Evergreen Valley College - NUR 101|NCLEX passing it,Complete solution guide_2020.

2 Realize that you must answer all questions in relation to what’s safe for the patient Realize that preventing the spread of disease is top priority CADIOVASCULAR Realize the following in regards to a plasma cholest ...

2 Realize that you must answer all questions in relation to what’s safe for the patient Realize that preventing the spread of disease is top priority CADIOVASCULAR Realize the following in regards to a plasma cholesterol screening (measures the amount of cholesterol that one has): x Realize that only sips of water are permitted for 12 hours before plasma cholesterol screening to achieve accurate results Realize that after the application of a cast on the arm, the arm should be elevated to minimize swelling; it should be elevated for the first 24 – 48 hours; it should be protected from pressure and flattening of the cast Realize that a Tredelenburg test is used with a client who may have varicose veins Realize that a heartburn that radiates to the jaw indicates chest pain Realize that when a patient is receiving thrombolytic therapy, IM injections may cause bleeding. Realize that roasted chicken have low cholesterol Realize that if the pulse increases, it indicates that the tissues are not being perfuse correctly Realize that the normal RBC in males is 4.3 – 5.9 million/mm3; females 3.5 – 5.5 million Realize that a low platelet count will give problems with no blood clotting, allowing blood to infuse joints, putting client at risk for injury Realize that the most common cause of mitral valve problems is a history of rheumatic fever with a subsequent complication of carditis, which affects the valve Realize that the BP should always be taken on the opposite arm from the graft Realize that a normal range for CVP is 3 – 12 cm water pressure; a reading of 8 cm indicates a desired response to fluid replacement, avoiding a hypovolemic state x Realize that a CVP readings measures the pressure in the right atrium x Realize that a Swan-Ganz catheter measures the pulmonary artery wedge pressure, which is an indirect reading of the pressure in the left ventricle x Realize that a pulmonary artery catheter is a multi-lumen apparatus that allows for the following measurements: o Pulmonary artery pressures o Myocardial filling pressures o Cardiac output o Pulmonary resistance o Systemic resistance o Cardiac index – the cardiac output divided by the body surface area Realize that a nitroglycerine patch should be removed before an MRI test Realize that Buerger’s disease (thromboangiitis obliterans) is a vascular occlusive disease of the extremities causing a decreased blood flow to the feet and legs x Nurse must check for ulcers formation and gangrene x Results in thrombus x Seen in men 20 – 35 year old x Smoking is a causative factor x Pain at rest and coldness is a major system x Pain control is a goal of treatment x Fluids are not restricted x Goal of medical management is to prevent progression of disease3 Realize that the keep-open rate is the lowest possible infusion rate; this rate should not be allowed for a patient with sickle cell, as they need more hydration x Realize that a child with sickle cell should not be given aspirin because of bleeding tendencies x Realize that the keep-vein-open (KVO) rate is (20 mL/h); this rate will keep access open x Realize that you just keep sickle cell clients away from people with infections Realize that postoperative open heart clients should be encourage to be out of bed and ambulating as soon as possible, frequently one or two days after surgery Realize that elderly patient usually have lower temperature due to a lower basic metabolic rate x Realize that an elderly client is usually intolerant to cold Realize that recognition of adult hypertension should be done after two readings taken at least five minutes apart Realize the following about a sequential compression device (SCD) x Apply antiembolism stocking prior to applying the sequential compression device sleeves o Realize that stocking should be worn the entire time that client is in the hospital; it should be removed before baths and replaced after the skin is dry and before the client gets out of bed (non-ambulatory) o Realize that stocking is worn to prevent discomfort and to increase blood flow x Realize that you need to be able to fit two fingers between the sleeve and the leg x Realize that the SCD is used to decrease venous stasis and reduce the risk of thrombus formation Realize that if a patient has obese leg and thighs, it is not good to put elastic stocking on because it may decrease venous return because of constriction around the thigh and legs Realize that talcum powder is a toilet powder composed of perfumed; if a nurse applies it to a client’s feet, it allow easier applications of the stocking Realize that elevating the client legs before applying the stocking prevent stagnation of blood in the lower extremities Realize that when you apply the stocking, make sure that there are not wrinkles because they can cause irritation to the skin Realize the following about DVT: x Realize that a patient with DVT should not be ambulating; patient should be on bedrest for 5 – 7 days to prevent pulmonary embolisms and legs should be elevated with warm moist packs x Realize that the affected calf is expected to be warm x Realize that extremity edema is expected because of venous congestion x Realize that client needs to be given anticoagulants Realize the following about IV sites: x Realize that if tenderness and redness at the IV insertion site is noted, the IV catheter should be removed to prevent further damage to the vein; and warm soaks should be applied to decrease inflammation, swelling and discomfort o Realize that reddened area with red streaks is indicative of phlebitis x Realize that IV that are infiltrated should be discontinued and restarted at a new site; elevating the extremity may increase the rate of reabsorption of the fluid x Realize that unused solution are always discarded; site of catheter changed every 4 weeks, change IV tubing and filers every 24 hours x Realize that a marking pen should not be used on an IV bag; ink can penetrate the plastic and get into the solution; labeling should be done on the bag label using a regular pen x Realize that hypertonic dextrose solution similar to TPN is used to wean patient off TPN x Realize that extravasation is when a vesicant has filtrated; realize that a vesicant is a medication or IV solution that causes blisters and tissue sloughing (burning) o Realize that the following are medications that can cause a burn if infiltrated: gentatmicin, penicillin, vancomycin, dilantin, any antineoplastic, calcium, potassium and epinephrine o Realize that all infiltrations needs cool compresses except for vancomycin, which needs warm compresses x Realize that if a hematoma occurs, cool compresses are needed. Realize that whenever bleeding is suspected, cool compresses is best to constrict vessels to slow down or stop the bleeding4 x Realize that if IV line is clotted, it is best to just pull it and not use it; sometimes you can just dissolve the clot but this is not always recommended x Realize that with a CVP, after administration of medication, flush with saline and then a heparinized solution afterwards; flush every 12 hours or after medication administration x Realize that it is smart to limit manipulation of the cannula at the IV insertion site to prevent dislodgement x Realize that IV sites should not be close to joints because movements could cause displacement Realize that the correct sequence for cardiac assessment is inspection, palpation and then auscultation Realize that polyarteritis nodosa is inflammation of the small arteries causing diminished blood Realize that these forms of vagal or Valsalva maneuvers can reverse SVT: x Having a child stick their thumb in the mouth, close it and the blow Realize that if a patient is undergoing a septic shock and there is blood at the venipuncture site around an IV catheter, this is an indicator of dissememinated intravascular coagulation (DIC), a life-threatening problem. x Realize that sepsis is the most frequent cause of DIC x Realize that the reason there maybe blood around the venipuncture site is that the septic shock causes an increase in capillary permeability x Realize that DIC is an acquired clotting disorder from overstimulation; prolonged oozing from sites of minor trauma first symptom x Realize that disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is the hyperstimulation of coagulation pathways that eventually fails, resulting in bleeding o Realize that disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is not a disease, but a sign of an underlying condition o Realize that disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) maybe triggered by (1) sepsis, (2) trauma, (3) cancer, (4) shock, (5) abruption placentae, (6) toxins or (7) allergic reactions o Realize that in DIC, (1) the PT and PTT are prolonged and (2) the platelet count are reduced o Realize that the laboratory test that are specific for DIC are fibrin-split product (FSP)/fibrin degradation product (FDP) ƒ Realize that FDP is a group of soluble protein fragments that are produced by the proteolytic action of plasmin on fibrin or fibrinogen o Realize that clients with DIC should have oral swabs used in administering their oral care because it has the least potential cause of tissue injury in the oral cavity o Realize that clients with DIC should be protected from injury that will result in bleeding o Realize that patients with DIC may bleed from (1) mucous membrane, (2) veni-puncture sites and (3) the GI and urinary tract o Realize that during the initial process of DIC, the patients may have no new symptoms o Realize that the diagnosis of DIC is often established by (1) a drop in platelet count, (2) an increase in PT and aPTT, (3) an elevation in fibrin degradation product and (4) measurement of one or more clotting factor Realize that client diagnosed with anemia needs a diet high in protein, iron and vitamins Realize that the following foods have iron: x Beef x Brown rice x Raisins x Green beans x Carrots x Oatmeal-raisin Realize that hypothermia causes vasoconstriction and hypertension x Realize that hypothermia causes myocardial irritability, which disrupts conduction system of the heart and causes the heart to be near the fibrillation threshold, especially ventricular fibrillation x Realize that the external re-warming technique can cause re-warming shock and temperature afterdrop, which can lead to ventricular fibrillation Realize that during a paracentesis, shock may occur so a blood pressure cuff needs to be left on for monitoring5 x Realize that the following are complications of paracentesis: abdominal pain, rigidity and distention, nausea and vomiting x Realize that the nurse should make sure that the client voids just before a paracentesis to prevent a puncture of the bladder Realize that heat can facilitate hypotension Realize that isometric exercises such as heavy weight-lifting and rowing are contraindication in a hypertensive client Realize that a patient with a constant nose bleed needs to be told to pinch nose for 5 – 10 minutes with an ice-cold washcloth x Realize that silver nitrate applicator and gelfoam may be required to stop bleeding Realize that elevated blood glucose levels places a person at risk for heart disease Realize that defibrillation should be set to 200 joules, then 200 – 300 joules, and then 360 joules; these are emergency treatment for ventricular fibrillation; completely depolarizes myocardial cells so SA nodes can reestablish as pacemaker Realize that cardio-version is the restoration of normal sinus rhythm by chemical or electrical means x Realize that a sedative/hypnotic is used for sedation for the procedure x Realize that digitalis must be withheld for 48 hours before procedure to prevent ventricular fibrillation after cardioversion Realize that the sync button on the defibrillator is used for cardio-version to treat the following: x Atrial flutter x Atrial fibrillation x Supraventricular tachycardial synchronizes shock with R wave x Realize that it is important not to touch the bed when using the defibrillator; it is a priority to prevent accidental countershock Realize that following a total knee replacement, surgery may interrupt blood supply to the affect extremity x Realize that checking the incisional bleeding and recording the drainage is done every 4 hours Realize that after a heart attack, a male client can resume sexual activity when he can tolerate the physical activity of climbing two flights or stairs or walking one block without SOB or chest pain; patient should maintain a supine position and not have intercourse after a heavy meal Realize that a low fat and low cholesterol diet is recommended for a patient with hypertension; fried foods should be avoided; baking, roasting, boiling, or broiling are the only appropriate way of cooking for client with hypertension Realize that a patient with arteriosclerotic heart disease (ASHD) requires a diet that is low fat and low sodium. x Realize that baked chicken without the skin is low in fat and sodium x Realize that green vegetables low in fat and sodium x Realize that hotdogs and canned soup are high in sodium x Avocado is high in fat x Realize that ham is high in sodium x Realize that scrambled eggs, orange slices and milk have low sodium Realize that the following are risk factors of CVA: being black, being a male, substance abuse (cocaine especially), smoking, heavy alcohol use, diabetes, obesity, heart murmur, oral contraceptive use, sedentary lifestyle (job), migraines, history of myocardial infarction, elevated cholesterol Realize the following in regards to a migraine: x May have throbbing headache x May take ergotamines at the start of the migraine Realize that when a vascular sound or bruit (a swooshing sound) is heard over the abdominal aorta, it most often indicates aneurysm is present; physician should be notified immediately Realize that it is mandatory to check the pedal pulses after a cardiac catheterization immediately after the procedure and repeat it every 15 minutes for several hours to detect changes in circulation6 Realize that an appropriate diet for a client with hypertension is whole grains, and fresh fruits and vegatables Realize that sitting on the side of the bed enhances arterial supply of the leg Realize that elevating the leg does not increase circulation, it only promotes venous return Realize the following about Raynaud Syndrome: x Realize that yoga can decrease stress that can cause vasospasms; helps increase circulation x It is best to keep warm x Realize that the color of the finger changes from white to blue to red and is accompanied by tingling, numbness and burning pain Realize that many medications which are ordered as IV push or bolus need to be given slowly over several minutes; with the usage of a watch Realize that a nurse should expect that the emotional response of a client with a CVA of the left hemisphere to be most influenced by his/her personality and general health prior to the CVA Realize that clients with CVA will need the following nursing care: x The prevention of flexion of the affected extremities x Maintain adduction of the affected shoulder to prevent deformities x Client will be unable to perform active ROM, will need assistance from nurse x The nurse will need to prevent external rotation of the hip joint, prevent foot drop (plantar flexion) and place the hand in slight supination so that the fingers are barely flexed… all to prevent deformities Realize that the left hemisphere of the brain controls speech, math skills analytical thinking Realize that impulsive behavior is seen with right hemisphere CVA x Realize that a patient diagnosed with a CVA on the right hemisphere are often disoriented to time, place, person; has visual spatial defects; has proprioceptive (posture) difficulties, impulsive behavior, poor judgement, decreased attention span, lack of awareness or denial of neurological deficits increase risk of injury x Determine if client needs assistance with eating as difficulty in eating causes severe anxiety in CVA clients x Assist client in ambulating x Realize that you must speak to client using phrases and short sentences, as it will decrease tension and anxiety; client may understand some of the incoming communication if it is kept simple; speech may be re-learned with appropriate support and interventions Realize that disorientation to person, place and time is also seen with right hemisphere CVA Realize that the following may occur from a CVA: x Impaired motor skills x Lack of coordination x Mood change Realize the following about autologous blood donation: x Realize that the donor may give own blood up to 5 weeks before surgery x Realize that the donor will have to begin oral iron supplements, at least before the first transfusion x Realize that the donor can give 2 – 4 units of blood Realize the following in regards to blood transfusion: x Realize that a hemolytic reaction to blood transfusion may be a lower backache, hypotension, fever, vomiting, nausea, hematuria; transfusion must be stopped x Realize that a febrile reaction to blood transfusion is a fever, chills, nausea, headache; treatment is the stop blood and administer aspirin x Realize that an allergic reaction to blood transfusion is urticara (hives), pruritus, fever, wheezing, facial flushing, epiglottal edema ; treatment is to stop blood, give benadryl and administer oxygen x Realize that a circulatory overload to blood transfusion, the transfusion needs to stop, position client upright and administer oxygen7 Realize that normal serum albumin is 3.5 – 5.5 g/dL; albumin deficit decreases oncotic pressure and fluids shifts form vascular area to tissue x Realize that the albumin levels are the best indicators of long-term nutritional status Realize that a patient has an extremely low hemoglobin level; the nurse should do the following: x Provide oxygen x Draw a type and cross for 2 units packed red blood cells x Start IV x Place on cardiac monitor Realize that palpating the carotid pulses together can cause a vagal response and slow the client’s heart rate; it is a no no. Realize the following from right-sided heart failure: x Dependent edema, liver enlargement, congestion of the venous system resulting in peripheral edema, congestion of the gastric veins resulting in anorexia and eventual development of ascites enlargement of abdominal girth, anorexia, nausea, bloating, anxiety, fear, distended jugular vein, weight gain and depression x Realize that cor pulmonale is the hypertrophy or failure of the right ventricle resulting from disorders of the lungs, pulmonary vessels, chest walls or respiratory control center Realize that issues with left sided heart failure take priority over right sided-heart failure issues Realize the following from left sided heart failure: x Dyspnea, S3, dry non-productive cough x Realize that an S3 ventricular gallop is the earliest sign of heart failure Realize that pain in the chest after coughing indicate irritation of the parietal pleura or pericarditis Realize the following in regards to warfarin (Coumadin): x Warfarin (Coumadin) last for 2 – 5 days Realize the following about heparin: x Realize that heparin is an anticoagulant; lower limits of normal 20 – 25 seconds; upper limits of normal 32 – 39 second; therapeutic level is 1.5 – 2.5 times control x Realize that if the time is way over the time, protamine sulfate is needed (used to neutralize the anticoagulant action of heparin) x Realize that the time represents the time it takes for clotting x Realize that if a breast feeding client is receiving heparin, she will still be able to breastfeed; realize that heparin is not transmitted in breast milk Realize that the normal range of PT is 11-16 seconds and an INR of 0.8-1.2, meaning 80% to 120% range. Ideal INR is 100% or 1 x Realize that the lower the INR from 1, the quicker the blood clots. x Realize that the higher the INR from 1, the longer it takes for the blood to clot. x Realize that for people taking warafin, the normal INR is 2-3 range because their blood clots to easily. Realize that it is good to ensure accurate blood pressure cuffs to increase the accuracy of blood pressure readings Realize that patient with peripheral vascular disease (PVD), should sit with their feet flat on the floor or comparable surface and avoid crossing legs or wearing constrictive clothing x Realize that a moderate amount of walk promotes blood flow and the development of collateral circulation Realize that hearing aid battery may affect placement of permanent pacemaker x Realize that shortness of breath and dizziness is a symptom of decreased cardiac output with a pacemaker battery failure x Realize that a patient that is discharged with a pacemaker should be told to take their pulse everyday because a change in heart rate can signal a malfunction of the pacemaker; instruct client to take pulse for 1 full minute at the same time each day and record8 x Realize that anytime the pulse rate drops below the present rate on a pacemaker, the pacemaker is malfunctioning; realize that the pulse should be maintained at the minimal rate set on the pacemaker x Realize that the primary purpose of a pacemaker is increased cardiac output Realize the following in regards to a heat stroke: x Realize that anhydrosis (absence of sweating or diaphoresis) is usually present in heat stroke, so skin is hot and dry x Temperature is 105oF or above x May cause bizarre behavior, confusion, deliriousness or comatose x May cause hypotension x Realize that a headache may be the initial symptoms of hyperthermia Realize that when walking, if a client legs throbs, it may be indicative of a form of peripheral vascular disease Realize that fatigue is a useful guide in gauging activity tolerance in patient with decrease cardiac output; cardiomyopathy is subacute or chronic enlargement of heart Realize that with hemophilia, the most frequent site of bleeding are into muscles and joints; repeated bleeding episodes causes change in bone and muscles x Realize that it is a common misconception that one with hemophilia just constantly bleeds all the time; one needs to incur trauma first before bleeding can be an issue Realize the following in regards to platelet transfusion: x Realize that the standard transfusion sets are not used for platelet administration because the filter traps the platelets, and also there is an increased adherence of platelets to the lumen of the longer tubing; an administration set particularly designed for platelet must be used; it has a smaller filter and shorter tubing Realize that if a patient hematocrit increases by more than 4% in a span of two weeks, the likelihood of hypertension and seizure increases; thus the physician should be called to decrease dose of epoetin alpha (procrit) x Realize that epoetin alpha (procrit) may cause flu-like symptoms in the beginning of therapy and the following side effects: o Arthralgias (pain in joint), nausea, edema, reaction at injection site Realize the following in regards to CVC insertion: x Realize that the patient should not breath deep during insertion; patient should be instructed to perform valsalva maneuver to prevent air embolism x Realize that insertion occurs at the right side of the body, usually through the subclavian into the superior vena cava; turning the head away from the site makes the site more accessible and prevents contamination from airborne pathogens x Realize that if skin needs to be shaved, do it the night before to allow partial healing of minor skin irritations x Realize that patient will be placed in the Trendelenburg position to dilate veins and decrease risk of embolism Realize that the widening pulse pressure and bradycardia is a cardiac problem Realize that all processed foods have sodium Realize that abdominal pain is not associated with an MI Realize that ventricular dysthythmia is common after an MI Realize the following in regards to a myocardial infarction: x May have chest pain radiating to arms, jaw, and neck x Dyspnea x Indigestion x Apprehension x Low grade fever x Elevated WBC, ESR, CK-MB, LDH9 x Realize that the most common complication following a myocardial infarction is dysrhythmia, with ventricular types being the most serious Realize that a temporary pacemaker is an electronic device that is used for temporary cardiac pacing; in second degree blocks, only some of the impulses from the atria are conducted to ventricles; 2:1 or 3:1 Realize that after a coronary artery bypass graft (CABG), the client may see some swelling in the leg used for the donor graft; edema increases at home because the client is usually more active Realize that if during a PICC line removal that a piece of the catheter breaks off, a tourniquet needs to be tied to the upper arm to prevent the piece from moving into the right atrium Realize that morphine will do the following: x Decrease blood return to the right side of the heart (decrease preload and after-load pressure and cardiac workload) x Decrease peripheral resistance (causes vasodilation and pool of fluid in extremities) x Provides relief from anxiety x Realize that morphine would be administered prior to giving a client oxygen because it will decrease the heart’s oxygen consumption x Realize that morphine causes respiratory depression x Realize that morphine is contraindicated in head injury because it masks signs of increased intracranial pressure Realize that garlic capsules can be taken for hypertension Realize that nausea and being diaphoretic are potential signs for an MI Realize the following in regards to ambulatory electrocardiography: x Do not bathe or take shower during monitoring; sponge bath is fine x Client should record event in daily log x Realize that there is no reason to change a diet Realize that placing a client in the Trendelenbury position does not have full evidence that it increases oxygen perfusion to the brain… it is an unsubstantiated, but a common practice (don’t choose as an answer on the NCLEX) GI Realize that a Miller-Abbott tube is a tube that is used to relieve intestinal obstruction; it is inserted through a nostril; the tube is passed through the stomach and into the small intestine x Realize that intestinal tubes are often used for treatment of paralytic ileus Realize that women need 1,200 – 1,500 kcal/day; men need 1,500 – 1,800 kcal/day); women need 15 mg/day of iron; men need 10 mg/day of iron; pregnant women need 30 mg/day required Realize that there is an increase change of growth of organism after 4 hours with a formula bag for tube feedings… it should be changed every 4 hours Realize that legumes are an economical source rich in proteins Realize that oral hygiene with hydrogen peroxide destroys bacteria found in the mouth, reducing the chance of infection Realize that irritable bowel syndrome is a condition marked by abdominal pain (often relieved by the passage of stool or gas); disturbances of evacuation (constipation, diarrhea, or alternating episodes of both); bloating and abdominal distention; and the passage of mucus in stools. x Realize that irritable bowel syndrome is often called spastic bowel disease; no inflammation is present Realize the following in regards to an inguinal hernia: x Usually a bulge in the lower right quadrant x Usually pain at the umbilicus radiating down to the groin10 Realize that a classic symptom of hiatal hernia is associated with reflux; it is complaints of awakening at night with heartburns x Realize that clients with hiatal hernia should withhold food and fluids just before going to bed so food won’t slide (reflux) through the hernia, causing heart burn Realize that cystic fibrosis causes a deficiency in pancreatic enzymes that digest fats, carbohydrates and proteins x Realize that a client with cystic fibrosis requires a high protein diet x Realize that a client with cystic fibrosis requires a low fat diet; realize that fat needs to be decrease because it interferes with the absorption of other nutrients x Realize that a client with cystic fibrosis requires a high calorie diet x Realize that a client with cystic fibrosis has an impairment of intestinal absorption Realize that eructation is the production of gas from the stomach, usually with a characteristic sound; belching Realize that if a patient has a dry, parched (extreme dry) mouth and tongue, the mouth should be rinsed with room temperature tap water before and after meals Realize that an elderly client needs to increase protein intake to slow down the degeneration process Realize that a herniorrhaphy is a surgical procedure for repair of a hernia Realize that a guaiac test is a test for unseen blood in the stool Realize that alcohol increases the risk of GI bleeding Realize that when the bowel perforates as a result of increased intraluminal pressure within the gut, intestinal content are released into the peritoneum, leading to peritonitis; this client needs to prepare for emergency surgery Realize that pyorrhea is the discharge of purulent matter Realize that red, swollen gums can indicate pyorrhea, which is caused by improper cleaning and poor mouth hygiene Realize that polyethylene glycol-electrolyte (GoLYTELY) is an osmotic laxative x Realize that 4 liters of polyethylene glycol-electrolyte (GoLYTELY) needs to be ingested x Realize that once polyethylene glycol-electrolyte (GoLYTELY) is ingested, the client must only drink water x Realize that tap water can be used to reconstitute the polyethylene glycol-electrolyte (GoLYTELY) poweder x Realize that a client must not drink the polyethylene glycol-electrolyte (GoLYTELY) solution cold because it can cause hypothermia Realize that a colonoscopy is not a painful procedure Realize that bowel prep and NPO status puts a patient at high risk for imbalances Realize the following in regards to suppository insertion: x Client must breath through the insertion to relax the rectal muscles x The suppository should be positioned to touch the wall of the clients rectum x The suppository should be inserted to 3 to 4 inches into the patient rectum x Lubricant should be applied to the tip of the suppository before insertion Realize that charcoal, if given within two hours, will absorb particles of salicylate from an aspirin overdose; it is important to determine when client last took aspirin Realize that you should inform client to breath slowly when performing palpation techniques on the abdomen as it will enhance relaxation of the abdominal muscles Realize that bimanual palpitation is just the usage of both hands to palpate Realize the following about diverticulosis:11 x Realize that diverticula is an outpouching of the walls of a canal x Pain in the left lower quadrant (colicky pain) x Pain relieved by passage of stool or fart x Associated with dietary deficiency with fiber x Should be placed on high fiber diet x Should take bulk laxative x Must be NPO x Realize that foods that are indigestible may block the diverticula o Realize that the following foods should be avoid: ƒ Seeds, nuts, corn, popcorn, cucumbers, tomatoes, figs, strawberries, and caraway seeds Realize that the use of the stethoscope to palpate the patient’s abdomen, with the fingers moving over the edge of the diaphragm is used to decrease ticklishness and the voluntary guarding that results; realize that when the fingers drifts over the diaphragm edge, the nurse can palpate without causing ticklishness Realize that contact precautions is always required for clostridium difficile, which causes pseudomenbranous colitis Realize that the fact that a patient that is diapered and incontinent makes them contact precaution requirement because of the fecal contamination potential Realize that eating onion, beans and cucumbers contributes to gas production (fart) x Realize that chewing gum, skipping meals and drinking beer contributes to the production of flatus (fart) Realize the following about a colostomy, sigmoid colostomy or ileostomy: x You can place a commercially prepared deodorizer inside the pouch to eliminate an odor x Realize that the colostomy should be irrigated at the same time every day to assist in establishing a normal pattern of elimination x Realize that drinking helps prevent odor x Realize that eating crackers, toast and yogurt actually helps prevent odor x Realize that anything that low residue prevent odor x Output from ileostomy needs to be measured because it is usually liquids and in copious mount x Realize that you must not use moisturizers (emollient) because it prevents a good seal around the stoma x Realize that drainage from ileostomy is very irritating to the skin x Realize that irrigation of sigmoid colostomy is not necessary more than once a day x Realize that the ostomy bag should be changed at least once a week; which is a good time for the stoma to be closely inspected o Realize that the ostomy bag needs to be change more frequently if the seal around the stoma is loose or leaking x Realize that all activities that the client participated in before the colostomy may be resumed after appropriate healing of the stoma or incision x Realize that if the stoma appears to be tight and there is a decrease amount of stool and this information needs to be reported to the physician because it may indicate an obstruction or stoma stricture Realize the following in regards to an ileal conduit: x Realize that an ileal conduit is a method of diverting the urinary flow by transplanting the ureter into a prepared and isolated segment of the ileum x Realize that soap and water should be use to clean skin, no an antiseptic solution x Realize that it is important to apply a close-fitting drainage bag to the stoma to avoid urine from contacting the skin x Realize that you must not use moisturizers (emollient) because it prevents a good seal around the stoma Realize that the contrast from GI studies can interfere with other examinations, thus, should be scheduled after those examinations Realize the following in peptic ulcer disease (PUD): x Diets rich in milk and cream needs to be avoid because they stimulate acid secretions x Symptoms are: o Dull pain o Gnawing pain o Burning in the midepigastrium x Avoid aspirin12 x Avoid motrin x Avoid meat extracts x Avoid alcohol x Avoid caffeinated beverages x If client taking a histamine blocker (cimetidine, tagamet) then small frequent feedings are not necessary Realize that clients with gastric ulcers may be malnourished because food may cause nausea or vomiting x Realize that pain related to gastric ulcer occurs about 0.5 to 1 hour after a meal and rarely at night and pain is not helped by ingestion of food Realize that client with duodenal ulcers experience pain after meals Realize that in acute appendicitis, the pain (lower right quadrant) usually comes prior to the nausea and vomiting (McBurney’s point) x No heating pads, enemas or laxatives should be used x Hold analgesics to avoid blunting pain because it will make it hard for diagnosis purposes x Client should be NPO x Place ice bag on abdomen x Place client in Fowler’s position in postop to decrease tension on the abodmen Realize that nausea and vomiting that comes before abdominal pain frequently indicate gastroenteritis Realize that frequent use of nasal sprays to relieve allergic symptoms can result in vasoconstriction that causes atrophy of nasal membranes, resulting in decreased integrity of blood vessels, resulting in nosebleeds Realize that clients need a slow, steady weight gain of no more than 2 lbs per week; rapid weight gain can put undue stress on the heart Realize that if the skin over the abdomen is taut and glistening, it indicates ascites Realize that small frequent amounts of watery diarrhea with abdominal pain and nausea may indicate possible bowel obstruction that can be lifethreatening if the bowel perforates x Realize that a distended abdomen with complaints of pain is an indication of an obstruction x Realize that nausea and vomiting are also signs obstruction Realize that drinking contract for an abdominal CT scan and feeling nauseated is common Realize that sitting in a high Fowler’s position at 90 degrees will lessen aspiration risk by utilizing the pressure of gravity to pass food through the stomach and into the duodenum; sitting before a meal allows for a rest period before eating, which helps minimize fatigue and therefore helps the patient’s desire to eat and enhances swallowing efforts Realize that six small meals versus three large ones can increase swallowing-muscles strength and are easier to digest Realize that when one has a difficult time of swallowing, peanut butter is to be avoided because it is sticky in the mouth and the throat; most milk products are avoided because they produce mucus Realize that a Sengstaken-Blakemore esophagogastric tube provides balloon tamponade to stop bleeding of esophageal varices; inflated esophageal balloon can obstruct airway; in case of airway obstruction, use scissors to cut tube’s balloon port x Realize that with an esophagogastric tube, assess vital signs for decreased blood pressure and elevated pulse; ensure that balloon pressure and volume is maintained Realize that muscles spasms are associated with vomiting; these muscle spasms can cause severe pain and if an abdominal surgery is present, it can threaten the integrity of the wound Realize that the following in regards to colorectal cancer and it’s risk factor: x Being over 40 x History of ulcerative colitis x Diet for ulcerative colitis is high protein, high calorie and low residue (to rest bowel)13 x A diet high in fat, high in protein and low in fiber/ residue is a risk factor for colorectal cancer Realize the following about an NGT: x Realize that a Levin tube is an NGT x Realize that tube feedings should be given at room temperature to minimize intestinal cramping x Realize