6,7,10,11,12 test bank.pdf Microbiology: An Introduction, 12e (Tortora) Chapter 6 Microbial Growth./ COMPLETE SOLUTION

6,7,10,11,12 test bank.pdf Microbiology: An Introduction, 12e (Tortora) Chapter 6 Microbial Growth 6.1 Multiple-Choice Questions Figure 6.1 1) Figure 6.1, which line best depicts a facultative anaerobe in the absenc ...

6,7,10,11,12 test bank.pdf Microbiology: An Introduction, 12e (Tortora) Chapter 6 Microbial Growth 6.1 Multiple-Choice Questions Figure 6.1 1) Figure 6.1, which line best depicts a facultative anaerobe in the absence of O2? 2) In Figure 6.1,which line best depicts an obligate anaerobe in the presence of O2? 3) In Figure 6.1, which line shows the growth of an obligate aerobe incubated anaerobically? 4) In Figure 6.1, which line best illustrates the growth of a facultative anaerobe incubated aerobically? 5) In Figure 6.1, which line best depicts a psychrotroph incubated at 0C? 6) If cells are grown in media containing amino acids labeled with radioactive nitrogen (15N), most of the radioactivity will be found in the cells 7) Which of the following elements is NOT correctly matched with its cellular function? 8) Pathogenic bacteria isolated from the respiratory or intestinal tracts of humans are 9) The biosafety level (BSL) for most introductory microbiology laboratories is 10) The biosafety level (BSL) for a clinical microbiology laboratory working with potentially airborne pathogens, such as tuberculosis bacteria, is 11) A sample of milk is tested for its bacterial content in a plate count assay. A one-milliliter sample of the milk is diluted in a 1:10 dilution series. One milliliter of the third dilution tube is plated in a pour plate. After incubation, the plate has 54 colonies, indicating that the original milk sample contained 12) The addition of which of the following to a culture medium will neutralize acids? 13) Salts and sugars work to preserve foods by creating a 14) The term aerotolerant anaerobe refers to an organism that 15) Which of the following is an advantage of the standard plate count? 16) Which of the following is an advantage of the direct microscopic count? B) requires no incubation time 17) Most bacteria reproduce by C) binary fission. 18) Thirty-six colonies grew in nutrient agar from 1.0 ml of undiluted sample in a standard plate count. How many cells were in the original sample? D) 36 per milliliter Figure 6.2 19) Figure 6.2 shows a typical bacterial growth curve with the y-axis indicating the log of the number of bacteria and the x-axis indicating time in culture. In the figure, which section (or sections) shows a growth phase where the number of cells dying equals the number of cells dividing? C) c 20) Figure 6.2 shows a typical bacterial growth curve with the y-axis indicating the log of the number of bacteria and the x-axis indicating time in culture. In the figure, which sections of the graph illustrate a logarithmic change in cell numbers? B) b and d 21) Most bacteria grow best at pH C) 7. 22) Most fungi grow best at pH B) 5. 23) Consider a culture medium on which only gram-positive organisms such as Staphylococcus aureus colonies can grow due to an elevated NaCl level. A yellow halo surrounds the growth, indicating the bacterium fermented a sugar in the medium, decreasing the pH as a result and changing the color of a pH indicator chemical. This type of medium would be referred to as a(n) D) selective and differential medium. 24) A culture medium consisting of agar, peptone, and beef heart is a B) complex medium. 25) Which of the following pairs of microbe classification terms and optimal growth temperatures is mismatched? B) thermophile growth at 37C 26) During which growth phase will gram-positive bacteria be most susceptible to penicillin? B) log phase Answer: B 27) Which of the following is the best definition of generation time? B) the length of time needed for a cell to divide 28) Which of the following is NOT a direct method to measure microbial growth? D) metabolic activity 29) Which group of microorganisms is most likely to spoil a freshwater trout preserved with salt? B) facultative halophiles 30) Which of the following is an organic growth factor? B) vitamin B1 31) Which of the following is an example of a metabolic activity that could be used to measure microbial growth? B) glucose consumption 32) An experiment began with 4 cells and ended with 128 cells. How many generations did the cells go through? D) 5 33) Three cells with generation times of 60 minutes are inoculated into a culture medium. How many cells are there after 5 hours? C) 96 Figure 6.3 34) In Figure 6.3, which tube shows the expected growth pattern for a microaerophile? Answer: E 35) In Figure 6.3, which tube shows the expected growth pattern for a facultative anaerobe? Answer: B 36) In one hospital, Pseudomonas aeruginosa serotype 10 infected the biliary tract of 10 percent of 1300 patients who underwent gastrointestinal endoscopic procedures. After each use, endoscopes were washed with an automatic reprocessor that flushed detergent and glutaraldehyde through the endoscopes, followed by a tap water rinse. P. aeruginosa serotype 10 was not isolated from the detergent, glutaraldehyde, or tap water. What was the source of the infections? B) a biofilm in the reprocessor ble 6.1 Three different culture media are shown below. Medium A Medium B Medium C Na2HPO4 Tide detergent Glucose Peptone 37) For the three types of media in Table 6.1, which medium (or media) is/are chemically defined? A) A 38) In Table, 6.1, in which medium (or media) would an autotroph grow? A) A 39) Assume you inoculated 100 cells, with a generation time of 20 minutes, into 100 ml of nutrient broth. You then inoculated 100 cells of the same species into 200 ml of nutrient broth. After incubation for 4 hours, you can reasonably expect to have C) the same number of cells in both. 40) The source of nutrients in nutrient agar is C) peptone and beef extract. 