysreflexia in a person with cervical spinal injury? a. Unexpected drop in blood pressure and apnea b. Sudden marked increase in blood pressure with bradycardia c. Hyperreflexia in the arms and legs d. Urinary and bowel incontinence 41. Expressive aphasia is most likely to result from damage to: a. The left frontal lobe b. The left temporal lobe c. The right motor cortex d. Wernicke’s area 42. What is the usual result of damage to the right occipital lobe? a. Left eye is blind b. Loss of left visual field c. Right eye is blind d. Visual loss in the medial half of each eye 43. How does the heart rate change as intracranial pressure increases? a. Rate decreases b. Rate increases c. No change in rate d. Irregular heart rate 44. Which statement best describes herniation resulting from increased intracranial pressure? a. Movement of brain tissue into ventricles b. Movement of brain stem upward c. Pushing of excess CSF and blood down around the spinal cord d. Displacement of brain tissue downward toward the spinal cord 45. Which type of cerebrovascular accident (CVA) has the poorest prognosis? a. CVA caused by thrombus b. Hemorrhagic CVA c. Embolic CVA d. No difference among types 46. Which of the following factors predispose(s) an individual to a CVA? (Select all that apply) a. Hypertension b. Smoking cigarettes c. History of coronary artery disease d. Diabetes mellitus 47. What are the significant early signs of a ruptured cerebral aneurysm? a. Impaired speech and muscle weakness b. Severe headache, nuchal rigidity, and photophobia c. Abnormal sensations and tremors d. Vomiting and visual abnormalities 48. The stroke scale used to rapidly diagnose a stroke includes: a. Capacity for speech, level of consciousness, motor skills, eye movements. b. Motor skills, spatial awareness, time awareness, facial recognition. c. Short-term memory, cognitive skills, speech, name recognition. d. Hand-eye coordination, problem solving, ability to stand or walk, consciousness. 49. With regard to meningitis, choose the correct combination of microbe and the age group commonly affected. a. E. coli: elderly b. H. influenzae: neonate c. N. meningitides: children and youth d. S. pneumoniae: young children 50. Which of the following statements applies to a lumbar puncture? a. It is usually performed at L3-L4. b. Fluid is withdrawn from the epidural space. c. It can be used to confirm any diagnosis. d. The tissue seals up immediately after puncture. 51. Which signs are indicative of post-polio syndrome? a. Progressive spastic paralysis b. Ascending flaccid paralysis c. Progressive fatigue and weakness d. Increasing numbness and paresthesias 52. Which of the following does NOT apply to Reye’s syndrome? a. There is no permanent damage in the body b. It is precipitated by a combination of viral infection and administration of acetylsalicylic acid (ASA). c. Cerebral edema develops. d. Liver damage is common. 53. Which type of fracture typically occurs at the base of the skull? a. Depressed b. Contrecoup c. Comminuted d. Basilar 54. The primary reason for seizures frequently occurring with head injuries is: a. Presence of blood irritates the neurons. b. Otorrhea or rhinorrhea changes intracranial pressure. c. Inflammatory response causes general hypoxia. d. CNS is depressed 55. Brain injury where the brain is injured when it bounces off of the skull due to sudden acceleration or deceleration is referred to as a/an: a. Linear fracture b. Contusion c. Basilar injury d. Contrecoup injury 56. The rabies virus is usually transmitted by: a. Respiratory droplets b. Insects such as mosquitos c. Bites from infected animals d. The fecal-oral route 57. Common manifestations of rabies infection include: a. Headache, foaming at the mouth, and difficulty swallowing. b. Difficulty walking and coordinating movements. c. Decreased sensitivity to sound and touch. d. Vomiting, liver and kidney damage. 58. Which statement is TRUE about tetanus infection? a. It is caused by a virus b. Infection usually develops in deep puncture wounds c. It causes flaccid skeletal muscles, impairing mobility d. It affects peripheral nerves initially in the legs and feet 59. Which of the following impairments results from infection by the polio virus? a. Pain and paresthesia in a cranial nerve or dermatome b. Loss of motor and sensory function in the peripheral nerves c. Inflammation and increased intracranial pressure d. Loss of function of motor neurons of the spinal cord and medulla 60. Herpes zoster can be identified by a typical: a. Unilateral rash and pain along a cranial nerve or dermatome b. Weakness and muscle atrophy in the legs c. Ascending paralysis commencing in the legs d. Skeletal muscle spasms in the face and neck 61. Which of the following conditions is marked by focal signs? a. Meningitis b. Brain abscess c. Encephalitis d. Intracerebral hemorrhage 62. Typical signs of a TIA include: a. Rapidly increasing intracranial pressure b. Loss of consciousness c. Transient muscle weakness in a hand or leg d. Headache, photophobia, and nuchal rigidity 63. In cases of noncommunicating hydrocephalus, why does excess cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) accumulate? a. Absorption of CSF through the arachnoid villi is impaired. b. Excessive amounts of CSF are produced in the ventricles. c. An obstruction is present in the aqueduct of Sylvius or other channel. d. Flow around the spinal cord is blocked. 