that clamping the tube between feedings prevent introduction of air and loss of liquid x Prevent aspiration x Prevent cramping (warming up the formula to room temperature) x Prevent air from entering the stomach by clamping the proximal end of the feeding tube x Realize that a Salem sump tube is an NGT o Realize that a Salem sump tube is working correctly if there is a hissing sound from the blue lumen tube; hissing sound is indicative of air that is freely exiting the airway, purpose is to provide continuous steady suction without pulling gastric mucosa x Realize that if the air vent of the Salem sump tube fills with stomach contact, the nurse can clear it by inserting 30 mL of air through it; realize that clearing the air vent will re-establish proper suction in the tube x Realize that the nurse should first assess if the tube is open and draining to determine if there is a problem with the nasogastric tube; if it is patent and draining, it does not need to be irrigated x Realize that medication can be administered thru the NGT only after properly placement has been checked x Realize that in order to check for proper placement, the nurse should check the pH (0 – 4) of the content aspirated from the NGT o Realize that the nurse should flush the NGT with 30 ml of air before aspirating fluids x Realize that with an NGT placement, a 60 – 90 degree fowler position best facilitates swallowing and the movement of the NGT through the GI tract x Realize that an Ewald tube is an OGT; insertion often causes gagging and vomiting so a suction equipment is needed to reduce the risk of aspiration Realize that the basic guidelines to teach a post-gastrectomy client are measures to prevent dumping syndrome, which include: lying down for 30 minutes after meals, drinking fluids between meals, and reducing intake of carbohydrates Realize that dumping syndrome is a syndrome marked by sweating and weakness after eating; occurs in patient who have had gastric resections x Realize that a desire to lie down is one of the early manifestations of dumping syndrome, which also includes vasomotor disturbances of syncope, symptoms manifestations (90 minutes to 3 hours after eating) x Realize that client should decrease intake of carbohydrates since they are the first food to be digested x Realize that undigested foods is dumped into the jejunum, resulting in distention, cramping, pain, diarrhea 15 – 30 minutes after eating; causes diaphoresis, diarrhea, and hypotension x Restrict fluids with meals x Eat smaller frequent meals x Low carbohydrate and fiber diet Realize the following about Billroth II (gastrojejunostomy): x Realize that after a Billroth II (gastrojejunostomy), dumping syndrome can occur x Realize that lying down after eating is recommended in order to delay the gastric emptying process x Realize that eating lying down or semirecubent is another measure that can be taken x Realize that a desire to lie down is one of the early manifestations of dumping syndrome, which also includes vasomotor disturbances of syncope, symptoms manifestations (90 minutes to 3 hours after eating) x Realize that it needs to be understood that patients with Billroth II (gastrojejunostomy) is an exception to the rule of not lying down after eating… as this patient must lie down after eating Realize that vomiting for 2 weeks can cause electrolyte imbalance and decrease cardiac output Realize that if weight is below 75% of ideal body weight, it is considered medically unstable Realize that progressive systemic sclerosis causes dysphagia and esophageal reflux; instruct the client to avoid spicy foods, caffeine, and alcohol because they stimulate gastric secretions Realize the following about bulk-forming laxative (psyllium hydrophilic mucilloid) (Metamucil): x Realize that bulk-forming laxatives is the category of laxative that is usually seen as the safest, even when taken on a routine basis14 x Realize that laxatives are to be used as a last resort x Realize that the following are bulk-forming foods: cereal, fresh fruits and vegetables Realize that docusate sodium (colace) could not be used regularly because of laxative dependency, bowel damage, electrolyte imbalance; Colase is an emollient (moisturizes) laxative of the fecal-softener type Realize that magnesium hydroxide (milk of magnesia) is a saline laxative that if use chronically can significantly alter the electrolyte balance, causing dehydration and lead to dependence Realize the following about ulcerative colitis: x It is an inflammation and ulceration of the colon and rectum; requires high-calories, high-protein, low-fat, low-residue diet x It is characterized by eroded areas of the mucous membrane and tissue beneath it x Need TPN to rest bowel x Maintain fluid/ electrolyte balance x Occurs in 30 – 50 year old x Fat is not present in the stool; blood, pus and mucus are present in stool x Rectal bleeding is common x Diarrhea occurs, often bloody o Chronic diarrhea stool occurring 10 to 12 times per day x Weight loss, anemia, dehydration occurs x Fistula formation is rare Realize that a pilonidal cyst is often in the sacrococcygeal region Realize that ecchymosis (superficial bleeding under the skin) around the umbilicus or in either flank indicates retroperitoneal bleeding Realize that anorexia nervosa has little to do with appetite and more to do with the fear of obesity and losing control over food intake x Realize that a client with anorexia nervosa would want to talk about and plan their meal; they display a marked preoccupation with food x Realize that clients with an eating disorder experience difficulty with self-identity and self-esteem Realize that menstruation is usually absent in anorexic women; it’s return is a measure of successful treatment. Realize that patients with GERD should not drink carbonated beverages because they caused increased pressure in the stomach x Realize that a patient with GERD should sleep on their left side with their head elevated 6 – 12 inches to prevent nighttime reflex Realize the following about acute epiglottis and its following symptoms: x Sitting upright to breathe better is a symptom x Tongue protrusion increases pharyngeal movement x Drooling caused by difficulty swallowing because of pain and excessive secretions Realize the following in regards to bowel sounds: x Realize that no sounds heard in 3 to 5 minutes indicates intestinal obstruction x Realize that 1 or 2 sounds heard in two minutes indicates a decrease motility of bowels x Realize that normal bowels sounds are 5 – 30 sounds per minute x Realize that greater than 30 sounds per minutes indicates increases motility due to gastroenteritis, diarrhea, and laxative use x Realize that client will have a high pitch bowel sound ABOVE the area of obstruction; client will have absent or decrease bowel sound below obstruction Realize the following in regards to a hemorrhoidectomy: x Realize that after a hemorrhoidectomy, client should be monitored for urinary retention; urinary retention occurs because of the closeness of the bladder to the surgical site and the occurrence of rectal spasms and anorectal tenderness; catheterize to empty bladder x Realize that sitz bath should be taken three or four times per day beginning after 12 hours postop to manage pain.15 Realize that if an evisceration occurs after abdominal surgery, the intestine should be kept moist and covered with a soaked sterile dressing soaked in sterile saline; patient should be placed in low fowler’s position; instruct patient not to cough x Realize that low fowler’s position (head elevated 15 degrees) reduces stress on the suture lines; client may also be placed supine with the hips and knees bent x Realize that elevating the head of the bed to 30 – 45 degrees would reduce stress on a suture line on a patient recovery from an appendectomy o Realize that following an appendectomy, the client should be encouraged to take a deep breath, hold their incision and then cough, as this is the most effective way to deep breath and cough… it dilates airway and expands the lung surface area Realize the following about abdominal incisions: x A slight swelling is expected during healing x A slight crusting of incision line is normal x Realize that the incision line should not be red, as it indicates an infection x Realize that the incision line should be pink Realize that kale is a cabbage Realize that a good source of folate is the following: x Green leafy vegetables x Legumes x Tomatoes x Various fruits such as oranges and cantaloupe Remember that milk is a good source of vitamin D Realize that in acute inflammatory bowel disease, red wine may exacerbate the inflammatory condition; should avoid whole-grain breads; diet should be low-residue, high protein and high calorie during the acute phase Realize that a low-residue diet is a diet in which fiber and other foods that are harder for your body to digest are restricted x Realize that the following foods are low-residue: o A cup of beef bouillon o Steam white rice o Strawberry gelatin o Clear chicken broth o Two slices of white toast o Apple sauce o Apple juice o Cottage cheese o Crackers Realize that small, frequent meals facilitate gastric emptying and decrease heartburns; take low-sodium antacids Realize that celiac disease is malabsorption, weight loss, and diarrhea resulting from immunological intolerance to dietary wheat products. x Realize that celiac disease is an inborn error in wheat and rye metabolism x Realize that intestinal malabsorption occurs, resulting in malnutrition x May have diarrhea x Realize that a gluten free diet is needed, no wheats, oats, rye, and barley x Realize that a diet should only contain high calories, high protein Realize that performing an enema is a standard, unchanging procedure that can be delegated to the nursing assistant; responsibility and authority for performing the task (function, activity, decision) is transferred to another individual; it is the nurse’s responsibility to describe clear outcomes; observing returns is a part of the task delegated and should be performed by the nursing assistant x Realize that describing the returns from the enema is part of the responsibilities delegated; nurse should monitor performance and results according to established goals x Realize that enemas should be performed after breakfast to avoid potential nausea16 x Realize that patient should bath after an enema x Realize that with an enema, the irrigation bag should be 12 – 18 inches above the rectum Realize the following in regards to acute pancreatitis: x Records of daily weight should be obtained because of fluid and electrolyte imbalances; assess intake and output, skin turgor and mucus membranes x Realize that mereridine sulfate (Demerol) should be avoided due to potential toxicity x Realize that client should be NPO to decrease the secretion of secretin from the pancreas; nasogastric suctioning removes gastric secretions and decreases abdominal distention x Realize that bedrest decreases the metabolic rate and the secretion of pancreatic enzymes x May cause acute mid-abdominal pain x May cause acute vomiting x Associated with males between 40 – 45 with a history of heavy drinking x Associated with females between 50 – 55 diagnosed with biliary disease x Maintain fluid/electrolyte balance x Low-fat, bland diet x Small frequent feeding x Respiratory care, touch cough and deep breath every two hours Realize that vitamin B12 is used for patients with pernicious anemia Realize that liquid medication that contains sorbitol (sweetening agent) that is given thru a gastric tube may cause diarrhea if the client is allergic to sorbitol Realize that a disoriented, confused client who is unable to care for himself will require cues from the nurse to eat; the client will needs cues from the nurse to feed him/her self; goal is for the client to feed self Realize that the following are ways to prevent constipation: x Increase intake of soluble and insoluble dietary fibers; eat two to four serving of fruits per day as well as three to five servings of vegetables Realize that lying on the right side with the head of the bed elevate promotes gastric emptying while preventing aspiration Realize that in order to prevent complications with a client with an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA), the client needs to be encourage to increase fluid intake and dietary fibers to prevent constipation and the need for straining with bowel movements that may cause increased intraabdominal pressure and risk of rupture x Realize that in regards to aortic aneurysm (AAA), it’s all about not increasing intra-abdominal pressure x Realize that intra-abdominal pressure while an aortic aneurysm (AAA) exist may lead to the rupture of the aneurysm x Realize that after an aortic aneurysm (AAA) repair, if the client vital signs show signs of shock still, maintain the client on bed-rest and evaluate for a decrease in CVP readings with previous readings o IV fluids rate will be increased Realize that when one has diarrhea, they should consume only low-residue diets when having diarrhea; white bread and refined cereals are well tolerated Realize that a mouth wash that is glycerin-based will cause dehydration and irritation of the tissues Realize that placing an heating pad to the abdomen once a day will cause a reflex vasodilation of the extremities, with is good for an elderly person with peripheral arterial insufficiency Realize that a stroke may occur up to 72 hours after the first one Realize that regular exercise helps to prevent constipation Realize that a food/feeling/thoughts action journal is good for assess a client’s eating habits Realize that a tonsillectomy may cause frequent swallowing, which indicates bleeding at the throat; should be observe when a child awakes and is asleep; other signs are increased pulse, pallor, and vomiting bright red blood17 Realize that hypokalemia can cause the following: x Hypertension x CHF x Digitalis toxicity with frequent premature ventricular complexes (PVCs) x May cause muscle weakness x May cause lethargy Realize the following in regards to a hiatal hernia: x Instruct client not to lie down for one hour after eating x Elevate head when sleeping Realize that the concept with gastritis is to rest the bowel: x Realize that if client is vomiting all the time, do not give food… realize that you must slowly put the client on a bland diet as client will need to be NPO Realize the following in regards to Crohn’s disease: x 20 to 30 and 50 to 80 year olds are victims of this disease x Steathorrhea is common x Colicky abdominal pain after meals x Diarrhea is rare x Weight loss, anemia and dehydration occurs x Fistula formation is common x Ileum and right colon are affected Realize that drinking too much fluids can over distend the stomach and ultimately increase a client’s nausea LIVER Realize that fatigue and dark urine are the initial indications of hepatic dysfunction Realize that a distended abdomen and splenomegaly indicates the possibility of internal bleeding… a life-threatening situation Realize the following in regards to cholecystitis: x May cause nausea x May cause frequent belching x May cause right upper abdominal pain Realize the following in regards to the T-tube: x It serves two purpose, (1) to allow drainage of bile and (2) to allow the introduction of media x Client should avoid strenuous exercise x Client should not immerse T-tube in water x Realize that the expected drainage is 500 – 1000 mL/day initially, will gradually decrease Realize that following a cholecystectomy, the client is usually discharged the day of surgery or the next day; ensure that the client has help at home for the first 24 – 48 hours x Realize that after an abdominal cholecystectomy, the client should place a pillow against the abdomen, take three deep breath, hold the breath and then cough 2 – 3 times; this should be done every two hours to prevent respiratory complications; splinting prevent abdominal jarring x Realize that if the client complains of severe abdominal pain in the right upper quadrant, it could indicate peritonitis or wound infection Realize that the following are the sources of vitamin K: x Green salad (most green vegetables), pork18 x Realize that if a client has vitamin K deficiency, it means that they can bleed easily; realize that the nurse should carefully check the client’s arm after taking the blood pressure for any bruises Realize that the normal ammonia range is 80 – 110 g/dL Realize that the normal AST liver enzyme range is 8 – 20 units Realize that the normal ALT liver enzyme range is 8 – 20 units Realize that the normal bilirubin range is 0.1 – 1.0 mg/dL Realize that a patient should be lying on his right side for several hours after a liver biopsy to promote hemostasis and thereby prevent hemorrhage and bile leakage x Realize that in preparation of a liver biopsy, the nurse should position the client supine with the arms raised above the head to allow access to the liver; realize that the needle is inserted between two of the lower ribs or below the right rib cage Realize that due to biocultural skin variations, signs of early jaundice are best observed on the posterior hard palate in Asians; involved with taking isoniazid Realize jaundice may signal metastatic disease Realize that jaundice indicates a possible stone in the bile duct causing obstruction Realize the following about alcohol withdrawal symptoms: x Realize that being hyper-alert, being easily started, and anorexia are early symptoms from alcohol x Increase in pulse, anxiety, tremors, insomnia, hallucinations, restless, agitated, irritable x Realize that alcohol withdrawal peaks 24 – 48 hours after last drink x Realize that an elevated pulse rate is a good indicator of a client’s progress through alcohol withdrawal x Realize that a steady increase in vital signs indicates that the client is approaching delirium tremens (the most severe expression of alcohol withdrawal syndrome), which can be avoided with additional sedation Realize that chronic alcohol use is the most common cause of hypomagnesemia (<1.5 mEq/L); which may result in cardiac arrest; manifestations include increase neuromuscular irritability, tremors, tetany, seizures Realize that the best way to identify possible physical of alcohol depended is through a complete physical assessment Realize that hepatic toxicity is a serious complication resulting from an acute Tylenol overdose that manifests approximately 1 to 3 days after initial ingestion; there is an increase in ALT and AST Realize the following in regards to hepatitis A and its symptoms: x Fatigue x Anorexia o Realize that anorexia clients are unable to eat large meals x Intolerance to odors x Encourage client to eat all small meals and snacks; if client has nausea later, offer morning meals that are rich in nutrients x Should eat protein from milk, meat and eggs x Should increase calories to 2,000 to 3,000 calories per day to meet energy needs x Realize that hepatitis A is not infectious within a week or so after the onset on jaundice x Only requires standard precaution Realize that early signs of alcohol withdrawal are tremors, elevated pulse, anxiety, being startled easily; these signs begin a few hours after reduction of alcohol intake and peak in 24 – 48 hours Realize that patient with chronic alcoholism needs supplements with all B vitamins, especially thiamine (vitamin B1); thiamine deficiency is the primary cause of alcohol-related changes such as Wernicke’s encephalopathy and Korsakoff’s syndrome Realize the following in regards to disulfiram (antabuse) and its side effects:19 x Realize that taking disulfiram (antabuse) helps to minimize complications from the sedative effects of the drug x Realize that the longer a client take disulfiram (antabuse), the more sensitive he/she will be to alcohol x Realize that any contact with any amount or any form of alcohol, even a very small amount will cause an alcohol-disulfiram reaction, which is extremely uncomfortable and may even lead to shock and cardiac dysthythmia Realize that in the event of ascites, albumin (albuminar) is given to pull fluid back into the blood vessel; then a diuretic is given to remove the excess fluids Realize the following with cirrhosis: x May need shunt to relieve portal hypertension x Realize that early in the disease process, client will need a high protein, high carbohydrate diet x Realize that later in the disease process, client will need to be restricted on fiber, protein, fat and sodium x Avoid alcohol x Avoid sodium, fluid restrictions x Monitor for bleeding; administer blood x Measure abdominal girth; weight client daily x Assess for respiratory difficulties x Realize that an impaired thought process is an early symptom of chronic cirrhosis RESPIRATORY Realize that Kussmaul respirations (very deep breathing) are associated with diabetic ketoacidosis Realize that specimens should be obtain in the early morning because secretions develop during the night; the nurse should have the client cough deeply and expectorate into a container upon awakening Realize that the purpose of the cuff on the tracheostomy tube is to decrease the chance of aspiration into the trachea Realize that clients with full-thickness burns to the face, neck, chest or abdominal burns results in severe edema, causing airway restriction Realize that clients who abuse marijuana experience cravings for sweets and carbohydrates Realize that a nasal septum disruption is indicative of cocaine use; realize that chronic inhalation of cocaine creates sores, burns, disruption of mucous membranes and holes in the nasal septum Realize that the extension of the neck could obstruct airway because the tongue falls in back of the mouth Realize that every positive PPD (Mantoux) test should be verified with a chest x-ray Realize that pertusis is a contagious disease characterized by paroxysmal coughing; vomiting that follows that cough, and a whooping inspiration. x Realize that pertusis requires droplet precaution, a private room and a distance of 3 feet between patient is visitor Realize that the nurse should only use the finger tips (not palm of hand) when palpating the uterine contraction in active labor Realize that status asthmaticus (persistent and intractable asthma) is a life threatening condition that can last longer than 24 hours Realize that an increase in respiratory rate passed 20 actually decreases the oxygenation towards the tissues Realize the following in regards to a pneumonectomy (excision of an entire lung) postoperatively: x Realize that the position of the tracheal should be evaluated; a tracheal shift occurs because an increase in pressure occurs on the operative side and causes pressure against the mediastinal area Realize that ROME refers “Respiratory Opposite (ph , PCO2 ) Metabolic Equal (ph , HCO3 )” x Realize that when compensated, the compensated pH takes the value of the bicarbonate and is named either acidosis or alkalosis Realize that respiratory acidosis (lungs) consist of the following:20 x Increased PaCO2 x Decreased pH x Indicates respiratory failure because too much carbon dioxide is building up Realize that respiratory alkalosis (lungs) consist of the following: x Decreased PaCO2 x Increased pH x Indicates hyperventilation Realize that metabolic acidosis (kidneys) consist of the following: x Decreased HCO3─ x Decreased pH Realize that metabolic alkalosis (kidneys) consist of the following: x Increased HCO3─ x Increased pH Realize that when interpreting ABG’s, it is all about (1) the pH, (2) the PaCO2 and (3) the HCO3─ Realize that after a bronchoscopy, the nurse must make sure that the client gag reflex is back x Realize that the gag reflex can be assessed by touching the back of the client throat with a tongue depressor x Realize that the client also be assessed for symptoms of respiratory distress from swelling to do the procedure; signs of respiratory distress are tachypnea, tachycardia, respiratory stridor and retractions x Realize that client should be placed in the Semi-Fowler’s position after a bronchoscopy Realize that a chest tube drainage of 100 mL/hour is abnormal and needs to be reported x Realize that when the fluctuation stops with a chest tube, it indicates the re-expansion of the lung… a chest x-ray will be needed to confirm re-expansion Realize that suctioning decreases oxygen levels x Realize that suctioning is always performed PRN x Realize that client should hyperoxygenate to prevent anoxia prior to suctioning x Realize that when suctioning, the nurse should put the pressure between 90 – 120 mmHg x Realize that the nurse should use a #12 or #14 suction catheter x Realize that the nurse should suction the trachea first, then the mouth x Realize that in order to assess the effectiveness of suctioning, auscultate the client’s chest to determine if adventitious sounds are cleared and to ensure that the airway is clear of secretions x Realize that the following is the proper procedure in suctioning: o Insert suctioning catheter until resistance is met without applying suction o With draw 1 – 2 cm and apply intermittent suction with twirling motion Realize that the intubation blade (laryngoscope) needs to be gas sterilized after use Realize that tactile fremitus assesses air vibrations in the bronchial tubes as they are transmitted to the chest wall, as the client is instructed to say ninety-nine repeatedly Realize the following about a patient with active tuberculosis: x Patient must be placed on airborne precautions, negative air-pressured room, with the door closed; the air should be vented directly to the outside of the building or filtered before it is re-circulated x Realize that tuberculosis is an infectious disease transmitted by droplets infections via airborne route; to prevent resistant strain, 2 or 3 medications are usually administer concurrently o These medications are isoniazid (INH), rifampin (rifadin) and ethambutol (myambutol) x May cause low-grade fever and night sweats21 x May cause fatigue, lethargy, nausea, anorexia and weight loss x Realize that client will be require to take prescribed medication for 6 – 9 months Realize that albuterol is used to treat asthma attacks Realize that beclomethasone is an anti-inflammatory that is used to prevent asthma attacks x Late clubbing o Realize that recent research links clubbing with the physiology of platelet production, as it occurs from fragments of platelet being trapped in the fingertip vasculature due to a disruption of pulmonary circulation. Realize that these fragments of platelet release their “platelet derived growth factors”, promoting the growth of vessels, which ultimately shows as clubbing, which develops slowly over the years and is reversible. o Realize that clubbing of nails occurs with the following: ƒ Congenital cyanotic heart disease x Cyanosis associated with stenosis of the following: o Pulmonary artery orifice o Ventricular septal defect o Patent foramen ovale o Ductus arteriosus ƒ Neo-plastic disease ƒ Pulmonary disease x Emphysema x Chronic bronchitis o Realize that in early clubbing, the following occurs: ƒ The angle straightens out to 180o degrees ƒ The nail base feels spongy to palpation ƒ The nails are convex as the digit grows o Realize that per the professor, clubbing is also caused by the following: ƒ Chronic anemia ƒ COPD Realize that the following is what is considered normal angle at the nail base: x 160 o degrees x 160 o degrees or less Realize the following about the Schamroth method: x Realize that the schamroth methold is to place the fingernails of the ring finger together and hold them to the light; if a diamond shape is visible between the nails, there is no clubbing Realize that chronic iron deficiency anemia may show “spoon” nails (koilonychias) x Beau’s line ─ a transverse furrow or groove. o Realize the following about beau’s lines: ƒ They are depressions across the nail that extends down to the nail bed ƒ They occur with any trauma that impairs nail formation, such as the following: x Acute illness x Toxic reactions x Local trauma ƒ Dents appear first at the cuticle and the moves forward as the nail grows Pitting ─ characterized by pitting and crumbling of the nails with distal detachment often occurs with psoriasis (red papules and scaly silvery plaques with sharply defined borders) Realize that influenza requires droplet precautions (3 feet away) used for organisms that can be transmitted by face-to-face contact x Realize that droplet precautions last for 5 days; longer for immunocompromised clients Realize that dust mites are triggers for asthma; fabric from bedding on upper bunk (of a bunk-bed) can harbor dust mites; encourage asthmatic clients not to sleep or lie down on upholstered furniture; only used furniture that can be wiped with a damp cloth (wood, plastic, vinyl, or leather)22 x Realize that mattresses and pillows need to be encased and zippered with an allergen-impermeable cover x Realize that if the pollen count is high outside, then the client hair needs to be washed every night and change clothes after playing outside x Realize that the symptoms of asthma are the following: o Dyspnea o Wheezing o Nonproductive cough o Tachycardia o Tachypnea o Realize that the main cause of asthma is inhaled allergens, (animal dander, mold, pollen, dust); must avoid pollen and dust from leaves x Realize that a patient with asthma is not infectious Realize that if a patient is receiving TPN, an air embolism can occur; in which the patient needs to be put in a lateral Trendelenburg position on the left side essential to displace air away from the pulmonary artery and into the apex of the heart; notify physican x Realize that this really pertains to air enter the body via CVP catheter Realize that air embolism have the following symptoms: x Dyspneic x Diaphoretic x Anxious x Restless x Coughing x Chest pain Realize that hyperglycemic reactions with TPN are the following: x Headache x Weakness x Nausea x Vomiting x Dehydration x Osmotic dieresis x Hypovolemic shock Realize that whenever a client is receiving TPN, the serum glucose (every 6 hours) and electrolytes must be checked several times a week Realize that if a TPN line is unable to be flushed patent, then the lumen should be labeled as clotted off, a Luer-Lock cap should be placed and a physician should be notified Realize that powder should never be used for a patient with a tracheostomy, as it could occlude airway Realize that tracheostomy dressing should never be cut; as it could leave fibers that would occlude the airweay x Realize that tracheostomy dressing needs to already be pre-cut Realize that after inbation, lung sounds need to be assess for bilateral lung sounds and bilateral chest excursion Realize the following about flail chest: o Realize that a flail chest is caused by a free floating segment of rib resulting from multiple of rib cage fractures o Realize that a pulmonary contusion is a common thoracic injury and is frequently associated with flail chest o Realize that for mild moderate flail chest injuries, the underlying pulmonary contusion is treated by monitoring fluid intake and appropriate fluid replacement while relieving chest pain. o Realize that for a severe flail chest injury, endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation are required to provide internal pneumatic stabilization of the flail chest and to correct abnormalities in gas exchange. o Realize that a flail chest flail chest is frequently a complication of blunt chest trauma from a steering wheel injury. o Realize that the retention of airway secretions and atelectasis frequently accompanies a flail chest o Realize that client vital signs must be monitored for shock23 o Realize that pain medication must be given o Realize that patient should be encourage to turn, cough and breathe deep because it promotes lung expansion o Realize that you must assess for hypoxemia and hypercapnia o Realize that a flail chest is caused by fractures of multiple adjacent ribs, causing the chest wall to become unstable and respond paradoxically Realize that nasal polyps is a grape-like swelling in the mucus membranes of the sinuses; it may cause obstruction and chronic infection Realize that a person with a respiratory rate above 20 and oxygen saturation above 90% on room air is stable Realize that when a patient has two inhalers, one that is a bronchodilator and another that is a steroid, the bronchodilator should be used first because it will open the passageways so the steriod medication can get into the bronchioles x Realize that one should wait one minute between puffs of the bronchodilator and steroid for best effect Realize that Cheyne-Stokes respirations is a breathing pattern marked by a period of apnea lasting 10 – 60 seconds, which is followed by a gradually increasing depth and frequency of respirations (hyperventilation) x Realize that Cheyne-Stokes respirations is characterized by rhythmic waxing and waning of the depth of respirations; clients may be dying Realize that tachypnea is associated with pneumothorax x Realize that absent or restricted movements occur on pneumothorax x Realize that with subcutaneous emphysema, there is crackling under the skin; realize that clients with this needs to be observed for respiratory distress Realize that hyperpnea (deep, rapid respirations) causes metabolic acidosis and diabetic ketoacidosis Realize that lung cancer have the following manifestations: x Pain comes from the tumor invading perivascular nerves x Blood-tinged sputum comes from bleeding of the malignant tumor Realize that lung cancer is a common cause of SIADH Realize that the sign and symptoms of SIADH are confusion and a urine output of 15 mL/hr or less Remember that SIADH is the abnormal secretion of ADH; results in an increased water absorption and dilution of sodium; diuretics should be used to promote fluid loss Realize that a tumor of the pituitary gland will cause a lack of ADH from the pituitary and will cause diabetes insipidus and diuresis with a very low specific gravity Realize that tidal volume is the volume of air inspired and expired in a normal breath Realize the following about mechanical ventilators: x No water should be in tubing; check tubing for presence of water and remove; humidifier is used x Settings should be set to 1.5 times tidal volume and occur every 1 – 3 hours x Settings are based on findings of ABG x Machine is adjusted to deliver the lowest concentration of oxygen to maintain normal ABG Realize that a physician needs to be informed if a client has a cough that will not go away Realize that croup is an acute viral disease that is marked by a resonant barking, cough, stridor and varying respiratory distress x Realize that croup requires contact precaution Realize the following about stridor:24 x Indicates an upper airway obstruction x Stridors has a harsh, high-pitch noise inspiration Realize that if you’re doing the Heimlich maneuver, remember to ask patient if he/she can speak first, if not, then perform Heimlich maneuver x Realize that in regards to the Heimlich maneuver, if the patient is unconscious, straddle victim’s thighs, place hands one over other with heel of bottom hand just above the victim’s navel, quickly thrust inward and upward Realize that there are four traditional areas (valves) to auscultate. Realize that these four traditional areas are not the actual anatomic locations of the heart valves Realize that these four traditional areas are where the sounds of the heart valves are best heard Realize that the valvular sounds of the heart radiates with the direction of blood flow Realize that the four traditional area (valves) (TAMP) are: x 2nd right inter-space ─ Aortic valve area x 2nd left inter-space ─ Pulmonic valve area x Left lower sterna border ─ Tricuspid valve area x 5th inter-space at around left mid-clavicular line – Mitral valve area Realize that the following are risk factors for pneumonia: x A client with cystic fibrosis o Realize that cystic fibrosis causes (1) COPD and (2) pancreatic exocrine deficiency ƒ Realize that cycstic fibrosis is inherited by an autosomal recessive trait x Pain of fractured ribs causes shallow breathing pattern x Bed rest decreases lung expansion x Advanced age x Underlying lung disease x Being postop x Immunosuppressed x Colon cancer x Realize that white sputum indicates a decrease in pneumonia Realize that emphysema is not infectious Realize that a left-sided tracheal shift from midline is the first sign of tension pneumothorax x Remember that tension pneumothorax is a type of pneumothorax in which air can enter the pleural space but cannot escape via the route of entry, leading to increased pressure in the pleural space, resulting in lung collapse Realize that epiglottitis is an inflammation of the epiglottis and can be life-threatening; a profession should be with the child at all times25 x Realize that the proper treatment of epiglottis includes moist air and IV antibiotics to decrease epiglottal swelling; pulse oximeter to measure oxygen saturation to see if there is a needed for supplemental oxygen x Realize that you must never insert a tongue blade into the mouth of a child diagnosed with epiglottitis; gag reflex can cause complete obstruction of the airway x Realize that if a child with epiglottitis cries, obstruction of the airway can occur Realize that when it comes to acute respiratory distress, a patient may experience hypotension from a decreased cardiac output so the blood pressure need to be monitored closely Realize the following in regards to acute respiratory distress: x Realize that the absence of a wheeze indicates an acute respiratory distress x Small airways are completely constricted Realize that crackles and rales are the same; they are both caused by air through fluids; not usually seen with asthma x Realize that orthopnea, dyspnea, crackles, bounding pulse, elevated BP, distended neck veins, edema, headache, polyuria, diarrhea and liver enlargement are signs and symptoms of fluid