41) Which enzyme catalyzes the reaction: O2 + O2 + 2H+ H2O2 + O2? D) superoxide dismutase 42) Which enzyme catalyzes the reaction: 2H2O2 2H2O + O2? A) catalase 43) Which enzyme catalyzes the reaction: H2O2 + 2H+ 2H2O? C) peroxidase The data in Table 6.2 indicate that S. aureus is a(n) C) facultative halophile. 45) Patients with indwelling catheters (long-term tubes inserted into body orifices for drainage, such as through the urethra and into the urinary bladder) are susceptible to infections because D) biofilms develop on catheters. 6.2 True/False Questions 1) An isolated colony on a streak plate contains millions (or even billions) of identical cells all arising from one initial cell. Answer: TRUE 2) Bacterial growth refers to an increase in the numbers of cells in a bacterial culture. Answer: TRUE 3) Pure cultures can easily be obtained on streak plates, even if the desired bacteria are present in very low concentrations in the initial culture broth. Answer: FALSE 4) Agar is used as a solidifying agent in microbiological media since few bacteria can degrade it. Answer: TRUE 5) Laboratory cultivation of obligate anaerobes requires reducing media or special growth chambers filled with inert gases. Answer: TRUE 6) Most pathogenic bacteria are thermophiles. Answer: FALSE 7) In performing a ten-fold dilutions series from a sample containing 10,000 bacteria per milliliter, the fourth tube in the dilution series will have 10 cells per milliliter. Answer: FALSE 8) Turbidity is an indirect measurement of bacterial growth that can be measured using a spectrophotometer. Answer: TRUE 9) Filtration methods, followed by growth of the bacteria trapped on the filters in growth media, are used to count bacteria present in very low concentrations, such as in lakes and streams. Answer: TRUE 10) Nitrogen-fixing bacteria, such as cyanobacteria, can use atmospheric nitrogen (N2) for their nitrogen source. Answer: TRUE Chapter 7 The Control of Microbial Growth 7.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Which of the following is the best method to sterilize heat-labile solutions? C) membrane filtration 2) Which of the following best describes the pattern of microbial death? A) The cells in a population die at a constant rate. 3) Which of the following chemical agents is used for sterilization? C ) ethylene oxide 4) Which of the following substances is used for surgical hand scrubs? C) chlorhexidine 5) Which of the following pairs of terms is mismatched? A) bacteriostatic kills vegetative bacterial cells 6) The antimicrobial activity of chlorine is due to which of the following? A) the formation of hypochlorous acid 7) Which of the following regarding antimicrobial control agents is FALSE? E) Alcohols effectively inactivate nonenveloped viruses by attacking lipids. 8) Which of the following does NOT achieve sterilization? B) pasteurization 9) Which of the following is a limitation of the autoclave? D) It cannot be used with heat-labile materials. 10) An agent used to reduce the number of bacteria on a toilet would most accurately be called a(n) A) disinfectant. 11) Application of heat to living cells can result in all of the following EXCEPT D) decreased thermal death time. 12) Which of the following disinfectants acts by disrupting the plasma membrane? C) bisphenols 13) Oxidizing agents include all of the following EXCEPT B) glutaraldehyde. 14) Disinfection of water is achieved by all of the following EXCEPT E) peracetic acid. 15) All of the following substances are effective against nonenveloped viruses EXCEPT A) alcohol. 16) Which of the following methods is used to preserve food by slowing the metabolic processes of foodborne microbes? C) freezing 17) Which concentration of ethanol is the most effective bactericide? B) 70 percent 18) All of the following factors contribute to hospital-acquired infections EXCEPT E) None of the answers is correct; all of these factors may contribute to hospital-acquired infection. 19) Which of the following treatments is the most effective for controlling microbial growth? D) They are equivalent treatments. 20) Which of the following could be used to sterilize plastic Petri plates in a plastic wrapper? B) gamma radiation 21) Which of the following regarding antimicrobial control agents is FALSE? E) A true antimicrobial control agent is equally effective against both bacteria and viruses. Figure 7.1 A suspension of 106 Bacillus cereus endospores was put in a hot-air oven at 170C. Plate counts were used to determine the number of endospores surviving at the time intervals shown. 22) In Figure 7.1, what is the thermal death time? B) 60 minutes 23) In Figure 7.1, the thermal death point for this culture is E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided 24) In Figure 7.1, the decimal reduction time (D value) for the culture, which is defined as the time to reduce a population by one log, is approximately B) 10 minutes. 25) Which of the following results in lethal damage to nucleic acids? E) heat, radiation, and some chemicals 26) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? B) alcohols open wounds Figure 7.2 Assume 109 E. coli cells/ml are in a flask. 