EXAM 1/ (Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathophysiology Test Bank) /Test Bank Exam Tested Questions and Answers

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Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathophysiology Test Bank TRUE/FALSE 1.Normal ranges for physiologic parameters are arbitrarily defined based on population sampling. ANS: T 2. Values outside the no... rmal range for a particular variable are always indicative of disease. ANS: F 3. Illness and disease always coexist. ANS: F 4. Normalcy is culturally defined. ANS: T 5. A change in a physiologic variable is more significant than the absolute values. ANS: T 6. Most homeostatic mechanisms function via positive feedback loops. ANS: F 7. Homeostatic control mechanisms function primarily during disease states. ANS: F 8. Epidemiology is the study of disease expression in individuals. ANS: F 9. The etiology and pathogenesis of most disease states have been well defined by research. ANS: F 10. Individuals experiencing the same disease process exhibit the same clinical manifestations. ANS: F MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. C.Q. was recently exposed to group A hemolytic Streptococcus and subsequently developed a pharyngeal infection. His clinic examination reveals an oral temperature of 102.3° F, skin rash, and reddened throat mucosa with multiple pustules. He complains of sore throat, malaise, and joint stiffness. A throat culture is positive for Streptococcus, and antibiotics have been prescribed. The etiology of C.Q.’s disease is a . a sore throat. b . streptococcal infection. c . genetic susceptibility. d . pharyngitis. ANS: B 2. Which of the following is a statement about disease pathogenesis? a . Pharyngitis is caused by group A hemolytic Streptococcus infection. b . Streptococcal infection activates immune cells, leading to inflammation. c . Sore throat and mucosal inflammation are common signs and symptoms of pharyngeal infection. d . Antibiotics are the treatment of choice for streptococcal infection. ANS: B 3. Which of the following assessment findings indicates an alteration in homeostatic control mechanisms? a . Fever b . Throat pain c . Joint stiffness d Positive throat culture . ANS: A 4. Most homeostatic mechanisms function on a negative-feedback principle, which facilitates a . minimal response to environmental changes. b . an amplified response. c . a rapid response rate. d . steady-state stability. ANS: D 5. A 17-year-old college-bound student receives a vaccine against an organism that causes meningitis. This is an example of a . primary prevention. b . secondary prevention. c . tertiary prevention. d . disease treatment. ANS: A 6. An obese but otherwise healthy teen is given a prescription for a low-calorie diet and exercise program. This is an example of a . primary prevention. b . secondary prevention. c . tertiary prevention. d . disease treatment. ANS: B 7. A patient with high blood pressure who is otherwise healthy is counseled to restrict sodium intake. This is an example of a . primary prevention. b . secondary prevention. c . tertiary prevention. d . disease treatment. ANS: B 8. After suffering a heart attack, a middle-aged man is counseled to take a cholesterol- lowering medication. This is an example of a . primary prevention. b . secondary prevention. c . tertiary prevention. d . disease treatment. ANS: C MATCHING Match the following terms with the descriptions below (not all letters will be used). a . Idiopathic b . Iatrogenic c . Morbidity d . Syndrome e . Sequela f. Remission g . Complication h . Exacerbation i. Subclinical j. Endemic k . Pandemic l. Etiology m . Epidemic n . Epidemiology 1. The conditions or illnesses associated with a disease 2. A set of symptoms that occur together 3. A disorder of unknown cause 4. An abatement or decline in disease manifestations 5. A disease that is continuously present in a particular region 6. An epidemic that distributes to a large geographic area 7. An adverse condition occurring as a result of medical intervention 8. Common problems following a disease process 9. The known cause of a disease process 10. A new disease process arising secondarily to another disease 11. An absence of clinical manifestations