excess; decreasing IV fluids is a priority Realize that rhonchi occurs when there is a partial non fluid airway obstruction; indicates disease of the bronchi; not expected with asthma Realize that a sucking sound on inspiration and expiration describes a sucking chest wound x Realize that the best thing to do with a sucking chest wound is to place a sterile dressing loosely over the wound, which will allow air to escape but not re-enter the pleural space; this is an open pneumothorax Realize that Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome (HPS) is an acute respiratory illness, characterized by acute non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema x Realize that a client with HPS must be assess for thrombocytopenia, hematuria, hematemesis (vomiting blood), bleeding gums and melena (black tarry feces) x Realize that (HPS) is caused by rodents; symptoms include fever, aching, and nausea; no seizures Realize the following in regards to lead: x Realize that hot water dissolves lead in the pipes, thus it contains a higher level of lead than cold water; it is suggested to use cold water for drinking and cooking x Realize that more lead is absorbed on an empty stomach x Realize that old houses have lead Realize that it is good to attempt to wean a patient’s supplemental oxygen supply to room air Realize that the normal SaO2 is 95 – 100 % x Realize that SaO2 below 86 – 91 % considered an emergency x Realize that an Sa02 below 70% life threatening Realize that patient with COPD who has hypercapnia is at risk for oxygen-induced hypoventilation because the stimulus for breathing is a low oxygen level instead of a high CO2 level like in normal patients; realize that signs of hypoventilation will appear in the 30 minutes of O2 administration; color will improve due to the increase of PaO2 levels; going from gray or ashen to pink before becoming apneic or going into respiratory arrest; careful monitoring of these patients is critical Realize that heaviness in the chest may be the first sign of pulmonary embolus and require immediate attention; asses for SOB and chest pain Realize the following in regards to a laryngectomy (the removal of the entire larynx): x A & D ointment is used around the stoma to soften crust so they can removed with sterile tweezer x Humidification should be provided with humidifier or nebulizer x Should leave stoma uncovered when taking a bubble bath for humidification to liquefy secretion x Should over stoma when taking a shower to prevent water from entering the airway x Should over the stoma with a cotton scarf when outside to provide protection and prevent mucus from soiling clothing26 x Client will communicate in writing initially, then by artificial larynx or esophageal speech (the modulation of air expelled from the esophagus to produce speech) o Realize that the nurse must teach the client on how to use the esophageal speech; nurse must instruct to have the client swallow air and then eructates it while forming words with the mouth x Client will require a laryngectomy tube to prevent scar tissue contractures x Client will develop difficulty with taste and smell x Client will to be encourage to cough and deep breath after surgery x Client will require nutritional support for 10 days until wound heal, then gradually resumes oral intake x Client will not be able to sing, whistle or laugh using laryngeal communication Realize the following in regards to the proper inspection of a client’s chest: x Inspection of the anterior chest includes shape and configuration of the chest, facial expression, level of consciousness, color and condition of skin, and quality of respiration x Realize that chest should be auscultated on the anterior, posterior and lateral chest x Realize that the ribs should be sloping downwards with symmetric interspaces and the costal angle should be within 90 degrees (that V-shaped space between the ribs under the sternum) Realize that the diaphragmatic excursion is the movement of the diaphragm on exhalation and inspiration Realize that Kussmaual respirations and lethary occurs in ketoacidosis Always remember that oxygen and fire don’t mix Realize that chest tightness is a common complaint with asthma Realize that the PaO2 is support remain between 80 – 100 Realize that a bad hoarse voice is related to tracheal-esophageal-fistula Realize that in regards to a tracheostomy tube, if there is water in the tubing, the fluid can be emptied from the tubing Realize the following in regards to the incentive spirometer: x Realize that the spirometer should be help upright at eye level so patient can observe the ball; the purpose is to promote lung expansion x Realize that patient should inhale and hold breath for 3 seconds x Encourage patient to cough after using spirometer o Realize that the purpose of turn, cough and deep breath is to promote ventilation and prevent respiratory acidosis; to improve and/or maintain good gas exchange. x Realize that the client should splint his incision before using the spirometer x Realize that it is never a bad thing to ask a client to increase the usage of the incentive spirometer x Realize that when pain is decreased, a child will be better able to breathe deeply and improve the outcome of use of the incentive spirometer Realize the following in CPR: x Realize that the elbow should be locked, arms straight, shoulders directly over hands when doing compressions; incorrect pressure can cause damage x Realize that the heel of the hand should be on the lower half of the sternum x Realize that the client’s pulse should be re-check every minute x Realize that CPR is considered trauma o Realize that tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) should not be used in clients that have experience trauma… and that includes CPR Realize that rest of the voice for at least 24 hours or until inflammation subsides is the most effective measure for healing laryngitis Realize that a laryngectomy can be a postop complication and it usually includes respiratory difficulties Realize that pneumocysitis jiroveci pneumonia causes progressive hypoxemia and cyanosis27 Realize that when using a nasal spray, the patient is to close one nostril while breathing in and squeezing the spray into the other nostril; this ensure adequate inhalation and subsequent absorption into the affected nostril Realize that pursed lip breathing prevents the collapses of the lungs; it helps patients control the rate and depth of breathing Realize that the following suggest that a patient is experiencing hypoxia while on a mechanical ventilator: x Confusion and agitation x Cyanosis x Anxiety x Tachycardia x Increased respiratory rate x Realize that nurse should manually ventilate at 100% oxygen Realize that a symptom of pulmonary embolism is the feeling of chest pain and feeling of doom Realize that obesity, immobility, and pooling of blood in the pelvic cavity contribute to development of pulmonary emboli Realize that the following are all complications from a thoracentensis: x Pulmonary edema, hypoxia, hemothorax, pneumothorax, subcutaneous emphysema, SOB, faintness, chest pain, blood sputum Realize that synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV) allows for a patient to be weaned from the ventilator; it allows for sponataneous breaths at his own rate and tidal volumes between ventilator breaths Realize that if abdomen is distended and food like material is in the endotracheal tube, it indicates that the ET tube is in the stomach Realize that the oxygen rate cannot be too fast with a client with COPD because the client can develop hypercapnia (hypercarbia), which will require a lower rate of oxygen administration, 1 – 2 L/min; remember that oxygen needs to be titrated to the lowest dose possible MUSCULOSKELETAL Realize that strengthening the abdominal muscles adds support for the muscles supporting the lumbar spine Realize that an electromyogram is the graphic record of resting and voluntary muscle activity as a result of electrical stimulation x Realize that the electromyogram is a non-invasive procedure that take 30 minutes x Electrodes are attached to the legs Realize that muscular dystrophy is generalized or localized muscle weakness Realize that when assisting a client to ambulate with an affected lower extremities, the nurse must stand slightly behind the client strong side Realize that warm-up or stretching exercises should be done prior to exercising and when ending exercising Realize that the bulge test is used to confirm the presence of fluid in the knee; client’s leg should be extended and supported on the bed Realize that fat embolism is common with fractures of long bones, it results in pulmonary or cerebral emboli, it interferes with adequate circulation; confusion is the first symptoms x Realize that a blood gas should be done Realize the following about crutches: x Arms should be bent at 35 degrees and weight should be placed on hands and arms x Crutches should be placed 8 – 10 inches in front with each step x Realize that the strong leg leads the way going up the stairs x Realize that the weak leg leads the way going down the stairs x Realize that crutches tips should be inspected regularly for cracks, wear and tightness of fit, and replace immediately if any problems are found x Crutches28 o Crutch walking gaits ƒ Gaits x 4-point o Description ƒ Slow, safe; right crutch, left foot, left crutch, right foot o Uses ƒ Used when weight-bearing is allowed for both legs x 2-point o Description ƒ Faster, safe right crutch and left foot advance together; left crutch and right foot advance together o Uses ƒ Used when weight-bearing is allowed for both legs x 3-point o Description ƒ Faster gait, safe; advance weaker leg and both crutches simultaneously; the advance good leg o Uses ƒ Use when weight-bearing is allowed on one leg x Swing-to-swing though o Description ƒ Fast gait but requires more strength and balance; advance both crutches followed by both legs (or one leg is held up) o Uses ƒ Use when partial weight-bearing is allowed on both legs x Note: To go up stairs: advance good leg first, followed by crutches and affected leg. To go down stairs: advance crutches with affected leg first, followed by good leg. (“Up with the good, down with the bad.”) Realize that when using a cane, right strong side holds the cane, followed by the weaker side Realize that multiple myeloma is detected best with a plan radiograph Realize the following about gout: x To prevent recurrent attacks, fluid intake must increase to increase urinary uric acid excretion x Patient must eliminate alcohol intake x Drug therapy used are colchicines (colsalide), allopurinol (zyloprim), and NSAIDs x High carbohydrate diet increases uric acid excretion x Realize that gout results from an inborn error of purine metabolism x Realize that a low-purine diet is needed, no fish or organ meat (red meat, shellfish and oily fish) x Must encourage partial weight bearing while ambulating to relieve pressure and stress on the affected leg, may use walker x Realize that ROM exercises would aggravate pain Realize that excessive weight loss (more than 1 pound a week) may precipitate gouty arthritis Realize that if a patient is severely underweight, exercise can be dangerous because it prevents weight gain Realize that a small-frame non-obese white women are at risk for calcium deficiency; they have lost bone mass and absorb calcium less efficiently; they should take regular calcium supplements Realize that clients with osteoporosis need to avoid bowling or other high impact forms of activity Realize that performing range-of-motion (ROM) exercises prevent contractures; important to stretch Achilles tendon x Realize that ROM assist the elderly to carry out activities of daily living (ADLs) x Realize that full ROM may not be needed or accomplished without discomfort for an elderly client; emphasis should be on ROMs that support ADLs Realize the following about rheumatoid arthritis:29 x Patient needs to maintain mobility; achieved by exercises and independent ADLs; take warm showers or tub bath to increase blood flow, decrease pain and increase joint mobility; walking and swimming are good exercises x Eat a diet high in complex carbohydrate and calcium x Important to balance rest and activity; do not allow long rest periods between exercises as it reverses gains x Realize that consistency is important to maintain joint mobility x Realize that active exercises are better than passive or active-assistive exercises x Realize that if the patient experiences pain, the patient should reduce repetitions Realize that a Buck’s traction (extension) is a method of producing traction by applying regular adhesive tape to the skin and keeping it in smooth close contact by circular bandaging of the part to which it is applied; realize the following in regards to Buck’s traction: x It is important to observe for skin breakdown; a second nurse should support the extremity during the inspection o Nurse needs to assess the client to make sure circulation is not being compromised x Appropriate if client has a fracture; if no fracture, may turn to either side x Assess function of peroneal (fibula) nerve; weakness of dorsiflexion may indicate pressure on the nerve x Elevating the foot of the client’s bed provides counter-traction (the application of traction so the force opposes the traction already established; used in reducing fractures and assisting with surgical dissection x Realize that the nurse needs to make sure that the elastic bandages are not too loose or too tight x Realize that immobility is a leading cause of problem with Buck’s traction; it is important to turn client to the unaffected side every 2 hours x Realize that the head of the bed should be elevated 15 – 20 degrees because the supine position can increase problems with immobility x Realize that client should be on strict bed rest x Realize that a footboard on the bed would interfere with the traction Realize that moist heat can provide a decrease in muscle tension and muscle spasms and decrease inflammation in various musculoskeletal conditions Realize that when taping the patient’s face just below and in front of the ear and leaving a blood pressure cuff inflated on the patient’s arm for three minutes is used to assess for hypocalcemia or tetany (Chvostek’s sign and Trousseau’s sign); it is hypercalcemia, not hypocalcemia, that could cause decrease deep tendon reflexes x Realize that the Chvostek’s signs is a spasm of the facial nerve muscle following a tap on the facial nerves; seen in hypocalcemic tetany; a complication of thyroid removal x Realize that the Trousseau’s sign is a muscular spasm of the hand and wrist resulting from pressure applied to nerves and vessels of the upper arm; it is an indication of hypocalcemia, a complication of thyroid removal. o Realize that a positive Trousseau’s sign is indicated when tension and muscle spasm of the hand when a blood pressure cuff is applied to the arm and inflated Realize the following in regards to carpal tunnel syndrome: x Realize that the phalen’s maneuver is to put the back of your hands together and bend both wrist at the same time; this maneuver produces paresthesia of the median nerve distribution within 60 seconds; 80% of client diagnosed with carpal tunnel syndrome have a positive result Realize the following in regards to lower back pain: x Realize that it is not safe to reach for things above x Realize that the prone (abdomen) position should be avoided in order to maintain proper body alignment x Realize that pain is the body’s signal that there is a potential for physical harm and that the patient needs to withdraw from the painproducing situation x Realize that in order to prevent back strain when driving a car, a patient should sit close to the pedals, in part to avoid knee and hip extension; a seat belt and firm backrest should be used for back support x In order to decrease pressure on the lower spine, a client can side with their feet elevated Realize that clients that have total hip replacement surgery are discharged from post op on day 3 to 6 to either a rehab facility or home x Realize that after a total hip replacement, no weight should bear on the affected hip because dislocation may occur Realize the following about long leg cast:30 x Realize that if compartmental syndrome occurs (pressure on the skin that decrease blood flow), contact physician Realize the following about short leg cast: x Handle the cast using the palms of hands to prevent development of pressure areas x The affected limb is elevated to the level of the heart to decrease edema x Assess the neurovascular functioning by comparing the toes with the opposite leg; assessing circulation, motion and sensation (CMS) x Increase circulation of air in room to facilitate drying the cast Realize that a trapeze bar is a triangular device suspended above a bed to facilitate transferring and positioning of the patient Realize that when a patient’s feet rest against a board at the foot of bed, it is there to prevent foot drop; plantar surface of feet should be against board to maintain dorsiflexion Realize the following in regards to a Volkmann contracture: x A Volkmann contracture is a type of compartment syndrome caused by the obstruction of arterial blood flow to the forearm and hand; cannot straighten fingers, has severe pain, and there may be signs of diminished circulation Realize the following in regards to a Dupuytren contracture: x A Dupuytren contracture is a contracture of the palmar fascia usually causing the ring and little finger to bend into the palm so they cannot be extended. x Realize that the fourth and fifth fingers are contracted onto the palm x Realize that a Dupuytren contracture is a slow progressive contracture of the plantar fascia x Realize that a Dupuytren contracture occurs most often in men over 50 years of age, of Scandinavian or Celtic descent, and is associated with diabetes, gout, arthritis, and alcoholism Realize that low-impact physical activity will dissipate anxiety; will help avoid weight gain that may occur with recovery, stimulates the release of endorphins Realize that when it comes to degenerate joint disease, realize the following: x Large joints should be encouraged to use instead of the small joints; encourage clients to balance rest and activity x Reduce stress on joints of wrist and hand; apply heat prior to beginning day x Maintain body in good alignment, prevent bending or stooping Realize the following in regards to a below-the-knee-amputation: x Realize that elevating the limb minimizes edema; do not elevate more than 24 hours because of hip flexion x Realize that in order to prevent hip flexion, during the first 24 hours, patient may lie prone for a short period of time; after the first day; clients should lay prone for 30 minutes 3 times per day x Should perform active range of motion to strengthen leg Realize the following in regards to hypocalcemia: x May cause tetany and result in airway obstruction, respiratory arrest, cardiac dysrhythmias and cardiac arrest Realize that post a total hip replacement, the leg should not be outwardly rotated x Realize that flexion is usually limited to 60o for 6 -7 days, then limited to 90o for 2 – 3 months; instruct patient not to sit or stand for long periods of time, do not cross legs beyond midline of body, and use assistive devices to put on shoes and shock Realize that the leg rests on a wheel chair should be lowered when a patient is wearing a halo vest traction because the wheelchair my tip backwards because of the heavy traction x Realize that halo vest provides immobilization and allows for early ambulation Realize that Paget disease is a chronic form of osteitis of unknown cause31 Realize that a prone position (after an above-knee-amputation) provides maximum extension of the hip joint and prevent flexion contractures; if hip flexion contracture occurs, it is very difficult to correctly fit or use a prosthesis x Realize that it is for a client with an above-knee amputation to expose the stump to air daily to facilitate healing; realize that stump should be inspected daily for pressure areas, dermatitis, and blisters x Realize that if an above-knee amputation is infected, the client will complain of persistent pain Realize that a Posey vest is a type of medical restraint used to restrain a patient to a bed or chair Realize that when you have a client on a wheelchair, always back into and out of elevators to ensure patient safety by not allowing the elevator doors to close on them Realize that when turning a client, pillows should be place longitudinally between legs to prevent hip and lower leg adduction and spinal torque Realize that twitching only occurs with electrolyte imbalances, especially calcium Realize that if there is a suspect trauma bone fracture, priority is to prevent further injury and provide adequate splinting NERVOUS SYSTEM Realize that apraxia is the inability to perform purposive movements although there is no sensory or motor impairment; it effects ADLs Realize that a client with diabetes with decrease vision have vision issues because gradual destruction occurs because of the deterioration of the retinal vessels Realize the following in regards to the Rinne test: x The stem of the vibrating tuning fork is held against the mastoid bone until the child indicates that she can no longer hear the sound. Then the tuning fork is moved in front of the auditor canal Realize the following about pituitary dwarfism: x Client will appear younger than chronologically aged Realize that corneal abrasion occurs when client is unable to close eye voluntarily; when facial nerve (cranial nerve (VII) is affected, the lacrimal gland will no longer supply secretions that protect the eye Realize that a great way to assess the neurosensory cerebellar functioning is to have a client stand with eyes closed and observe for swaying; remember that coordination is governed by cerebellum Realize that clonic jerks in the foot an occur in a person who has been paralyzed from a spinal cord injury Realize that chorea is involuntary dancing or writhing (twisting) of the limbs or facial muscles x Realize that Huntington’s chorea is chorea in the upper and lower extremities; it results from atrophy of parts of the brain Realize that rupture lumbar disc (lumbar lesion) can cause the following: x Paresthesia in the affected leg x Pain x Muscle weakness x Atrophy in the lower extremities Realize that tardive dyskinesia is a neurological syndrome marked by slow, rhythmical, stereotypic movements, either generalized or in a single muscle group. Realize that encouraging daytime activities ensures that a client naps less during the day and promotes evening rest and sleep Realize that the following are the cranial nerves: x Cranial nerve 1 ─ Olfactory32 o Realize that you do a smell test if patient (1) reports loss of smell, (2) has head trauma, (3) had an abnormal mental status and (4) when intra-cranial lesions is suspected o Realize that you access patency of each nostril by occluding one and asking patient to sniff o Realize that you have the patient close eyes and present an aromatic substance o Realize that noxious means harmful o Realize that you can use the following aromatic substances: ƒ Coffee ƒ Toothpaste ƒ Orange ƒ Vanilla ƒ Soap ƒ Peppermint o Realize that the following are abnormal findings in cranial nerve 1: ƒ Anosmia ─ loss of smell ƒ Unilateral loss of smell in the absence of nasal disease is neurogenic anosmia ƒ Upper respiratory infection x Cranial nerve 2 ─ Optic o Realize that the visual acuity test is used o Realize that the visual field by confrontation (measures peripheral vision) is used o Realize that an opthalmoscope is used o Realize that the following are abnormal findings in cranial nerve 2: ƒ Visual field loss ƒ Papilledema ─ swelling of the optic nerve caused by increased intra-cranial pressure, often due to a tumor in the brain pressing on the optic nerve; blindness may result x Cranial nerve 3, 4 and 6 ─ Oculomotor, Trochlear, Abducens nerves o Realize that all three nerves controls the following: ƒ Eye movements ƒ Opening of eyelid ƒ Constriction of pupil ƒ Focusing ƒ Proprioception ─ the awareness of posture, movement and changes in equilibrium o Realize that the palpebra pertains to eyelid o Realize that palpebral fissures are equal in width o Realize that you check pupil for size, regularity, equality, direct and consensual light reaction and accommodation o Realize that you are to use cardinal position of gaze to check extra-ocular movements o Realize that nystagmus is the back-and-forth oscillation of the eyes o Realize that you check for the severity of any nystagmus o Realize that the following are abnormal findings in cranial nerve 3, 4, 6: ƒ Ptosis (drooping) occurs with myasthenia gravis x Realize that myasthenia gravis is an auto-immune disease in which antibodies attack the neuromuscular junctions and binds ACh receptors together in clusters, resulting in the junctions being less sensitive to ACh ƒ Ptosis (drooping) occurs with dysfunction of cranial nerve 3 ƒ Ptosis (drooping) occurs with Horner syndrome x Realize that Horner syndrome is characterize by (1) unilateral papillary constriction, (2) sagging eyelid, (3) withdrawal of the eye into the orbit, (4) flushing of the skin, (5) lack of facial perspiration. x Realize that the Horner syndrome occurs from a lesion that interrupts the sympathetic innervations of the head ƒ Increasing intra-cranial pressure ƒ Strabismus (deviated gaze) x Cranial nerve 5 ─ Trigeminal (has three divisions) o Ophthalmic division ─ controls sensory of upper face (touch, temperature, pain) o Maxillary division ─ control sensory of lower face ƒ Realize that a collectively sensory test involves the usage of a cotton wisp on the face and having the patient state “now” when a touch is felt o Mandibular division ─ control sensory of lower face with mastication ƒ Realize that muscles of mastication can be assessed with palpation of the (1) temporal muscle and (2) masseter muscles as a person clenches their teeth; muscles should feel equal on both sides o Realize that the following are abnormal findings in cranial nerve 5 ƒ A decreased strength in mastication muscles33 ƒ Asymmetry in jaw movement ƒ Pain with clenching of teeth ƒ Decrease or unequal sensation; realize that with a stroke, sensation of face and body is lost on the opposite side of the lesion x Cranial nerve 7 ─ Facial o Realize that facial nerves control the following: ƒ Facial expression ƒ Tear glands ƒ Nasal glands ƒ Palatine glands (posterior surface of mucous membrane of the soft palate and around the uvula) ƒ Submandibular and sublingual salivary glands ƒ Sense of taste o Realize that you would assess the motor function of the face by checking (1) facial mobility, (2) symmetry as the person responds to request, (3) smile, (4) frown, (5) the closing of eye tightly against your attempt to open them, (6) lifting eyebrows, (7) showing teeth and (8) puffing cheeks o Realize that the following are abnormal findings in cranial nerve 7: ƒ Any facial muscle weakness x Cranial nerve 8 ─ Acoustic o Realize that hearing acuity test are done x Cranial nerve 9 and 10 ─ Glossopharyngeal and Vagus nerves o Realize that the glossopharyngeal nerve control the following: ƒ Swallowing ƒ Salivation ƒ Gagging ƒ Regulation of blood pressure ƒ Regulation of respiration ƒ Touch ƒ Pressure ƒ Taste ƒ Pain sensation from the tongue ƒ Pain sensation from the pharynx ƒ Touch of the ear ƒ Pain of the ear ƒ Temperature sensation of the ear ƒ Speech ƒ Pulmonary regulation ƒ Gastrointestinal regulation ƒ Cardiovascular regulation ƒ Sensations of hunger ƒ Fullness discomfort ƒ Intestinal discomfort o Realize that you can assess tongue with a tongue blade by depressing the tongue as a person says “ahh” noting pharyngeal movements; meaning uvula and soft palate should rise in the midline and tonsillar pillars should move medially o Realize that you can assess gag reflex by touching posterior pharyngeal wall with tongue blade o Realize that voice sounds should be smooth and not strained o Realize that the following are abnormal findings in cranial nerve 9 and 10 ƒ Absence symmetry of soft palate movement or tonsillar pillar movement ƒ Dysfunction of swallowing ƒ Hoarse or brassy voice with vocal cord dysfunction x Cranial nerve 11 ─ Spinal Accessory o Realize that the spinal accessory nerve control the following: ƒ Swallowing ƒ Head movement ƒ Neck movement ƒ Shoulder movement o Realize that you can assess the sternmastoid and trapezius for symmetry o Realize that you can assess strength symmetry by asking the patient to rotate head against resistance o Realize that you can ask patient to shrug shoulder against resistance to assess symmetry o Realize that the following are abnormal findings in cranial nerve 11: ƒ Atrophy34 x Cranial nerve 12 ─ Hypoglossal o Realize that the hypoglossal nerve control the following: ƒ Tongue movement of speech ƒ Food manipulation ƒ Swallowing o Realize that you can inspect the tougue o Realize that you can assess tongue movement by having the patient say, “light, tight, dynamite”, assessing the lingual speech of “l, t, d, n” as clear and distinch o Realize that the following are abnormal findings in cranial nerve 12: ƒ Atrophy ƒ Fasciculation ─ involuntary contraction of twitching ƒ The deviation of the tongue to one side due to lesions of the hypoglossal nerve Realize that a decrease level of consciousness will cause one to be confused and stuporous Realize that decerebrate posturing is a late sign of brainstem damage Realize that a fixed dilated pupil represents a neurological emergency Realize that around-the-clock (ATC) administration of analgesics is more effective in maintaining blood levels to alleviate the pain associated with cancer Realize that itching is a common side effect of narcotics used in a PCA pain management Realize that side rails should always be in an upright position for disoriented client Realize that hallucination are sensory perceptions for which there is no external stimulus; this option describes client behaviors that would be observed when the client is responding to voice Realize that in regards to a myelogram, the nurse do the following: x Ask client if allergic to contrast, which will be injected in the subarachnoid space x Encourage fluids prior to and after the test x Fluid promote excretion of the dye and also facilitate the formation of spinal fluid x Client must be NPO for 4 – 6 hours x Bed rest may be maintained for as long as 24 hours x Client should have head elevated at 30 degree for 24 hours Realize the following in regards to viral conjunctivitis: x Extreme tearing x Redness x Foreign body x It is highly contagious x Child should be restricted from school until symptoms have resolved, 3 to 7 days x Has extreme tearing Realize that not withdrawing from pain is a sign of deterioration in client’s condition; should be reported Realize that activity helps reduce frequency and degree of phantom pain Realize that transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS) is the application of mild electrical stimulation through electrodes placed on the skin over a painful area. It alleviates pain by interfering with transmission of painful stimuli x Realize that a conducting gel needs to be place before applying electrodes x A battery is used to deliver current x Electrodes are placed over, above or below the painful area Realize that otosclerosis occurs gradually over many years; often client is not aware of it until the impairment is significant Realize that an oculogyric crisis is a spasm of involuntary deviation and fixation of the eyeballs35 Foods that have high fiber for spinal cord injuries for bowel programs: x Spaghetti, green beans, whole-grain foods, bran, fresh, oatmeal, celery and dried fruits Realize that with Bell’s palsy (cranial nerve 7), because of trigeminal hyperesthesia, the face must be protected from cold drafts x Realize that with Bell’s palsy, the client should place an eye shield over the affected eye at bedtime to prevent corneal irritation, use of artificial tears is useful; should use heat on the affected side of face to promote blood flow through the facial muscles. x Realize that patient with Bell’s palsy are unable to closed their eye and have an increase in lacrimation x Realize that Bell’s palsy is not a permanent situation x Realize that isometric exercises are helping during the recovery process x Realize that client may have steriod and analgesic therapy Realize the following in regards to trigeminal neuralgia (cranial nerve 5): x Realize that carbamazepine (tegretol) (anticonvulant) is very effective in treating trigeminal neuralgia x Realize that trigeminal neuralgia is a painful disease marked by brief attacks of lightning-like stabs x Client may need to be injected with alcohol to the nerve, to destroy the nerve x Client may need surgery to decrease pressure on the nerve from blood vessels x Client should be taught to use tepid (lukewarm) water on face to prevent a trigger, (not very hot or very cold water) x Realize that client should eat soft and warm foods to prevent stimuli to the area o Realize that chewing on the unaffected side is less likely to trigger an attack Realize the following in regards to acoustic neuroma: x Realize that acoustic neuroma is a neuroma (tumor) of the 8th cranial nerve x Realize that preoperative and postoperative care resembles a client who has sustained a craniotomy Realize the following in regards to Guillain-Barre Syndrome: x Client will be given steroid therapy x Client will be given aggressive respiratory care x Client will be given physical therapy x Client will be given eye care x May cause respiratory failure x May cause flaccid paralysis x May cause urinary retention Realize that the oculocephalic reflex is the deviation of a person’s eyes to the opposite side when the head is rapidly rotated; this is a normal finding in neonates. In adults, it is indicative of coma Realize that the tongue should be depressed slightly off center in order to avoid eliciting the gag response Realize that cotton applicators are not safe for the inner ear because they can force earwax further in the block the canal Realize that a toddler should not blow with one nostril closed because it can push foreign material into the Eustachain tube and damage the inner canal Realize that a common injury is a shoulder dislocation when a side of the body is paralysis from a cerebrovascular accident Realize that when it comes to spinal anesthesia, you must check for hypotension first because it is a common side effect x Realize that it is important to hydrate client after spinal anesthesia is initiated to prevent hypotension Realize the following about multiple sclerosis and its causes: x Alteration in innervations of the bladder x Decrease sensitivity to pain o With a pregnant client, less pain medication will be administered because of the decreased sensitivity to pain x Decrease temperature perception36 x Numbness or tingling sensation x Hyperreflexia of extremities x Decreased concentration x Impaired judgment x Erect posture assist in breathing and speech x Realize that overexertion of muscles must be avoided because it will cause fatigue and exacerbate symptoms x Realize that heat and humidity, whether environmental or a hot bath or shower, can aggravate the fatigue which is so much a part of multiple sclerosis; fatigue can precipitate and/or intensify multiple sclerosis symptoms x Realize that sleeping on the stomach (prone) may minimize spasms of the flexor muscles of the hips and knees of a person with multiple sclerosis x Realize that client should avoid overexposure to heat or cold; overexposure to heat or cold may cause damage related to the changed in sensation x Client should be encouraged to ambulate as tolerated x Client should be encouraged to participate in an exercise program that has (ROM), stretching and strengthening exercise x Client encourage to continue social activities if any Realize that ginkgo does the following: x It is an antiplatelet agent x It is a central nervous system stimulant given for dementia syndromes x It increases the risk of bleeding when given with NSAIDs Realize that the body does not respond to significant levels of pain in two different areas of the body at one time; anxiety and fatigue are pain distracters Realize the following about menieres disease: x Realize that Menieres disease is a syndrome that causes hearing loss, tinnitus, vertigo… leading to deafness x Symptoms of Menieres disiease are controlled by adhering to a low-sodium diet (2000 mg/day); thus a nurse should assess a client diet o Realize that patients with Menieres disease require a low-sodium diet to decrease fluid retention (endolymphatic fluid, which is clear, intracellular fluid located in the labyrinth of the inner ear) x Realize that Menieres disease is associated with cranial VIII (vestibulocochlear) x Realize that meclizine (antivert) (antihistamine, antiemetics) is used for menieres disease x Realize that client should be on best rest x Client should avoid alcohol, nicotine and caffeine x Realize that by decreasing movements of the client’s head, vertigo attacks may be decreased Realize that Parkinson’s disease is a degeneration of the CNS that produces movement disorders and changes in cognition and mood. x Realize that patients with Parkinson’s disease should keep good posture and avoid flexion of neck and shoulders’ sleep on a firm mattress without a pillow to prevent flexion of the spine x Realize that a warming tray is good for a client with Parkinson’s disease to keep the foot hot, safe and appealing during the slow eating process of the Parkinson’s patient; eating is slow because of the overall slowed body movement, tremors, difficulty chewing and swallowing, fatigue, need for rest periods; this choice directly addresses a physiologic need x Realize that patients with