27) Which graph in Figure 7.2 best depicts the effect of placing the culture in an autoclave for 15 minutes at time x? Answer: B 28) Which graph in Figure 7.2 best depicts the effect of placing the culture at 7C at time x? Answer: D Table 7.1 A disk-diffusion test using Staphylococcus gave the following results: Disinfectant Zone of inhibition (mm) A0 B2.5 C10 D5 29) In Table 7.1, which compound was the most effective against Staphylococcus? Answer: C 30) In Table 7.1, which compound was the most effective against E. coli? E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided. 31) In Table 7.1, which compound was bactericidal? E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided. Answer: E 32) Table 7.2 The fate of E. coli O157:H7 in apple cider held at 8C for 2 weeks, with and without preservatives, is shown below: Bacteria/ml Cider only 2.2 Cider with potassium sorbate 2.0 Sodium benzoate 0 Potassium sorbate + sodium benzoate 0 In Table 7.2, which preservative is most effective? B) sodium benzoate 33) An iodophor is a(n) E) iodine mixed with a surfactant. 34) Ethylene oxide D) is a sterilizing agent. 35) All of the following substances are used to preserve foods EXCEPT A) biguanides. Table 7.3 The following data were obtained by incubating gram-positive bacteria in nutrient medium + disinfectant for 24 hr, then transferring one loopful to nutrient medium (subculturing). (+ = growth; = no growth) 36) In Table 7.3, which disinfectant is the most effective at stopping bacterial growth? A) Doom 37) In Table 7.3, which disinfectant was bactericidal? C) Mortum 38) In Table 7.3, which disinfectant was most effective against Salmonella? E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided. 39) All of the following are effective for destroying prions EXCEPT A) boiling. 40) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? E) ultraviolet radiation desiccation 41) All of the following are methods of food preservation EXCEPT D) microwaves. 42) The preservation of beef jerky from microbial growth relies on which method of microbial control? C) desiccation 43) If you were preparing nutrient agar at home and did not have an autoclave, what could you use to sterilize the nutrient agar? E) pressure cooker at 121C for 15 minutes 44) Bone and tendons for transplant are decontaminated by E) supercritical fluids. 45) Which one of the following is most resistant to chemical biocides? A) gram-negative bacteria 46) The following is true of quarternary ammonium compounds EXCEPT C) they are effective when combined with soaps. 1) Any process that destroys the non-spore forming contaminants on inanimate objects is sterilization. Answer: FALSE 2) Desiccation is a reliable form of sterilization. Answer: FALSE 3) The thermal death time is the time needed to kill all the bacteria in a particular culture at a certain temperature. Answer: TRUE 4) Pseudomonas has been found growing in quaternary ammonium compounds (quats). Answer: TRUE 5) Moist heat destroys organisms by denaturing proteins. Answer: TRUE 6) Some antimicrobial chemicals are considered to be disinfectants and antiseptics. Answer: TRUE 7) The pH of the medium has no effect on the activity of the disinfectant being applied. Answer: FALSE 8) Ultraviolet light (UV) causes irreversible breaks in DNA strands. Answer: FALSE 9) Autoclaving is the most effective method of moist heat sterilization. Answer: TRUE 10) Microorganisms placed in high concentrations of salts and sugars undergo lysis. Answer: FALSE 1) Which of the following statements about archaea is FALSE? D) They evolved before bacteria. 2) Which of the following characterizes the Domain Bacteria? C) prokaryotic cells; ester linkages in phospholipids 3) If two organisms have similar rRNA sequences, you can conclude that they B) evolved from a common ancestor. 4) What is the outstanding characteristic of the Kingdom Fungi? B) Members absorb dissolved organic matter. 5) Which of the following statements about members of the Kingdom Plantae is FALSE? D) They use organic carbon sources. 6) Which of the following statements about the members of the Kingdom Animalia is FALSE? C) They undergo photosynthesis. 7) A genus can best be defined as B) a taxon composed of one or more species and a classification level lying below family. 8) A bacterial species differs from a species of eukaryotic organisms in that a bacterial species D) is a population of cells with similar characteristics. 9) Which of the following is the best evidence for a three-domain system? A) Nucleotide sequences in ribosomal RNA vary between all three domains. 10) A biochemical test, in the microbiology world, is used to determine D) capability of a microbe to perform a specific enzymatic activity. 11) Which of the following is NOT based on nucleic-acid hybridization? E) Western blotting 12) The phylogenetic classification of bacteria is based on C) rRNA sequences. 13) Which of the following statements is a reason for NOT classifying viruses in one of the three domains of life (Bacteria, Archaea, Eukarya) rather than in a fourth separate domain? D) Viruses are not composed of cells. 14) Which of the following provides taxonomic information that includes the information obtained in the others listed? E) cladogram 15) Fossil evidence indicates that prokaryotic cells first existed on the Earth D) 3.5 billion years ago. Figure 10.1 16) In Figure 10.1, species c. is most closely related to which of the following? Answer: D 17) In Figure 10.1, the closest ancestor for both species a. and species b. would be which of the following? Answer: E 18) Protists are a diverse group of organisms that are similar in A) rRNA sequences. 19) In the scientific name Enterobacter aerogenes, Enterobacter is the B) genus. 20) The arrangement of organisms into taxa A) shows degrees of relatedness between organisms. 