South University NSG 6440 Predictor test latest 2020 with complete solution.A LEVEL EXAM

South University NSG 6440 Predictor test latest 2020 with complete solution.A LEVEL EXAM. Predictor test 1) A 15 years old high school student with a mild sore throat and low-grade fever that h as persisted for about 3 w ...

South University NSG 6440 Predictor test latest 2020 with complete solution.A LEVEL EXAM. Predictor test 1) A 15 years old high school student with a mild sore throat and low-grade fever that h as persisted for about 3 weeks. She reports general malaise, fatigue, and loss of appetite. The NP suspects mononucleosis. Which of the following is the LEAST appropriate intervention? a. Palpate the lymph nodes and spleen b. Examine the posterior oropharynx for petechiae c. Obtain a CBC, throat culture, and heterophil antibody test. d. Obtain an urinalyses and serum for LFTs and amylase Explanation: mononucleosis is a symptomatic infection caused by the Epstein-Bar virus. Common is people 15-24 years of age. Common signs and symptoms following incubation period (1-2 months) include fatigue, chills, malaise, anorexia, white tonsillar exudates and lymphadenopathy or posterior cervical region. Splenomegaly can be present. A maculopapular or occasionally a petechial rash occurs in less than 15% of patients. A diagnosis is usually made using the Monospot. In addition, neutropenia and lymphocytosis are usually detected in the CBC. 2) A 32 years old male patient complaint of urinary frequency and burning on urination for 3 days. Urinalyses reveals bacteriuria and positive nitrites. He denies any past hx. Of urinary tract infections. The initial treatment should be: a. trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim, Sulfatrim) for 7-10 day b. ciprofloxacin (Cipro) for 3-5 days c. Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole for 3 days d. 750 mg ciprofloxacin as a one-time dose Explanation: trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMPS) is usually n appropriate medication to treat urinary tract infections in most patients. In the case of community resistance to TMPS >20%^, another medication should be substituted. In men, the appropriate length of time is 7-10 days. Women may be treated for 3 days for uncomplicated UTI 3) Which agent is most effective for the treatment of nodulocystic acne? a. Benzoyl peroxide (Benzac) b. Retinoic acid (Retin A) c. Topical tetracycline d. Isotretinoin) Explanation: Isotretinoin (Accutane) is a systemic agent indicated for treatment with severe inflammatory acne. Guidelines for its use must be clearly understood by the patient. A woman of childbearing age must use an effective method of contraception because isotretinoin is teratogenic. There are many restrictions in prescribing this medication because of the teratogenic effects is given during pregnancy. Therefore, it is a pregnancy category X. 4) An 18 y/o woman is taking a combined hormonal oral contraceptive. She should be instructed to use a backup method for the prevention of pregnancy a. Throughout the week of placebo pills b. If prescribed topiramate (Topamax) for the treatment of migraines. c. If prescribed amoxicillin/clavulanate (Augmentin) for a sinus infection d. if she forgets to take a single dose of the contraceptive Explanation: Anticonvulsant including phenytoin (Dilantin), carbamazepine (Tegretol), primidone (Mysoline), topiramate (Topamax) and oxcarbazepine (Trileptal) reduce the effectiveness of contraceptives. Depo-medroxyprogesterone acetate injections or levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine devices would be a better method of contraceptive for patients taking anticonvulsants. Most commonly used antibiotics have not been proven to reduce the effectiveness of contraceptives. Rifampin is an exception, and additional …. Be used by women taking this drug and using oral contraceptives, transdermal, or vaginal ring preparations. Additional backup contraception should be used if taking antifungal agents. No additional protection is needed thought the week of placebo pills. Missing one single dose of contraceptive does not require additional protection, missing more than one doses does. 5) A 44 years old female patient has diabetes. Her total cholesterol (TC) is 250 mg/dl (6.5 mmol/L), LDL= 190 mg/dL (4.94 mmol/L), HDL= 25 mg/dL (65 mmol/L), and triglycerides= 344 mg/dL (8.94 mmol/L). What agent have the greatest effect on improving her lipid profile and reducing morbidity and mortality associates with dyslipidemia? a. Niacin (Niaspan) b. Atorvastatin c. Omega 3 fatty acids d. Fenofibrates Explanation: First and foremost, it is essential to educate individuals on a heart-healthy lifestyle. LDL-C is one of the major culprits in the development of atherosclerotic heart disease. The target level of LDL-C is between 50 to 70mg/dl to prevent plaque formation in the blood vessels. Guidelines strongly recommend statin therapy because they primarily lower LDL-C levels, but they also have the secondary effects of lowering triglyceride and increasing HDL-C levels. ...............................CONTINUED DOWNLOAD TO BOOST YOUR GRADES...............