despite the presence of a disease 12. An increase in the severity of disease signs and symptoms 1. ANS: C 2. ANS: D 3. ANS: A 4. ANS: F 5. ANS: J 6. ANS: K 7. ANS: B 8. ANS: E 9. ANS: L 10. ANS: G 11. ANS: I 12. ANS: H Systemic sign of disease: fever in addition to disease or illness which of the following facts may cause variation in physiologic parameters: age , geographic location genetics and genderdi epidemiology: science of tracking the occurrence and distribution of diseases Chapter 4: Cell Injury, Aging, and Death Test Bank TRUE/FALSE 1. Cellular accumulation of water occurs with Na+-K+ pump dysfunction. ANS: T 2. Chaperone proteins (heat-shock proteins) help misfolded proteins refold correctly. ANS: T 3. Ubiquitin is a protein that attaches to cellular proteins and targets them to the lysosomes. ANS: F 4. Proteosomes digest intracellular proteins into small peptide fragments. ANS: T 5. Metaplasia is an irreversible process. ANS: F 6. Cellular hypertrophy is an increase in cell number. ANS: F 7. Apoptosis is a form of programmed cell death associated with cell membrane rupture and inflammation. ANS: F 8. Apoptosis may be initiated by withdrawal of survival signals from a cell. ANS: T 9. Gangrene is a term applied to large areas of necrotic tissue. ANS: T 10. In normal somatic cells, the telomeres shorten with each cell division. ANS: T MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Hydropic swelling results from a . membrane rupture. b . ATP accumulation. c . oncogene activation. d . Na+-K+ pump dysfunction. ANS: D 2. An increase in cardiac size and function due to increased workload is termed a . atrophy. b . hypertrophy. c . functional. d . inflammation. ANS: B 3. Coagulative necrosis a . resembles crumbly cheese. b . can result from interrupted blood supply. c . is reversible if promptly and aggressively managed. d . remains functional for 5 to 7 days. ANS: B 4. Apoptosis is a process that results in cellular a . atrophy. b . death. c . proliferation. d . mutation. ANS: B 5. All of the following are potentially reversible cellular responses except a . necrosis. b . metaplasia. c . atrophy. d . hyperplasia. ANS: A 6. Necrotic death of brain tissue usually produces necrosis. a . coagulative b . caseous c . liquefactive d . fat ANS: C 7. Which of the following cellular responses is indicative of injury due to faulty metabolism? a . Hydropic swelling b . Lactate production c . Metaplasia d . Intracellular accumulations ANS: D 8. A high serum lactate level (lactic acidosis) usually indicates the presence of a . liver failure. b . hypoglycemia. c . immunologic injury. d . cellular hypoxia. ANS: D 9. Injury that occurs when blood flow is restored to previously ischemic tissues is called injury. a . hypoxemic b . reperfusion c hyperemic . d . compensatory ANS: B 10. In general, aging tissues are less capable of a . regeneration. b . neoplastic growth. c . hypertrophy. d . transformation. ANS: A 11. Metaplasia is a . the replacement of one differentiated cell type with another. b . the transformation of a cell type to malignancy. c . an irreversible cellular adaptation. d . the disorganization of cells into various sizes, shapes, and arrangements. ANS: A 12. Which of the following cellular changes is considered to be preneoplastic? a . Anaplasia b . Dysplasia c . Metaplasia d . Hyperplasia ANS: B 13. Which of the following statements about necrosis and apoptosis is true? a . Necrosis causes cell rupture with release of intracellular contents, but apoptosis does not. b . Both necrosis and apoptosis are always pathologic processes. c . Both necrosis and apoptosis can occur in cells that are incapable of energy production and protein synthesis. d . Apoptosis triggers an inflammatory reaction, but necrosis does not. ANS: A 14. The enzymes responsible for degrading key intracellular structures during apoptosis are called a . phosphatases. b . phosphodiesterases. c . apoptosis. d . caspases. ANS: D 15. Ubiquitin is a protein that binds to intracellular proteins and targets them for a . export to the cell membrane. b . transport to the mitochondria. c . degradation in the proteosomes. d . degradation in the peroxisomes. ANS: C 16. A critical factor in the mechanisms of reperfusion injury