21) Bacteria and Archaea are similar in which of the following? D) considered prokaryotic cells 22) Which of the following best defines a strain in microbiological terms? A) a pure culture that is not totally identical to other cultures of the same species 23) Serological testing is based on the fact that B) antibodies react specifically with an antigen. 24) Phage typing is based on the fact that C) bacterial viruses attack only members of a specific species. 25) Organism A has 70 moles % G+C, and organism B has 40 moles % G+C. Which of the following can be concluded from these data? B) The two organisms are unrelated. 26) Nucleic acid hybridization is based on the fact that C) pairing between complementary bases occurs. 27) One of the most popular taxonomic tools is DNA fingerprinting to develop profiles of organisms. These profiles provide direct information about E) the similarities between nucleotide sequences. 28) All of the following statements are reasons why fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH) has become a valuable tool for environmental microbiologists EXCEPT D) it allows one to obtain pure cultures of microbes. 29) Which of the following criteria is most useful in determining whether two organisms are related? B) Both are gram-positive. 30) A clone is A) genetically identical cells derived from a single cell. 31) Figure 10.2 A nucleic acid hybridization experiment produced the following results. In Figure 10.2, which figure shows the most closely related organisms? Answer: B 1. 9+2 flagella 2. Nucleus 3. Plasma membrane 4. Peptidoglycan 5. Mitochondrion 6. Fimbriae 32) In Table 10.1, which features are found in nearly all eukarya? A) 2, 3, 5 33) In Table 10.1, which feature(s) is (are) found only in prokaryotes? B) 4, 6 34) Into which group would you place a multicellular heterotroph with chitin cell walls? D) Fungi 35) Figure 10.3 This figure shows the results of a gel electrophoresis separation of restriction fragments of the DNA of different organisms. In Figure 10.3, which two are most closely related? A) 1 and 3 36) Into which group would you place a photosynthetic cell that lacks a nucleus? B) Bacteria 37) You discovered a unicellular organism that lacks a nucleus and peptidoglycan. You suspect the organism is in the group B) Archaea. 38) Into which group would you place a unicellular organism that has 70S ribosomes and a peptidoglycan cell wall? B) Bacteria 39) Use the dichotomous key in Table 10.2 to identify a gram-negative cell that ferments lactose and uses citric acid as its sole carbon source. A) Citrobacter 40) Use the dichotomous key in Table 10.2 to identify a gram-negative coccus. A) Neisseria 41) Into which group would you place a multicellular organism that has a mouth and lives inside the human liver? A) Animalia 42) Into which group would you place a photosynthetic organism that lacks a nucleus and has a thin peptidoglycan wall surrounded by an outer membrane? E) Proteobacteria (gram-negative bacteria) 43) Figure 10.4 In the cladogram shown in Figure 10.4, which two organisms are most closely related? B) Micrococcus and Mycobacterium 44) Which of the following characteristics indicates that two organisms are closely related? C) Their DNA can hybridize together. 45) Data collected to date indicate that E) None of the answers is correct. 1) The cell membranes of all three domains are composed of straight carbon chains attached to glycerol by ester linkage. Answer: FALSE 2) Chloroplasts possess circular DNA and reproduce by binary fission. Answer: TRUE 3) As molecular techniques improve, scientists are finding it necessary to reclassify some genera. Answer: TRUE 4) The highest level in the current taxonomic hierarchy is Kingdom. Answer: FALSE 5) Pure cultures of the same species are not always identical in all ways. Answer: TRUE 6) At this point in time, scientists believe the vast majority of the domain Bacteria have been discovered. Answer: FALSE 7) Once a culture is purified, the next logical step in the process of identifying bacteria is biochemical testing. Answer: FALSE 8) Serological testing is used for screening bacterial isolates for similarities. Answer: TRUE 9) Western blotting is an immunological test used to identify the antibodies in the serum of an individual suspected of having Lyme disease. Answer: TRUE 10) When building a cladogram, the length of the horizontal branch is based on the calculated percent similarity between organisms. Answer: TRUE 1) Which of the following are found primarily in the intestines of humans? C) facultatively anaerobic gram-negative rods 2) Figure 11.1 What is group c. in the key shown in Figure 11.1? E) spirochaetes 3) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic inherent of the non-endospore-forming gram-positive rods? D) nonpathogenic 4) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Neisseria? A) requires X and V factors 5) Staphylococcus and Streptococcus can be easily differentiated in a laboratory by which one of the following? C) growth in high salt concentrations 6) Which of the following genera is an anaerobic gram-negative rod? C) Bacteroides 7) Which of the following do you expect to be MOST resistant to high temperatures? A) Bacillus subtilis 8) Which of the following is NOT an enteric? E) Campylobacter 9) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of spirochetes? D) easily observed with brightfield microscopy 10) You have isolated a bacterium that grows in a medium containing an organic substrate and nitrate in the absence of oxygen. The nitrate is reduced to nitrogen gas. You can be sure that this bacterium is B) using anaerobic respiration. 