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NR 507Final exam.docx Question 1 Which hormone prompts increased anxiety, vigilance, and arousal during a stress response? Question 2 2 / 2 pts Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is a... n autoimmune process involving antibodies attacking which type of cells? Question 3 When renin is released, it is capable of which action? Question 4 Which of the following are formed elements of the blood that are not cells but are disk-shaped cytoplasmic fragments essential for blood clotting? Question 5 In a full-term infant, the normal erythrocyte life span is days, whereas the adult erythrocyte life span is days. Question 6 2 / 2 pts Graves disease is a result of: Question 7 What is the most commonly reported symptom of cancer treatment? Question 8 In which structure does B lymphocytes mature and undergo changes that commit them to becoming B cells? Question 9 Chvostek and Trousseau signs indicate which electrolyte imbalance? Question 10 On average, what percent of cardiac output do the kidneys receive? Question 11 Which substance is used to correct the chronic anemia associated with chronic renal failure? Question 12 When the maternal immune system becomes sensitized against antigens expressed by the fetus, what reaction occurs? Question 13 Which statement is true regarding pain and cancer? Question 14 2 / 2 pts During an infection, why do lymph nodes enlarge and become tender? Question 15 Which statement best describes cystic fibrosis? d Pulmonary disorder involving an abnormal expression of a protein-producing viscous mucus that obstructs the airways, pancreas, sweat ducts, and vas deferens Cystic fibrosis is best described as a pulmonary disorder involving an abnormal expression of a protein- producing viscous mucus that obstructs the airways, pancreas, sweat ducts, and vas deferens. This selection is the only option that accurately describes cystic fibrosis. . Question 16 Carcinoma refers to abnormal cell proliferation originating from which tissue origin? Epithelial cells Epithelial cells Only cancers arising from epithelial cells are called carcinomas. . Question 17 What local complication of a gonococcal infection is diagnosed in approximately 10% of affected women? Acute salpingitis Acute salpingitis Acute salpingitis, or pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), is the most common local complication in women. Approximately 10% of women with untreated cervical gonorrhea develop PID. . Question 18 Which terms represent the correct nomenclature for benign and malignant tumors of adipose tissue, respectively? Lipoma, liposarcoma Lipoma, liposarcoma In general, cancers are named according to the cell type from which they originate (e.g., lip for cancers that originate in adipose or fat tissue), whereas benign tumors use the suffix -oma. Cancers arising from connective tissue usually have the suffix sarcoma. . Question 19 What provides the best estimate of the functioning of renal tissue? Correct! 37916 Glomerular filtration rate f Glomerular filtration rate The glomerular filtration rate provides the best estimate of the level of functioning of renal tissue. The other options are not used to assess renal tissue function. . Question 20 Children with phenylketonuria (PKU) are unable to synthesize: Correct! 97971 Essential amino acid, phenylalanine, to tyrosine Essential amino acid, phenylalanine, to tyrosine PKU is an inborn error of metabolism characterized by the inability of the body to convert the essential amino acid, phenylalanine, to tyrosine. PKU does not affect synthesis of the other options. Question 21 Which of the following causes condylomata acuminata or genital warts? Human papillomavirus (HPV) Human papillomavirus (HPV) Genital warts are quite contagious and are a result of only HPV. Question 22 Cystic fibrosis is caused by which process? Correct! 57529 Autosomal recessive inheritance Autosomal recessive inheritance Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive inherited disorder that is associated with defective epithelial ion transport. None of the other options cause cystic fibrosis. Question 23 The area of the kidneys that contains the glomeruli and portions of the tubules is called the: Cortex Cortex The cortex contains all the glomeruli and portions of the tubules of the kidneys. Although the other options are also located in the kidney, they do not contain the glomeruli. . Question 24 The concentration of the final urine is determined by antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which is secreted by which gland? Posterior pituitary Posterior pituitary ADH, which is secreted from the posterior pituitary gland, controls the concentration of the final urine. ADH is not secreted by any of the other options. Question 25 The ability of the pathogen to invade and multiply in