is a . hydropic swelling. b sodium overload. . c . calcium overload. d . lactate accumulation. ANS: C 17. The mechanism of radiation-induced injury includes all of the following except a . ionization (radiolysis). b . direct breakage of chemical bonds. c . cell lysis. d . heat production. ANS: C 18. When p53 protein accumulates within a cell, it may trigger a . cell lysis. b . mitosis. c . necrosis. d . apoptosis. ANS: D 19. The extrinsic theories of aging suggest that aging occurs because of a . genetically programmed cell senescence. b . shortening of chromosome telomeres. c . an internal clock within the hypothalamic-pituitary system. d . environmentally induced damage to cells. ANS: D 20. Somatic death refers to death a . of a body organ. b . of the entire organism. c . of nerve cells. d . secondary to brain damage. ANS: B HYoertrophy of the heart would be related to increase in the size of the individual cells What information should parents be given about the consequences of PKU? Failure to avoid phenylalanine results in progressive mental retardation. which of the following can cause cell injury or death? 1. hypoxia 2. exposure to excessive cold 3. excessive pressure on tissue 4. chemical toxins answer: 1,2,3,4 Chapter 6: Genetic and Developmental Disorders Test Bank TRUE/FALSE 1. Genotype refers to the specific set of gene alleles an individual possesses. ANS: T 2. Persons with the same phenotype may have different genotypes. ANS: T 3. Polygenic disorders follow predictable patterns of inheritance. ANS: F 4. Most genetic mutations are not inherited and arise from new mutations during fetal development. ANS: F 5. Recessive gene traits are expressed when an individual is homozygous for the gene. ANS: T 6. Trisomy 18 is also called Down syndrome. ANS: F 7. Turner syndrome and Klinefelter syndrome are examples of sex chromosome disorders. ANS: T 8. DNA mutation is a rare event because of DNA repair mechanisms. ANS: T 9. A frameshift mutation usually causes a single base pair substitution. ANS: F 10. Males and females are affected equally by autosomal dominant gene disorders. ANS: T MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Characteristics of X-linked recessive disorders include which of the following? a . All daughters of affected fathers are carriers. b . Boys and girls are equally affected. c . The son of a carrier mother has a 25% chance of being affected. d . Affected fathers transmit the gene to all of their sons. ANS: A 2. A fetus is most vulnerable to environmental teratogens during a . birth. b . conception. c . the first trimester. d . the last trimester. ANS: C 3. Results of biochemical tests indicate an infant has phenylketonuria (PKU). The parents ask what PKU means. Correct responses would include all the following except a . PKU is an enzyme deficiency resulting in the inability to metabolize phenylalanine. b . PKU is an inborn error of metabolism. c . PKU results from a chromosome abnormality called nondisjunction. d . PKU is transmitted as an autosomal recessive disorder. ANS: C 4. The parents of a child with PKU are concerned about the risk of transmitting the disorder in future pregnancies. What is a correct assessment of the risk? a . Each child has a 25% chance of being a carrier. b . Each child has a 25% chance of being affected. c . Since one child is already affected, the next three children will be unaffected. d . One cannot predict the risk for future pregnancies. ANS: B 5. What information should parents be given about the consequences of PKU? a . High dietary phenylalanine may help induce enzyme production. b . PKU is commonly associated with other congenital anomalies. c . Failure to avoid phenylalanine results in progressive mental retardation. d . Mental retardation is inevitable. ANS: C 6. Children with PKU must avoid phenylalanine in the diet. Phenylalanine is most likely to be a component of a . fat. b . sugar. c . protein. d . carbohydrate. ANS: C 7. A point mutation a results from the addition or loss of one or more bases. . b . is due to the translocation of a chromosomal segment. c . always produces significant dysfunction. d . involves the substitution of a single base pair. ANS: D 8. Males are more likely than females to be affected by