11) Which of the following lacks a cell wall? B) Mycoplasma 12) Which of the following bacteria is gram-negative? A) Treponema 13) Which of the following form conidiospores? B) actinomycetes and related organisms 14) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? C) chemoautotrophic bacteria fix atmospheric nitrogen 15) Rickettsias differ from chlamydias in that rickettsias C) require an arthropod for transmission. 16) Requirements for X and V factors are used to identify D) Haemophilus. 17) You have isolated a bacterium that grows in a medium containing only inorganic nutrients. Ammonia is oxidized to a nitrate ion. This bacterium is C) a chemoautotroph. 18) Which of the following bacteria is gram-positive? C) Streptococcus 19) Escherichia coli belongs to the A) proteobacteria. 20) Which one of the following bacteria does NOT belong with the others? B) Escherichia 21) Which of the following statements about the causative agent of Rocky Mountain spotted fever is FALSE? E) It is found in soil and water. 22) A primary difference between cyanobacteria and purple and green phototrophic bacteria is C) electron donor for CO2 reduction. 23) Which one of the following bacteria does NOT belong with the others? E) Salmonella 24) Which of the following bacteria are responsible for more infections and more different kinds of infections? A) Streptococcus 25) Both Beggiatoa and the purple sulfur bacteria use H2S. These bacteria differ in that Beggiatoa A) uses H2S for an energy source. 26) The nonsulfur photosynthetic bacteria use organic compounds as B) electron donors to reduce CO2. 27) Which of the following is the best reason to classify Streptococcus in the Lactobacillales? D) rRNA sequences 28) Streptomyces differs from Actinomyces because Streptomyces D) is a strict aerobe. 29) All of the following bacteria are gram-positive. Which does NOT belong with the others? D) Listeria 30) Salmonella, Shigella, Yersinia, and Serratia are all B) gram-negative facultatively anaerobic rods. 31) You have isolated a gram-positive rod. What should you do next? C) endospore stain 32) Borrelia is classified as a spirochete because it B) possesses an axial filament. 33) Thiobacillus oxidizes inorganic sulfur compounds and reduces CO2. This bacterium is a B) chemoautotroph. 34) You have isolated a prokaryotic cell. The first step in identification is a(n) A) Gram stain. 35) Actinomycetes differ from fungi in that actinomycetes B) lack a membrane-bounded nucleus. 36) You have isolated an aerobic gram-positive, endospore-forming bacterium that grows well on nutrient agar. To which of the following groups does it most likely belong? D) bacillales 37) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? E) Pseudomonas gram-positive 38) Which one of the following does NOT belong with the others? D) Staphylococcus 39) Caulobacter are different from most bacteria in that they C) have stalks. 40) All of the following bacteria are motile. Which does NOT have flagella? D) spirochetes 41) Which of the following bacteria does NOT belong with the others? D) Staphylococcus 42) Mycoplasmas differ from other bacteria in that they B) lack a cell wall. 43) Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched? A) elementary body Escherichia 44) Burkholderia was reclassified from the gammaproteobacteria to the betaproteobacteria because E) its rRNA sequence is similar to that of Neisseria. 45) The crab industry needs female crabs for growing more crabs. What bacterium might be used to ensure development of female crabs and shrimp? E) Wolbachia 1) Bacterial predators such as Bdellovibrio are members of the betaproteobacteria. Answer: FALSE 2) Two distinguishing factors of the epsilonproteobacteria that they are motile and microaerophilic. Answer: TRUE 3) Myxobacteria are classified as actinobacteria due to fungal-like lifestyle. Answer: FALSE 4) The Gram stain is not suitable for identifying members of the Archaea. Answer: FALSE 5) The deinococci can be categorized as extremophiles. Answer: TRUE 6) All gram-negative bacteria are classified as proteobacteria. Answer: FALSE 7) The majority of bacterial species on Earth have not been successfully cultivated. Answer: TRUE ue Outcome: 1.2 Learning Outcome: 11.12 8) Photosynthetic organisms always produce oxygen gas as a metabolic byproduct. Answer: FALSE 9) Currently, no members of Archaea have been linked to human disease. Answer: TRUE 10) The human body is typically free of archaeal species. Answer: FALSE 1) Which of the following statements regarding fungi is FALSE? A) Most fungi are pathogenic for humans. 2) Which of the following statements about helminths is FALSE? D) All are parasites. E) Some have male and female reproductive organs in one animal. Answer: D Section: 12.6 Blooms Taxonomy: Comprehension Learning Outcome: 12.14 3) Which of the following statements about the oomycote algae is FALSE? A) They form hyphae. B) They produce zoospores in a sporangium. C) They cause plant diseases. D) They have chlorophyll. E) They reproduce sexually. Answer: D Section: 12.3 Blooms Taxonomy: Comprehension Learning Outcome: 12.8 4) Seventeen patients in ten hospitals had cutaneous infections caused by Rhizopus. In all seventeen patients, Elastoplast bandages were placed over sterile gauze pads to cover wounds. Fourteen of the patients had surgical wounds, two had venous line insertion sites, and one had a bite wound. Lesions present when the bandages were removed ranged from vesiculopustular eruptions to ulcerations and skin necrosis requiring debridement. Fungi are more likely than bacteria to contaminate bandages because they A) are aerobic. B) can tolerate low-moisture