64. All of the following are typical signs of hydrocephalus in the neonate EXCEPT: a. Enlarged head with bulging fontanels b. Vomiting, headache, and paralysis c. Irritability and feeding difficulties d. Eyes turned downward with sclerae showing above the pupils 65. The best description of a myelomeningocele is: a. Asymptomatic failure of the posterior spinous processes of the vertebrae to fuse. b. Herniation of the meninges through a vertebral defect. c. Herniation of the meninges, CSF, and spinal cord or nerves through a vertebral defect. d. Herniation of brain tissue through a defect in the cranium. 66. How is the presence of spina bifida diagnosed? a. Prenatally by ultrasound or detection of alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) in maternal blood or amniotic fluid b. Only after birth by direct observation of the sac c. After birth when the sac herniates as CSF builds up d. Only with a spinal X-ray 67. What characteristic is common to all individuals with cerebral palsy? a. Some loss of cognitive function b. One or more types of seizure c. Serious multiple communication difficulties d. Some degree of motor disability 68. Which of the following applies to cerebral palsy? a. Nonprogressive brain damage to the fetus or neonate b. A genetic defect affecting metabolism and causing degeneration in the neurons c. A developmental error during early growth of the peripheral nervous system d. A chromosomal defect resulting in abnormalities in many body structures 69. Which of the following is characteristic of generalized seizures? a. The localization of the seizure activity b. The uncontrolled discharge of neurons in both hemispheres c. Seizures that persist for several hours d. Loss of consciousness and all motor function 70. From the following, choose the two events (in correct sequence) that immediately follow the aura during a tonic-clonic event: a. Prodromal signs, then the clonic stage b. Clonic stage, then the tonic stage c. Loss of consciousness, then the tonic stage d. Loss of consciousness and cessation of respiration 71. What does the clonic stage of a seizure consist of? a. A sudden strong skeletal muscle contraction and rigidity of trunk and limbs b. A cry and contraction of abdominal and thoracic muscles c. Alternating contractions and relaxation of skeletal muscles d. Cessation of all skeletal muscle activity 72. How would a seizure consisting of bizarre or inappropriate activity be classified? a. Absence seizure b. Psychomotor seizure c. Focal seizure d. Jacksonian seizure 73. Which of the following is characteristic of multiple sclerosis? a. Remissions and exacerbations b. Predictable pattern of progression in all patients c. Onset in men and women more than 60 years of age d. Full recovery of function during remissions 74. Which statement does NOT apply to the pathophysiology of multiple sclerosis? a. Demyelination of axons b. It affects the brain, spinal cord, and cranial nerves c. It affects motor, sensory, and autonomic fibers d. Progressive random degeneration of peripheral nerves 75. Which of the following are common early signs of multiple sclerosis? a. Paralysis of the lower body, impaired cognitive function b. Areas of numbness, weakness in the legs, visual problems c. Sensory deficit in the legs and trunk, memory loss, urinary incontinence d. Tremors, speech impairment, hearing loss 76. Which of the following applies to Parkinson’s disease? a. Usually develops in men and women over 60 years of age. b. There is no apparent genetic component. c. The majority of cases are predisposed by intake of antipsychotic medications. d. It rarely develops in women 77. What is the pathophysiological change in Parkinson’s disease? a. Degeneration of motor fibers in the pyramidal tracts b. Excess secretion of stimulatory neurotransmitters in the CNS c. Degeneration of the basal nuclei with a deficit of dopamine d. Deficit of acetylcholine and degeneration of the motor cortex in the frontal lobe 78. Which of the following are common early manifestations of Parkinson’s disease? a. Tremors at rest in the hands and repetitive motion of the hands b. Extreme weakness in the legs and spastic movements in the arms c. Visual deficits and speech impairment d. Loss of facial expressions and altered posture and gait 79. In which type of neuron is progressive degeneration occurring with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)? a. Upper motor neurons b. Upper and lower motor neurons c. Motor and sensory neurons d. Motor, sensory, and autonomic system neurons 80. Which of the following statements does NOT apply to myasthenia gravis? a. The cholinergic receptors at the neuromuscular junctions are damaged. b. It is an autoimmune disorder. c. Muscle weakness and fatigue occur in the face and neck. d. Dementia develops in the later stage. 