the host is referred to as: Infectivity Infectivity Infectivity is the ability of the pathogen to invade and multiply in the host. The other options do not accurately denote the pathogen’s ability to invade and multiply in the host. . Question 26 In 95% of children of delayed puberty, the problem is caused by: Physiologic hormonal delays Physiologic hormonal delays In 95% of children with delayed puberty, the delay is physiologic; that is, hormonal levels are normal and the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal (HPG) axis is intact, but maturation is slowly happening. This option is the only answer that accurately describes the most common cause of delayed puberty. Question 27 Which substance is a water-soluble protein hormone? Insulin Insulin Peptide or protein hormones, such as insulin, pituitary, hypothalamic, and parathyroid, are water soluble and circulate in free (unbound) forms. All the remaining options are fat-soluble hormones. . Question 28 Having ejected a mature ovum, the ovarian follicle develops into a(n): Corpus luteum u Corpus luteum Having ejected a mature ovum, the only resulting structure is the corpus luteum. Question 29 The most critical aspect in correctly diagnosing a seizure disorder and establishing its cause is: Health history Health history Although the history may be supplemented with the remaining options, it remains the pivotal tool for establishing the cause of a seizure disorder. Question 30 The two most important risk factors for type 2 diabetes are: Obesity and positive family history Obesity and positive family history The two most important risk factors for type 2 diabetes are positive family history and obesity. The other options are not believed to be important risk factors for this form of diabetes. Question 31 It is true that myasthenia gravis: Causes muscle weakness. s Causes muscle weakness. Exertional fatigue and weakness that worsens with activity, improves with rest, and recurs with resumption of activity characterizes myasthenia gravis. None of the other options are true of myasthenia gravis. Question 32 What term is used to identify an interlacing bundle of dense, white fibrous tissue that is richly supplied with nerves, blood vessels, and lymphatic vessels? Joint capsule Joint capsule The joint capsule is made up of parallel, interlacing bundles of dense, white fibrous tissue. It is richly supplied with nerves, blood vessels, and lymphatic vessels. None of the other options are associated with this structure. Question 33 The mucosal secretions of the cervix secrete which immunoglobulin? Correct! 2610 IgA IgA Mucosal secretions from the cervix contain enzymes and antibodies—predominantly IgA. Question 34 Clinical manifestations that include irregular or heavy bleeding, the passage of large clots, and the depletion of iron stores support which diagnosis? Dysfunctional uterine bleeding Dysfunctional uterine bleeding Unpredictable and variable bleeding, in terms of amount and duration, characterize dysfunctional uterine bleeding. Especially during perimenopause, dysfunctional bleeding also may involve flooding and the passage of large clots, which often indicate excessive blood loss. Excessive bleeding can lead to iron- deficiency anemia. This option is the only answer that demonstrates the clinical manifestations described. Question 35 What is the first indication of nephrotic syndrome in children? Periorbital edema Periorbital edema Onset of nephritic syndrome is insidious, with periorbital edema as the first sign of the disorder. None of the other options represent the first indication of nephritic syndrome in children. Question 36 What is the most common opportunistic infection associated with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)? Toxoplasmosis Toxoplasmosis Toxoplasmosis is the most common opportunistic infection and occurs in approximately one third of individuals with AIDS. Cytomegalovirus encephalitis is common in those with AIDS but is often not diagnosed while the person is alive. Other neoplasms associated with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) include systemic non-Hodgkin lymphoma and metastatic Kaposi sarcoma. Question 37 What part of the brain provides the emotional response to pain? Correct! 