conditions. C) prefer a neutral environment (pH 7). D) have a fermentative metabolism. E) cannot tolerate high osmotic pressure. Answer: B Section: 12.1 Blooms Taxonomy: Analysis Learning Outcome: 12.1 Global Outcome: 2 5) Which of the following statements regarding lichens is FALSE? A) Lichens are a mutualistic relationship between a fungus and a protozoan. B) Lichens represent a mutualistic relationship between a fungus and an alga. C) Lichens are often the first life form to colonize rock or soil. D) The algal partner produces carbohydrates that are absorbed by the fungal partner. E) The fungal partner provides a means of attachment and protects the algal partner from desiccation. Answer: A Section: 12.2 Blooms Taxonomy: Comprehension ASMcue Outcome: 5.1 Learning Outcome: 12.5 Global Outcome: 2 6) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) Basidiomycota basidiospores B) Ascomycota conidiospores C) Zygomycota sporangiospores D) microsporidia lack mitochondria E) anamorphs lack spores Answer: E Section: 12.1 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge Learning Outcome: 12.3 Table 12.1 1-Arthroconidium 5-Chlamydoconidium 2-Ascospore 6-Conidiospore 3- Basidiospore 7-Sporangiospore 4- Blastoconidium 8-Zygospore 7) In Table 12.1, which of these spores are characteristic of Penicillium? A) 1 and 2 B) 3 and 4 C) 2 and 6 D) 1 and 4 E) 4 and 6 Answer: C Section: 12.1 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge ASMcue Outcome: 2.1 Learning Outcome: 12.2 8) In Table 12.1, which of these spores are characteristic of Rhizopus? A) 1 and 2 B) 6 and 7 C) 2 and 8 D) 1 and 4 E) 7 and 8 Answer: E Section: 12.1 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge ASMcue Outcome: 2.1 Learning Outcome: 12.2 9) In Table 12.1, which is a thick-walled spore formed as a segment within a hypha? A) 1 B) 3 C) 5 D) 7 E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: C Section: 12.1 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge ASMcue Outcome: 2.1 Learning Outcome: 12.2 10) In Table 12.1, which of these spores are asexual spores? A) 1, 4, 5, 6, 7 B) 2, 3, 6, 8 C) 1, 3, 5, 8 D) 2, 4, 6, 7, 8 E) All of the spores are asexual. Answer: A Section: 12.1 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge ASMcue Outcome: 2.1 Learning Outcome: 12.2 11) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) teleomorph produces both sexual and asexual spores B) dermatomycosis fungal infection of the skin C) dimorphic fungus grows as a yeast or a mold D) systemic mycosis fungal infection of body organs E) coenocytic hyphae hyphae with cross-walls Answer: E Section: 12.1 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge Learning Outcome: 12.1 12) Which of the following statements regarding protozoa is FALSE? A) Protozoa are unicellular eukaryotes. B) Nearly all protozoa cause disease. C) Most protozoa reproduce asexually. D) Protozoa are common in water and soil. E) Some protozoan pathogens are transmitted by arthropod vectors. Answer: B Section: 12.4 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge ASMcue Outcome: 5.4 Learning Outcome: 12.10 13) In mid-December, a woman with insulin-dependent diabetes who had been on prednisone fell and received an abrasion on the dorsal side of her right hand. She was placed on penicillin. By the end of January, the ulcer had not healed, and she was referred to a plastic surgeon. On January 30, a swab of the wound was cultured at 35C on blood agar. On the same day, a smear was made for Gram staining. The Gram stain showed large (10 m) cells. Brownish, waxy colonies grew on the blood agar. Slide cultures set up on February 1 and incubated at 25C showed septate hyphae and single conidia. The most likely cause of the infection is a A) gram-negative bacterium. B) dimorphic fungus. C) parasitic alga. D) yeast. E) protozoan. Answer: B Section: 12.1 Blooms Taxonomy: Analysis ASMcue Outcome: 5.4 Learning Outcome: 12.1 Global Outcome: 2 14) Which of the following tends to be more complex in a parasitic helminth than in free- living helminths? A) digestive system B) nervous system C) reproductive system D) digestive and nervous systems E) digestive, reproductive, and nervous systems Answer: C Section: 12.6 Blooms Taxonomy: Comprehension ASMcue Outcome: 5.4 Learning Outcome: 12.14 15) Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) Fungi produce sexual spores. B) Fungi produce asexual spores. C) Fungal spores are used in identification of fungi. D) Fungal spores are highly resistant to heat and chemical agents. E) Fungal spores are for asexual or sexual reproduction. Answer: D Section: 12.1 Blooms Taxonomy: Comprehension ASMcue Outcome: 3.4 Learning Outcome: 12.2 16) Which of the following pairs are mismatched? 1. arthroconidium formed by fragmentation 2. sporangiospore formed within hyphae 3. conidiospore formed in a chain 4. blastoconidium formed from a bud 5. chlamydoconidium formed in a sac A) 1 and 2 B) 2 and 3 C) 2 and 5 D) 3 and 4 E) 4 and 5 Answer: C Section: 12.1 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge Learning Outcome: 12.2 17) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) dinoflagellates paralytic shellfish poisoning B) brown algae algin C) red algae agar D) diatoms petroleum E) green algae prokaryotic Answer: E Section: 12.3 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge ASMcue Outcome: 6.3 Learning Outcome: 12.8 18) Helminthic diseases are usually transmitted to humans by A) respiratory route. B) genitourinary route. C) gastrointestinal route. D) vectors. E) aerosols. Answer: C Section: 12.6 Blooms Taxonomy: Comprehension Learning Outcome: 12.17 Global Outcome: 7 19) All of the