81. Which statement applies to Huntington’s disease? a. It is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait. b. It is manifested in individuals by age 20 years. c. It presents with choreiform movements in the upper body and decreased ability to concentrate. d. It causes decreased levels of all neurotransmitters in the CNS. 82. What are the characteristic changes in the brain of a patient with Alzheimer’s disease? a. Cortical atrophy with plaques and neurofibrillary tangles, impairing conduction b. Increased acetylcholine (ACh) and decreased GABA and serotonin levels c. Obstruction of many small arteries and arterioles throughout the cerebral cortex d. Vacuoles forming in the neurons, rapidly destroying them 83. Which disease is associated with excessive dopamine secretion, decreased gray matter in the temporal lobes, and abnormal hippocampal cells in the brain? a. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease b. Schizophrenia c. Panic disorder d. Depression 84. In which disorders do biochemical abnormalities involving the neurotransmitters in the brain occur? (Select all that apply) a. Bipolar disorder b. Schizophrenia c. Huntington’s disease d. AIDS dementia 85. Which of the following are typical characteristics associated with schizophrenia? a. Disorganized thought processes, short attention span, delusions b. Lack of energy and motivation, poor concentration, insomnia c. Hyperventilation, tachycardia, intense anxiety d. Memory loss, mood swings, hostile behavior 86. What is the typical initial effect of a herniated intervertebral disc at the L4 to L5 level? a. Back pain and weakness at waist level b. Muscle weakness in both legs c. Lower back pain radiating down the leg d. Urinary incontinence 87. What causes a herniated intervertebral disc? a. A tear in the nucleus pulposus b. A protrusion of the nucleus pulposus through the annulus fibrosis c. Displacement of the annulus fibrosis between the laminae d. Failure of the spinous processes to restrict movement of the intervertebral disc 88. Which of the following dietary supplements has reduced the incidence of spina bifida in recent years? a. Vitamin B6 b. Folic acid c. Vitamins A and D d. Zinc and magnesium 89. Which of the following is the most common cause of brain damage in children with cerebral palsy? a. Hyperbilirubinemia b. Hypoglycemia c. Hypoxia d. Trauma 90. The ataxic form of cerebral palsy results from damage to the: a. Cerebellum b. Motor cortex c. Basal nuclei d. Pyramidal tracts 91. Which of the following is used to confirm the diagnosis of, and classify, seizures? a. Characteristics of the aura b. Presence of precipitating factors c. Electroencephalogram d. Changes in the characteristics of cerebrospinal fluid 92. Which statement does NOT apply to status epilepticus? a. Seizures are recurrent or continuous without full recovery between episodes. b. Severe hypoxia and acidosis develop. c. Person does not lose consciousness during seizure. d. If the episode persists, there may be additional brain damage. 93. Which type of seizure commonly occurs in children? a. Absence b. Tonic-clonic c. Focal d. Complex partial 94. All of the following may precipitate a seizure EXCEPT: a. Hypoglycemia b. Hypoventilation c. Brain abscess d. High fever in young children 95. Which of the following is NOT a typical effect of advanced Parkinson’s disease? a. Difficulty chewing and swallowing b. Urinary retention c. Loss of vision d. Orthostatic hypotension 96. Which of the following is a typical early sign of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)? a. Impaired ventilation b. Cognitive impairment c. Poor control of eye movement d. Weakness and muscle atrophy in upper limbs 97. Which of the following classes of drugs may provide temporary improvement in cases of myasthenia gravis? a. Skeletal muscle relaxants b. Dopamine replacement drugs c. Anticholinesterase agents d. GABA replacement drugs 98. Which of the following are typical early signs of Alzheimer’s disease? (Select all that apply) a. Behavioral changes b. Reduced ability to reason and problem solve c. Decreased verbal responses d. Urinary incontinence 99. Which of the following is NOT considered to be a common contributing factor to AIDS dementia? a. Invasion of the central nervous system by HIV b. Development of arteriosclerosis c. Secondary toxoplasmosis infection d. Development of cerebral lymphoma 100. Communicating hydrocephalus causes increased intracranial pressure because of: a. Atresia at the foramen magnum b. Failure of the subarachnoid to absorb CSF c. Obstruction in the lumbar area of the spinal cord d. Scar tissue from encephalitis blocking flow od CSF 101. Failure of the spinous processes to fuse, but without herniation of the meninges, is called: a. Spina bifida occulta b. Meningocele c. Myelomeningocele d. Encephalocele 102. Which statement is TRUE about amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)? a. Cognitive function remains normal b. ALS affects primarily young women c. Sensory neurons are damaged initially d. Cause of death is usually cardiac arrhythmia 103. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is caused by: a. Inheritance of an autosomal dominant trait. b. Infection in the brain by HIV. c. An autoimmune reaction that damages nerve receptors. d. Infection in the brain by a prion. 104. Huntington’s disease is diagnosed by: a. Urinalysis b. Motor skills test c. DNA analysis d. Antibody agglutination test 105. Which statement is TRUE about depression? a. It is classified as a mood disorder. b. Episodes of intense fear are recurrent. c. It is marked by increased appetite and libido. d. It is not a common condition. [Show More]

Last updated: 2 years ago

Preview 1 out of 23 pages