Parkinson’s disease have problems with communication primarily related to speaking in a way that other can hear and understand x Realize that the same muscles are used for speaking and swallowing x Realize that Parkinson’s disease is an irreversible disease that leads to permanent physical limitation; the nurse can only maintain optimal function within the client’s limitations x Realize that the following are symptoms of Parkinson’s disease: o Muscle tone and rigidity o Propulsive gait (a walk with a forward momentum) x Realize that a client at stage 4 Parksinson’s disease means that the client is immobile o Realize that it important to do ROM exercise to all extremities four times a day Realize the following about detached retina repairs: x Avoid jarring movements of the head because it will increase intraocular pressure x First week avoid rapid eye movement: reading and writing37 x Avoid stooping or straining at stool x Use proper body mechanics x If gas or oil is used to reattached retina, sleep on abdomen with affected eye down for several days o Realize that a gas bubble, silicone oil, or perfluorocarbon and liquids may be infected into the vitreous cavity to help push the sensory retina up x Resume light work after 3 weeks x Resume normal activities after 6 weeks x No hair washing for 1 week x Avoid strenuous activity for 3 months; avoid sneezing, coughing, or straining at stool, bending down x May see flashes of light x May have blurred or “sooty” vision x May have loss of vision; may see particles moving (floaters) in line of vision; may feel a curtain is coming down x May have confusion, apprehension x Realize that after surgery, an eye patch should be worn for protection x May have portion of the visual field may be dark Realize that autonomic dysreflexia is a state in which a person with a spinal cord injury at T7 or above experiences a life-threatening uninhibited sympathetic response of the nervous system to noxious stimulus Realize that autonomic dysreflexia have the following symptoms: x Pounding headache x Profuse sweating x Nasal congestion x Hypertension x Precipitated by full bladder or bowel Realize that the Glasgow coma scale is a quantitative tool that is useful in testing consciousness in aging persons x Realize that the Glasgow coma scale basically gives a numerical value to the following: o Person’s response in eye-opening o Person’s best verbal response o Person’s best motor response x Realize that the Glasgow coma scale avoid ambiguity when numerous examiner care for the same person x Realize that the picture below is an example of the Glasgow coma scale x x Realize that a score of 15 represented a fully alert normal person x Realize that a score of 7 or less reflects a coma x Realize the following for med-surg purposes: o Severe head injury/severe brain damage: Glasgow score of <8 o Moderate head injury: Glasgow score between 9 – 12 o Mild head injury: Glasgow score between 13 – 1538 Realize that if one of the client’s pupils is 2mm dilated and the other is 8 mm dilated, this is a sign of a head injury and it demonstrates increased intracranial pressure and a direct result from pressure on the affected oculomotor nerve x Realize that unequal and dilated pupils indicates brainstem damage Realize that after a minor head injury, there should be no strenuous activity for the next 48 hours x Client may have dizziness for 24 hours x Client may complain of nausea x Client may have headache but the headache should not be intense x Client should not be vomiting; if vomiting occurs, physician should be notified x Client should not have blurred vision, drainage from ear or nose, weakness, slurred speech Realize that ICP with a Glasgow Coma Scale of 8 or less indicates a coma and are indications for ICP monitoring Realize that a decreased level of consciousness indicates intracranial bleeding Realize the following in regards to a lumbar puncture: x Vital signs must be obtained to see if a change in vital signs could indicate increased intracranial pressure (ICP), which is contraindicated in a lumbar puncture x Realize that at the completion of a lumbar puncture, the patient should remain in the supine position for 8 hours to prevent a headache and the leaking of CSF at the puncture site x Realize that a headache is a common side effect of the lumbar procedure x Realize that during a lumbar puncture, a child must be restraint to prevent trauma to the child during the procedure Realize that the following are the earliest signs of ICP: x Confusion x Restlessness x Papillary changes x Altered level of consciousness Realize the following in regards to ICP: x Realize that nursing care should be spaced out to minimize elevation of ICP; patients are sensitive to sudden and/or noxious stimuli such as touching, jarring, loud noise, and bright lights, all of which can further increase ICP x Realize that an increased intracranial pressure can adversely affect the cough and gag reflex and increase the possibility of aspiration x Realize that drugs or alcohol can mask symptoms of intracranial pressure (ICP) x Realize that the nurse must keep the client’s head from flexing or rotating x Realize that the nurse must elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees, client neck in the midline position, to increase venous return, decrease intracranial pressure and decrease cerebral edema x Realize that the nurse should avoid frequent suctioning x Realize that an increase in systolic pressure and a widening pulse pressure indicates an increase in ICP Realize that injuries at level T1 – T6 results in decrease respiratory reserve; should be fully independent in self-care and in wheelchair Realize that UTI is a common problem in paraplegics. Realize that a padded tongue blade needs to be kept away from patients that have seizures Realize that darkening a room decreases the chance of a seizure occurring Realize that in regards to seizure disorders, clients must be instructed to take medications as prescribed to keep drug levels constant to prevent seizure x Realize that diazepam (valium) stop seizures activity. x Realize that when a client has a seizure, the nurse must protect the client from injury provide oxygen and establish an IV access and loosen restrictive clothing x Realize that it is good to make a seizure chart to identify seizure triggers, such as alcohol, stress, caffeine, constipation, loud noise, music, flickering light, prolonged reading, drugs; may be increase in seizure activity during menses39 Realize that assessing the function of the glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves checks the client’s ability to swallow Realize that if a patient suffers a concussion, there is nothing wrong with waking up this patient from sleeping every three hours and orient them times three; realize the following in regards to a concussion: x Realize that visual disturbance such as a blurred or double vision, difficulty walking, weakness, numbness, clumsiness are symptoms that require immediate attention of a hospital x Realize that a patient that suffered a concussion should not be involved in any strenuous activities for at least 2 days x Realize that resting and eating lightly is encouraged x Realize that aspirin should never been given to a patient that experienced a concussion Realize the following about amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) and its symptoms: x Retains control of bowel and bladder x Have difficulty with swallowing and may aspirate x May cause fatigue while talking, tongue atrophy, weakness of hand and arms x May have fasciculation (twitching) of the face x Does not cause changes to the mental state Realize the following about meningitis and its symptoms: x Caused by Haemophilus influenza and Neisseria meningitidis x Client needs to be placed on droplet precaution (for 24 hours) whether or not meningitis is confirmed or not o Realize that isolation can usually be stopped 24 hours after the start of antibiotic therapy x Causes an increased in intracranial pressure by the accumulation of purulent exudates; important to assess for changes in LOC o May be on fluid restriction due to ICP x Bacterial culture and gram staining of CSF is done (lumbar puncture) x May need antibiotics or antifungal therapy x Important to monitor serum electrolytes, urine volume, specific gravity (because meningitis can cause SIADH) x Important to protect client from injury; priority is preventing spread of infection x Important to dim lights and minimize environmental stimuli to prevent complications of seizures x May cause irritability x May cause fever x May exhibit nushal rigidity (stiff neck), Kerning’s sign (knee can’t straighten), Brudzinki’s sign (chin to chest), seizures, change in LOC, bulging fontanel, high-pitched cry x Realize that if meningitis is treated early, the prognosis is good x Realize that a client with meningitis would have a cloudy CSF Realize that retesting the biceps while a client clenches the teeth and retesting the patellar while a patient interlaces the fingers and pulls them against each other are known as reinforcement techniques; isometric contractions of other muscles can increase the generalized reflex/activity of the body; distraction may also be a reason for this effectiveness, as tension can inhibit a reflex being elicited Realize that reflexes are graded on a 0 to 4+ scales x Realize that 2+ is considered a normal reflex Realize that there are no relationship between pulses and reflexes Realize that an electroconvulsive ECT indicates a severe depression and catatonic (schizophrenia) conditions after medications have failed to improve conditions x Realize that you must first explain procedure to client; explain about potential temporary memory loss and confusion x Realize that you must ask client to void, remove dentures, glasses and jewelry about 1 hour before procedure x Realize that you must administer atropine 30 minutes before treatment to decrease secretions o Realize that atropine is a mydriatic (atropine, ephedrine) that dilate the pupil x Realize that you must orient the client as client will be confused after treatment; stay with the client during confusion and frequently orient client; obtain client’s vital signs x Realize that the client is given general anesthesia for ECT; client must be NPO after midnight x May cause headache x Realize that any painful experience needs to be investigated, as pain should not occur40 Realize that opioid withdrawal causes nausea, vomiting restlessness and abdominal cramping Realize that in regards to a cataract extraction, vomiting increases intraocular pressure; thus the feeling of nausea need to be prevented Realize that when using the hydraulic lift, when doing patient transfers, the hospital bed should be raised so the person doing the transferring can use proper body mechanics during the transfer. x Realize that when using the hydraulic lift, the patient should be centered in sling; provides support for patient’s body during transfer Realize that narcotic withdrawal have the following symptoms: x Flu-like symptoms x Diarrhea x Night sweats x Decreased tendon reflexes Realize the following in regards to patients with myasthenia gravis: x Patient have easy muscle fatigue, including muscles used for chewing and swallowing; as long as patient can swallow, food should be cut into small bites and patient encouraged to eat slowly x May cause drooping eyelids, may also have impaired speech; realize that patient is still able to speak x May cause double vision x Patient should do essential motor activities early in the day; take medication prior to activity x Realize that client should avoid heat (sauna, hot tubs, sunbathing) x Realize that client should avoid crowds to avoid infection x Realize that clients should stay calm because emotional extremes can cause the exacerbation of myasthenia gravis x Realize that the nurse should assess muscles groups towards the end of the day Realize that glaucoma is an obstruction of the outflow of aqueous humor, causing increased intraocular pressure (IOP) that causes permanent damage to the optic nerve; there is decreased visual acuity but it is not corrected by eyeglasses x Realize that intraocular pressure tends to be higher in the early morning; an early morning assessment is likely to be accurate x Realize that damage resulting from sustained increased pressure cannot be corrected with surgery x Realize that glaucoma is a chronic health problem; blindness can be prevent by lifelong treatment x Realize that aging is a common cause of glaucoma x Realize that neurovascular disorders can cause secondary glaucoma x Realize that the normal IOP is 10 – 21 mmHg x Realize that a tonometer reading should be done 1 – 2 times a year x Realize that the symptoms of glaucoma are the following: cloudy or blurry vision, loss of vision, artificial lights appear to have rainbow or halos around them, decrease peripheral vision, pain, headache, nausea and vomiting x Avoid atropine because it will close the drainage vessel o Realize that holding pressure on the inner canthus decreases the amount of medication absorbed systemically x Avoid anything that will increase IOP after surgery x Realize that the following are the danger signs of glaucoma: o Brow arching (one trying to open their eyes) o Complaints of halo around light o Diminished peripheral vision o Complaints of headache and eye pain x Realize that ophthalmic vasoconstrictors (such as Visine) is contraindicated with closed angle glaucoma Realize that a red haze may be vitreous hemorrhage, which may be absorbed spontaneously; if it doesn’t spontaneously resolve, may require surgery Realize that water that is too cool can elicit dizziness when it comes into contact with the tympanic membrane when irrigating the ears to remove cerumen Realize that a myringotomy is the incision of the tympanic membrane with placement of a tympanostomy tube x Realize that a myringotomy is most often performed on children with recurrent otitis media or medically refractory middle ear effusion41 x Realize that a client that has a myringotomy cannot get water into the ear… thus ear plugs should be worn in the bath tub and to avoid swimming Realize that serous otitis media is related to Eustachian tube obstruction; can occur due to flying or scuba-diving, does not require treatment unless infection is present Realize the following in regards to a positron emission tomography (PET) scan: x Patient will feel warm sensation when dye is injected x Instruct patient to empty bladder before the test because patient will need to be comfortable and be able to lie still throughout the procedure, which may last as long as 2 hours; after radioisotope administration, patient waits 30 – 45 minutes on stretcher or table so that substances can circulate to the brain; then the scan is done x Any metal or jewelry objects in hair must be removed x Realize that patient will be asked to do various mental exercises such as remembering and reasoning; these enable measurements of brain activity as different areas of the brain are activated Realize that the frontal lobe concerns personality, behavior, emotions, and intellectual function Realize that the parietal lobe is the primary center for sensation Realize that the temporal lobe is the auditory reception area Realize that the occipital lobe is the primary visual receptor center Realize that homonymous hemianopsia is the loss of half of the visual fied Realize the following in regards to homonymous hemianopsia: x The nurse must place objects within the intact field of vision x Approach the patient from side of intact field of vision x Instruct/remind the patient to turn head in the direction of visual loss to compensate for the loss if visual field Realize that the Tinel sign is the tingling sensation on the skin produced by pressing on or tapping the nerve trunk that has been damaged or is regenerating after trauma x Realize that a positive response to Tinel sign indicates carpal tunnel syndrome; nurse percusses lightly over the median nerve on inner aspect of the wrist. Realize that catalepsy refers to a lack of response to external stimuli and muscular rigidity Realize that a waxy flexibility is a cataleptic state in which limbs retain any position in which they are placed; abnormal posturing Realize that a dystonic reaction is muscle spasms of any muscles of the body Realize that neurasthenia is unexplained chronic fatigue with nervousness, anxiety, and irritability Realize that catatonic schizopherenia is marked by motor immobility or stupor; excessive purposeless motor activity Realize the following in regards to an electroencephalogram (EEG): x Realize that patients usually needs to be sleep-deprived in order for the test to be effective because its during sleep that some abnormalities are most evident x Realize that an EEG is used to assess seizures x Realize that hair is washed after the test, usually with acetone and shampoo in order to remove the electrode gel and glue or paste from the scalp and hair x Realize that hair should also be shampooed clean before to test to ensure that EEG patches or electrodes remain firmly in place during the test x Realize that because of the hypoglycemia affects of brain activity, food and fluids can be consumed beforehand; caffeine-containing fluids such as tea or coffee should be avoided for 24 to 48 hours before the test Realize the following in regards to a lens implant after intracapsular cataract extraction:42 x Instruct client about activity restriction to prevent increased intraocular pressure x Patient should lie in a Semi-Fowler’s position or on the non-operative side x Realize that if the head is held in a dependent position, it can result in an increase in intraocular pressure x Realize that client should be checked for hemorrhage (sudden pain) x Check pupil – constricted with lens implanted, dilated without lens x Eyes will be used x Client will need a night shield over the eye x Instruct client to sleep on the unaffected side Realize the following in regards to Alzheimer’s disease: x Characterized by progressive deterioration of cognitive functioning; nurse must ensure patient’s safety and decrease sensory overload, which can increase anxiety and confusion x Needs a calm quiet place, play music, offer a rocking chair or a stroke client x May cause restlessness and pacing x Recent memory loss x Continuous pacing, wandering and agitation x Realize that a nurse may give this patient a task x Realize that even if a physician order a restraint on a patient with Alzheimer’s, if that patient behavior is not “unsafe” at the moment, the nurse does not have to put the restraints on the client; the nurse reserves this actions Realize that the need for restraints should be based on a patient’s behavioral status and condition, not the patient’s voluntary/voluntary status Realize that a client with left-sided paralysis should be kept elevated 30 degrees in the bed to facilitate venous drainage from the brain Realize that with a client with dementia, it is important for the nurse to use simple, short phrases when speak to the client x Realize that dementia have the following symptoms: o Poor judgement o Memory deficit o Irritability o Apathy o Indifference o Pacing o Restlessness o Agitation o Realize that dementia is characterized by severe, prolonged impairment, which is often irreversible; realize that the main focus is to keep client as healthy as possible for as long as possible; maintain an optimal level of functioning o Realize that it is good for the nurse to encourage the client to talk things in the past because he/she has recent memory loss o Realize that when communicating to a demented client, you must speak slowly in a face-to-face position; realize that this is the most effective way to communicate with a elderly client o Realize that the nurse must adjust the environment to meet a client with dementia needs o Realize that client with dementia does not have the cognitive abilities to learn new skins or to adapt Realize that the normal range for intraocular pressure is (IOP) is 10 – 21 mmHg Realize that whenever glaucoma is associated with diabetes, it is considered severe Realize that the globus pallidus is one of the core nuclei of the basal ganglia Realize that hearing losses include (1) conductive (infection wise), (2) sensorineural and (3) mixed (both conduction and sensorineural); realize that the sensorineural type can be caused by prolonged exposure to noise, such as loud music; it is this type that is usually permanent and not helped with medical or surgical treatment x Realize that the nurse may apply heat to help with healing loss Realize that replacement lens implants are selected to allow correction of refraction for distant vision; client may not require glasses to see distances, but may still require glasses for reading or for close work Realize that tonometry measures the pressure in the eye43 Realize that a fluorescein angiography measures the circulation in the retina x Realize that fluorescein angiography is a series of photographs that details the eye’s circulation x Realize that fluorescein is a dye administered IV x Realize that the eyes are dilated with mydriatic eyedrops before the exam; after exam, client should avoid direct sunlight until eyes have returned to normal Realize that client with chronic pain exhibit little or no autonomic hyperactivity Realize that cataracts are partial or total opacity of the normal transparent crystalline lens; occurs because the lens becomes less hydrated and more dense x Realize that flexibility is not related to transparency of the lens Realize that if a patient is gonna have a mastoidectomy (surgical excision of the mastoid sinuses used to treat mastoiditis when it has not responded to antiobiotic therapy), the nurse must anticipate problems with vertigo by asking the client Realize the following in regards to a myelogram: x Must have their head elevated on the bed at 30 – 40 degrees x Must monitor for seizures of a water-based dye (metrizamide) is used; neurologic assessment every 2 – 4 hours x Realize that if an oil-based dye is used, the nurse must replace fluids to remove the oil-based dye by encouraging oral fluids; offer oral analgesics for headache Realize that the visual fields test measures the client peripheral vision Realize that the Snellen test is the best E test Realize that if a client has a thermal burn to the eye, the client will have to wear a patch over the eye and take analgesics x Realize that the client will also have to wear an eye patch for 24 hours for a non-penetrating abrasion x Realize that if there is a penetrating injury of the eye, the client should wear an eye patch and prepare for surgery o Realize that the object should not be removed by the client eye, should be done by the surgeon Realize that for a non-penetrating contusion eye injuries, the client will need cold compresses and analgesics Realize that client with strabismus (a disorder of the eye in which the optic axes cannot be directed to the same object) will need the following: x Corrective lenses x Eye exercise x Surgery (possibility) Realize the following in regards to Huntington’s disease: x Realize that Huntington’s is a inherited disease of the CNS, marked by choreoathetosis (irregular movements) x Realize that genetic testing is implemented Realize that burning and tingling sensations indicates ischemia or sensorineural impairment SKIN Realize that most narcotic addicts do not inject sterile purified material with aseptic techniques; cellutitis is a common complication because of skin popping or using an infected drug apparatus Realize that changing a dressing for a client with a draining abscess requires contact precaution Realize that the severity of edema is characterized by grading 1+ (2-mm pitting) to 4+ (8-mm pitting) Realize that the skin is very susceptible to breakdown when immobility and bodily secretions are present Realize that if wet dressing touches the skin, it could cause skin breakdown44 Realize the following in regards to Lyme disease: x Ticks are found in heavily wooded areas x One should check any exposed skin for insects every 4 hours x Wear long pants, socks and long sleeved shirts x Apply and re-apply insert repellant every couple of hours when hiking x Assessments should focus on arms, legs and hairline x Realize that ticks should not be crushed; ticks should be removed with tick tweezers and flushed down the toilet x Realize that burning a tick could spread infection Realize that electrical burn injuries are typically more injuries to underlying tissue (not the outside skin), such as nerve and vascular tissue, which require a more complex and timely treatment Realize that the following foods are helpful in the wound healing and the formation of RBCs process: x Vitamin C, iron, high protein (to maintain an anabolic state), high calories, high carbohydrates and multivitamins Realize that if a client is suspected to have pediculosis capitis (head lice), the nurse must look for louse and nits, small whitish oval specks that adhere to the hair shaft; it is treated with gammabenzene hexachloride (kwell) x Realize that Kwell is an organic shampoo solvent that can be toxic; it is absorbed through the scalp; may be repeated 5 – 7 days after the first application Realize that the German measles requires droplet precautions because it is an organism that can be transmitted by face-to-face contact Realize that S. aureus requires contact precaution Realize that a sweat test is done to see if a person has cystic fibrosis x Realize that a positive sweat test requires the administration of replacement enzymes Realize that a Curling’s ulcer is a peptic ulcer that sometimes occur following a severe burn x Realize that this ulcer occurs in the stomach; gastric pH is between 1 – 5; don’t know what this has to do with a burn Realize that cytomegalovirus is a herpes virus Realize the following in regards to shingles: x Caused by herpes zoster x Not contagious, just cover the lesions x Person with shingles may be immunocompromised Realize that an ice massage requires a nurse to look for mottling (irregular spots of different colors) or graying of the tissue Realize the following about systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) x Sun exposure/ultraviolet, infections and joint stresses are problems x Has a characteristic facial butterfly-shaped rash x Patient has little energy, usually from depression and weight loss x May cause proteinuria x May cause hyperlipidemia x Will need steroid therapy x Realize that SLE should be in remission for at least 5 month prior to conceiving a child Realize the following about latex allergy: x Realize that all patients in the room with a patient that has latex allergy must be treated as though they were latex sensitive because it is essential for treatments of patient having latex allergy Realize the following about scabies:45 x Scabies is a contagious skin disease caused by mites x Scabies is transmitted by close contact x Realize that a patient with scabies requires a private room and contact precautions Realize that just because a client has a smelly decubitus ulcer, does not make it necessary to put on a mask Realize that heat is a sign of pressure on the body. Realize that impetigo is a bacterial infection of the skin with the following symptoms and involvements: x Reddish macule (flat spot) becoming vesicles, thin honey-crusted, pruritus; caused by staphylococcus, streptococcus x Should use skin isolation and good handwashing techniques x Antibiotics are used to treat, which can be an ointment or PO; loosen scabs with Burow solution compresses (a dilute solution of aluminum acetate; used in dermatology as a drying agent for weeping skin lesions); mitts for infants to prevent secondary infection; monitor for acute glomerulonephritis (complications of untreated impetigo) o Can also be treated with antibacterial soap x Realize that periorbital edema can occur from impetigo; realize that periorbital edema is indicative of post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, a complication of impetigo Realize that herpes zoster (shingles) is a reactivation of latent varicella (chickenpox), which has an increased frequency rate among adults with a weakened immune system; pain, tenderness, and pruritus over the affected region; is contagious to anyone who has not had chickenpox or who is immunosuppressed x Realize that herpes zoster is contagious to anyone who has not had chickenpox x Realize that clients with compromised immune system are at risk for reactivation of varicella zoster virus x Realize that a transplant client will have their immune system compromised because of medication Realize that an irregular, mottled ring with a bluish-purple central area from an insect bite is the beginning of tissue necrosis; bite causes ulcerative lesions; eschar forms and sloughs to leave an open wound; treat with topical antibiotics and sterile dressing if wounds becomes infected Realize that cutaneous anthrax only requires standard precautions Realize that you cannot check skin turgor on an elderly patient because remember, their skin is already messed up and wrinkly Realize the following about sub-Q injections: x Site should not be massaged; causes bruising x Aspirating the syringe with a subcutaneous heparin solution can cause bruising; never aspirate x Realize that for sub-Q injections, nurse should use 25 – 27 gauge and 37% - 62% inches needle x Realize that sub-Q injections should be given in the abdomen Realize that when the skin looks dry and flaking skin can also be caused by hypothyroidism Realize that psoriasis (red papules and scaly silvery plaques with sharply defined borders) may respond to UV (ultraviolet) therapy Realize the following about ultraviolet therapy: x UV radiation is used as topical treatment for skin conditions x UV therapy is contraindicated during pregnancy x UV therapy is used to treat atopic dermatitis (chronic dermatitis found in patients with a history of allergy) x Realize that mycosis fungoides is a non-Hodgkin form of cutaneous T-cell lymphoma; treatment includes chemotherapy and phototherapy x Realize that UV therapy is contraindicated in clients with a history of cataracts or cataract surgery; also contraindicated in clients with a history of skin cancer Realize that with contact precautions, equipment should be left in the client’s room or cleaned thoroughly before use on another client Realize that when removing gown and gloves, do so in the room and wash hands thoroughly Realize that malignant melanoma has the following danger signs on the skin:46 x A lesion with an irregular surface and variegated colors; may see shades of red, white and blue; blue color is ominous, commonly found on the upper back and lower legs Realize that a macule is fat and nonpalpate Realize that a vesicle is a circumscribed lesion filled with fluid Realize that a negative skin PPD test does not rule out TB infection in a person who is immunosuppressed (HIV) since they are unable to initiate an adequate response to the skin test Realize that the bacillus calmette-guerin (BCG) vaccine was used to promote active immunity to TB; false-positive reactions to tuberculosis skin testing can occur in individuals who have received this vaccine Realize that hair should not be shampooed often because the hair and scalp tends to be dry and need oil application rather than common shampoo, which will further dry out the scalp and make hair brittle Realize the following when it comes to IM injections: x Realize that aspiration must be done before injection to ensure the needle is in muscle and not in a blood vessel x Realize that injection site should not be massage for IM x Realize that a 0.2 mL of air ensure an air-lock which clears excess medications from the needle; it is done to prevent medications from leaking into the subcutaneous tissue and skin surface either on injection or upon withdrawal x Realize that it is good to wait 10 seconds after injecting the medication before removing the needle to permit the medication to disperse and the muscle to start absorbing it Realize that the Z-track method is a variation of standard IM technique for administering medications that are highly irritating to subcutaneous and skin tissues x Realize that the Z-track methods prevent medication from leading into the subcutaneous and skin tissues x Realize that the site for Z-track injections in adults must always be the dorsal gluteal Realize the following in regards to trans-dermal patches: x Realize that clean gloves are used to prevent the nurse from absorbing medication through the finger tips x Realize that clear water must be used to cleanse the skin before applying patch so adhesion can occur; do not use soaps, lotions or alcohol x Realize that heat is not good for the trans-dermal patch because it increases absorption, which can lead to toxicity of the medication of the trans-dermal patch x Realize that when throwing away an old trans-dermal patch, the nurse must fold it in half with the sticky sides together; folding it in this manner ensure that medication is sealed before disposal Realize the following in regards to debridement: x Realize that in planning debridement for a client, the nurse must organize time for the dressing change and provide emotional support x The nurse must administer analgesic 30 minutes before wound care; debridement is the removal of nonviable tissue, may be preceded by hydrotherapy; encourage expression of feelings and demonstrate acceptance of the client x Prepare the client and family for the pain that will be experience by the client during and after the procedure x Realize that the nurse should plan adequate time for the dressing change and provide emotional support; planning for burn wound treatment should include organizing and planning to spend time not only on the mechanics of the procedure but also on providing the emotional support necessary for the client Realize the following in regards to skin graft: x Realize that graft adherence to the site is essential for vascularization and the “taking” or survival of the graft; immobilization of the graft is critical x Realize that a thin fibrin network develops quickly after graft placement but it takes 7 – 10 days for the graft to really adhere, and longer than that to mature x Realize that the donor site experiences more pain than the recipient site x Realize that once donor and recipient site have healed, the avoidance of direct sunlight for 1 year must occur because of the skin’s increased sensitivity to ultraviolet rays x Realize that a pressure dressing is placed on the site47 Realize that burn injury clients requires a high protein diet x Realize that an increase in respiratory rate and decreased blood pressure may indicate a burn wound sepsis, a life-threatening complication of thermal injury Realize that thin hair, dull hair and dry hair indicates poor nutritional status Realize the following in regards to an excision of a malignant melanoma x Realize that psychological support is necessary because of diagnosis of cancer Realize that lead radiation shield should be placed on hallway side of client’s bed to protect caregivers and visitors from a patient with radioactive implants. x Realize that bowel movements can dislodge radium implants; realize that a low-residue diet will decrease the amount of stool and number of bowel movements to prevent dislodgement x Realize that when removing a radium implant, it is most important for the nurse to chart the date and time of removal, together with the total time of implant treatment Realize that exposure to the sun increases the risk for skin cancer; realize that basal cell carcinoma is the most common human skin cancer, typically found on skin exposed to the sun Realize that a client diagnosis with cellulitis requires contact precautions until 24 hours after initiation of effective therapy Realize that infant may receiving skin testing URINARY Realize that the most effective way of evaluating diuretic therapy is to evaluate for a decrease in edema and to measure ones daily weight Realize that continuous bladder irrigation (CBI) is a constant flow of normal saline to keep the catheter patent x Realize that CBI prevents the formation of clots that can lead to obstruction and spasms in the postoperative TURP client x Realize that CBS enables urine to keep flowing Realize that methenamine mandelate (mandelamine) is a urinary antiseptic that derives its activity from the release of formaldehyde; client should stay away from alkaline foods and fluids, such as milk Realize that a three-way Foley catheter should be irrigated rapidly when bright-red-drainage or clot are present; irrigation rate should be decreased to about 40 gtt/min when the drainage clears Realize that a prostatic cancer antigen (PSA) and acid phoshatase test are done for prostatic cancer; realize that test must be drawn before a digital rectal exam, as manipulation of the prostate will abnormally increase PSA value Realize the following in regards to intermittent self-catheterization: x Client must perform the Valsalva maneuver before doing catheterization x Client should use clean (not sterile) technique x Client can use the Crede maneuver (places hands over bladder and pushes in and down) to try to empty the bladder before catheterization x Realize that intermittent self-catheterization should be done every 2 – 3 hours and then increased to every 4 – 6 hours x Client should be encouraged to drink fluids Realize that the following juices promote an acidic urine: x Prune juice x Cranberry juice x Tomato juice x Bouillon (clear broth made from meat or vegetables) Realize that the following drinks promote alkaline urine:48 x Lemonade x Milk x Orange juice Realize that any range outside of 30 – 80 mL per hour for urine needs to be addressed Realize that masturbating is common in some elderly men Realize that in order to establish a normal urinary pattern, the