disorders. a . X-linked b . autosomal dominant c . autosomal recessive d . chromosomal nondisjunction ANS: A 9. Genetic diseases that follow predictable patterns of inheritance usually affect a . chromosomal structure. b . chromosomal number. c . single genes. d . sex chromosomes. ANS: C 10. A factor associated with risk of Down syndrome is a . family history of heritable diseases. b . exposure to TORCH syndrome organisms. c . maternal alcohol intake. d . maternal age. ANS: D MATCHING Match the following descriptions with the terms below (letters may be used more than once). a . Autosomal dominant b . Autosomal recessive c . X linked d . Chromosome aneuploidy 1. Down syndrome 2. Sickle cell anemia 3. Hemophilia 4. Trisomy 18 5. Monosomy X 6. Klinefelter syndrome 7. Cri du chat syndrome 8. Albinism 9. Marfan syndrome 10. Cystic fibrosis 1. ANS: D 2. ANS: B 3. ANS: C 4. ANS: D 5. ANS: D 6. ANS: D 7. ANS: D 8. ANS: B 9. ANS: A 10. ANS: B Chapter 7: Neoplasia Test Bank TRUE/FALSE 1. The term metastasis refers to local tumor invasion. ANS: F 2. Generally the higher a tumor’s grade, the higher its malignant potential. ANS: T 3. Cancer cells have a higher mutation rate than normal cells. ANS: T 4. Cancers arise from stem cells present in tissues. ANS: T 5. The suffix “oma” is used to designate tissues as malignant. ANS: F 6. Most cancers are associated with exposure to known carcinogens. ANS: F 7. Proto-oncogenes are normal cellular genes. ANS: T 8. Inactivation of tumor suppressor genes occurs in most types of cancer. ANS: T 9. The pRB and p53 proteins are examples of tumor suppressor gene products. ANS: T 10. Ras is a transcription factor that may cause cancer when mutated. ANS: F MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Proto-oncogenes a . are the same as oncogenes. b . are normal cellular genes that promote growth. c . always code for viral proteins. d . result from severe mutational events. ANS: B 2. Familial retinoblastoma involves the transmission of which of the following from parent to offspring? a . Mutant tumor suppressor gene b . Cancer-causing virus c . Oncogene d Extra chromosome . ANS: A 3. The tumor suppressor protein pRb normally functions to a . inhibit telomerase. b . bind and enhance transcription of DNA. c . bind and inhibit transcription factor actions. d . inhibit p53 activity. ANS: C 4. All of the following are functions of the p53 protein except a . phosphorylates and inhibits the pRb protein. b . triggers apoptosis when cells are critically damaged. c . mediates cell death induced by radiation and chemotherapy. d . stalls the cell cycle to allow time for cellular repair. ANS: A 5. All of the following statements about telomerase are true except telomerase a . repairs the end caps of chromosomes. b . contributes to cancer cell immortality. c . is commonly present in normal somatic cells. d . activity allows a cell to replicate indefinitely. ANS: C 6. The TNM tumor classification system describes a types of cancer. . b . locations of tumors in the body. c . cancer histology. d . cancer etiology. ANS: B 7. G.P. eats “lots of fat,” leads a “stressful” life, and has smoked “about two packs a day for the last 40 years.” Her chronic morning cough recently worsened, and she was diagnosed with a lung mass. The most likely contributing factor for development of lung cancer in G.P. is a . high-fat diet. b . urban pollutants. c . stressful lifestyle. d . cigarette smoking. ANS: D 8. After bronchoscopy and histologic examination of a suspected tumor, G.P. is diagnosed with primary bronchial carcinoma. Thus, the tumor a . is benign. b . is malignant. c . is secondary to cancer elsewhere in the body. d . has spread. ANS: B 9. G.P. is scheduled for a staging procedure. She wants to know what that means. Which response is correct? a . It is a procedure for determining the extent of tumor spread. b . It is a histologic examination of tissues to determine the degree of tumor differentiation. c . It is surgical removal of all tumor cells. d . It is biochemical testing of tumor cells to determine the genetic basis of the tumor. ANS: A 10. G.P.’s tumor is determined to have metastasized, which means that a . tumor cells have invaded locally. b . tumor cells have spread contiguously