72654 Limbic system Limbic system The limbic and reticular tracts are involved in alerting the body to danger, initiating arousal of the organism, and emotionally processing the perceived afferent signals, not just as stimuli, but also as pain. The remaining options do not fulfill this objective. Question 38 What directly causes ovulation during the menstrual cycle? Sudden increase of LH Sudden increase of LH Menstrual cyclicity and regular ovulation are dependent on (1) the activity of the gonadostat (GnRH pulse generator); (2) the pituitary secretion of gonadotropins; and (3) estrogen (estradiol)–positive feedback for the preovulatory LH and FSH surges, oocyte maturation, and corpus luteum formation. Question 39 Transcription is best defined as a process by which: RNA is synthesized from a DNA template. RNA is synthesized from a DNA template. Transcription is the process by which RNA is synthesized from a DNA template. The correct option is the only one that accurately defines the term transcription. Question 40 Considering the mediating factors of premenstrual syndrome (PMS), which medication may be used either continually or only during the menstrual period as a treatment for the condition? SSRIs SSRIs A selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) (an antidepressant) relieves symptoms in approximately 60% to 90% of women and may be continually administered or only prescribed during the premenstrual period. Oral contraceptive pills that contain estrogen and progesterone also can be continuously used for up to 3 months to decrease the frequency of menstrual periods, PMS, and premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD). Nonsteriodal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) would not be continually administered. Question 41 Pinkeye is characterized by inflammation of which structure? Conjunctiva Conjunctiva Acute bacterial conjunctivitis (pinkeye) is an inflammation of the conjunctiva (mucous membrane covering the front part of the eyeball). The other structures are not affected by this inflammation. Question 42 Atrial fibrillation, rheumatic heart disease, and valvular prosthetics are risk factors for which type of stroke? Embolic Embolic High-risk sources for the onset of embolic stroke are atrial fibrillation (15% to 25% of strokes), left ventricular aneurysm or thrombus, left atrial thrombus, recent myocardial infarction, rheumatic valvular disease, mechanical prosthetic valve, nonbacterial thrombotic endocarditis, bacterial endocarditis, patent foramen ovale, and primary intracardiac tumors. These are not risk factors for the other options provided. Question 43 Clinical manifestations of Parkinson disease are caused by a deficit in which of the brain’s neurotransmitters? Dopamine Dopamine Parkinson disease is a commonly occurring degenerative disorder involving deficits of dopamine, not of any of the other options. Question 44 Which hormone is linked to an increase in appetite during puberty? Leptin Leptin Sensitivity to leptin, which regulates appetite and energy metabolism, increases during puberty; in theory, the adolescent consumes more calories to meet the caloric needs of the pubertal growth spurt. The percent of body fat and leptin levels in girls continue to increase, whereas muscle mass increases in boys. No apparent link exists between increased appetite during puberty and any of the other options. Question 45 Which change is a result of puberty and defends the vagina from infection? Vaginal pH becomes more acidic. Vaginal pH becomes more acidic. At puberty, the pH becomes more acidic (4 to 5) and the squamous epithelial lining thickens. These changes are maintained until menopause (cessation of menstruation), at which time the pH rises again to more alkaline levels and the epithelium thins out. Therefore protection from infection is greatest during the years when a woman is most likely to be sexually active. Estrogen does not play a role in infection protection. Question 46 Which hormone is involved in the regulation of serum calcium levels? Correct! 8830 Parathyroid hormone (PTH) Parathyroid hormone (PTH) The parathyroid glands produce PTH, a regulator of serum calcium; therefore the other options are incorrect. Question 47 Which medication compensates for the deficiency that occurs as a result of cystic fibrosis? Pancreatic enzymes e Pancreatic enzymes Pancreatic replacement enzymes are administered before or with meals, and high-calorie, high-protein diets with frequent snacks and vitamin supplements are used to treat the deficiency. These statements are not true of the other options. Question 48 It is true that Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS): Is preceded by a viral illness. Is preceded by a viral illness. GBS is considered to be an autoimmune disease triggered by a preceding bacterial or viral infection. None of the other options are true of GBS. Question 49 An infant suddenly develops abdominal pain, becomes irritable (colicky), and draws up the knees. Vomiting occurs soon afterward. The mother reports that the infant passed a normal stool, followed by one that looked like currant jelly. Based on these data, which disorder does the nurse suspect? Intussusception Intussusception Based on these data, the nurse should suspect intussusception. A single normal stool may be passed, evacuating the colon distal to the apex of the intussusception. After passing a normal stool, 60% of infants will