client must do the following: x Must keep a record of daily intake x Must record each time he/she urinates Realize that protein intake is determined based on kidney impairement (glomerular filtration rate) Realize that 1,500 – 2,000 mL per day is the recommended fluid intake Realize that a patient with advanced chronic renal failure has hyperkemia or is at risk for hyperkalemia; potassium intake should be restricted Realize that a common cause of acute renal failure is renal ischemia precipitated by hypovolemia or heart failure Realize that clients with chronic renal failure should increase carbohydrate intake to help patient to maintain energy requirement Realize that the following foods are high in potassium: x White beans x Spinach x Baked potatoes with skin x Dried apricots (resembles a peach) x Squash x Yogurt x Fish x Avocados x Mushroom x Banana x Citrus fruit x Green leafy vegetables Realize that creatinine is a waste product of muscle breakdown; thus, one should not engage in strenuous exercise during a 24 hours urine specimen test Realize that normal outflow drainage of peritoneal dialysis should be clear and light yellow… not cloudy or opaque x Realize that if when performing a peritoneal dialysis on a young female and the outflow is bloody, assess whether or not this female is currently menstruating; the hypertonicity of the dialysate will cause the blood from the uterus to be pulled through the fallopian tube into the dialysate solution. x Realize that with continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD), the catheter must be capped during dwell time (the length of time a therapeutic substance will be retained in the body) x Realize that aseptic technique must be used when caring for catheter, fluid or tubing x Realize that because there is protein loss from CAPD, instruct client to eat high protein, well balanced diet x Realize that a cloudy outflow indicate peritonitis o Realize that peritonitis have the following symptoms: nausea and vomiting, anorexia, abdominal pain, tenderness, rigidity x Realize that the dialysate solution should be warmed with a heating pad to reduce pain caused by a cold solution Realize that if a dull percussion is noted over the symphysis pubis, it may indicate bladder distention x Realize that the insertion of a drainage tubing indicates an obstruction Realize the following about acute glomerulonephritis and its symptoms: x Occurs about 10 days after a skin or throat infection49 x Fever, chills, hematuria, dyspnea, weight gain, edema, hypertension, headache, decreased level of consciousness, confusion, abdominal or flank pain x May have an elevated serum antistreptolysin O (ASO) titer x Realize that acute glomerulonephritis is not hereditary x Occurs secondary to other infections or systemic diseases, such as systemic lupus erythematosus, cirrhosis, sickle-cell disease, and infective endocarditis x Nursing care includes medications: antibiotic (pencillin), corticosteroids, antihypertensives, immunosuppressive agents; restrict sodium intake, restrict water if oliguric; dialing weight, monitor input and output, bed rest, high-calorie, low protein diet Realize that a fever is very rare in UTI x Realize that a UTI does not really threaten a person health Realize that glomerulonephritis (a form of nephritis in which the lesions involve primarily the glomeruli) is a threat to a person’s health x Realize that if a client’s antistreptolysin O (ASO) titer is elevated, it indicates glomerulonephritis o Adults should be less than 200 units/mL o 17 yr and younger should be less than 150 units/mL Realize that urinary albumin normal range is >30 mg/24 h Realize that bad BUN and serum creatinine labs indicate renal failure x Realize that a high BUN can cause confusion, disorientation, convulsions, which could easily lead to falls; water depletion could also result in falls due to orthostatic hypotension x Realize that a decrease in production of urea nitrogen can be achieve by restricting protein Realize that a urinary output of 3,000 ml/24 h may or may not indicate renal failure as it depends on the composition of the urine Realize that diabetic retinopathy with hypertension indicate renal failure Realize that the in regard to UTIs and its following symptoms: x Urgency x Nocturia x Incontinence x Suprapubic or pelvis pain x Treat with antibacterial Realize that Tylenol overdose can also cause renal damage Realize that when a patient has an A-V fistula in his right arm in preparation for hemodialysis, this arm must be safe guarded; do not carry heavy objects on affected arm; do not use arm for blood pressure reading; do not perform venipuncture; elevate extremity postop Realize that furosemide (lasix) is a potassium-wasting diuretic; digoxin (lanoxin) is a cardiac glycoside x Realize that furosemide (lasix) should be given over 1 – 2 minutes Realize that the normal therapeutic level for digoxin in the blood is between 0.5 – 2 ng/mL Realize that low potassium levels precipitate digoxin toxicity Realize that when administering digioxin by direct IV, infuse over a minimum of 5 minutes Realize that herbal licorice can increase potassium loss and may cause digoxin toxicity Realize that the signs and symptoms of digoxin toxicity are confusion and reports of yellow halos around lights x Realize that digoxin oral loading dose is 0.75 mg – 1.25 mg and should be administered in divided doses in over 24 hours50 Realize that the normal creatinine range is 0.7 – 1.4 mg/dL; elevated levels indicate acute and chronic renal failure; client also has decreased glomerular filtration rate due to advanced age; contrast dye not safe due to renal status; normal BUN is 7 – 18 mg/dL, decreased levels caused by severe liver damage, low-protein diet, overhydration, and malnutrition Realize that a low fat diet is necessary in renal failure Realize that signs and symptoms of venous thrombosis is a common complication of nephrotic syndrome Realize the following in regards to nephrotic syndrome: x Should have low sodium intake x Should have adequate protein intake to speed healing process… only if tolerable Realize that the urine specific gravity represents the kidney inability to concentrate urine; normal specific gravity is between 1.010 – 1.030 x Realize that if a solution is diluted, the specific gravity decreases x Realize that if a solution is concentrated, the specific gravity is increases Realize that serum protein decreases in chronic renal failure; normal serum protein is 6.0 – 8.0 g/dL Realize that uric acid is a by-product of purine metabolism, which is always elevated in renal failure; normal range is 2.5 – 5.5 mg/dL (women) and 4.5 – 6.5 mg/dL (men) Realize that a neurogenic bladder is any dysfunction of the urinary bladder caused by lesions of the CNS supplying the bladder Realize that hypertrophy of renal tissue results in increased surface available for urinary excretion Realize that the Crede maneuver is the application of pressure over the symphysis pubis for periodic expulsion of urine; it results in reducing the risk for infection; performing the Crede maneuver at the same time every day can result in bladder control IMMUNE SYSTEM Realize that applying lip balm or handling contact lenses is prohibited in work areas where exposure to blood borne pathogens may occur Realize that transplant client require protective isolation following surgery Realize that when a patient is immunosuppressed, the nurse should remove all standing water from the room because it can serve as a culture medium Realize the following in regards to an AIDS client: x Should use a soft toothbrush 3 to 4 times a day to avoid injury to oral mucosa x Small frequent meals are recommended to aid digestion x Realize that AIDS patients should not hand pet excreta x Realize that bowel programs, stool softeners and laxatives reduces intestinal stasis and bacterial overgrowth x Realize that the amount of health care personnel needs to be limited in order to decrease exposure of microorganism to patient Realize that a client with a fever needs fluids for hydration Realize that bacteria can destroy DNA evidence if plastic bags are used Realize that both dry and moist secretions should be air-dried prior to placement in the appropriate container Realize that when there is an infected wound, dressing changes should be done with sterile gloves and sterile dressing Realize that Legionnaires’ disease is a fatal disease that is characterized by pneumonia, dry cough, myalgia, and sometimes gastrointestinal symptoms x Realize that Legionnaires’ disease is caused by legionelle pneumophila; which is found in warm, stagnant water such as hot water tanks; is spread by aerosolized route from the environmental source to the client x Realize that the Legionnaires’ disease has the following risk factors: o Advanced aging51 o Severe immunosuppression o End-stage renal disease o Diabetes o Smoking o Pulmonary disease Realize that burns, NG tubes and Foley are all risk factors for nosocomial infections Realize that protein-calorie malnutrition affects the immune system; nurse should weigh the client on admission and weigh the least weekly Realize that when you have a burned patient, it is very important to realize that the patient is at high risk for infection; use careful sterile technique when performing wound care x Realize that cap, gown, mask and gloves are worn by the nurse to protect the patient x Realize that morphine is the drug of choice for burn management; if its side effects becomes too apparent, exploration of alternative pain management techniques should be used… such as visualization x Realize that removing clothing, and wrapping the victim in a clean sheet is the best way to prevent infection for a burned patient Realize that a temperature above 99.5oF may indicate an infection Realize that in the elderly, change in mental status, particularly confusion, is very often the presenting symptom of infection; fever may be absent even when bacteremia or pneumonia are present x Realize that in a elderly client, the fever may be absent even when bacteremia or pneumonia is present; baseline temperature in the elderly is low; oral temperature of 100 degrees or greater or an increase of 1.4 degrees or more in baseline temperature should be suspected as indication of infection x Realize that tachycardia, tachypnea and confusion are signs of infections in elderly patients x Realize that the presence of hypoxia may contribute to the confusion also Realize that a client with MRSA requires a private room; semiprivate rooms is acceptable only when there are no other rooms to admit this client x Realize that a MRSA client can room only with another client who has MRSA x Realize that MRSA requires contact precautions Realize that a fever will respond better to cooling than antipyretics Realize that the erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) indicates inflammatory or degenerative tissue destruction; patients may have acute febrile disease and may therefore be somewhat lethargic, confused, and weak, but not at highest fall risk; normal ESR range is 0 – 20 mm/hr Realize that relaxation can help immune system repair itself o Realize that idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is an hemorrhagic autoimmune disease in which there is destruction of circulating platelets ƒ Realize that the most common cause of excessive platelet destructions is idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura ƒ Realize that idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura is a disease that affects all ages ƒ Realize that there are two forms of idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura: (1) acute idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura and (2) chronic idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura ƒ Realize that acute idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura, predominately occurs in children and often appears 1 – 6 weeks after a viral illness ƒ Realize that chronic idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura is often diagnosed by exclusion ƒ Realize that the following are the nursing management of idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) x Given corticosteroids (dexamethasone) to suppress the immune system x Given cytoxan and imuran to suppress immune system x Given IVIG x Given platelet transfusions x Given chemotherapy52 x Spleenectomy is done x Realize that you must find out if patient has taken sulfa drugs, OTC and herbs ENDOCRINE Realize that cortisol is responsible for converting proteins and fat into glucose; it is also an anti-inflammatory agent Realize that being NPO inhibits normal blood sugar control Realize that the level at which glucose starts to appear in the urine increases in the elderly, leading to false-negative urine readings; results in elevated glucose levels Realize that the dawn phenomenon is a marked increase in insulin requirement between 6am and 9am. Realize that if a client is going to have a parathyroidectomy, then a low-calcium and high phosphorus diet is recommended preoperatively Realize the following in regards to a thyroidectomy: x After surgery, swelling can occur, which may cause respiratory distress x Realize that nurse must monitor client for respiratory distress Realize that a sunken eyeballs and a fruity breath odor indicates diabetic ketoacidosis; should be treated with normal saline and regular insulin Realize the following in regards to hyperparathyroidism: x May cause abdominal discomfort x Hematuria o Realize that hematuria is a sign of renal calculi; 55% of hyperparathyroid clients have renal stones x Muscle weakness x Diaphoresis Realize the following in regards to hypoparathyroidism: x May cause laryngospasm, due to low serum calcium x Realize that cardiac dysrhythmias is related to low serum calcium Realize that drinking water facilitates swallowing during examination of the thyroid gland Realize that with an adrenalectomy, the nurse needs to be pay attention to possible hypotension Realize that pre-diabetes is classified as impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) Realize that a glucose range between 101 – 125 mg/dL is considered to be “pre-diabetes” Realize that a glucose level of 126 mg/dL calls for the diagnosis of diabetes Realize that a glucose tolerance test is a screen test for diabetes mellitus, in which plasma glucose levels are measured after the patient consumes an oral glucose load x Realize that a normal glucose tolerance test is a glucose level between 100 mg/dL – 140 mg/dL after two hours x Realize that a glucose tolerance test is considered pre-diabetes/impaired glucose tolerance when the glucose level is between 140 mg/dL – 200 mg/dL x Realize that a glucose tolerance test is considered diabetes mellitus when the glucose level is above 200 mg/dL Realize that glycosylated hemoglobin (hemoglobin A1c (Hb A1c) is a good indicator of long-term glycemic control (5 to 6 weeks or 3 months) x Realize that Hb A1c may be performed when patient is not fasting x Realize that a normal Hb A1c is < 6.0% x Realize that a diabetic mellitus patient is considered to be well-controlled is the Hb A1c is < 7.0% x Realize that a Hb A1c that is > 8.0% is considered to be poorly controlled53 Realize the following about Cushing’s syndrome and its symptoms: x Hypercortisolism x Hypernatremia x Realizes that hypercortisolism causes hyperglycemia x May cause fatigue, weakness, osteoporosis, cramps, edema, hypertension, decreased resistance to infection, truncal obesity, buffalo hump, moon face o Realize that a client can catch pneumonia easy x Realize that clients with Cushing’s syndrome tend to lose weight in their legs and have petechiae and bruising x Realize that mood swings do occur with patient with Cushing’s syndrome x Realize that clients with Cushing’s syndrome are prone to fluid overload and CHF due to sodium and water retention x Realize that client that are diagnosed with drug-induced Cushing’s syndrome should be aware that if steroids are withdrawn to abruptly, death may occur from acute adrenal insufficiency x Realize that a dexamethasone suppression test is performed to diagnose the cause Cushing syndrome x May cause thin extremities with easy bruising Realize that a diabetic often have impaired peripheral circulation and sensation; foot ulcers can be especially dangerous because they can lead to gangrene and amputation; client will not be able to feel heat on foot so burns and further tissue damage can occur x Realize that client should inspect foot daily x Client should wear welling fitting shoes; break in new shoes slowly o Realize that have each foot measure every time you buy new shoes; realize that feet enlarge with age; have measurement for shoes taken while standing because the feet is larger when standing x Don’t walk barefoot or use heating pads on feet x Cut toenails straight across (never use razor blades on feet) Realize that hypoglycemia have the following symptoms: x Confusion, tremors, headache, lightheadedness, slurred speech, impaired coordination, tachycardia, cold and clammy skin, weakness, pallor, diaphoresis, nervousness, hunger, confusion, slurred speech, coma x Realize that you can offer the client milk or skim milk x Realize that you must check blood sugar Realize the following about hyperglycemia: x Will have fluid volume deficit, important to replace fluids x Important to give insulin x Important to replace potassium x Will need an EKG because of low potassium x Assess vital signs every 15 minutes until client is stable x Realize that HHNKS is extreme hyperglycemia Realize that hypothyroidism can lead to myxedema, which causes a slowed mental functioning; improved though process indicate improvement x Realize that myxedema have the following symptoms: o Lethargy, weight gain, intolerance to cold, dry hair, mask-like facial expression, thickened skin, enlarged tongue and drooling. x May cause fatigue x May cause coarse hair and skin x May cause persistent weight gain x Realize that hypothyroidism clients are very sensitive to narcotics, barbiturates and anesthetics Realize that hyperthyroidism (Graves’s disease) have the following symptoms and involvements: x Polyphagia (eating a lot), weight loss, emotional manifestations include decreased attention span, irritability, manic behavior, tachycardia, fatigue, intolerance to heat, hyperactivity, frequent mood swings, offer six meals a day that are high in calories due to a high metabolic rate x Realize that you must provide an environment that is free of stress and activity due to the high metabolic rate; restrict visitors and control choice of roommates54 x Realize that a client that is diagnosed with hyperthyroidism and is being treated with radioactive iodine I-130, hypothyroidism can occur because hypothyroidism is a complication of I-130 x Realize that tea is a stimulate that would increase metabolic rate and should be avoided x Realize that client frequently exhibit exophthalmos, which requires ophthalmic drops (artificial tears) on a regular basis x Will cause an increase in metabolic rate x May cause anxiety x May cause extreme nervousness Realize that if insulin is mixed, the regular (clear) or short-acting insulin should be withdrawn first and then the NPH (cloudy) or intermediate acting will be withdrawn second x Realize that insulin does not have to be refrigerated; just store in cool place o Realize that insulin should be administered at room temperature; temperature extremes should be avoided x Realize that insulin should be rotated between both hands for at least one minute Realize that redness, itching and swelling at the injection site indicates an allergic reaction which is common in patients taking insulin; spontaneous desensitization usually occurs in a few weeks; if local irritation persists or is severe, physician should be contact Realize that if a client states that they have been drinking a lot of water but still feels thirsty, this symptom suggest type 1 diabetes x Realize that they symptoms of type 1 diabetes are: polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia and weight loss; in children, may see fatigue and bedwetting x Requires insulin x Prone to ketosis Realize that recurrent vaginal and UTIs are an early sign of type 2 diabetes in adolescents Realize the following with patients with type 2 diabetes: x Patient should contact physician if unable to eat in more than 24 hours x Patient should contact physician if vomiting and diarrhea for more than 24 hours x Realize that ketosis is rare x Obesity is frequent Realize that the somogyi phenomenon is a rebound hyperglycemia following an episoide of hypoglycemia caused by counterregulatory hormone release; realize that a reduction of the insulin dose will help control this condition Realize the following in regards to insulin injections sites: x Realize that failure to rotate sites results in poor absorption of insulin, which increases blood sugar x Realize that repeated injections into the same site becomes less painful rather than more uncomfortable x Realize that lipodystrophy (increase or decrease in fatty tissue) may occurs from repeated insulin injection at the same site Realize that the development of a wheal at an injection site is an allergic reactions to insulin Realize that metabolic diseases (diabetes mellitus) and blood disorders (hemophilia) can cause joint degenerations Realize the following in regards to Addison’s disease (hyposecretion of adrenal hormones): x May cause fatigue x May cause weakness x May cause darker skin in pigmented areas x May cause dehydration x Hyponatremia x Hyperkalemia x Hypoglycemia x May cause hypotension x May decrease resistance to physical stress x May decrease alopecia x Realize that nurse will need to increase fluid volume and provide steroids55 x Realize that sodium intake should be increased x Realize that client will need replacement therapy of corticosteroid and minerlocorticord for the rest of his/her life x Realize that signs of an Addisonian crisis is restlessness and rapid, weak pulse Realize that garlic capsules may potentiate action of diabetic drugs; can have direct hypoglycemic effect Realize the following about insulin: x Realize that NPH is an intermediate acting insulin; onset is 2 – 4 hours; has a peak action of 6 – 12 hours x Realize that regular insulin is a short acting insulin, has an onset of action of 30 to 60 minutes; peak is 2 – 3 hours x Realize that glargine, is a very long acting insulin that has a continuous affect with no peak x Realize that lispro is a rapid acting insulin with an onset action of 5 – 15 minutes Realize that levothyroxine (synthroid) is a thyroid hormone used to treat hypothyroidism x Realize that levothyroxine (synthroid) should be taken in the morning to prevent insomnia x Realize that levothyroxine (synthroid) should be taken at the same time each day x Realize that levothyroxine (synthroid) should not be taken if pulse is over 100 x May cause tachycardia x May cause palpitations x May cause dysrhythmia x May cause angina pectoris x May cause tremors x May cause insomnia (if overdosed) x May cause nervousness (if overdosed) x May prolong PT time x Notify physician if diarrhea, excessive sweating, heat intolerance and a weight loss greater than 2 lbs a week occurs x Increases the metabolic process, increases glomerular filtration BABY/PEDIATRIC Realize the following in regards to milk with pediatrics: x Milk provides a large amount of vitamin D x Vitamin D optimizes deposition of lead in the long bones… which removes lead from the blood stream and soft tissues Realize that an infant should be NPO for 3 hours prior to a barium swallow Realize the following about rice cereal: x Realize that rice cereal is the first solid food for an infant because it a “safe solid food” that is used to gauge an infant’s ability to tolerate solid foods ; usually started about 4 – 5 months x Realize that infants are less likely to be allergic to rice cereal than to any other solid food x Realize that breast-fed infants may be started on solid even later Realize that laryngotrachebronciti (LTB) is a condition characterized by edema and inflammation of upper airway Realize that imitative behavior usually occurs at 5 years old Realize that young children typically become restless and overactive if in pain; grimacing, clenching teeth, rocking, and aggressive behavior may also be observed Realize that by the age of 9, most children begin to develop an adult concept of death and begin to understand that death is irreversible Realize that a 7 year old see death as his/her punishment Realize that Scotch tape can be used to obtain specimen from a child anus ƒ Positive Ortolani maneuvers in babies under 8 to 12 weeks x Realize that the Ortolani’s maneuver is performed to rule out the possibility of DDH56 x Realize that the Ortolani’s maneuver involves the following: o The newborn must be relaxed and quiet on a firm surface o The hip and knees will be flexed at a 90 degree angle o The infants thigh is then grasps with the middle finger over the greater trochanter o The infants thigh is then lifted to bring the femoral head from its posterior position towards the acetabulum o Then with gentle abduction of the thigh, the femoral head is returned to the acetabulum, resulting in the feeling of a “clunk” by the examiner as the femoral head returns o Realize that the Ortolani’s maneuver is palpable and maybe heard ƒ Barlow maneuvers in babies under 8 to 12 weeks x Realize that the Barlow maneuver involves the following: o The infants thigh is grabbed and adducted with gentle downward pressure o Realize that dislocation is felt as the femoral head slips out of the acetabulum o Realize that then the femoral head is returned to the acetabulum by using the Ortolani’s maneuver, confirming the diagnosis of an unstable or dislocation of a hip Realize that the following should be done for a poison type of ingestion: x Must have poison hot line number x Realize that vomiting is contraindicated when a child ingest hydrocarbons because of danger of aspiration o Realize that hydrocarbons mimics the aspiration effect (via some chemical reaction) when present in the lungs x Medication should be stored in a child-proof container x Medication should be stored in locked cabinets Realize that it is ok to do a mock run of a procedure for a child Realize that an infant with reflux should be maintained in an upright position; head of the bed should be raised at a 30 degree angle Realize that eye-to-eye contact between a mother and infant is bonding Realize that if a mother places her infant on her breast, it will cause a natural surge of oxytocin that results in contraction of the uterus Realize the following about pyloric stenosis: x Realize that a baby with pyloric stenosis is fussy and seems hungry all the time x Realize that with pyloric stenosis, the pyloric spintcher has some kind of mass that is blocking the spincther x Realize that pyloric stenosis causes a forceful vomiting x Realize that the presence of peristaltic waves indicates pyloric stenosis x Realize that with pyloric stenosis, a hypertrophied pyloric muscle causes symptoms of projectile vomiting and visible persistalsis x Realize that pyloric stenosis is more common in males x Realize that GERD if frequently present in premature infants with pyloric stenosis x Realize that pyloric stenosis can have the following etiology: o Genetic o Spontaneous x Realize that pyloric stenosis causes vomiting at the beginning of every feed x Realize that an abdominal ultrasound is usually done to assess the diameter and length of the pyloric muscle x Realize that an upper GI series may be done to view the narrowing x Realize that the following are the nursing diagnosis for a child with pyloric stenosis: o Deficient fluid volume o Imbalance nutrition: Less than Body requirements o Sleep pattern disturbance o Parental anxiety o Pain x Realize that the only treatment for pyloric stenosis is surgery x Realize that intussusceptions is one of the most frequent causes of intestinal obstruction during infancy, second only to pyloric stenosis x Realize that a nursing consideration for pyloric stenosis is fluid and electrolytes because of so much vomiting x Realize that children with pyloric stenosis are only a couple months old, 3 months at the most, so you have to teach the parents Realize that the normal BP for a baby is 60/40 – 80/5057 Realize that it is normal for a 4 – 6 year old to engage in imaginary play. Realize that when an infant has pain, they cannot talk so the nurse needs to be aware of nonverbal signs of pain, such as rubbing the ear or park of the body and crying Realize that respiration for an infant should be counted for 1 full minute prior to arousing Realize that environments with increase number of children (day care) more likely to promote infections due to close living conditions and increased likelihood of disease transmission Realize that a baby stop sucking their thumb by 24 months; sucking the thumb peaks between 18 – 20 months, it is most prevalent when a child is hungry Realize that it is normal for a neonate to experience absence of breathing for 10 seconds; if apnea is lasting longer than 15 seconds, it should be reported Realize that it is important for the mother to be able to monitor a patient fetal kicks; fetal movements daily Realize that weighing the baby and comparing the weight to the baseline is the most accurate indicator of feeding retention Realize that if a client vomits frequently, clear liquids should be offered first, as a child tolerates these fluids, full liquids may be offered Realize that adolescents should have an increase sweat production (puberty) due the hormonal changes Realize that children frequently set their own pace for development Realize that the Romberg’s assess the equilibrium and cerebellar functions x Realize that the Romberg’s sign is done by having a child stand with his eyes closed, his arms at his sides and his feet and knees close together Realize the following in regards to the Babinski reflex: x A positive Babinski indicates CNS disease x Realize that a positive Babinski is the dorsiflexion (L) of great toe and fanning of other toes (abnormal in child older than 2 years old) x A negative Babinski is a normal planter flexion of the toes x Realize that the Brudzinski sign is the flexion of the hips when the neck is flexed from a supine position. It occurs in patients with a meningeal inflammation Realize that stroking an infant is tactile stimulation, which is important in an infant’s normal emotional development Realize that a 4 year old is unable to write because this task is too advanced for a preschooler Realize that an infant lifts the head 45 degrees when in prone between 1 and 3 months Realize that parents offer child comfort and security and reduces a child’s anxiety Realize that the moro reflex is an infant response to stimuli, such as that produced by suddenly striking the surface on which the infant rest. x Realize that the moro reflex is strongest during the first 2 months; the moro reflex should disappear after 3 to 4 months Realize you must know the following when assessing an infant: x Auscultate heart and lungs first only if the infant is quiet o Realize that the nurse should perform auscultation and less aggressive assessments first while patient is calm and quiet x Realize that if the infant is not quiet, examine the eyes, ears and mouth first58 o If the infant is quiet, examine the ears and mouth last because it requires induce crying and because you don’t want to alter the cardiopulmonary assessment of the child x Palpate and percuss the abdomen in mid process x Elicit the moro reflex assessment last Realize that when assessing an infant, nurse must still assess from heat to toe direction Realize that the assessment of deep tendon reflexes of an infant should be completed as each body part is examined Realize the following about toilet training: x Realize that voluntary control sphincters is achieved at 18 – 24 months Realize the following about a 2 year old (24 months): x Can pick up an object without falling x Can turn doorknobs and unscrew lids x Has a 300-word vocabulary Realize the following about a 1 – 3 month-old: x The infant’s grasp reflex is strong o A rattle is an appropriate toy for this age group x Doll’s eye reflex disappears x The spine is rounded or C-shaped due to thoracic and pelvis curves x The infant head will lag when pulled from a lying to a sitting position x The infant will show asymmetrical tonic neck reflex (extension of one or both extremities on the side to which the head is forcibly turned. Flexion of the extremities occurs on the other side) Realize the following about a 4 - 6 month-old: x The infant brings objects to the month; occurs between 4 – 6 months x The infants attempts to grasp a toy out of reach x The infants begins to drool x Learns to identify mother or primary caregiver, which is demonstrated by crying in the presence of a stranger x Birth weight doubles x The cervical curve develops x Do not allow to play with rattles that is cracked because these rattles have small beads insides that can be aspirated; inspect all rattles or toys that make noise to ensure that they are intact Realize the following about a 7 – 9 month-old: x The infants sits alone and play x The infant respond to own name x Can stand while holding onto furniture x Can respond to simply verbal commands Realize the following about a 10 – 12 month-old: x The infant will eat with fingers x The infant takes deliberate steps when standing x Picks up bite-size pieces of cereal x Says “dada” and “mama” Realize that the following are the progression of a toddler: x Realize that walking without help begins at 13 – 15 months x Realize that building a tower of three to four blocks occurs at 18 months x Realize that using two to three words phrases occurs at 24 months (2 year old) x Realize that jumping to both feet occurs at 30 months (2 year old)59 Realize the following pediatric age groups: x Infancy: 0 - 1 x Toddler: 1 - 3 x Preschooler: 3 - 6 x School aged: 6 - 12 x Adolescent: 12 – 18 Realize that cooperative play is seen with school age children Realize that associative play is seen with preschool children Realize that solitary play is seen with infants Realize that the use of bright objects for distraction is appropriate for an infant Realize that 2 year old parallel play, seen with toddlers; playing alongside, not with others Realize that offering a 2 – 3 year old finger foods helps that child establish autonomy Realize that a push pull toy is appropriate for a infant that is between 18 – 21 months, when they are able to walk and begin to coordinate movements Realize that if a 2 year old is crying, tugging at his/her ear, head rolling… it indicates otitis media x Realize that it is important to position the client on the affected side to promote drainage Realize that 2 year olds should be allowed to become familiar with equipment because it decreases fear of unfamiliar objects; explain procedure by telling toddler what she/he will see, hear, and feel Realize that for preschool aged children, a demonstration of the use of an equipment should be done Realize that only school aged children should be given choices in regards to their care Realize that the fundus of the uterus rises to the level of the umbilus 6 to 12 hours after delivery Realize that frequent bathing and use of soap can dry out the sensitive skin of a newborn by removing natural skin oils x Realize that bathing is sufficient if it is done every other day or twice a week for the first 2 weeks Realize that an infant should be placed in a crib or bassinet separate from the bed of the parents Realize that if a baby has less than 6 to 8 wet diapers a day, that baby needs more fluids Realize that you must never deprive a baby of stimuli as it promotes failure to thrive Realize that tactile stimulation is imperative for an infant’s emotional development Realize that fetal heart rate should be between 120 – 160 beats/min x Realize that a fetal heart rate above 160 is an early signs of fetal hypoxia x Realize that a fetal heart rate below 120 is a later signs of fetal hypoxia Realize that normal fetal respiratory rate is 30 – 50 Realize that acrocyanosis (blue or purple mottled discoloration of extremities) is normal for 2 to 5 hours post-delivery due to poor peripheral circulation Realize that children are never to be given coins because the danger of choking Realize that infants with congenital heart diseases, including tetralogy of falot (TOF), are weak, fatigue easily, and need to be fed carefully with the least amount of required effort on their part60 x Realize that the knee-chest position treatment for cyanotic spells, enhances systemic venous return, dilate right ventricle, decreases the obstruction Realize that toddlers are in danger of aspirating large pieces of meat and hot dogs. Realize the following in failure to thrive: x A consistent team of nurses helps build trust for a child x Realize that cycles of dissatisfaction and frustration causes difficulty between parents and child x Realize that weight and height provides the most pertinent data in assessing actual growth in regards to “failure-to-thrive” Realize that respiratory syncytial virus requires contact precautions, no mask x Realize that respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) causes bronchiolitis and requires contact precautions; parents are best providers of care for their children, so sleeping accommodations are appropriate Realize that the extrusion reflex is an infantile reflex in which the tongue moves outward after it has been touched x Realize that extrusion reflex is a normal neonate reflex that disappears between 3 – 4 months Realize that a newborn anterior fontanel should only bulge when infant is crying; any bulging at any other time indicates an increase in intracranial pressure Realize that the normal occipital frontal circumference is 33 – 