HESI 799 RN Exit Exam QUESTIONS AND ANSWER WITH WELL REASONED RATIONALES(100% CORRECT)

HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Following discharge teaching, a male client with duodenal ulcer tells the nurse the he will drink plenty of dairy products, such as milk, to help coat and protect his ulcer. What is the best fo ...

HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Following discharge teaching, a male client with duodenal ulcer tells the nurse the he will drink plenty of dairy products, such as milk, to help coat and protect his ulcer. What is the best follow-up action by the nurse? a. Remind the client that it is also important to switch to decaffeinated coffee and tea. b. Suggest that the client also plan to eat frequent small meals to reduce discomfort c. Review with the client the need to avoid foods that are rich in milk and cream. d. Reinforce this teaching by asking the client to list a dairy food that he might select. ans: Review with the client the need to avoid foods that are rich in milk and cream Rationale: Diets rich in milk and cream stimulate gastric acid secretion and should be avoided. A male client with hypertension, who received new antihypertensive prescriptions at his last visit returns to the clinic two weeks later to evaluate his blood pressure (BP). His BP is 158/106 and he admits that he has not been taking the prescribed medication because the drugs make him "feel bad". In explaining the need for hypertension control, the nurse should stress that an elevated BP places the client at risk for which pathophysiological condition? a. Blindness secondary to cataracts b. Acute kidney injury due to glomerular damage c. Stroke secondary to hemorrhage d. Heart block due to myocardial damage ans: Stroke secondary to hemorrhage Rationale: Stroke related to cerebral hemorrhage is major risk for uncontrolled hypertension. The nurse observes an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) positioning a newly admitted client who has a seizure disorder. The client is supine and the UAP is placing soft pillows along the side rails. What action should the nurse implement? a. Ensure that the UAP has placed the pillows effectively to protect the client. b. Instruct the UAP to obtain soft blankets to secure to the side rails instead of pillows. c. Assume responsibility for placing the pillows while the UAP completes another task. d. Ask the UAP to use some of the pillows to prop the client in a side lying position. ans: Instruct the UAP to obtain soft blankets to secure to the side rails instead of pillows Rationale: The nurse should instruct the UAP to pad the side rails with soft blankest because the use of pillows could result in suffocation and would need to be removed at the onset of the seizure. The nurse can delegate paddling the side rails to the UAP An adolescent with major depressive disorder has been taking duloxetine (Cymbalta) for the past 12 days. Which assessment finding requires immediate follow-up a. Describes life without purpose b. Complains of nausea and loss of appetite c. States is often fatigued and drowsy d. Exhibits an increase in sweating. ans: Describes life without purpose Rationale: Cymbalta is a selective serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor that is known to increase the risk of suicidal thinking in adolescents and young adults with major depressive disorder. B, C and D are side effects A 60-year-old female client with a positive family history of ovarian cancer has developed an abdominal mass and is being evaluated for possible ovarian cancer. Her Papanicolau (Pap) smear results are negative. What information should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan a. Further evaluation involving surgery may be needed b. A pelvic exam is also needed before cancer is ruled out c. Pap smear evaluation should be continued every six month d. One additional negative pap smear in six months is needed. ans: Further evaluation involving surgery may be needed Rationale: An abdominal mass in a client with a family history for ovarian cancer should be evaluated carefully A client who recently underwent a tracheostomy is being prepared for discharge to home. Which instructions is most important for the nurse to include in the discharge plan? a. Explain how to use communication tools. b. Teach tracheal suctioning techniques c. Encourage self-care and independence. d. Demonstrate how to clean tracheostomy site. ans: Teach tracheal suctioning techniques Rationale: Suctioning helps to clear secretions and maintain an open airway, which is critical. In assessing an adult client with a partial rebreather mask, the nurse notes that the oxygen reservoir bag does not deflate completely during inspiration and the client's respiratory rate is 14 breaths / minute. What action should the nurse implement a. Encourage the client to take deep breaths b. Remove the mask to deflate the bag c. Increase the liter flow of oxygen d. Document the assessment data ans: Document the assessment data Rational: reservoir bag should not deflate completely during inspiration and the client's respiratory rate is within normal limits. During shift report, the central