pass “currant jelly” stools, which appear dark and gelatinous because of their blood and mucus content. Intussusception is the only option that describes the symptoms listed. Question 50 Which condition is considered a clinical cause of amenorrhea? Failure to ovulate Failure to ovulate Depressed ovarian hormone levels, which are associated with a variety of clinical disorders, also cause amenorrhea by preventing ovulation. This option is the only answer that accurately identifies a clinical cause of cycle irregularities. Question 51 Which anatomic structure secretes follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH)? Anterior pituitary Anterior pituitary The anterior pituitary is the gland that secretes FSH and LH. Question 52 Which medical diagnosis is described as a chronic inflammatory joint disease characterized by stiffening and fusion of the spine and sacroiliac joints? Correct! 92746 Ankylosing spondylitis Ankylosing spondylitis Of the options available, only ankylosing spondylitis (spondyloarthritis) is described as a chronic, inflammatory joint disease characterized by stiffening and fusion (ankylosis) of the spine and sacroiliac joints. Question 53 How can glaucoma cause blindness? Pressure on the optic nerve Pressure on the optic nerve Loss of visual acuity as a result of pressure on the optic nerve is the only reason glaucoma can result in blindness. Question 54 Which virus is a precursor for developing cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) and cervical cancer? Human papillomavirus (HPV) Human papillomavirus (HPV) Infection with high-risk (oncogenic) types of HPV (predominantly 16 and 18) is a necessary precursor to the development of precancerous dysplasia of the cervix that leads to invasive cancer. The other options are not precursors to CIN and cervical cancer. Question 55 Which type of diarrhea results from lactose intolerance? Osmotic Osmotic The malabsorption of lactose results in osmotic diarrhea, in which fluids move by osmosis from the vascular compartment into the intestinal lumen. Of the available options, this selection is the only type of diarrhea that results from lactose intolerance. Question 56 Which pain theory proposes that a balance of impulses conducted from the spinal cord to the higher centers in the central nervous system (CNS) modulates the transmission of pain? GCT GCT Only the gate control theory (GCT) explains that a balance of impulses conducted to the spinal cord, where cells in the substantia gelatinosa function as a spinal gate, regulates pain transmission to higher centers in the CNS. . Question 57 Obesity acts as an important risk factor for type 2 diabetes mellitus by: Increasing the resistance to insulin by cells Increasing the resistance to insulin by cells People with type 2 diabetes mellitus suffer from insulin resistance (i.e., their cells have difficulty using insulin). The other options are not associated with the effect of obesity regarding insulin production. Question 58 A blunt force injury to the forehead would result in a coup injury to which region of the brain? Correct! 31574 Frontal Frontal Coup injuries occur directly below the point of impact. Objects striking the front of the head usually produce only coup injuries (contusions and fractures) because the inner skull in the occipital area is smooth. A coup injury is not nearly as likely when other portions of the brain are affected. . Question 59 The secretion of adrenocorticotropic-stimulating hormone (ACTH) will result in the increased level of which hormone? Cortisol. Cortisol. Psychologic and physiologic stress (e.g., hypoxia, hypoglycemia, hyperthermia, exercise) increases ACTH secretion, leading to increased cortisol levels. Only cortisol describes the appropriate feedback loop. . Question 60 Bacteria gain access to the female urinary tract by which means? Bacteria ascending the urethra into the bladder c Bacteria ascending the urethra into the bladder Urinary tract infections (UTIs) in girls occur as a result of perineal bacteria, especially Escherichia coli, ascending the urethra. None of the other options represent the means by which bacteria gain access to the female urinary tract. Question 61 The failure of bones to ossify, resulting in soft bones and skeletal deformity, characterizes which disorder? Rickets Rickets Of the available options, only rickets is a disorder in which growing bone fails to become mineralized (ossified) and results in soft bones and skeletal deformity. Question 62 What is the cause of familial hypercholesterolemia (FH)? Reduction in the number of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) receptors on cell surfaces Reduction in the number of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) receptors on cell surfaces A reduction in the number of functional LDL receptors on cell surfaces causes FH. Lacking the normal number of LDL receptors, cellular cholesterol uptake is reduced and circulating cholesterol levels increase (see Box 5-3). The other options are not the basis for developing familial FH. Question 63 Which characteristic is true of type II (white fast-motor) muscle fibers? Fast conduction velocities Fast conduction velocities Type II fibers, also called white fast-motor fibers, are innervated by relatively large type II alpha motor neurons with fast conduction velocities. This selection is the only correct option provided. Question 64 The presence of a zygote having one chromosome with the normal complement of genes and one with a missing gene is characteristic of which genetic disorder? Correct! 