to adjacent tissue. c . the tumor has become encapsulated. d . tumor cells have spread to distant sites. ANS: D 11. A patient with metastatic lung cancer wants to know her chances for survival. Which response is correct? a . Lung cancer is always fatal. b . Lung cancer has about a 10% cure rate. c . Lung cancer is highly curable when diagnosed early. d . Lung cancer tends to remain localized and responds well to surgical removal. ANS: B 12. After surgery to remove a lung tumor, G.P. is scheduled for chemotherapy, which will a . selectively kill tumor cells. b . stimulate immune cells to fight the cancer. c . have minimal side effects. d . kill rapidly dividing cells. ANS: D 13. Side effects of chemotherapy include all the following except a . anemia. b . nausea. c . leukocytosis. d . bleeding. ANS: C 14. Cancer is a multistep process usually occurring over many years. The first step in the initiation process is thought to be caused by a . excessive cell growth. b . acquisition of malignant phenotype. c . genetic mutations in growth regulatory genes. d . exposure to trophic hormones and growth factors. ANS: C 15. Which of the following tumors is malignant? a . Lymphoma b . Adenoma c . Lipoma d . Myoma ANS: A MATCHING Match the following terms with the descriptions below (not all letters will be used). a . Leukemia b . Sarcoma c . Adenosarcoma d . Neoplasm e . Fibroma f. Melanoma 1. “New growth” of proliferating cells 2. Malignant cancer of glandular origin 3. Benign tumor 4. Cancer of blood-forming tissue 5. Skin cancer 1. ANS: D 2. ANS: C 3. ANS: E 4. ANS: A 5. ANS: F google search the three questions that weren't on here and a quiz let pops up that has all the answers. Chapter 9: Inflammation and Immunity Test Bank TRUE/FALSE 1. Each B lymphocyte is able to bind to and produce antibody against only one specific antigen. ANS: T 2. Clonal expansion of B lymphocytes upon first exposure to antigen requires T helper stimulation. ANS: T 3. The macrophage has little importance in immune function other than its role in phagocytosis. ANS: F 4. Tolerance to self-tissues only occurs during embryogenesis. ANS: F 5. T lymphocytes are activated primarily by free viruses. ANS: F 6. Cytotoxic lymphocytes are activated by recognition and binding of antigen in association with major histocompatibility complex type I (MHC I) proteins. ANS: T 7. For T helper cells to bind to a foreign antigen, the antigen must first be processed by an antigen-presenting cell. ANS: T 8. MHC I are present on the surface of all nucleated cells, whereas MHC II are present on the surface of specialized antigen-presenting cells. ANS: T 9. The “constant” region of an antibody molecule determines antigen specificity. ANS: F 10. The most prevalent antibody class in the body is IgM. ANS: F MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following cell types does not evolve from the myelocytic pathway? a . Red blood cells b . Monocytes c . Granulocytes d . Natural killer cells ANS: D 2. Which of the following cell types is thought to dampen the immune response? a . T helper cells b . Neutrophils c . Regulatory lymphocytes d . Macrophages ANS: C 3. Which of the following immune reactions does not require participation by specific immune cells (lymphocytes)? a . Activation of complement cascade via the classical pathway b . Mast cell degranulation in response to antigen c . Phagocytosis of antigen by macrophage d . Type IV hypersensitivity reaction ANS: C 4. Inflammation is said to be nonspecific because a . specific immune cells do not participate. b . the inflammatory reaction is similar regardless of cause. c . it contributes minimally to immune functions. d . it is a poorly understood phenomenon. ANS: B 5. Antigen-presenting cells function to a . display foreign antigen on their cell surfaces bound to MHC. b . stimulate cytokine production by macrophages. c . phagocytose and degrade foreign antigens. d . initiate the complement cascade by way of the alternative pathway. ANS: A 6. Which of the following is not a function of T lymphocytes? a . Antibody synthesis b . Interleukin-2 production c . Cell lysis d . Stimulation of B cells ANS: A 7. An example of active immunity would be a . vaccination with polio vaccine. b . administration