35 cm x Realize that an increase in size indicate hydrocephaly or increased intracranial pressure Realize that a “machine-like” heart murmur indicates (1) a patent ductus arteriosus and (2) an acyanotic heart problem Realize that a 13 year old boy is expected to be clumsy and uncoordinated x They have initial problems with coordination; appearance of clumsiness related to rapid, unsynchronized growth of many systems; growth in linear; outgrow shoes, then pants and then shirts Realize the following about puberty teen males private parts: x Torsion of spermatic cord, very pain; most common cause of testicular loss in young males; surgery untwists and stabilizes the cord; requires immediate intervention by health care provider x Realize that with an inguinal hernia, which is a protrusion of loop of bowel into the scrotum, the scrotum appears swollen, and a soft mass is palpated; the nurse is unable to insert a finger above the mass. Realize that transient gynecomastia occurs in approximately half of adolescent boys; may be unilateral or bilateral; usually last about 1 year Realize that varicocele is the enlargement of the veins of the spermatic cord; it is a scrotal mass due to enlarge veins of the spermatic cord; may require scrotal support if uncomfortable; major cause of male infertility Realize that attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is indicated by inattention, hyperactivity, impulsivity; children demonstrate low frustration level, intolerance for change in environment, “on the go” or acts as if driven by a motor and failure to respond to discipline. Realize that the following are signs of depression for a 13 year old: x Declining school grades x Chronic melancholy (abnormal state or irascibility) x Family dysfunction x Alcohol or other drug use x Suicide attempts Realize that diapers should be placed under the straps of a Pavlik harness; Realize that the Pavlik harness is an abduction device; infants wear it for 3 – 5 months61 x Realize that the Pavlik harness may require adjustment every 1 – 2 weeks because of infant’s grown, but this should be done by a health care professional; some harnesses are not removed, even for bathing ƒ For infant under 3 months, the Pavlik harness is most commonly used for hip reduction x Realize that the Pavlik harness is a dynamic splint that allows movement x Realize that the Pavlik harness ensure hip flexion and abduction x Realize that the Pavlik harness does not allow hip extension or adduction x Realize that when an infant has a Pavlik harness, the nurse should check at least two or three times a day for red areas under the strap x Realize that the infant should wear an undershirt under the chest straps as it prevents skin breakdown x Realize that no lotion or powder should be used because they can cause irritation to the skin Realize that the symptoms of developmental dysplasia of the hip includes the following: x Uneven gluteal fold and thigh creases x Ortolani sigh, shortened limb on affected side x The top of the infant’s one knee may be 1 inch higher than the other knee Realize that being knock-kneed between the ages of 2 – 7 years of age is normal; genus valgum is the term for being knock-kneed Realize that if a preadolescene arms appears to be different in length and has a slight limp during ambulation, this is a possible scolosis issue; scoliosis is a spinal curvature deformity that is most noticeable during the growth spurt in preadolescence x Realize that a child with scoliosis may have an asymmetrical thoracic area Realize that predigested formulas that use enzymatic hydrolysis to break down or predigest the casein protein into its amino acids are recommended for infants with cow’s milk allergies x Realize that soy-baed formulas are not recommended for infants with cow’s milk allergy due to cross-reactivity to soy x Realize that goat milk is not recommended for infants with cow’s milk allergy; it has cross-reactivity with cow’s milk protein, it is deficient in folic acid, it is inadequate as the only caloric source x Realize that a 5 year old can also have cow’s milk allergy Realize that fresh yogurt can be used to situations of lactose intolerances because it has a lactase enzyme, but it is not suitable for infants with cow’s milk allergy Realize the following in regards to talipes equinovarus (clubfoot): x Check temperature, color and sensation x Don’t cover cast until dry (48 hours) x Handle with palms, not fingertips x Don’t read on hard surfaces x Elevate affected limb above heart on soft surfaces until dry x Don’t use heatlamp x Check for blueness or paleness, pain, numbness or tingling sensations on affected area x Child should remain inactive while cast is drying Realize the following in regards to myelomeningocele (a hernia of the spinal card and meninges): x Prevent pressure on the sac-like protrusion on the back because pressure would result in increased intracranial pressure or may rupture, leading to an infection; cover lesion with moist, sterile dressing, change dressing every 2 – 4 hours x Realize that infant should be monitored for elevated temperature, irritability and lethargy x Realize that with myelomeningocele repair, the head circumference measurement is important because of risk of hydrocephalus following surgery even simply care like bathing child could bring acceptance x Realize that the spinal nerves that are destroyed by the myelomeningocele cannot be corrected; nothing can return function to portions of the body that are innervated by the spinal nerves below the site of the myelomeningocele Realize that one of the first signs of increased intracranial pressure in an infant is a high-pitched cry; other signs included irritability, poor feeding, increased frontal occipital circumference Realize that bulb syringes are airway-related; nasopharyngeal secretions can block airway passages; young infants are obligatory nose breathers; instruct parents about how to use syringe before feedings and PRN62 Realize that an infant’s rate of fluid exchange is significantly higher than an adults; realize the metabolism rate for an infant is twice that of an adults; realize that the kidneys of an infant is not matured so they cannot concentrate urine to conserve water Realize that if a child states that no one will play with him or her, it is a hallmark sign of depression in children Realize that sport safety is of concern for a school aged children; bicycle and sports related injuries and proper nutrition are the two greatest concerns in school age children Realize that toddlers and preschoolers are more likely to drown Realize that adolescent are more likely to be involved in injuries related to recreational water sports Realize the following in regards to cleft palate repair: x Usually repaired about 18 months to allow bone growth; do not use suction or place objects in child’s mouth such as a tongue depressor, thermometer, small spoon, or straws; restrict for about 6 weeks until palate heals x Realize that hard foods are discouraged to prevent damage to newly repaired palate x Child should eat in the sitting position to prevent aspiration (upright) x Realize that a rubber tip can be placed at the side of the mouth to avoid the operative area x Realize that arm restraints may be necessary to prevent an infant from rubbing or disturbing suture lines Realize the following about acute diarrhea related to gastroenteritis: x Realize that clear fluids by mouth are no recommended for managing diarrhea; fluids by mouth can exacerbate vomiting and diarrhea x Realize that high sodium fluids should not be given x Realize that the BRAT (banana, rice, apple and toast and tea) diet is not recommended for a child with acute diarrhea because it has the following: o Low nutritional value (low protein and energy) o Low electrolytes o High carbohydrates x Realize that once rehydration has occurred, normal diet should be resumed Realize that a Harrington rod is inserted to fuse the spine to treat scoliosis x Realize that if a child is able to use the incentive spirotometer, it indicates that child is not feeling pain x Realize that client must be monitored closely for the first 48 – 72 hours for respiratory problems x Realize that bowel and urinary problems need to be assessed along with neurological problems in the extremities x Encourage client to take 10 deep breaths every 2 hours Realize the following when an infant is born: x Realize that jaundice appears first on the head, progresses cephalocaudal; jaundice during the first 24 hours indicates hemolytic disease of newborn x Realize that a Mongolian spot (blue spot) may be found on any body part, gradually fades over a period of months or years; seen on infants of Mediterranean, Latin American, or Asian decent; assure parents that this is normal and will go away x Realize that milia may be on the newborn, which results from active sebaseous glands; disappears spontaneously in a few days or weeks; requires no treatment Realize the following in regards to the circumcision of an infant: x Realize that a 4 x 4 gauze pad with either petroleum jelly (Vaseline) or A & D ointment should be placed on the circumcision site as a dressing to prevent the wound from adhering to the dressing or diaper; this dressing change occurs for three days after procedure x Realize that yellowish-white exudates appears on the second day; it is part of the granulation process, so do not remove or disrupt it x Realize that the diapers should be loosely fastened to prevent friction, rubbing, or pressure against the tender penis; should be changed when wet x Realize that a sign of infection is the following: o Difficulty voiding and/or failure to void sufficiently may result from edema at the circumcision site blocking the urethra or urethral meatus; report to physician immediately Realize that alcohol is recognized at the leading cause of preventable mental retardation; mental retardation is included in the fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) complex of symptoms63 x Realize that it is important for a newborn with fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) to replace vitamins depleted as a result of poor maternal diet x Realize that for an infant with fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS), adequate intake of B complex vitamins is necessary for normal CNS function x Realize that an infant with fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) will have a small head circumference, low birth weight and undeveloped cheekbones Realize the following in regards to breastfeeding: x Realize that when the newborn pops out, the mother should use water on the breast to clean it and dry it thoroughly prior to breastfeeding x Realize that infant should be positioned in the side-lying, sitting upright, or with the infant facing mother (tailor position); rotate breast-feeding positions; position nipple so that infant’s mouth covers a large portion of the areola and release infant’s mouth from nipple by inserting finger to break suction x Realize that the nurse must stay with the patient to assess effectiveness of newborn’s suck, swallow and gag reflex Realize that some plants can be bad for children Realize that phototherapy is considered for an infant with a total serum bilirubin level of >15mg/dL at 72 hours of age Realize the following in regards to phototherapy: x Realize that it is appropriate to turn off phototherapy for feeding an infant x Realize that phototherapy lights must be turned off when blood is drawn to ensure accurate bilirubin levels x Realize that an infant eyes must be completely shielded with patches or an opaque mask in order to prevent exposure to the light, which could result in eye damage, especially of the retina o Realize that if jaundice around the infant’s eyes begins to disappear because of the light, this means that light is getting through Realize the following about the apgar score: x Realize that a normal apgar score is between 7 – 10 x Realize that it is recommended to perform cord blood analysis in cases in which the apgar score is below 7 at 5 minutes of age x Realize that the newborn is rated (1) at 1 minute after birth and (2) again after 5 minutes after birth and receives a total score (apgar score) ranging between 0 – 10 x Realize that the apgar score is based on the following assessments: o Heart rate o Respiratory effort o Muscle tone o Reflex irritability o Skin color x Realize that an apgar score of less than 3 at 5 minutes post-birth may correlate with neonatal mortality x Realize that infants born to mothers who have received general anesthesia have lower 1 minute apgar scores than those who are given regional anesthesia for emergency c-sections x Realize that the apgar score and its meaning should be explained immediately to the family x Realize that according to the American academy of pediatrics, apgar scores that are low at 1 and 5 minutes are not definite indications of an acute intrapartum hypoxic event x Realize that low apgar score may be related to the following: o Intrauterine asphyxia (condition caused by insufficient intake of oxygen) o Medication the woman received during labor o The use of narcotic antagonist (narcan) to reverse respiratory depression ƒ Realize that the use of narcan is contraindicated because it may precipitate acute withdrawal in the infant x Realize that intrauterine distress is presented as the following: o Meconium staining o Low apgar scores Realize that when an infant is positive for PKU, it lacks the enzyme necessary to convert phenylalanine to tyrosine; phenylalanine accumulates in the tissue and leads to mental retardation; Lofenalac is low in phenylalanine but contains minerals and vitamins required by the infant x Infant should receive milk substitutes and a low protein diet64 Realize that lofenalac is an infant powder formula prescribed to replace milk in the diet of phenylketonuria sufferes in the infant and child stage x Realize that it is the Guthrie blood test that evaluates neonates for phenylketonuria (PKU) x Realize that if the initial specimen of phenylketonuria (PKU) is collected before a newborn is 24 hours old, a repeat test should be performed by 2 weeks of age; the initial specimen should be collected as close to discharge as possible Realize that adrenoleukodystrophy is a hereditary disease in which an infant is unable to metabolize very long fatty acid chains Realize that an infant normal stool pattern is one stool per day Realize that if the infant umbilical cord is moist at the base and slightly red, it indicates an infection Realize that it is ok to apply alcohol to the umbilical cord after the diaper change x Realize that it is important to clean the cord several times a day and expose it to air frequently… this encourages drying and helps prevent infection Realize that a good rule of thumb for putting a jit in timeout is putting 1 minute for each year of a child’s age Realize that Erickson’s eight stages are the following: 1. Basic trust vs. mistrust: from birth to one years old, realize that the challenge here is to develop a sense that the world is safe a. Realize that the successful resolutions of this stage requires a consistent caregiver who is available to meet his needs 2. Autonomy vs. shame and doubt: from one to 3 years old, the challenge here is to realize that one is an independent person who can make decisions a. Realize that the growing child has accomplished some basic self-care activities, like walking, feeding and toileting b. Realize that toddlers develop their autonomy by making choices c. Realize that limiting these choices lead to feelings of shame and doubt d. Realize that harsh punishments leads to feeling shame and doubt e. Realize that toddlers who successfully master this stage achieves self-control and willpower 3. Initiative vs. guilt: from 3 to 6 years old, realize that the challenge here is to develop the ability to try new things and to handle any failure a. Realize that this is the stage where children are developing their superego or conscience b. Realize that this is the stage where children like to pretend and try new roles; have fantasies that allow them to further explore their environment c. Realizes that conflict occurs when a child desire to explore has their behavior limited d. Realize that these conflicts can lead to feelings of frustration and guilt. e. Realize that a successful resolution in this stages results in the following: i. Direction ii. Learning’s 4. Industry vs. inferiority: from 6 to adolescence, realize that the challenge here is to learn basic skills and to work with others a. Realize that children at this stage needs to be able to experience real achievement to develop a sense of competency 5. Identity vs. role confusion: adolescence, realize that the challenge here is to develop a lasting sense of self a. Realize that physiological changes associated with sexual maturation characterized this stage b. Realize that preoccupation with appearance and body image occurs c. Realize that identify development begins 6. Intimacy vs. isolation: young adulthood, realize that the challenge here is to commit to another in a loving relationship a. Realize that searches for meaningful friendship occurs b. Realize that searches for intimate relationship occurs c. Realize that Erikson portrayed intimacy as finding the self and then losing the self in another d. Realize that if the young adult is not able to establish a companionship, isolations will result e. Realize that if a young adult is hospitalize, they will benefit support from their partner or significant other because it will strengthen their need for intimacy 7. Generativity vs. stagnation: middle adulthood, realize that the challenge here is to contribute to younger people, thru raising them or other productive work a. Realize that adults focuses on supporting future generations by doing the following: i. Parenthood ii. Teaching iii. Community involvement b. Realize that the inability to play a role in the development of the next generation results in stagnation 8. Integrity vs. despair: Late life, realize that the challenge here is to realize one’s life as satisfactory and worth living65 a. Realize that physical losses occur b. Realize that social losses occur c. Realize that loss of status occurs d. Realize that individual are in search for the meaning of life. Realize that Freud’s psychoanalytic model of personality development states that individuals go through five stages of psychosexual development, which are: x Oral (birth to 12 – 18 months) o Oral satisfaction is pleasurable x Anal (12 – 18 months to 3 years) o Taking a shit (sorry for language… I didn’t know how else to say it) is pleasurable x Phallic (penis) or Oedipal (3 – 6 years) o The genitals is pleasurable x Latency (6 – 12 years) o Realize that sexual urges from the phallic stage is repressed and channeled into productive activities that are socially acceptable x Genital (puberty – adulthood) o Realize that sexual urges re-awaken from the repression from latency. o Realize that sexual urges are directed to individuals outside the family circle o Realize that unresolved prior conflicts surface during this period (adolescence) ƒ Once conflicts are resolved, the adolescent is then capable of having a mature adult sexual relationship Realize that Piaget four periods are: x Period I (sensorimotor) ─ (Birth – 2 years) o Infants develop a schema (action pattern) for dealing with the world, such as: ƒ Hitting ƒ Looking ƒ Grasping ƒ Kicking ƒ Sucking x Period II (pre-operational) ─ (2 – 7 years) o Realize that children learn to think with the use of the following: ƒ Symbols ƒ Mental images o Realize that egocentric means pertaining to oneself o Realize that children vision is the following: ƒ They see the world only in their point of view ƒ They believe everyone sees the world the same way they do o Realize that the act of “playing” is the primary means by which children do the following: ƒ Foster (promote growth) their cognitive development ƒ Learn about the world o Realize that nursing interventions during this period will recognize and utilize “play” as a form of communication x Period III (concrete operations) ─ (7 – 11 years) o Realize that children achieve the ability to perform mental operations. For example, a child can now think about an action that was before performed physically o Realize that they are able do the following: ƒ Appreciate the difference of their perspective ƒ Appreciate the difference of a friend o Realize that children can now mentally classify object according to their quantitative dimension, known as seriation o Realize that children accomplishes conservation, which is the ability to see quantities as remaining the same despite a change in their physical appearance o Realize that at this stage, parents can bargain with their kids to get them to do things in exchange for privileges o Realize that inductive and deductive reasoning occurs x Period IV (formal operation) ─ (11 – adulthood) o Realize that thinking is now the following: ƒ Abstract ƒ Theoretical o Realize that adolescents are able to organize their thoughts o Realize that adolescent are able to reason66 Realize that if a child is squatting or in knee-chest position, it is to relieve hypoxia; it is important for the nurse to check for sweating, color or tachycardia Realize that aspirin needs to be avoided with children, as it can cause Reye’s syndrome; realize that acetaminophen is effective in reducing fevers and is the preferred antipyretic for children x Realize that Reye’s syndrome is marked by an acute encephalopathy and fatty infiltration of the liver and the pancreas heart, kidney, spleen, and lymph nodes x Realize that acetaminophen is metabolized in the liver o Realize that liquid acetaminophen can be administered through an NGT Realize that whenever a child swallows anything foreign, that child must be assessed to see if they have respiratory difficulties Realize that the extremities are flexed in a term infant at rest; in a preterm infant, extremities are in extension Realize that at term, an infant nipple bud measures 0.5 – 1 cm Realize the following in regards to toilet training: x Child must be able to stay dry x Parents will have to devote some time for toilet training their child (2 weeks) x Child needs the fine motor skills to be able to pull clothing up and down x Child should be able to sit on the toilet for 5 – 10 minutes without getting off Realize that when a child has the Wilms tumor, it is important to assess the size of the tumor (measure the child abdominal girth); treatment is surgery followed by radiotherapy and chemotherapy x Realize that a Wilms tumor is a tumor of the kidneys x Realize that hypertension may occurs due to excessive rennin production Realize the following in regards to probably cast syndrome (superior mesenteric artery syndrome): x Realize that what occurs is that cast pressure and/or accumulated intestinal gases cause the duodenum to be compressed between the aorta and the superior mesenteric artery, resulting in distention, abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting x Often seen in patients in a hip spica or body cast x Realize that it is good to check for blanching signs Realize that the following in regards to mumps and its symptoms: x May have a fever, headache, malaise, anorexia and ear ache when chewing; communicability greatest immediately before and after swelling begins Realize the following about infectious mononucleosis: x Caused by Esptein-Barr virus x May cause malaise x Sore throat x Fever x Headache, epistaxis and a severe sore throat x Fatigue Realize that in postpartum clients, the vaginal drainage will go from lochia rubra (blood) to lochia serosa (pink watery fluid), and eventually to lochia alba (clear fluid); the transition from rubra to serosa take approximately 3 – 4 days and then to alba around 21 days postpartum x Realize that after a vaginal delivery, the first thing that the nurse must do is check lochial flow; complications of hemorrhage is assessed by observing lochial flow VACCINE Realize that chickenpox and smallpox vaccines are recommended for first responders67 Realize the following in regards to DPat vaccination: x A low-grade fever is expected within 24 – 48 hours x Irritability is expected Realize the following in regards to hepatitis B: x Realize that hepatitis B vaccines are repeated at 1 and 6 months Realize that vaccinations against meningococcal disease should be given to all adolescents who are bound for college Realize that hepatitis A requires standard precautions Realize that the only contraindication to the flu vaccine is an allergy to eggs; the flu vaccine should be given to adults 50 years and older, clients with chronic conditions and persons traveling to foreign countries x Realize that flu vaccine is recommended for people with chronic respiratory or cardiovascular disease x Realize that the flu vaccine is recommended for people who come in contact with young children Realize that the best way to avoid community-acquired pneumonia for a senior citizen is obtaining a flu vaccine Realize that Lorenzo’s oil is the mixture of two fats used to treat a neurological disorder Realize that once hepatitis immunity has been established, there is no need to reconfirm it Realize that disseminated herpes zoster requires both airborne precaution and contact precaution Realize the following in regards to infant vaccines: x Infants should receive doses of diphtheria, tetanus and pertussis at 2 months and 4 months and 6 months x Realize that inactivated polio virus (IPV) is given at 2 month and 4 months and again at 12 – 18 months; also receives hepatitis B o Realize that IPV is contraindicated with neomycin, streptomycin and polymyxin B x Realize that when it comes to vaccine, antipyretics relieve a combination of side effects x Realize that MMR is given at 15 months Realize that pneumococcal and influenza vaccine can be administered at the same time STD Realize that AIDS clients demonstrate a progressive dementia staged according to severity of debilitation; late stage is typified by cognitive confusion and disorientation Realize that open Kaposi’s sarcoma lesions should be cleaned and dressed daily to prevent secondary infection; these lesions are large, painful, purplish-brown open areas; should be cleaned carefully with soap and warm water every day and covered with a sterile dressing Realize that spermicides are more effective when used with condoms Realize that latex condoms are weakened with oil-based lubricants, such as petroleum jelly, mineral oil and body lotions PHARMACOLOGY Avoid alcohol and smoking with all drugs Realize that ad lib means PRN Realize the following in regards to verapamil (calan) (calcium channel blockers) and its side effect: x Used for supraventricular tachycardias x Realize that client heart rate should be checked prior to administration Realize that when a calcium channel blocker is used with other antiphypertensive, hypotension and heart failure can occur; it is important to look for symptoms of shock and heart failure in patients68 Realize the following in regards to clomiphene citrate (clomid) and its side effects: x Induces ovulation by changing hormonal effects on the ovary x May cause hot flashes x May cause ovarian cyst x May cause ovarian enlargement Realize the following in regards to ceftriaxone sodium (rocephin) and its side effects: x Realize that long-term use of rocephin can cause overgrowth of organism (superinfection); monitoring of tongue and oral cavity is recommended Realize the following in regards to dexamethasone (decadron) and its side effects: x Used for suppression of inflammation x Used for modifying the normal immune response Realize that captopril (capoten) is an antihypertensive Realize that the withdrawal symptom of heroin is running nose, yawning, fever, muscle and joint pain and diarrhea; realize that narcotic withdrawals are very much like the symptoms of the flu Realize the following in regards to imipramine (tofranil) (antidepressants) and its side effects: x May cause a sore throat x May cause a fever x May cause increased fatigue x May cause vomiting x May cause diarrhea Realize the following in regards to gemfibrozil (lopid) (lipid-lowering agent) and its side effects: x Must monitor AST levels to make sure the liver is functioning properly x Must be taken 30 minutes before breakfast and supper Realize the following in regards to ketoconazole (nizoral) (antifungal) and its side effects: x Realize that ketoconazole (nizoral) is the drug of choice for candidiasis x Must use non-hormonal forms of contraception Realize the following in regards to procainamide (HCI) (pronestyl) (antiarrhythmics) and its side effects: x May cause severe hypotension x May cause severe bradycardia x Report any signs of lupus syndrome x Used to treat premature ventricular contractions or atrial tachycardia Realize the following in regards to biperiden (akineton) and its side effects: x Used to counteract extrapyramidal side effects Realize that the following are all antipsychotic medications: x Promazine (sparine) x Thiothixene (navane) x Haloperidol (haldol) Realize the following in regards to terbutaline (brethine) (bronchodilator ) and its side effects: x May cause maternal tachycardia x May cause nervousness69 x May cause tremors x May cause headaches x May cause pulmonary edema x May cause tachycardia for the fetus x May cause hypoglycemia for the fetus Realize that codeine phosphate (paveral) (allergy, cold and cough remedies, antitussive, opioid analgesics) is not contraindicated in bleeding clients Realize that oxycodone terephthalate (percodan) is contraindicated for person with bleeding disorders because of its aspirin component Realize the following in regards to atorvastatin (Lipitor) (lipid-lowering-agent) and its side effects: x Avoid grapefruit juice x Avoid propranolol (inderal) because it decreases effectiveness of Lipitor Realize the following in regards to doxepin hydrochloride (sinequan) (antidepressant) and its side effects: x Excitability occurs in overdose x Tremors occurs in overdose Realize the following in regards to desmopressin (DDAVP) (antidiuretic hormone) and its side effect: x Needs to be admininstrated nasally or SQ for life Realize the following in regards to neostigmine bromide (prostigmin) (antimyasthenics) and its side effects: x Realize that delays in this medication may cause difficulty in swallowing Realize the following in regards to amiloride hydrochloride (midamor) (diuretics) and its side effects: x Postural hypotension is a side effect Realize the following in regards to cephalexin monohydrate (keflex) (anti-infective) and its side effect: x Realize that when using this drug, clients must ingest yogurt and acidophilus milk in order to maintain the normal intestinal flora Realize the following about Kaopectate (antidiarrheal)and its side effects: x It absorbs PO meds x Must wait one hours before taking other medications if Kaopectate is taken x It decreases the number of water content of stool Realize the following in regards to metronidazole (flagyl) (anti-infective) and its side effects: x Given with meals to decrease GI discomfort x Causes antabuse-like (disulfiram) reactions of nausea and vomiting, headache, cramps and flushing Realize that a client that is on hallucinogenic drugs needs their environmental stimulation decreased Realize the following in regards to trihexphenidyl (artane) and cogentin (antiparkinson agent) and its side effect: x Used to diminish torticollis (stiff neck associated with muscle spasm), an arched back and rapid movement Realize that sucralfate (carafate) (antiulcer agent) is involved with the following: x Should be taken on an empty stomach or 1 hour before meal x Do not give within 30 minutes of an antacid drug Realize that Maalox (antacid) decreases the bonding in GI muscosa70 x Should be taken 1 hour after a meal Realize the following in regard to naproxen sodium (anaprox, naprosyn) (NSAIDs) and its side effects: x May cause GI bleeding x Should be taken with food, milk or antacid to decrease GI upset x May cause fluid retention x May cause dizziness x May cause pruritus x May cause a rash Realize the following in regards to nifedipine (procardia) (calcium channel blocker, antihypertensive) and its side effects: x Check pulse prior to administration x Use to treat client experience a hypertensive crisis Realize the following in regards to dimercaprol (BAL) (antidote, chelating agent) and its side effects: x Used to prevent organ damage from mercury, gold, arsenic or lead poisoning Realize the following in regards to chlorpromazine (thorazine) and its side effects: x Cause reddish urine x May cause difficulty in urinating.. . if so, report to physician x May cause dry mouth and nasal stuffiness x May cause increase sensitivity to heat x May cause weight gain x May cause constipation x Used in client experiencing agitation associated with schizophrenia x May cause extrapyramidal side effects… akathisia (motor restleness), dystonias (protrusion of tongue, abnormal posturing), pseudoparkinsonism (tremors, rigidity), and dyskinesia (stiff neck, difficulty swallowing) Realize that oral steroids have ulcergenic properties and need to be administered with meals; if ordered daily, administered in morning Realize that meperidine (demerol) and hydroxyzine hydrochloride (vistaril) (antihistamine, sedative) don’t mix x May cause hypotension x May cause orthostatic hypotension x May cause bradycardia Realize the following in regards to hydroxyzine hydrochloride (vistaril) (antihistamine, sedative) and its side effects: x May cause dizziness Realize the following in regards to cyclophosphamide (cytoxan) (antineoplastic, immunosuppressant) and its side effect: x Client usually develop alopecia 4 – 5 weeks after administration x May cause sterility and menstrual irregularities x Instruct client not to receive any vaccinations Realize the following in regards to hydrocortisone (cortef) and its side effects: x Should be taken in the morning x Realize that dosage is regulated according to the amount of stress x Causes fluid retention, which can increase blood pressure Realize the following in regards to cholestyramine (questran) (lipid lowering agent) and its side effects: x Take before meals x Interferes with the absorption of digoxin71 x Interferes with the absorption of hydrochlorothiazide Realize the following in regards to diazepam (valium) and its side effects: x Realize that the overdose of diazepam are: ataxic, confused, slurred speech, dizziness, respiratory failure, pulmonary edema and seizure x Used for restlessness and increased heart rate due to circulating cateacholamines (fight or flight) (antianxiety) Realize the following in regards to cocaine usage and its side effects: x May cause insomnia, rhinorrhea (if cocaine is snorted), facial pain Realize the following in regards to sulindac (clinoril) (NSAID) and its side effects: x Used to suppress inflammation x Take with full glass of water x Report to physician if pregnant x Report to physician if easy bruising or bleeding occurs Realize the following in regards to thiethylperazine maleate (torecan) (antiemetics) and its side effects: x May cause drowsiness Realize the following in regards to hydrochlorothiazide (hydrodiuril) (antihypertensive, diuretics) and its side effects: x Will cause loss of potassium, so potassium needs to be replenished Realize the following in regards to ciprofloxacin (cipro) (anti-infective) and its side effects: x Must drink plenty of fluids x Do not take multivitamin within 6 hours before cipro x Do not take with milk or yogurt alone, it decreases absorption of cipro x May take with meals if gastric irritation occurs x Realize that if a rash occurs, it indicates a hypersensitivity reaction; medications should be stop and notify the physician Realize that herbal “black cohosh” use may cause hypotension when used in combination with antihypertensive drugs; black cohosh is used for management of menopausal systems Realize that tyramine is an amino acid Realize that monoamine oxidase inhibitors are drugs that treat depression Realize that using MOAIs with tyramine present causes a spike in blood pressure, a headache, palpitations, neck pain and cerebral bleed, flushing, cold and clammy skin, tachycardia, dilated pupils, nosebleed, chest pain, fever, nausea and vomiting and possible death Realize that the following are foods that have tyramine: x Aged cheese x Fruits (banana) x Vegetables x Beer or red wine x Fish x Pickle x Pepperoni x Salami x Raisins Realize that the following is a list of MOAIs drugs: x Phenelzine sulfate (nardil) x Iscocarboxazid (marplan)72 x Selegiline (zelapar or eldepryl) x Tranylcypromine sulfate (parnate) Realize that proparacaine hydrochloride is a topical anesthetic drug Realize that phencyclidine piperidine (PCP) (angel dust) and cause one to assault, be belligerent and have impulsiveness Realize the following about PCP: x Causes blood pressure to increase x Causes temperature to increase x Causes pulse to increase x Causes one to have a blank stare x Causes rigid muscles x Causes ataxia x Causes nystagmus (eyes moving rapidly) Remember that beta-blockers may mask symptoms of hypoglycemia, removing your body’s early warning signs Realize that indomethacin (indocin) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflamatory that is used cautiously in clients with peptic ulcer disease x Should be taken with food to reduce GI upset Realize that when taking ace inhibitors, patients should do the following: x Avoid foods high in potassium x Avoid salt substitute (because they contain potassium) x Never double up on doses x Take 1 before meals or 2 hours afterwards x Check blood pressure weekly x Take medication at the same damn time each day x Talk to physician before taking OTC medications Realize that pentamidine (pentam) is an anti-protozoal agent used to prevent and/or treat pneumocysitis