following are characteristic of the Platyhelminthes EXCEPT that they A) are hermaphroditic. B) are dorsoventrally flattened. C) have highly developed digestive and nervous systems. D) can be divided into flukes and tapeworms. E) are multicellular animals. Answer: C Section: 12.6 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge Learning Outcome: 12.16 20) In the malaria parasite life cycle, humans are the host, while mosquitoes are the host as well as the vector. A) definitive; intermediate B) intermediate; intermediate C) temporary; final D) vector; intermediate E) intermediate; definitive Answer: E Section: 12.7 Blooms Taxonomy: Comprehension Learning Outcome: 12.20 21) Three weeks after a river rafting trip, three family members experienced symptoms of coughing, fever, and chest pain. During the rafting trip, the family had consumed crayfish that they caught along the river banks. An examination of the patients sputum revealed helminth eggs, and serum samples were positive for antibodies to Paragonimus. All of the family members recovered following treatment with praziquantel. In the Paragonimus life cycle, A) the crayfish are the definitive host and humans are the intermediate host. B) humans are the definitive host and crayfish are the intermediate host. C) both humans and crayfish are intermediate hosts. D) both humans and crayfish are definitive hosts. E) the source of the infection was the river water. Answer: B Section: 12.6 Blooms Taxonomy: Analysis ASMcue Outcome: 5.4 Learning Outcome: 12.16 22) The encysted larva of the beef tapeworm is called a A) redia. B) cercaria. C) cysticercus. D) metacercaria. E) proglottid. Answer: C Section: 12.6 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge Learning Outcome: 12.16 23) Which of the following arthropods does NOT transmit diseases by sucking blood from a human host? A) lice B) fleas C) houseflies D) mosquitoes E) kissing bugs Answer: C Section: 12.7 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge Learning Outcome: 12.21 24) Which of the following statements about algae is FALSE? A) They use light as their energy source. B) They use CO2 as their carbon source. C) They produce oxygen from hydrolysis of water. D) All are unicellular. E) Some are capable of sexual reproduction. Answer: D Section: 12.3 Blooms Taxonomy: Analysis ASMcue Outcome: 6.1 Learning Outcome: 12.7 25) Below are paired items referring to the heartworm Dirofilaria immitis. Which of the pairs is mismatched? A) dog definitive host B) dog sexual reproduction C) mosquito vector D) mosquito definitive host E) None of the pairs is mismatched. Answer: D Section: 12.6 Blooms Taxonomy: Analysis Learning Outcome: 12.17 Global Outcome: 2 26) All of the following are characteristic of algae EXCEPT which ONE of the following? A) Most are photoautotrophs. B) They are currently classified as plants. C) They may be unicellular or multicellular. D) Some produce harmful toxins. E) They mostly live in aquatic habitats. Answer: B Section: 12.3 Blooms Taxonomy: Comprehension ASMcue Outcome: 6.1 Learning Outcome: 12.7 27) A definitive host harbors which stage of a parasite? A) miracidium B) cyst C) adult D) larva E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: C Section: 12.6 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge ASMcue Outcome: 5.4 Learning Outcome: 12.17 28) What do tapeworms eat? A) intestinal bacteria B) host tissues C) red blood cells D) intestinal contents E) plant matter Answer: D Section: 12.6 Blooms Taxonomy: Comprehension ASMcue Outcome: 5.4 Learning Outcome: 12.18 29) Giardia and Trichomonas are unusual eukaryotes because they A) are motile. B) lack mitochondria. C) lack nuclei. D) do not produce cysts. E) do produce cysts. Answer: B Section: 12.4 Blooms Taxonomy: Comprehension ASMcue Outcome: 2.4 Learning Outcome: 12.11 Global Outcome: 7 30) The life cycle of the fish tapeworm is similar to that of the beef tapeworm. Which of the following is the most effective preventive measure? A) salting fish before eating B) refrigerating stored fish C) cooking fish before eating D) wearing gloves while handling fish E) not swimming in fish-infested waters Answer: C Section: 12.6 Blooms Taxonomy: Comprehension ASMcue Outcome: 5.1 Learning Outcome: 12.19 Global Outcome: 2 31) Which of the following is the most effective control for malaria? A) vaccination B) treating patients C) eliminate Anopheles mosquitoes D) eliminate the intermediate host E) None of these is an effective control. Answer: C Section: 12.4 Blooms Taxonomy: Analysis ASMcue Outcome: 3.4 Learning Outcome: 12.12 Global Outcome: 2 32) In the microscope, you observe multinucleated amoeboid cells with sporangia that form spores. This is a(n) A) ascomycete. B) cellular slime mold. C) Euglenozoa. D) tapeworm. E) plasmodial slime mold. Answer: E Section: 12.5 Blooms Taxonomy: Analysis Learning Outcome: 12.13 Global Outcome: 2 33) You observe a mass of amoeba-like cells that swarm together, form a stalk, and produce spores. This is a(n) A) ascomycete. B) cellular slime mold. C) Euglenozoa. D) tapeworm. E) plasmodial slime mold. Answer: B Section: 12.5 Blooms Taxonomy: Analysis Learning Outcome: 12.13 Global Outcome: 2 34) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) nematodes complete digestive tract B) cestodes segmented body made of proglottids C) trematodes flukes D) nematodes many are free-living E) cestodes all are free-living Answer: E Section: 12.6 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge ASMcue Outcome: 5.4 Learning Outcome: 12.19 Global Outcome: 2 35) Which of the following is a nucleated, unicellular organism that, if you changed the