of immune globulin. c . immune protection passed through the placenta. d . antibiotic administration for strep throat. ANS: C 8. All of the following are actions of antibodies except a . antigen agglutination. b . antigen precipitation. c . opsonization. d . phagocytosis. ANS: D 9. Antigen-specific receptors on the surfaces of B and T cells are produced a . in response to interferons. b . by MHC genes. c . in response to specific antigens. d . randomly by genetic recombination. ANS: D 10. The “classical pathway” for activation of the complement cascade requires a . activated T cells. b . macrophages. c . exposed foreign surfaces. d . antibodies. ANS: D 11. Clonal deletion refers to a . proliferation of plasma cells in response to antigen. b . destruction of self-reacting B and T lymphocytes. c . desensitization therapy for allergic reactivity. d . T-suppressor activity. ANS: B 12. The mononuclear phagocyte system consists of a . monocytes and fixed tissue macrophages. b . specifically activated lymphocytes. c . bone marrow stem cells. d . antibody-secreting plasma cells. ANS: A 13. Proteins that are increased in the bloodstream during acute inflammation are called proteins. a . antibody b . lymphokine c . acute phase d . antiidiotype ANS: C 14. Activation of the complement cascade results in a . antibody production. b . inflammation. c . immunosuppression. d . autoimmunity. ANS: B 15. In a primary immune response, activated B cells produce mostly a . IgA. b . IgG. c . IgE. d . IgM. ANS: D 16. The membrane attack complex formed by complement is similar in structure and function to a . CD4+. b . granzymes. c . gp120. d . perforin. ANS: D 17. Which of the following clinical findings is most indicative of an acute bacterial infection? a . Increased neutrophil bands b . Elevated temperature c . Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate d . Elevated WBC count ANS: A 18. Interleukin-1, interleukin-6, and tumor necrosis factor  are inflammatory cytokines secreted by a . plasma cells. b . neutrophils. c . lymphocytes. d . macrophages. ANS: D MATCHING Match the following descriptions with the terms below (letters may be used only once). a . Membrane attack complex b . Basophil-like cells in tissues c . Lymphocyte that lacks B/T markers d . Able to bind IgE (Fc end) e . Circulating macrophages f. Fixed tissue macrophages g . Provide protection against helminths h . Express CD4 or CD8 markers i. Make up 90% of circulating granulocytes j. MHC class I restricted k Antibody-producing B cells . l. Antigen-presenting cell 1. T lymphocytes 2. Histiocytes 3. Monocytes 4. Neutrophils 5. Eosinophils 6. Basophils 7. Plasma cells 8. Mast cells 9. Natural killer cells 10. Complement 11. Cytotoxic T cell 12. Dendritic cell 1. ANS: H 2. ANS: F 3. ANS: E 4. ANS: I 5. ANS: G 6. ANS: D 7. ANS: K 8. ANS: B 9. ANS: C 10. ANS: A 11. ANS: J 12. ANS: L Chapter 10: Alterations in Immune Function Test Bank TRUE/FALSE 1. Type I, II, and III hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by antibodies. ANS: T 2. Asthma is caused by a type II hypersensitivity reaction. ANS: F 3. Type I hypersensitivity reactions are also called anaphylactic reactions. ANS: T 4. Type II hypersensitivity reactions are also called immune complex reactions. ANS: F 5. Delayed-type hypersensitivity reactions require participation by T lymphocytes. ANS: T 6. Type I hypersensitivity occurs when mast cells release excessive inflammatory granules in response to antigen. ANS: T 7. Mast cells bind to the Fc portion of IgE antibodies. ANS: T 8. Only persons with allergies produce IgE antibodies. ANS: F 9. A type II hypersensitivity reaction occurs when red blood cells are lysed after an incompatible blood transfusion. ANS: T 10. Contact dermatitis is a delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction. ANS: T MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Dramatic hypotension sometimes accompanies type I hypersensitivity reactions because a . massive histamine release from mast cells leads to vasodilation. b . toxins released into the blood interfere with cardiac function. c . anaphylaxis results in large volume losses secondary to sweating. d . hypoxia due to bronchoconstriction impairs cardiac function. ANS: A 