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NURS 6630 FINAL EXAM CORRECT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
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NURS 6630 FINAL EXAM CORRECT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 1.What will the PMHNP most likely prescribe to a patient with psychotic aggression who needs to manage the top-down cortical control and t... he excessive drive from striatal hyperactivity? C. Antipsychotics 2.The PMHNP is selecting a medication treatment option for a patient who is exhibiting psychotic behaviors with poor impulse control and aggression. Of the available treatments, which can help temper some of the adverse effects or symptoms that are normally caused by D2 antagonism? D. Second-generation, atypical antipsychotics 3.The PMHNP is discussing dopamine D2 receptor occupancy and its association with aggressive behaviors in patients with the student. Why does the PMHNP prescribe a standard dose of atypical antipsychotics? C. The doses are based on achieving 60% D2 receptor occupancy. [Show More]
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