incubation temperature, would form filaments with conidiospores? A) ascomycete B) cellular slime mold C) euglenozoa D) tapeworm E) plasmodial slime mold Answer: A Section: 12.1 Blooms Taxonomy: Analysis ASMcue Outcome: 5.4 Learning Outcome: 12.1 Global Outcome: 2 36) Which of the following organisms is photoautotrophic protozoan? A) oomycote B) cellular slime mold C) Euglena D) Phytophthora E) plasmodial slime mold Answer: C Section: 12.4 Blooms Taxonomy: Analysis ASMcue Outcome: 3.3 Learning Outcome: 12.11 37) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) tick Rocky Mountain spotted fever B) tick Lyme disease C) mosquito malaria D) mosquito Pneumocystis E) mosquito encephalitis Answer: D Section: 12.7 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge ASMcue Outcome: 5.4 Learning Outcome: 12.21 38) Which of the following groups of algae does NOT produce compounds that are toxic to humans? A) diatoms B) dinoflagellates C) green algae D) red algae E) None of the answers is correct; all of these groups of algae produce compounds toxic to humans. Answer: C Section: 12.3 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge Learning Outcome: 12.9 39) The cells of plasmodial slime molds can grow to several centimeters in diameter because A) they have organelles. B) they distribute nutrients by cytoplasmic streaming. C) the large surface can absorb nutrients. D) they form spores. E) they have a mouth to ingest nutrients. Answer: B Section: 12.5 Blooms Taxonomy: Comprehension Learning Outcome: 12.13 Global Outcome: 2 40) Assume you have isolated a multicellular heterotrophic organism that produces coenocytic hyphae, motile zoospores, and cellulose cell walls. It is most likely a(n) A) ascomycete fungus. B) green alga. C) oomycote alga. D) tapeworm. E) zygomycete fungus. Answer: C Section: 12.3 Blooms Taxonomy: Analysis Learning Outcome: 12.8 Global Outcome: 2 41) If a larva of Echinococcus granulosus is found in humans, humans are the A) definitive host. B) infected host. C) intermediate host. D) reservoir. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: C Section: 12.6 Blooms Taxonomy: Analysis ASMcue Outcome: 5.4 Learning Outcome: 12.17 Global Outcome: 7 42) Ringworm is caused by a(n) A) fungus. B) cestode. C) nematode. D) protozoan. E) trematode. Answer: A Section: 12.1 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge ASMcue Outcome: 5.4 Learning Outcome: 12.4 43) Yeast infections are caused by A) Aspergillus. B) Candida albicans. C) Histoplasma. D) Penicillium. E) Saccharomyces cerevisiae. Answer: B Section: 12.1 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge ASMcue Outcome: 5.4 Learning Outcome: 12.4 44) All of the following are characteristic of lichens EXCEPT A) they are arranged in foliose, fruticose, or crustose morphologies. B) they are a major food source for tundra herbivores. C) they are used as indicators of air pollution. D) they are a symbiotic relationship between a fungus and a protozoan. E) they serve as primary producers in rocky ecosystems. Answer: D Section: 12.2 Blooms Taxonomy: Comprehension ASMcue Outcome: 5.1 Learning Outcome: 12.5 Global Outcome: 2 45) You see acid-fast oocysts in a fecal sample from a patient who has diarrhea. What is the MOST likely cause? A) Cryptosporidium B) diatoms C) Entamoeba D) Giardia E) Taenia Answer: A Section: 12.4 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge ASMcue Outcome: 5.4 Learning Outcome: 12.11 12.2 True/False Questions 1) Plasmogamy, karyogamy, and meiosis are stages of the fungal sexual life cycle. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.1 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge Learning Outcome: 12.2 2) Arthropod vectors are blood-sucking animals such as ticks, lice, and fleas that transmit microbial pathogens. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.7 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge ASMcue Outcome: 5.4 Learning Outcome: 12.20 3) Cercariae, metacercaria, redia, and sporocysts are all life cycle stages of trematodes. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.6 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge Learning Outcome: 12.16 4) The Platyhelminthes group includes roundworms, tapeworms, and flukes. Answer: FALSE Section: 12.6 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge Learning Outcome: 12.16 5) Some species of dinoflagellates produce neurotoxins that cause fish kills and red tides. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.3 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge Learning Outcome: 12.9 6) Both the cellular slime molds and the plasmodial slime molds are members of the phylum Amoebozoa. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.5 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge Learning Outcome: 12.13 7) In helminth life cycles, the organism that harbors the adult sexually reproductive phase of the parasite is called the intermediate host. Answer: FALSE Section: 12.6 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge ASMcue Outcome: 5.4 Learning Outcome: 12.17 8) The sporozoite, merozoite, gametocyte, and ring stages are all part of the Plasmodium life cycle. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.4 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge ASMcue Outcome: 5.4 Learning Outcome: 12.11 9) The insect vectors have six legs and include spiders, ticks, mosquitoes, and lice. Answer: FALSE Section: 12.7 Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge Learning Outcome: 12.20 10) Most cases of hookworm infection are acquired by ingestion of adult forms in contaminated food or water. Answer: FALSE