jiroveci pneumonia, a common opportunistic infection in AIDS patients; manifestations usually include coughing, fever, dyspnea, fatigue, and weight loss, and crackles x Realize that pentamidine (pentam) can cuase leukemia and thrombocytopenia Realize that neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is marked by hyperthermia (high fever), tachycardia, hypertension, decreased LOC rigidness, altered mental status, sweating; NMS is a lethal side effect of antipsychotic medications, especially haloperidol (haldol) x Realize that NMS is a lethal side effect of haloperidol (haldol) because it blocks dopamine in the hypothalamus x Realize that when NMS occurs, patient needs to be transfer to medical unit and cool the body; administered bromocriptine (parlodel) to treat muscle rigidity and dantroline (dantrium) to reduce muscle spasms x Realize that bromocriptine (parlodel) (antiparkinson, antidiabetic) should be taken with meals to decrease GI upset x Realize that bromocriptine (parlodel) is taken twice a day for 2 – 3 weeks Realize the following in regards to haloperidol (haldol) (antipsychotics) and its side effect: x May cause hypotension; client must move slowly to the standing position to decrease problem with orthostatic hypotension x May cause NMS x Needs good oral care x Effective in reducing assaultive behaviors associated with severe anxiety x Realize that haloperidol (haldol) (antipsychotics) should be administered IM in a large muscle mass because it is very irritating to the subcutaneous tissue x May cause galactorrhea (excessive or spontaneous flow of milk out of the breast) x May cause gynecomastia (excessive growth of male mammary glands) x May cause blood dyscrasia (blood disease) (hematologic problems) x May cause extrapyramidal symptoms73 Realize that a very serious adverse effect of clozapine (clozaril) (antipsychotic) is agranulocytosis x Realize that if WBCs fall below 2000/mm3, the drug will be discontinued x May cause leucopenia, gram-negative septicemia, drowsiness, tachycardia and hypotension Realize that the following are minor side effects from a therapeutic level of lithium (1 – 1.5 mEq/L): x Fine hand tremors x Polyuria x Polydipsia Realize the following in regards to lithium; patient needs to maintain adequate sodium levels as well as appropriate amounts of water in order to prevent lithium toxicity x Realize that the excretion of lithium depends on the normal sodium levels Realize that the following are the early signs of lithium toxicity: x Nausea and vomiting x Slurred speech x Muscle weakness Realize that the following are the signs of lithium toxicity: x Diarrhea x Ataxia x Tinnitus x Slurred speech x Muscle weakness/twitching Realize the following in regards to lithium carbonate (lithobid) (mood stabilizer) and its side effects: x Used for the prevention or the control of mania x May cause dizziness or drowsiness, so avoid driving x Drink plenty of water to prevent low sodium x Realize that onset of action is rapid x Realize that duration of action is variable Realize the following about gentamicin sulfate (garamycin) and its side effects: x Decreased hearing as a result of its involvement with cranial nerve 8; notify physician x Vertigo as a result of its involvement with cranial nerve 8; notify physician x Drink plenty liquids x Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside; nephrotoxic x Rash, which may indicate a hypersensitivity reaction x Realize that the eye dropper should never touch eye tissue equipment; would contaminate bottle of medication Realize the following about albuterol (proventil) and its side effects: x Tremors x Headache x Hyperactivity x Irritable x Tachycardia x Must monitor for toxicity if using tablets and aerosol x Teach how to use inhaler correctly x Instruct client to notify health care professional if there is no response to the usual dose x Overuse of inhaler can cause heart damage x Realize that side effects will subside after (a week) the body gets use to it74 Realize the following about beclomethasone (vanceril) (steroid) and its side effects: x Fungal infections x Dry mouth x Throat infection x One should gargle or rinse mouth after using Vanceril Realize the following in regards to trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (bactrim) (anti-infective, antiprotozoals) and its side effects: x May cause peripheral neuropathy x May cause photosensitivity x May cause GI upset x Instruct patient to notify a physician if rash or fever and diarrhea develop x Avoid the sun Realize that bactrim causes mild to moderate rash Realize the following about Phenobarbital and its side effects: x May cause nausea, constipation and epigastric pain x Increases vitamin D metabolism, which can lead to subtherapeutic levels with prolonged therapy x Realize that abrupt withdrawal may cause seizures x May cause day time drowsiness, avoid driving x Instruct patient to notify a physician if angioedema (edematous area of the skin), fever, sore throat, mouth sores, unusual bleeding or bruising, nosebleed, or petechiae occur Realize the following about phenytoin sodium (Dilantin) and its side effects: x Comes as a suspension and should be shaken x May cause gingival hyperplasia; seen over long periods of time, minimized with frequent dental care (good oral hygiene) x Realize that phenytoin (dilantin) is metabolized and excreted by the liver; elderly client frequently have some degree of liver impairment x Realize that client with seizures are most likely to receive phenytoin (dilantin) x Realize that anticonvulsants (dilantin) can cause folate and vitamin D deficiencies x Realize that the therapeutic concentration of phenytoin sodium (Dilantin) is 10 – 20 g/mL x May cause reddish-brown urine x May cause constipation x May cause drowsiness (avoid driving) x Monitor diabetic client to monitor glucose carefully x Should not be taken if client is pregnant Realize that the following occurs from phenytoin sodium (Dilantin) overdose: x Ataxia, slurred speech, nystagmus x Ataxia and slurred speech is usually evident at >30 g/mL x Nystagmus is usually evident at > 20 g/mL Realize the following about isoniazid (INH) x Must assess for signs of drug-induced hepatitis x It is the mainstay in prevention and treatment of tuberculosis x Realize that vitamin B6 is given to patients taking INH to prevent peripheral neuropathy, dizziness and ataxia x Realize that any kind of alcohol must be avoid with the usage of isoniazid (INH) Realize that dopamine is indicated for correction of hemodynamic instability as a result of shock; monitoring vital signs provides most appropriate information regarding effects of drug x Realize that dopamine will increase blood return to the right side of the heart and increase peripheral resistance x Instruct patient to notify a physician if chest pain, dyspnea, numbness, tingling, or buring of extremities occur x Instruct patient to notify nurse if pain at the site of administration75 Realize the following about aluminum hydroxide gel (amphojel) (antiacid): x Antiacid neutralize gastric acid, increase gastric pH, and inactivate pepsis x Contains sodium, check if patient is on sodium-restricted diet x Antacids are taken several times per day to be effective x Most effective when taken after digestion has begun but before the stomach has emptied o Take two hours after meals and before bedtime x Take medication to prevent epigastric pain x Client should be on low-phosphate diet Realize that beta blockers should not be discontinued abruptly; may develop tachycardia, diaphoresis, malaise Realize the following in regards to amphetamines (CNS stimulant) and its symptoms: x Dilated pupils x Increased motor activity x Increased mental alertness x Decreased fatigue x Increased spirit Realize the following in regards to acetazolamide (diamox) (anticonvulsants, antiglaucoma agents, diretics) and its side effects: x Contraindication in patient allergic to sulfa x Cross-sensitivity can occur due to allergy to antibacterial sulfonamide and sulfonamide derivatives x It is a miotics, use to constrict the pupil (isoptocarpine, diamox) x May cause drowsiness x Must do periodic ophthalmologic exam; loss of vision may be gradual and painless because of an increase in intraocular pressure x Avoid the sun Realize the following about glycerin (Osmoglyn) (osmotic) and its symptoms: x Osmotic agent (draws water into lumen) x Diuretic; increase osmolarity of the blood, extracting fluid from extracellular space into the bloodstream, including aqueous humor and vitreous humor from the anterior chamber of the eye, thus decreasing intraocular pressure x Glycerin needs to be used with caution in diabetics because it can cause hyperglycemia Realize that bisacodyl (dulcolax) is a stimulant laxative; achieves its effects by causing an irritation via nerve stimulation directly on the walls of the intestine, thus stimulating peristalsis and evacuation x Realize that stimulant laxative as habit-forming and should be avoided. Encourage high-fiber, high-fluid diet to facilitate regular bowel patterns x Should be used long term for patient with spinal cord injuries x Drink plenty fluids 1500 – 2000 mL x Do not use if constipation is accompanied with pain Realize the following about chlordiazepoxide (Librium) (antianxiety) and its symptoms: x Lethargy x Constipation x Slurred speech x Dermatitis x Anorexia x Polyuria x Pancytopenia x May cause dizziness x Thrombocytopenia x Should be administered after meals or with milk to decrease GI irritation x Hangover x Before giving medications, the nurse should ensure safety of client x Used to assist client in decreasing alcohol withdrawal symptoms76 o Realize that antianxiety medications is pharmacologically similar to alcohol; is used effectively as a substitute for alcohol in decreasing doses to comfortably and safely withdraw a client from alcohol dependence Realize the following about doxyclycline (vibramycin) and its side effects: x Realize that doxycycline causes photosensitivity x Realize that doxycycline should be taken at regular intervals around the clock but should not be taken within 1 hours of bedtime because it may cause esophageal irritation x Realize that when using doxycycline, it is not good to use hormonal methods of birth control x Realize that client should be instructed not to take antacids within 1 to 3 hours of taking doxycycline x Avoid the sun x Report signs of superinfection (black, furry overgrowth on the tongue, vaginal itching or discharge, loose or foul-smelling stools) x Avoid mosquitoes (malaria prophylaxis) Realize the following about doxorubicin hydrochloride (Adriamycin) (antineoplastic) and its side effects: x Causes bone marrow depression; may cause fever, sore throat and signs of infections x Avoid brushing hair, blow-drying and frequent shampooing because it may cause alopecia x Causes red urine for 1 to 2 days x May cause stomatitis in 5 to 10 days; encourage client to use a sponge brush, rinse mouth with water after eating and drinking Realize that beta blockers and ACE inhibitors are less effective in African Americans than they are in Caucasians Realize that beta blockers slow the heart rate and decrease cardiac contractility and cardiac output Realize the following in regards to ferrous sulfate (Feosol) and its side effects: x Causes constipation x Client must increase intake in fruits, fiber and fluids x Causes gastric irritations, nausea, abdominal cramps, anorexia, vomiting, diarrhea, and dark color stools Realize the following in regards to clomipramine (anafranil) (anti-obsessive agent) and its side effects: x Photosensitivity is a side effect x May cause drowsiness x Orthostatic hypotension is common in early therapy x Look for suicidality x Sexual dysfunction is common Realize the following in regards to amitriptyline (elavil) (antidepressant) and its side effects: x Photosensitivity is a side effect x May cause blurred vision, dry mouth, diaphoresis, postural hypotension, palpitations, constipation, urinary retention, increased appetite x May cause drowsiness x Avoid the sun x Must be taken at bed time x It takes 3 – 4 weeks to achieve therapeutic level and see changes in mood Realize that Tylenol with codeine and Benadyrl causes drowsiness Realize the following in regards to ranitidine (zantac) (antiulcer agent) (histamine antagonist) and its side effects: x May cause a false-negative result on allergy skin testing; should avoid medication for 24 hours before testing x Smoking interfere with histamine antagonist; clients should not smoke when taking medication; if client continues to smoke, should not smoke after the last dose of the day x Should avoid NSAIDs because of increase gastric irritation x Should avoid alcohol because it may increase gastrointestinal irritation x Increase fluids and fiber to minimize constipation x May cause black tarry stools77 x Should be taken at bed time Realize that aminophylline (truphylline) is a bronchodilator x May cause palpitations, nervousness, nausea and vomiting, rapid pulse and dysrhythmias x Drink adequate liquid 2000 mL/day x Avoid OTC cough and cold meds x Avoid smoking x Avoid propranolol (inderal) because it may decrease metabolism and lead to toxicity x Realize that the following are the toxic effects of aminophylline (truphylline): o Confusion o Headache o Flushing o Tachycardia o Seizure o Increased urination Realize the following in regards to alendronate sodium (Fosamax) (bone resorption inhibitor) and its side effects: x Should be taken up awakening in the morning, at least 30 minutes before first food , beverage or other medication of the day x Realize that food of any kind impairs absorption x Should be taken with 8 ounce of water x Realize that fosamax can be highly irritating to the GI, particularly the esophagus, causing irritations and ulcerations/erosions x Realize that patient should sit for 30 minutes in order to facilitate delivery to the stomach and prevent acid regurgitation and esophageal reflux x Notify physician if pregnant and breastfeeding x Take vitamin D and calcium Realize the following in regards to prednisone (deltasone) (anti-inflammatory) and its side effects: x Realize that in order to minimize the body’s reaction to a sudden loss of exogenous steroids, prednisone is decreased gradually x May cause euphoria, insomnia, peptic ulcers, acute adrenal insufficiency after increased stress or abrupt withdrawal x Realize that prednisone should never been discontinued abruptly x Should be taken with food because it causes gastric irritation x Avoid vaccinations with contacting physician x Instruct patient to inform physician if severe abdominal pain or tarry stools occur Realize the following in regards to metformin (glucophage) (hypoglycemic agent) and its side effects: x Realize that metformin (glucophage) should be taken with meals to reduce side effects x May caused nausea, vomiting, anorexia, abdominal cramps, fatigue, bitter or metallic taste x Does not cause weight gain x May cause metallic taste Realize the following in regards to ethacrynic acid (Edecrin) (loop diuretic) and its side effects: x Realize that loop diuretics are potassium wasting; encourage client to increase intake of potassium-rich foods x Realize that loop diuretics should be taken early in the day x Realize that loop diuretics may cause orthostatic hypotension; instruct patient to rise slowly x Realize that loop diuretics should be taken with food to minimize GI upset x Avoid OTC Realize the following in regards to ibuprofen (motrin) (NSAIDs) and its side effects: x Realize that motrin should be taken on with food because it is an NSAIDs and will cause GI distress x Realize motrin reduces platelets adhesiveness, predisposing clients to bleeding x May cause ringing in the ear x May cause drowsiness x May cause peptic ulceration78 Realize the following in regards to amphotericin B (amphotec, Fungizone) (anti-fungal agent) and its side effects: x Realize that amphotericin B (amphotec, Fungizone) is often given to leukemic patients; can cause severe allergic reactions, which makes it difficult to distinguish whether a reaction is caused by the medication or transfusion x Realize that amphotericin B (amphotec, Fungizone) should not be administered immediately before, during or after transfusion; at least 1 hours should pass after the transfusion x Realize that amphotericin B (amphotec, Fungizone) needs to be protected from the light Realize that zidovudine (AZT) is a reverse transcriptase inhibitor used to treat the HIV infection x Realize that client should plan a written schedule for the administration of zidovudine (AZT) for it to be more effective Realize the following in regards to topiramate (topamax) (anticonvulsant) and its side effects: x Realize that client should drink 2000 – 3000 mL of fluid daily to prevent kidney stones x May cause orthostatic hypotension x Should be discontinued if ocular symptoms occurs; may lead to blindness x Realize that non-hormonal contraceptives should be used when taking topiramate (topamax) Realize the following in regards to hydralazine hydrochloride (apresoline) (anti-hypertensive) and its side effects: x May cause headache, angina, tachycardia, palpitations, sodium retention, anorexia, lupus erythematosus-like syndrome (sore throat, fever, muscle-joint aches, rash) x Realize that hydralazine hydrochloride (apresoline) (anti-hypertensive) is a fast acting anti-hypertensive, as it relaxes smooth muscles Realize that prochlorperazine (compazine) is an antiemetic used to control nausea and vomiting, anxiety x Possible extrapyramidal symptoms needs to be reported x Usual bleeding of any kind needs to be reported x May cause urine retention x Realize that prochlorperazine (compazine) is considered incompatible with all other medications Realize the following in regards to fluphenazine decanoate (prolixin) (antipsychotic) and its side effects: x Realize that oil preparation is given IM or SQ 1 – 6 weeks x Realize that a 21 – gauge needle needs to be used x Takes 24 to 96 hours for onset of action Realize the following in regards to pemoline (cylert) and its side effects: x CNS stimulant used for attention deficit disorder with hyperactivity x Potential risk for liver failure; patient should sign consent before usage x Parents must notify school if child on this medication Realize the following in regards to butorphanol tartrate (stadol) (opioid analgesics) and its side effects: x May cause respiratory depression by decreasing rate and depth of respirations x Used for moderate to severe pain x May cause change in blood pressure x May cause bradycardia, respiratory depression, nausea, vomiting, constipation x May cause transient increase in urinary output or difficulty urinating x Needs good oral hygiene Realize the following in regards to cyclosporine (sandimmune) (immunosuppressant, anti-rheumatics) and it’s side effects: x Realize that grapefruit juice and cyclosporine (sandimmune) (immunosuppressant, anti-rheumatics) don’t mix x Realize that cyclosporine (sandimmune) (immunosuppressant, anti-rheumatics) should be stored in room temperature x Needs to be taken for life for transplants x Monitor BP79 Realize the following in regards to acyclovir (Zovirax) (antiviral) and its side effects: x May cause nausea and vomiting x Needs to given 5 times/day x Use to treat genital herpes x Used to treat cutaneous herpes zoster x Never double up dose if dose is missed x Can take on empty stomach or with food x Avoid drug contact around eyes Realize that major tranquilizers are used to treat psychosis Realize the following in regards to fluoxetine (Prozac) (antidepressants) and its side effects: x Realize that fluoxetine (Prozac) is a SSRI, which takes about 4 weeks for full effect; be aware for suicidal tendencies x Realize that fluoxetine (Prozac) causes drowsiness or insomnia x Need good oral hygiene x May decrease libido x Inform physician if pregnant or breast feeding x Realize that fluoxetine (Prozac) (antidepressants) is an “energizing” antidepressant; as client begins to demonstrate a positive response, he/she has an increased energy level and is able to participate more in milieu Realize the following in regards to nitroprusside sodium (nitropress) and its side effects: x Realize that nitroprusside sodium (nitropress) needs to be protected from light and should be shaded x Report onset of tinnitus, dyspnea, dizziness, headache or blurred vision Realize the following drugs that cannot be used in a client with hemophilia A: x Realize that percordan cannot be used because it is oxycodone + aspirin; it is contraindicated for patients with hemophilia; bleeding into joints is a common occurrences; important to institute factor replacement therapy and to rest the joint, apply ice, apply compression, and elevate the extremely x Realize that motrin decreases platelet aggregation; so it needs to be used cautiously in patients with hemophilia Realize the following in regards to risperidone (risperdal) (antipsychotic) and its side effects: x Realize that risperidone (risperdal) has a high incidence of sleep disturbances; abnormal dreams, insomnia, and oversedation x Realize that risperidone (risperdal) is photosensitivity and impaired temperature regulation x Realize that risperidone (risperdal) is a high risk for orthostatic hypotension x May cause weight gain x Avoid extreme temperatures because this drug may impair body temperature regulation x Avoid the sun x May cause orthostatic hypotension Realize that lidocaine (xylocaine) is an anti-arrhythmic that works for ventricular tachycardia also x May cause drowsiness x Patch needs to be removed prior to MRI x Realize that cardiac depressants, such as lidocaine, are contraindicated in the presence of a complete heart block x Realize that lidocaine (xylocaine) is the drug of choice for frequent premature ventricular contractions (PVC) occurring in excess of 6 to 10 minutes; for coupled PVCs or for a consecutive series of PVCs that may result in ventricular tachycardia Realize the following in regards to bethanechol (urecholine) (urinary tract stimulant) and its side effects: x Realize that bethanechol (urecholine) therapeutic effect is to empty the bladder x Realize that bethanechol (urecholine) mimics actions of Ach x Report abdominal discomfort, salivation, sweating or flushing Realize the following in regards to spironolactone (aldactone) (diuretics, potassium-saving diuretic) and its side effects:80 x Realize that spironolactone (aldactone) is an antagonist to aldosterone x Avoid salt substitutes x May cause dizziness x Report rash, muscle weakness or cramps, fatigue, severe nausea, vomiting or diarrhea x Check BP weekly Realize the following in regards to cisplatin (platinol-AQ) (antineoplastic) and its side effects: x Realize that cisplatin (platinol-AQ) is ototoxic x May cause hepatotoxicity x May cause bone marrow suppression x May cause tremors x May cause a confusion x Report pain at injection site immediately x Report numbness or tingling x Avoid vaccination Realize the following in regards to propranolol (inderal) (beta blocker) and its side effects: x Used as an antianginal x Used as an antiarrhythmic x Used as an antihypertensive x May cause weakness x May cause hypotension x May cause bronchospasm x May cause depression x Do not used with aminophylline (truphylline) because toxicity may occur Realize the following in regards to flurazepam (dalmane) (sedative/hypnotics) and its side effects: x May caused confusion x May cause daytime drowsiness x May caused blurred vision x Teach sleep hygiene technique (dark room, quietness) Realize the following in regards to cimetidine (tagamet) (antiulcer agents) and its side effects: x May caused diarrhea x May cause dizziness x May cause hirsutism x May cause an acne-like rash x Must be taken with meals and one hour before bed (hs) Realize the following in regards to phenazopyridine (pyridium) (non-opioid analgesics) and its side effects: x Realize that phenazopyridine (pyridium) therapeutic effect is to diminish urinary tract discomfort x Realize that phenazopyridine (pyridium) may cause a yellowish discoloration of the skin or sclera and if it does, it indicates drug accumulation due to renal impairment x Cause reddish urine Realize the following in regards to azithromycin (zithromax) (antibiotic) and its side effect: x May cause diarrhea, nausea, abdominal pain; notify health care provider if diarrhea occurs x Do not take with food Realize that tartrazine is a dye that has a cross-sensitivity with aspirin Realize the following in regards to trifluoperazine (stelazine) (antipsychotic) and its side effects: x Realize that trifluoperazine (stelazine) is excreted in the breast milk; breast feeding is contraindicated81 x May cause dry eyes; use artificial tears x May cause weight gain; patient should monitor calorie intake and exercise frequently x May cause extrapyramidal symptoms (muscular rigidity, tremors, bradykinesia, and difficulty walking x May cause urine retention x May cause reddish urine x May cause dry mouth x Need oral care Realize that taking aspirin and other NSAIDs can contribute to gastric ulcer development Realize the following in regards to theophylline (theobid) (bronchodilator) and its side effects: x Realize that the therapeutic range for theophylline (theobid) is 10 – 20 mcg/mL x Realize that theophylline (theobid) is the drug of choice for asthma x Drink liquids (2000 mL/day) x Avoid OTC cough and cold meds x Avoid xanthine food products, (colas, coffee, chocolate) Realize the following in regards to carbamazepine (tegretol) (anti-convulsants, mood stabilizer) and its side effects: x Used to prevent seizures x Used to relieve pain in trigeminal neuralgia (cranial nerve 5) x Use to decrease mania x Realize that an amount of anesthetic may need to be reduced because client is on anticonvulsants x Needs oral care x Use non-hormonal contraception x Advise patient to carry identification describing disease and medication regimen at all times Realize the following in regards to glipizide (glucotrol) and its side effects: x Used to decrease blood sugar by stimulating insulin release from the pancreas x Avoid aspirin Realize that ipecac is a drug that induces vomiting Realize the following in regards to ethambutol (myambutol) and its side effects: x Realize that a major common adverse effect of ethambutol (myambutol) (antitubercular) is optic neuritis, with reduced activity; lessened ability to see green is a possible initial sign x Report of no improvement in 2 weeks Realize the following in regards to pyrazinamide (PZA) (anti-tubercular) and its side effects: x Realize that hyperuricemia can occur with pyrazinamide (PZA) (anti-tubercular), resulting in acute gout symptom, such as severe pain in the great toe; this indicates that drug should be discontinued x In diabetic clients, PZA will interfere with urine ketone measurements Realize the following in regards to metoclopramide hydrochloride (reglan) (antiemetic) and its side effects: x Stimulates motility of the upper GI tract x Contraindicated with possible hemorrhage of GI tract x Used to treat nausea of chemotherapy x Risk of extrapyramidal symptoms Realize the following in regards to asathioprine (imuran) (immunosuppressant) and its side effects: x Used to inhibit the production of antiplatelet autoantibodies by the immune system x Avoid contact with person with contagious disease x Client must use contraceptions82 Realize the following in regards to quinidine (quinaglute) (antiarrhythmics) and its side effects: x May cause tinnitus x Contraindicated in myasthenia gravis x May cause low WBC x Must take pulse x May cause dizziness x Report rash, dyspnea or diarrhea x Advise to carry ID all the time Realize the following in regards to tetracycline hydrochloride (sumycin) (anti-infective) and its side effects: x Is a broad spectrum antibiotic x Avoid taking with milk or other dairy products x Avoid taking with antacids or electrolytes x Avoid the sun Realize the following in regards to ipratropium bromide (atrovent) and Flovent inhaler (bronchodilator) and its side effects: x Used with asthma x Rise mouth after use x Pulmonary function test needs to be done prior to usage REPRODUCTIVE Realize that the purpose for an internal fetal monitor is to monitor the oxygen status of the fetus during labor; goal is early detection of mild fetal hypoxia Realize that an ultrasound detects the gestational age Realize the following about an amniocentesis: x Realize that hemolytic disease of a newborn can be detected by an amniocentesis x Usually done between 15 and 20 weeks for genetic diagnosis x Usually done in late pregnancy for lung maturity at 30 – 35 weeks x Realize that the placenta is located before an amniocentesis is performed to avoid puncturing the placenta x Realize that an amniocentesis is an invasive test x Realize that fetuses that have a nuchal translucency measurement of greater than 3 mm are at risk for trisomies 13, 18 and 21 and should be offered an amniocentesis x Realize that an amniocentesis is a diagnostic test x Realize that amniocentesis as the risk of a spontaneous abortion x Realize that a physician performs the amniocentesis x Realize that a 22 gauge needle is inserted for the amniocentesis procedure x Realize that in the amniocentesis procedure, (1) the woman is scanned by ultrasound to determine the placenta site and (2) the ultrasound is used to locate a pocket of amniotic fluid x Realize that an amniocentesis is 99% accurate in diagnosing genetic abnormalities x Realize that if the mother is Rh negative and an amniocentesis is to be performed, the patient is given RhoGAM to prevent alloimmunization x Realize that an amniocentesis is performed to do the following: o Assess the amniotic fluid for the presence of genetic disorders o Assess the amniotic fluid for the presence of fetal health status o Assess the amniotic fluid for the presence for an evaluation of fetal maturity Realize that amniocentesis has the following risks: x Pain x Contractions x Rupture of membrane x Fetal injury x Rh isoimmunization83 o Realize that isoimmunization is active immunization of an individual against blood from an individual of the same species x Infections Realize that the following are the nursing care of amniocentesis: x Ultrasound must be done first x Give patient RH immune globulin if RH negative o Realize that Rh immune globulin (RhoGAM, Gamulin) binds to the fetal Rh positive antigens so they cannot stimulate the mother immune system to produce anti-D o x Monitor for complications Realize that the following are symptoms of cold stress in regards to newborns: x Mottling of the skin x Acrocyanosis (blue or purple mottling discoloration of the extremities) x Irregular respirations Realize that the naegele’s rule is used to determine the due date of a pregnancy and involves the following: x Uses 280 days as the means of length in pregnancy x Begin with first day of last LMP, subtract 3 months and add 7 days Realize that the Coombs’ Test is a laboratory test that is used to check the presence of antibodies in the serum o Realize that Coombs’ Test has the (1) direct test and (2) the indirect test ƒ Realize that the direct test tries to detect in vivo (in the living body) antibody sensitization of RBCs ƒ Realize that the indirect test is used to detect unexpected circulating complement antibodies in the patients serum Realize that a pregnant mother who is diabetic will cause the fetus to produce an increased insulin to match a mother’s increased glucose level during pregnancy; infants continue to have high insulin output after birth, resulting in hypoglycemia x Realize that a pregnant female will need an increase in insulin during pregnancy due to hormonal interferences in glucose metabolism and an insulin decrease after delivery Realize that a boggy uterus that deviates to the right indicates a full bladder… mother should be encouraged to void Realize that the hormonal interference in glucose metabolism during pregnancy causes insulin requirements to increase then decrease after delivery Realize that irregular menses begins are menopause, which usually occurs between 45 – 50 year old Realize that abruptio placentae is the premature separation of a normally implanted placenta leading to hemorrhage; fluid volume deficit is a major nursing concern with these clients Realize that gestational diabetes (GDM) is indicated with a positive urine test for glucose and acetone; it is a hazard of placental insufficiency Realize that a client is asked to save the first voided urine specimen in the morning for a routine GYN exam84 Realize that prior to a pap smear, a client should avoid douching for 24 hours before the appointment for the Pap smear Realize that uterine contractions should have a 2-minute interval between contractions and should be less than 90 seconds in duration when a patient is receiving oxytocin Realize that an Rh-negative women who conceives with an Rh-positive man will cause the woman to produce Rh antibodies that will break down the fetus’s blood cells; realize that the Rh-positive is always dominant x Realize that incompatibilities only occur with Rh-negative women x Realize that RhoGAM prevent the antibody response and hemolytic disease of the newborn Realize that the lecithin:sphingomyelin ratio is the ratio of lecithin to sphingomyelin in the amniotic fluid… it is used to assess maturity of the fetal lung x Realize that as the lung matures, they produce more lecithin than sphingomyelin x Realize that delivery by C-section is generally preferred for preterm infants when attempts to arrest premature labor is unsuccessful o Realize that after a C-section delivery, it is important to prevent fluid and electrolyte imbalances… which is due to the hemorrhage and shock form the C-section surgery Realize that it is common for a pregnant female to have constipation and hemorrhoids due to the pressure of a growing fetus Realize that if a pregnant female gets hot flashes and chills, it should be reported to a physician Realize that Braxton Hicks contractions are irregular painless contractions of the uterus ƒ Realize that these contractions occurs intermittently throughout the pregnancy ƒ Realize that these contractions may be felt through the abdominal wall beginning at the fourth month of pregnancy ƒ Realize that Braxton Hicks contraction can be palpated most commonly after 28 weeks of gestation ƒ Realize that later on in the pregnancy, these contractions become uncomfortable and may be confused with true labor contractions, called false labor ƒ Realize that true labor produce progressive dilatation and effacement of the cervix ƒ Realize that effacement is the thinning of the cervix Realize that a client that is diagnosed with human papillomavirus (HPV) will return for a Pap smear in six months; realize that HPV is associated with cervical cancer Realize that taking prenatal vitamins with something acidic increases the absorption of iron; taking them with food at bedtime decreases the possibility of nausea, as the client will be asleep Realize that it is recommended for pregnant women to increase their calorie intake by 300 for fetal growth, maternal tissues, and the placenta Realize that a woman with placenta previa cannot deliver vaginally x Realize that placenta previa is characterized by painless vaginal bleeding Realize that repositioning a client that is pregnant during labor may relieve pain Realize that the expected date of confinement (EDC) is the predicted date of childbirth Realize the following about a non-stress test (NST): x Realize that a non-stress test (NST) will instruct a client to push a button when she feels fetal movement x Realize that a non-stress test (NST) is indicated for the following: o Decreased fetal movement o Post-date pregnancy o Any high-risk pregnancy x Realize that during an NST, compression of the vena cava must be avoid x Realize that NST evaluates the acceleration of the fetal heart rate in response to fetal activity x Realize that a reactive test is two acceleration of at least 15 bpm lasting at least 15 seconds in a 20 minute time period x Realize that a non-stress test is used to assess the fetal status85 x Realize that a non-stress test may be used in the following ways: o May be used alone o May be used as part of a more comprehensive diagnostic assessment called a biophysical profile (BPP) x Realize that a non-stress test is based on the concept that when a fetus has adequate oxygenation and an intact nervous system, there are accelerations of a the fetal heart rate (FHR) with fetal movement (FM) x Realize that a non-stress test demonstrates the fetus ability to respond to its environment via acceleration of FHR with movement x Realize that if a non-stress test fails to become reactive, a 3 minute foot massage has been shown to stimulate the fetus and increase fetal activity. It also helps the women to relax during the test x Realize that the fetal heart rate should increase with sound stimulation x Realize that during a non-stress test, the woman is attached to an electronic fetal monitor for 20 minutes. She is required to lie still during the test x Realize that a non-reactive non-stress test is fairly consistent in identifying at-risk fetuses x Realize that non-stress test has the following advantages: o It is quick to perform o It is easy to interpret o It is inexpensive o It can be done at an office or clinic setting o There are no know side effects x Realize that the following are the disadvantages of a non-stress test: o Can be difficult to obtain a suitable tracing o The woman has to remain still for at least 20 minutes x Realize that as the non-stress test is done, each fetal movement is documented x Realize that a reactive test of a non-stress test has the following criteria: o At least two acceleration of fetal heart rate with fetal movement of 15 beats per minute lasting 15 seconds or more, over 20 minutes x Realize that a non-reactive test of a non-stress test has the