2. Autoimmune diseases a . are due to increased T suppressor cell activity associated with aging. b . occur only when lymphocytes are in close contact with body cells during embryogenesis. c . result from failure of the immune system to differentiate self and nonself molecules. d . are often communicable to others by direct contact. ANS: C 3. J.B. developed an opportunistic infection that is to be managed with an antibiotic. J.B. has received this antibiotic once previously with no adverse reactions. Which of the following statements should guide administration of the drug this time? a . No chance of anaphylaxis since no reaction the first time the antibiotic was given. b . Anaphylaxis is antibody mediated and may occur on second exposure. c . Anaphylaxis is T-cell mediated and slow to develop. d . Antibiotics are rarely associated with anaphylactic reactions. ANS: B 4. Which of the following disorders is associated with a type III hypersensitivity mechanism of injury? a . Systemic lupus erythematosus b . Type I diabetes mellitus c . Erythroblastosis fetalis d . Addison disease ANS: A 5. Excessive production of which T-helper cytokine has been implicated in the development of type I hypersensitivity? a IL-2 . b . IL-4 c . IL-6 d . Interferon  ANS: B 6. A patient is given an intradermal injection of antigen and develops redness and induration at the site 72 hours later. This is an example of type hypersensitivity. a . I b . II c . III d . IV ANS: D 7. A child with a history of recent strep throat infection develops glomerulonephritis. This is most likely to be a type hypersensitivity reaction. a . I b . II c . III d . IV ANS: C 8. Plasmapheresis to remove inciting antibodies would not be a therapeutic option for a . Wegener granulomatosus. b . Goodpasture disease. c . myasthenia gravis. d . transplant rejection. ANS: D 9. Certain autoimmune diseases are associated with the presence of specific proteins on a person’s cells. These proteins are called proteins. a . complement b . antibody receptor c . HLA or MHC d . TCR or BCR ANS: C 10. Which of the following disorders is not a type IV hypersensitivity disorder? a . Blood transfusion reaction b . Graft-versus-host disease c . Transplant rejection d . Contact dermatitis ANS: A 11. In which of the following patients would administration of RhoGAM (an Rh antibody) be appropriate? a . Rh-negative woman with positive Rh antibody titer carrying Rh-positive fetus b . Rh-positive woman with negative Rh antibody titer carrying Rh-negative fetus c . Rh-negative woman with negative Rh antibody titer carrying Rh-positive fetus d Rh-negative woman with negative Rh antibody titer carrying Rh-negative fetus . ANS: C 12. Which of the following disorders is considered a primary immunodeficiency disease? a . HIV/AIDS b . Malnutrition immunodeficiency c . Cancer immunodeficiency d . Radiation immunodeficiency ANS: A 13. Which of the following immunodeficiency diseases is attributed to a genetic defect in enzyme function? a . Selective IgA deficiency b . DiGeorge syndrome c . Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) d . Cushing syndrome ANS: C 14. Which of the following endocrine disorders would contribute most significantly to immunodeficiency? a . Hypersecretion of thyroid hormone b . Hypersecretion of glucocorticoid hormone c . Hyposecretion of adrenocorticotropic hormone d . Hypersecretion of prolactin hormone ANS: B 15. Patients with immunodeficiency disorders are usually identified because they develop infections a . unresponsive to therapy. b . from exotic organisms. c . of the brain. d . from opportunistic organisms. ANS: D MATCHING Match the following mechanisms of hypersensitivity injury with the autoimmune disorders below (letters may be used more than once). a . Cytotoxic b . Immune complex 1. Grave disease 2. Addison disease 3. Systemic lupus erythematosus 4. Type 1 diabetes mellitus 5. Myasthenia gravis 1. ANS: A 2. ANS: A 3. ANS: B 4. ANS: A 5. ANS: A Chapter 11: Malignant Disorders of White Blood Cells Test Bank TRUE/FALSE 1. Immunoglobulins produced by malignant plasma cells are monoclonal. ANS: T 2. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma tends to spread in a predictable pattern. ANS: F 3. Plasma cell myeloma is a myeloid neoplasm. ANS: F 4. Polycythemia vera is a myeloid neoplasm. ANS: T 5. Hodgkin disease is a lymphoid neoplasm. ANS: T 6. The difference between leukemia and lymphoma is that of disease stage. ANS: T 7. Chemotherapy is the main form of treatment for various types of leukemia. ANS: T 8. Leukemia is usually manifested by an elevated white blood cell (WBC) count. ANS: T 9. Spontaneous conversion to acute myeloid leukemia (AML) may occur with polycythemia vera, chronic myeloid leukemia, and essential thrombocythemia. ANS: T 10. Low-grade forms of lymphoma generally have a poorer prognosis than high-grade forms. ANS: F MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The major cause of death from leukemic disease is a . infection. b . malnutrition. c . hypovolemic shock. d . kidney failure. ANS: A 2. A 58-year-old woman is seen in the clinic for complaints of severe back pain. Her chest x-ray demonstrates generalized bone demineralization and compression fracture. Blood studies demonstrate elevated calcium levels. The most likely diagnosis is a . leukemia. b . plasma cell myeloma. c . Hodgkin disease. d . back trauma. ANS: B 3. Fluid and diuretic therapy are used in the management of plasma cell myeloma to a . reduce the rate of bone destruction. b . dilute plasma cells in the bloodstream. c prevent damage to renal tubules. . d . improve cardiac function. ANS: C 4. J.B. is a 12-year-old boy with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL). Manifestations of J.B.’s leukemia prior to treatment would include all of the following except a . anemia. b . leukocytosis. c . leukopenia. d . thrombocytopenia. ANS: C 5. J.B. is a 12-year-old boy with ALL. As part of J.B.’s treatment, he must undergo several weeks of chemotherapy. The most serious complication of chemotherapy is a . nausea and vomiting. b . anemia. c . alopecia. d . immunosuppression. ANS: D 6. While in the hospital for management of ALL, J.B. developed severe thrombocytopenia. The most appropriate action for this condition would be a . anticoagulant therapy. b . chemotherapy. c . activity restriction. d isolation. . ANS: C 7. The Philadelphia chromosome is a balanced chromosome translocation that forms a new gene called a . bcr-abl. b . Rb. c . p53. d . ARA-c. ANS: A 8. Nearly all cases of which form of leukemia demonstrate the presence of the Philadelphia chromosome? a . ALL b . CLL c . AML d . CML ANS: D 9. In general, the best prognosis for long-term disease-free survival occurs with a . ALL. b . CLL. c . AML. d . CML. ANS: A 10. Which of the following types of leukemia primarily affects children? a . ALL b . CLL c . AML d . CML ANS: A 11. Which of the following groups of clinical findings describes the typical presentation of ALL? a . Pain in long bones, infection, fever, bruising b . Vertebral fracture, hypercalcemia, bone pain c . Elevated WBC count found on routine exam, asymptomatic d . Painless enlarged cervical lymph node, fever, weight loss ANS: A 12. Which of the following is a correct definition of complete remission (CR) of leukemia? a . CR is the absence of leukemic cells in the blood. b . CR is less than 5% blasts in marrow and normal CBC values. c . CR is absence of leukemic cells regardless of CBC values. d . CR is less than 5% leukemic cells in the blood. ANS: B 13. All of the following viruses have been implicated as cancer-causing agents except virus. a . Epstein-Barr b . human T-cell leukemia c . human immunodeficiency d . herpes ANS: D 14. Burkitt lymphoma is most closely associated with a . Epstein-Barr virus. b . radiation exposure. c . immunodeficiency syndromes. d . a history of cigarette smoking. ANS: A 15. Autologous stem cell transplantation is a procedure in which a . there is a high rejection rate. b . stem cells are transferred to the patient from an HLA-matched donor. c . stem cells are transferred to the patient from an identical twin. d . stem cells are harvested from the patient and then returned to the same patient. ANS: D 16. A diagnostic laboratory finding in plasma cell myeloma is a . Bence Jones proteins in the urine. b . decreased platelet count. c . increased IgM antibody titer. d elevated blood glucose levels. . ANS: A [Show More]

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