13333 Cri du chat Cri du chat This description is only accurate for Cri du chat syndrome. Question 65 What term is used to identify the condition that exists when the urethral meatus is located on the undersurface of the penis? Correct! 96155 Hypospadias Hypospadias Hypospadias is a congenital condition in which the urethral meatus is located on the ventral side or undersurface of the penis. This is the only term used for this condition. Question 66 Which hormone stimulates gonads to produce both male and female hormones? Luteinizing hormone (LH) h Luteinizing hormone (LH) Extrahypothalamic factors cause the hypothalamus to secrete GnRH, which stimulates the anterior pituitary to secrete gonadotropins—FSH and LH. These hormones, in turn, stimulate the gonads (ovaries or testes) to secrete female or male sex hormones. . Question 67 Which term is used to describe an intestinal obstruction caused by the invagination of the ileum into the cecum and part of the ascending colon by collapsing through the ileocecal valve? Intussusception Intussusception Intussusception is the telescoping or invagination of one portion of the intestine into another section of intestine. Usually, the ileum invaginates the cecum and part of the ascending colon by collapsing through the ileocecal valve. The other terms are not used to describe this event. Question 68 Where is the usual site of cervical dysplasia or cancer in situ? Columnar epithelium of the cervix meets the squamous epithelium of the vagina. p Columnar epithelium of the cervix meets the squamous epithelium of the vagina. The point at which the columnar epithelium of the cervix meets the squamous epithelium of the vagina is called the transformation zone or the squamous-columnar junction. The transformation zone is especially susceptible to the oncogenic human papillomavirus (HPV), which leads to cervical dysplasia and, ultimately, cervical cancer; these are the cells sampled during a Papanicolaou (Pap) test. Question 69 Which statement is true regarding the major difference between male and female sex hormone production? In a man, sex hormone production is relatively constant. In a man, sex hormone production is relatively constant. In men, sex hormone production is relatively constant with some diurnal variation. The other options are not true statements. Question 70 Using a fan to reduce body temperature is an example of which mechanism of heat loss? Convection Convection Only convection causes the transfer of heat through currents of gases or liquids. Question 71 In scoliosis, curves in the thoracic spine greater than how many degrees result in decreased pulmonary function? 80 80 In scoliosis, curves in the thoracic spine greater than 80 degrees result in decreased pulmonary function. . Question 72 What is the second most commonly recognized genetic cause of mental retardation? Fragile X syndrome Fragile X syndrome The fragile X syndrome is the second most common genetic cause of mental retardation (after Down syndrome). The correct option is not observed with enough frequency to be recognized as the second most common cause of mental retardation. Question 73 Which risk factor for hypertension is influenced by genetic factors and lifestyle? Obesity Obesity The most important environmental risk factors for hypertension are increased sodium intake, decreased physical activity, psychosocial stress, and obesity. However, obesity is, itself, influenced by genes and the environment. Question 74 Prolonged high environmental temperatures that produce dehydration, decreased plasma volumes, hypotension, decreased cardiac output, and tachycardia cause which disorder of temperature regulation? Heat exhaustion s Heat exhaustion Of the options presented, only heat exhaustion, or collapse, is a result of prolonged high core or environmental temperatures resulting in dehydration, decreased plasma volumes, hypotension, decreased cardiac output, and tachycardia. Question 75 Saliva contains which immunoglobulin (Ig)? Correct! 21920 IgA IgA Saliva contains only IgA, which helps prevent infection. [Show More]

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