following criteria: o The reactive criteria are not met o x Realize that an unsatisfactory test of a non-stress test has the following criteria: o If the data cannot be interpreted because of inadequate fetal activity x Realize that it is important for anyone who performs a non-stress test to understand the significance of any decelerations of the FHR during testing x Realize that the nurse is the evaluate the patients understand of a non-stress test x Realize that the nurse has the following involvements with a non-stress test: o The nurse administers the non-stress test o The nurse interprets the results of a non-stress test o The nurse reports the findings to a certified nurse-midwife or physician and the expectant woman x Realize that a positive CST with a non-reactive NST presents evidences that a fetus will not likely withstand the stress of labor Realize that if a pregnant female has a low rubella titer, she should be encourage to obtain the rubella immunization immediately after delivery; within the postpartum period x Realize that a client with rubella requires droplet precautions x Realize that rubella is a highly infectious viral disease Realize that a full bladder is necessary for a transabdominal pelvic ultrasound for evaluation of a uterine mass because it serves as a window for the ultrasound beam transmission, providing a less obstructed view by pushing the uterus away from the pubic symphysis and by pushing the intestine out of the pelvis Realize that primigravida is a woman during her first pregnancy Realize that cord compression causes variable decelerations x Realize that persistent fetal bradycardia may indicate cord compression or separation of the placenta but always indicates fetal distress; left side reduces compression of vena cava and aorta Realize that uteroplacental deficiency is correlated with late decelerations Realize that decelerations are periodic decreases in fetal heart rate from the normal baseline86 x Realize that decelerations are categorized as either early, late and variable according to the time of their occurrence in the contraction cycle x Realize that an early deceleration occurs when the fetal head is compressed, decreasing cerebral blood flow. This deceleration is considered benign x Realize that late deceleration is caused by uteroplacental insufficiency resulting from a decrease blood flow and oxygen transfer to the fetus through the intervillous spaces during uterine contraction o Realize that the most common causes of late decelerations are the following: ƒ Maternal hypotension resulting from the administration of epidural anesthesia ƒ Uterine hyper-stimulation associated with oxytocin (pitocin) infusion x Realize that sustained contractions can lead to a ruptured uterus and/or fetal distress; it is important to discontinue the IV oxytocin at this point x Realize that oxytocin (pitocin) should always be a secondary infusion (piggyback) by an IV pump o Realize that a tocolytic (hydrochloride (Yutopar)) decreases the intensity and frequency of premature uterine contraction x Realize that the greatest risk to the fetus during late decelerations is uteroplacental insufficiency o Realize that the initial nursing action to take when late decelerations occurs is to reposition the patient to the left –lateral position to increase the uteroplacental perfusion o Realize that increasing IV fluid rate is an intervention for late deceleration Realize that variable deceleration occurs if the umbilical cord becomes compresses, thus reducing blood flow between the placenta and fetus. x Realize that variable deceleration can also be caused by a dilute meconium-stained amniotic fluid x Realize that meconium is the first feces of a newborn x Realize that post-maturity of fetus place the fetus at risk for variable deceleration Realize that the amniotic sac may impede the progress of labor and is often ruptured artificially Realize that in the event of an early labor, the nurse to first check for a prolapsed cord Realize that decreased variability is irregular fluctuation in the baseline of fetal heart rate; realize that Demerol crosses the placenta and is a CNS depressant; FHR variability is affected by narcotic administration Realize that the progress is labor is cervical effacement Realize that normal progress of labor is 1 – 1.2 cm per hours for a primigravida Realize the following about toxic shock syndrome: x Similar to septic shock x Caused by a staph infection x Realize that an early diagnosis is critical in order to avoid involvements with other organ systems x Distinct symptoms are the following: o A temperature greater than 102oF o Vomiting and diarrhea x Superabsorbent tampons should not be used because they increase vaginal dryness and can predispose the vaginal walls to damage o Realize that tampons need to be changed very 3 – 6 hours o Realize that you must not use extra-absorbent tampons Realize that pregnant women need to stay away from cats because cats presents a toxoplasmosis risk from their feces x Realize that pregnant women should never be given anything that thins-out the blood because it may cause fetal demise Realize that anytime a method of birth control is used in combination with another, the rate of effectiveness increases Realize that the following are methods of birth controls: x Symptothermal method – combines the cervical mucus evaluation and basal body temperature evaluation x Basal body temperature evaluation – woman’s temperature drops immediately before ovulation and almost always increases and remain elevated for several days after x Coitus interruptus – pulling out before you skeet (least reliable method)87 x The calander method – periodic abstinence from intercourse during fertile period; based on the regularity of ovulation; variable effectiveness Realize that the most common fetal position is occiput anterior x Realize that when the occiput anterior position occur, labor and birth are likely to proceed normally x Realize that positions other than occiput anterior are more frequently associated with problems during labor (malpositions) x Realize that the left occiput anterior (LOA) is the most common fetal position x Realize that when the fetus is in the LOA, the posterior fontanelle is in the upper left quadrant of the maternal pelvis x Realize that when the fetus is in the ROA, the posterior fontanelle is in the upper right quadrant of the maternal pelvis Realize that the landmark for vertex (top of the head) presentation is the occiput. Realize that the landmark for face presentation is the mentum Realize that amniotic fluid is (alkaline) and urine is (acidic) Realize the following symptoms at the onset of labor: x Usually movement of the baby decreases with the onset of labor x May feel a gush of fluid run down the legs x May see some blood in vaginal discharge x May experience low backache Realize that the following are the stages of labor: x First stage ─ from the onset of true labor to complete dilatation of the cervix o Latent/Early phase (0 – 3 cm) o Active phase (4 – 7 cm) o Transition (8 – 10 cm) – complete effacement occurs; increased pressure in pelvis causes intense desire to urinate ƒ Realize that the transition phase is quick for a multipara woman ƒ Realize that analgesics should not be administered during transition phase ƒ Realize that breathing technique allows patients to control pain and urge to push and promote adequate oxygenation of fetus ƒ Realize that the transition phase requires the mother to perform slow shallow breaths (pant breathing) x Second stage o From complete dilatation to birth of the infant ƒ Realize that nullipara (first time pregnant) usually have a longer second stage than a multpara woman x Third stage o From birth to delivery to the placenta x Fourth stage o From delivery of the placenta up to four hours after birth Realize that when the head is at 0 station (itchial spine), the head is referred to as engaged (the entry of the largest diameter of the fetal presenting part into the pelvis inlet x Realize that crowing (the visible presentation of the widest aspect of the fetal head ) is at station +3 x Realize that negative numbers are still inside the pussy and positive numbers are more out the pussy Realize that term is the normal duration of pregnancy (38 to 42 weeks’ gestation) Realize that gestation is the number of weeks of pregnancy since the first day of the last menstrual period Realize that preterm (premature labor) is labor that occurs after 20 weeks but before completion of 37 weeks gestation Realize that post-term labor is labor that occurs after 42 weeks gestation Realize that antepartum (prenatal) is the time between conception and the onset of labor Realize that intrapartum is the time from the onset of true labor until the birth of the infant and placenta88 Realize that postpartum is the time from the delivery of the placenta and membranes until the woman’s body returns to a non-pregnant condition Realize that nulligravida is a woman who has never been pregnant Realize that primigravida is a woman who is pregnant for the first time Realize that multigravida is a woman who is in her second or any subsequent pregnancy Realize that an abortion is birth that occurs in the following ways: x Birth that occurs before the end of 20 weeks x Birth of a fetus-newborn who weighs less than 500 g Realize that a stillborn is an infant born dead after 20 weeks gestation Realize that gravida is any pregnancy, regardless of duration, including present pregnancy x Realize that gravida refers to the number of times a woman has been pregnant Realize that para is birth after 20 weeks gestation, regardless of whether the infant is born alive or dead Realize that a client in the first trimester should gain 3 – 5 pounds; focus should be on nutrition (increase calcium, protein and iron intake) x Realize that the weekly weight gain for the second and third trimesters are 0.66 – 1.1 lbs (0.5 kg) x Realize that heartburn occurs in the first trimester because of reflux; treatment is small frequent meals, don’t consume fluids with food, don’t wear tight clothing x Realize that during the first trimester, nausea and vomiting are related to the elevation of estrogen, progesterone and hCG Realize the following in regards to the breast: x Realize that oral contraceptive suppresses the production of milk x Realize that if a female is taking estrogen (premarin), she should continue to perform monthly self-breast exams o Realize that estrogen (premarin) cause nausea, which will subside after weeks of medication use; should be taken after eating; common at breakfast time x A warm shower stimulates hormonal responses x A warm shower increases the production of milk x Realize that a warm shower relieve engorgement x Stimulation of breast tissue by pumping of breast, sucking of infant, running warm water over breast is encouraged x Mother should wear tight bra that supports breast for 72 hours after delivery; ice packs help relieve discomfort; take analgesia for discomfort also x Realize that the breast should be washed with water and rubbed with a towel every day to prepare the nipples for the stretching action of sucking during breast feeding… soap is avoid to prevent drying from occurring x Ice packs decreases milk production x Realize that applying cold compresses to the breast can alleviate a sore breast by decreasing milk production x Realize that the mother should completely empty the breast at each feeding because it helps prevent the accumulation of milk, which may lead to mastitis x Realize the following order when examining the breast o Look for any changes in appearance in the mirror, asymmetry, nipple, or texture and for any discharge o While looking in the mirror, stand with arms at the side; inspect breast and nipples for asymmetry, changes, drainage o While looking in the mirror, place hands on hips and bow slightly, examine breast nipples o Lastly, use the pads of the middle three fingers to palpate breast to detect unusual growth x Realize that when it comes to external radiation therapy, wear cotton clothing to prevent irritation; assess skin for redness and cracking x Realize that a breast-feeding mother should increase their daily caloric intake by 500 calories Realize the following in regards to a mastectomy: x Do not rest arm; start gentle exercise early in postoperative period to help decreased muscle tension and increased muscle function x It is not necessary to place a heating pat under the shoulder for any reason89 x Realize that after a mastectomy surgery, it is normal for a client to have coping difficulties 1 month later Realize the the following about the 5-digit system: x First digit – accounts for the number of times the uterus has been pregnant x Second digit – represents the number of term deliveries x Third digit – represents the number of preterm deliveries x Fourth digit - accounts for the number of abortions x Fifth digit – represent the number of living children Realize that if a pregnant woman wears low-healed shoes, it will help with back discomfort because it will change the curvature of the sacrum, relieving back discomfort Realize that a pregnant women consumes 5000 mL of fluid Realize that a pregnant female that feels nauseated should do the following: x Eat dry carbohydrate food 30 minutes to 1 hour before getting out of bed (pretzels) x Remain in bed until feeling of nausea subsides x Alternate dry carbohydrate with fluids such as hot tea, milk, or coffee x Avoid eating fried, spicy, or gas-forming foods x Eat small, frequent meals Realize that in the second and third trimester, a female may experience heartburn due to displacement of stomach by the enlarging uterus; low sodium antacids should be taken Realize that fatigue is common in the first trimester Realize that heavy white vaginal discharge (leucorrhea) is normal in a pregnant female because of hyperplasia (increase in cells) of the vaginal mucosa Realize that the following are the symptoms of pre-elampsia: x Malaise x Bilateral dependent edema x Facial edema Realize that preeclampsia is an increase in hypertension, proteinura, facial swelling and edema x Realize that magnesium sulfate is given to prevent eclampsia o Realize that magnesium deficiency will cause hypertonic patellar reflexes o Realize that magnesium deficiency will cause blood pressure to increase o Realize that a decreased urine output from a pregnancy-induced hypertension may lead to magnesium toxicity because magnesium is metabolized and excreted by the kidneys ƒ Realize that in regards to pregnancy-induced hypertension, it is important to do a baseline assessment vitals in order to successfully evaluate the treatment o Realize that oliguria is a side effect of magnesium sulfate o Realize that magnesium sulfate is a CNS depressant o Realize that magnesium sulfate can cause the slowing of respirations of the baby x Realize that hypermagnesemia causes CNS depression; assess respiration Realize that epigastric pain is a warning sign of seizures in the pre-eclampic client x Realize that an epigastric pain for a pregnant client in the third trimester is usually indicative of an impending convulsion Realize that it is expected for a client in the third trimester to be short of breath and have an increase in rectal pressure Realize that a pregnant female undergoes physiologic anemia; a normal response that occurs because of the plasma volume expansion to the a volume three times more than the RBC mass Realize that ketoacidosis in pregnancy is a major factor contributing to intrauterine death90 x Realize that ketones result from fatty acid metabolism and are usually completely metabolized by the liver x Realize that ketone bodies in the urine (ketonuria) are a sign of ketoacidosis Realize that oral contraceptives suppress the production of breast milk Realize that an oophorectomy is the removal of both ovaries. Realize the following in regards to diaphragms: x Realize that diaphragm only offer protection from contraception x Realize that diaphragm must remain in the vagina at least 6 hours after intercourse x Realize that before insertion, place 1 tsp of spermicidal gel around the rim and in the dome x Realize that if more than 4 hours passes between the time the diaphragm is inserted and intercourse occurs, use additional spermicidal gel x Realize that diaphragm should be recheck for correct size annually, after childbirth and if a client’s weight has changed by more than 15 lbs Realize that the Chadwick sign is a deep blue violet color of the cervix and vagina caused by increased vascularity Realize that if a postpartum client has a distended bladder, it will displace the uterus to the right or left and interfere with uterine contraction, resulting in postpartum hemorrhage Realize the following in regards to oral contraceptives: x Realize that the pill is most effective if taken at the same time each day; realize that blood levels of hormones may decrease and ovulation may occur if the pills are not taken at the same damn time daily x Realize that if a pill is missed, it should be taken as soon as it is remember or 2 should be taken the next day; if 2 pills are missed, a barrier method of birth control should be used for the rest of the month x Realize that timing of the pill contributes of effectiveness x Realize that if contraceptive is taken with antibiotics, effectiveness decreases x Realize that for the first three weeks of oral contraceptives, use the barrier method of birth control Realize that a woman at 6 weeks’ gestation who complains of left lower quadrant abdominal pain and vaginal spotting indicates symptoms of an ectopic pregnancy, which may result in death if allowed to progress x Realize that if a client complaint of unilateral dull abdominal pain, this client needs to be evaluated for an ectopic pregnancy Realize that a pregnant women needs supplementation with folic acid (vitamin B9) to prevent neural tube defect in the fetus; supplementation is recommended for all women capable of becoming pregnant Realize the following weeks of progress in pregnancy: x Week 8 o Baby has a heartbeats and its arms and legs are just starting to form x Week 12 o Lungs acquire a definite shape x Week 16 o Intestine begin to collect meconium o Lanugo present on body (hair) o Transparent skin with visible blood vessels o Sex of the baby can be identified x Week 20 o Fetus can suck o Weight 11 ounces x Week 38 o Baby is able to hear Realize that nylon pantyhose provide a dark moist environment that is conducive to vaginal infections x Realize that knee-high nylon stocking constricts circulation to extremities and promotes venous stasis; can cause thrombi and pulmonary emboli91 Realize that cotton underpants help create a clean, healthy vaginal environment by allowing air to circulate and should be changed daily Realize that fluid bolus counteracts the potential vasodilation secondary to the insertion of an epidural and should be administered over 20 – 30 minutes and epidural procedure begun shortly thereafter Realize the following about hydatidiform mole: x Realize that a hydatidiform mole is a degenerative anomaly of the chorionic villi x Realize that curettage is done to completely remove all molar tissue Realize the following in regards to a hysterectomy: x Monitor for pain, hemorrhage, and ability to void Realize that personal comfort is key to peri-care; some women prefer cold and some prefer warm soak Realize that peri-pads should be changed every time Realize the following about postpartum care: x Realize that clients are prone to orthostatic hypotension in the immediate postpartum time period; should not ambulate independently the first time out of bed after delivery x Realize that small clots the size of a dime or quarter are normal after delivery; realize that a golf ball size clot indicates a more anticipated uterine bleeding x Realize that lanolin should be used on the nipples of breast-feeding mothers only if they encounter problems with nipples dryness/cracking x Realize that when breast feeding, the mother should feed 10 minutes on the first side and until satiated on the alternate breast Realize that the probable signs of pregnancy are the following: x Uterine enlargement x Soufflé (soft blowing sound heard on auscultation) and contraction x A positive urine pregnancy test x Hegar’s sign – softening of the lower uterine segment x Chadwick’s sign – a deep blue-violet color of the cervix and vagina caused by increased vascularity Realize the following in regards to presumptive signs of pregnancy: x Realize that presumptive signs are felt by the woman, such as nausea/vomiting, breast sensitivity, fatigue, quickening x Realize that urinary frequency is a presumptive sign; can also be caused by UTI Realize that lactated Ringer’s solution would be used for a client that is in active labor to replace electrolytes lost in the labor process CULTURAL Realize the following about native americans: x Native Americans are present oriented and do not live by the clock x Native Americans accept western medicine, along with traditional remedies x Native Americans don’t complain much x Native Americans do not aggressively handshake Realize the following about Buddhism: x Those at the bedside after the death of a family member perform last rites of chanting; a Buddhist priest should be contacted Realize the following about Hinduism: x Realize that a Hindu priest may be called when death has occurred x Realize that a Hindu priest are the ones that might tie a string around the waist or neck of the deceased x Realize that the Hindu priest pours water into the mouth of a corpse and the family washes the body before cremation92 Realize that genuflect means to bend down on the knees x Realize that Islamic ritual prayer is done five times a day, nurse should accommodate this practice to the best of the patient’s ability COMMUNICATION Realize that DNR only indicates not to resuscitate if the heart stops Realize that it is the physician responsibility to provide explanation and obtain a client’s signature for consent Realize the following in regards to panic disorders (characterized by recurrent, unpredictable attacks of intense apprehension or terror that can render a client unable to control a situation or to perform a simple task) x May cause palpitation x May decrease perceptual field x May cause diaphoresis x May cause a fear of going crazy Realize that when a client starts to measure life accomplishments against goals, it may precipitate a mid-life crisis Realize that at severe levels of anxiety, clients are unable to process thoughts and feelings for problem solving Realize that euthanasia is an easy, quiet and painless death Realize that the initial nursing priority for all psychiatric patients is the ensure their safety and the safety of all members of the milieu Realize that the nurse can make late entries on the chart if they have forgot Realize that nurse should not make assignment for LPN based on equipment Realize that before administering a PRN medication to calm a patient down, the nurse must first use the least restrictive intervention first in ascending order Realize that a married minor is considered emancipated Realize that psychiatric patients retains the civil rights to communicate with the outside world and have reasonable access to telephones Realize that the nurse should interact with client at consistent intervals Realize that you should include all family members in love ones care Realize that the nurse should allow flexibility with family members in regards to visitation hours Realize that psych patients retains the right to communicate with elected officials Realize that you must not tell any co-worker or patient to “calm down” or not to “over-react”, as it triggers an angry response Realize that you must have compassion but still maintain the client’ Realize that all reports to next shift nurses should include the following: x Client’s status x Current care plan x Response to current care x Care that requires further teaching Realize that phobia is an irrational fear; the best treatment is systemic desensitization (behavior modification) x Realize that systemic desensitization enables a client to encounter phobic object gradually while using relaxation techniques Realize that grief is a normal human response that occurs in response to loss; the entire grieving process may take up to 3 years93 Realize that males over 50 years old and adolescent that are between 15 – 19 years old are at risk for committing suicide Realize that nursing assistant can do any intervention Realize that nursing assistants should never care for plants in a client room Realize that all reassigned RNs from different floors should be given patients that an LPN would care for Realize that schizophrenics are very sensitive to rejection and view the world as a hostile place; promoting trust is a priority nursing action x Realize that schizophrenia causes psychosis x Realize that schizophrenia patients are treated with antipsychotics; many antipsychotics have photosensitivity as side effects; photosensitizing drugs are contraindicated in UV therapy x Realize that schizophrenia patients are odd, disorganized, and restless, have careless dress and appearance, have a fragmented thought process and do not require intense monitoring or withdrawal from others x Realize that client with schizophrenia have difficulty forming relationships, with a marked inability to trust others, which is the main problem with clients with schizophrenia x Realize that clients with schizophrenia repeats everything, as if there is an echo x Realize that client with schizophrenia have a disruption in affect such as giggling about a sad subject or projecting a flat, blunted affected x Realize that a client with schizophrenia does not exhibit phobia Realize that you must always address the aggressor in a psyche unit Realize the following about the cognitive therapy approach: x Language is used in though as well as in speech x Speech or writing is used to express thoughts and thereby is an indicator of the patient’s automatic thoughts Realize that the answer to a client can never be closed-ended Realize that it is all about answering in a way that present reality but also addresses client concerns Realize that LPN merely recognize normal from abnormal x Realize that LPN are allowed to do any kind of sterile dressing change x Realize that LPN can do reinforcement discharge teachings, not the initial discharge teaching Realize that dissociative disorders are characterized by either a sudden or gradual disruption in the integrative functions of identity, memory or consciousness; disruption may be transient or become a well established pattern; development is often associated with exposure to a traumatic event Realize that as a laissez faire manager, little direction to groups is given. There is not leadership; decisions are made by the group (if at all); many people feel confused and frustrated under this style of leadership Realize that as a situational manager, the manager assumes a combination of leadership styles depending on the needs of the group Realize that as a democratic manager, the manager ask the group to participate in making decisions; leaders shares planning, decision-making and responsibility for the outcomes Realize that as an autocratic manager, the manager makes all decisions and does not ask for input from the group; stifles creativity and motivation Realize that giving away possessions, especially cherished ones, can be a warning sign of suicide Realize that when a client has a close one that passes away, the nurse to act the following ways: x Do not avoid the death x Do not avoid the subject x Must act caring, acknowledge it and aid in the grieving process (because that’s what people do… they grieve)94 Realize that self-mutilation is an altering or destruction of body tissue without conscious, it is a suicidal attempt; behaviors include skin-cutting, head-banging, scratching, burning, eyeball pressing Realize that the nurse is responsible for maintaining the cost of the unit; must be cost effective care. Realize that beneficence is taking positive actions to help others Realize that if a patient ends up being pre-medicated for surgery prior to signing consent, the nurse should inform the nursing supervisor Realize that when assessing, the nurse should only ask open-ended questions Realize the following in regards to acute manic episode: x May cause agitation, grandiose delusion, euphoria, difficulty concentrating x Realize that mania is a mood of extreme euphoria and is manifested by more extreme levels of behavior Realize the following in regards to psychiatric private rooms: x Realize that a patient diagnosed with bipolar disorder in the manic phase needs a private room because they need a quiet environment to decrease stimuli x Realize that schizophrenic patients do not need a private room because their behavior are not likely to harm themselves or other patients x Realize that a patient diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder does not need a private room, as they are usually focused on themselves; unless there were issues related to focus of the obsessive-compulsive disorder, such as cleanliness concerns with a shared bathroom x Realize that a depressed patient does not need a private room Realize that if a client is having a hard time focusing and constantly changes the subject; keep the environmental stress to a minimum Realize that if a nurse determines that a client is anxious, avoid offering alternatives Realize the following about defense mechanism: x Dissociation – unconscious separation of painful feeling from a difficult situation, idea, or object x Regression – return to an earlier level of development and the comfort measures associated with that level of functioning x Projection – attributing one’s own feeling that are unacceptable to someone else, or blaming someone else for one’s own problems x Denial – unconscious refusal to admit an unacceptable idea or behavior or the feelings associated with it x Repression – instinctive drives and their accompanying anxiety are repressed and converted into a physical symptoms x Introjections – one symbolically takes the characteristics of another x Displacement – redirecting emotion or feeling to a subject that is more acceptable or less threatening x Identification – unconscious process in which one assumes the characteristics of an authority or parent figure x Sublimation – diversion of unacceptable drives into socially acceptable channels x Internalization – excessive reasoning or logic used to avoid experiencing disturbing feeling x Rationalization – attempt to make behavior appear to be the result of logical thinking x Intellectualization – excessive reasoning or logic used to avoid experience disturbing feelings x Reaction formation – development of conscious attitude and behavior patterns into opposite of what one really wants to do x Symbolization – something represents something else Realize that confabulation is a behavioral reaction to memory loss in which the patient unconsciously fills in memory gasp with inappropriate words or fabricated ideas, often in great detail; in order to fill memory gaps, client invent elaborate, improbable happenings Realize that Wernicke’s encephalopathy is the same as Wernicke’s syndrome x Realize that Wernicke’s encephalopathy is associated with thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency; usually associated with chronic alcoholism; dementia can be formed from deficiency of thiamine Realize that sharply conflicting attitudes and actions towards a patient must be addressed quickly and openly, and resolved; often stems from a patient with a personality disorder. Realize that there are three categories of often-abused… child, spouse and elder.95 Realize that the following are considered elderly abuse: x Over/undernourished x Absence of needed dentures and glasses x Poor nutritional status x Dehydration x Urine burns x Excoriation (abrasion of the skin) x Pressure ulcers Realize the following in regards to generalized anxiety disorder: x Realize that the root of anxiety is the conflict between expressing unacceptable impulses and the need to hold onto social approval x Realize that anxiety is a normal response to a threat x Realize that generalized anxiety disorder is excessive anxiety or worry about many things x Conflict may cause anxiety x Realize to never confront anxiety; client sets the pace for recovery x Defense mechanisms are a way for client to cope with anxiety x Realize that it is important to determine what situation a client gets anxious Realize that anger and sarcasm is seen in patient elation of mania Realize that agoraphobia is a form of social phobia in which one feels overwhelming symptoms of anxiety on leaving home Realize that the role of the charge nurse is to support agency decisions Realize that even after a patient dies, appropriate postmortem care must take place; staff’s priority is caring for the decease client and family; charge nurse can offer staff an opportunity to express their feelings after caring for client Realize that a conversion reaction is a type of neurosis (an unconscious conflict that produces anxiety) in which loss or alteration of physical functioning suggests a physical disorder but instead expresses a psychological conflict or need Realize that a client being able to sleep indicates a major resolution of anxiety Realize that when a client dies, it is best to provide the family members a private place, which shows compassion and understanding Realize that as a nurse, you cannot agree to hold secrets; do not promise to withhold information. Realize that group therapy is the best therapy for an abusing spouse CANCER Realize that any type of bone destruction (bone metastasis cancers, bone tumors) elevates calcium levels Realize that mycosis fungoides is a non-Hodgkin form of cutaneous T-cell lymphoma; treatment includes chemotherapy and phototherapy ELECTROLYTES FLUID Realize the following in regards to hypernatremia: x May cause restlessness x May cause weakness x May cause coma x May cause tachycardia x May cause flushed skin x May cause oliguria x May cause fever Realize the following in regards to hyponatremia: x May cause headache96 x May cause apprehension x May cause lethargy x May cause muscle twitching x May cause convulsion x May cause diarrhea x May cause fingerprinting of skin Realize that 0.45% NaCI solution is hypotonic, meaning that fluid will shift into the intracellular space to correct dehydration Realize that the Lactated Ringer’s solution is used to replace electrolytes Realize that vitamin D is needed for calcium absorption Realize that electrolyte imbalances needs to be addressed, as it is one of Maslow’s basic needs Realize the following about hypercalcemia: x Affects mental status and affect multiple organs Realize that the rate of IV administration should be no faster than 20 mEq/h for any electrolyte Realize that a sitz bath is the immersion of thighs, buttocks, and abdomen below the umbilicus in water; in hot sitz bath, the water is first 92oF and then elevated to 106oF x Realize that in regards to an incision and drainage, a stiz bath promotes vasodilation, which occurs to increase the blood flow and therefore oxygen and nutrients to the area of I and D, helping with the waste product removal; it also decrease inflammation x Realize that feelings of faintness can occur as the moist heat of sitz bath redirects blood to the rectal area; an ice bag on the head during the bath may prevent faintness feelings Realize the following in regards to depression involving meals: x Realize that clients are more likely to eat favorite foods; provide pleasant surroundings and companionship during meals, offer more frequent feedings x Realize that setting limits is not necessary for a client with depression x Realize that it is not good to isolate depressed clients Realize that magnesium is a smooth muscle relaxer Realize that the following are symptoms of depression: x Weight loss x Fatigue x Hopelessness Realize that offering client with high calorie foods to carry around is appropriate for clients with mania; finger foods, protein, carbohydrates, vitamin C and fiber PRE-OP AND POST-OP Realize the following about a Penrose drain: x Realize that if there is an abdominal dressing on an incision with a penrose drain, it is best to remove the dressing one layer at a time to avoid dislodging the drain Realize the following in regards to a Jackson-Pratt drainage device: x Realize that drains are used to prevent wounds infections and abscess formation x Drains should be attached to a patient’s gown or pajamas, never to the sheet or mattress x Realize that the Jackson-Pratt drain is a self-contained suction device that is emptied as needed x Realize that the characteristics of the drainage is the most important x Realize that the drain is placed during the surgery97 Realize that postoperative clients are considered “clean” and should not be placed with a client that is considered “dirty” Realize that postoperatively, it is usual for a client to eat only half of the food on their meal tray; offer the client small, frequent feeding of favorite food Realize that surgery increases the demands for corticosteroids Realize that early ambulation is encourage in the postsurgical patient to prevent complications x Realize that ambulation increased peristalsis and decrease the development of flatus Realize that an abdominal surgery is the most frequent type of surgery in which wound dehiscence (partial completion) and evisceration (spilling out of content) occurs x Realize that wound dehiscence and evisceration occurs easier on fat patients HOSPICE Realize that the goals of end-of-life-care include the following: x Controlling symptoms x Promoting meaningful interactions between client and family x Facilitating a peaceful death x Nurse should be with client and family to encourage expressions of grief