electrocardiogram (EKG) monitoring system alarms. Which client alarm should the nurse investigate first? a. Respiratory apnea of 30 seconds b. Oxygen saturation rate of 88% c. Eight premature ventricular beats every minute d. Disconnected monitor signal for the last 6 minutes. ans: Respiratory apnea of 30 seconds Rationale: The priority is the client whose alarm indicating respiratory apnea that should be assessed first. During a home visit, the nurse observed an elderly client with diabetes slip and fall. What action should the nurse take first? a. Give the client 4 ounces of orange juice b. Call 911 to summon emergency assistance c. Check the client for lacerations or fractures d. Asses clients blood sugar level ans: Check the client for lacerations or fractures Rationale: After the client falls, the nurse should immediately assess for the possibility of injuries and provide first aid as needed At 0600 while admitting a woman for a schedule repeat cesarean section (C-Section), the client tells the nurse that she drank a cup a coffee at 0400 because she wanted to avoid getting a headache. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Ensure preoperative lab results are available b. Start prescribed IV with lactated Ringer's c. Inform the anesthesia care provider d. Contact the client's obstetrician. ans: Inform the anesthesia care provider Rationale: Surgical preoperative instruction includes NPO after midnight the day of surgery to decrease the risk of aspiration should vomiting occur during anesthesia. While it is possible the C-section will be done on schedule or rescheduled for later in the day, the anesthesia provider should be notified first. After placing a stethoscope as seen in the picture, the nurse auscultates S1 and S2 heart sounds. To determine if an S3 heart sound is present, what action should the nurse take first a. Side the stethoscope across the sternum. b. Move the stethoscope to the mitral site c. Listen with the bell at the same location d. Observe the cardiac telemetry monitor ans: Listen with the bell at the same location Rationale: The nurse uses the bell of the stethoscope to hear low-pitched sounds such as S3 and S4. The nurse listens at the same site using the diaphragm the diaphragm and bell before moving systematically to the next sites. A 66-year-old woman is retiring and will no longer have a health insurance through her place of employment. Which agency should the client be referred to by the employee health nurse for health insurance needs? a. Woman, Infant, and Children program b. Medicaid c. Medicare d. Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act provision. ans: Medicare Rationale: Title XVII of the social security Act of 1965 created Medicare Program to provide medical insurance for person more than 65 years or older, disable or with permeant kidney failure, WIC provides supplemental nutrition to meet the needs of pregnant of breastfeeding woman, infants and children up to age of 6. Medicaid provides financial assistance to pay for medical services for poor older adults, blind, disable and families with dependent children. COBRA(D) health benefit provisions is a limited insurance plan for those who has been laid off or become unemployed. A client who is taking an oral dose of a tetracycline complains of gastrointestinal upset. What snack should the nurse instruct the client to take with the tetracycline? a. Fruit-flavored yogurt. b. Cheese and crackers. c. Cold cereal with skim milk. d. Toasted wheat bread and jelly ans: Toasted wheat bread and jelly Rationale: Dairy products decrease the effect of tetracycline, so the nurse instructs the client to eat a snack such as toast, which contains no dairy products and may decrease GI symptoms. Following a lumbar puncture, a client voices several complaints. What complaint indicated to the nurse that the client is experiencing a complication? a. "I am having pain in my lower back when I move my legs" b. "My throat hurts when I swallow" c. "I feel sick to my stomach and am going to throw up" d. I have a headache that gets worse when I sit up" ans: "I have a headache that gets worse when I sit up" Rationale: A post-lumbar puncture headache, ranging from mild to severe, may occur as a result of leakage of cerebrospinal fluid at the puncture site. This complication is usually managed by bedrest, analgesic, and hydration. An elderly client seems confused and reports the onset of nausea, dysuria, and urgency with incontinence. Which action should the nurse implement a. Auscultate for renal bruits b. Obtain a clean catch mid-stream specimen c. Use a dipstick to measure for urinary ketone d. Begin to strain the client's urine. ans: Obtain a clean catch mid-stream specimen Rationale: This elderly is experiencing symptoms of urinary tract infection. The nurse should obtain a clean catch mid-stream specimen to determine the causative agent so an anti-infective agent can be prescribed. The nurse is assisting the mother of a child with phenylketonuria (PKU) to select foods that are in keeping with the child's dietary restrictions. Which foods are contraindicated for this child? a. Wheat products b. Foods sweetened with aspartame. c. High fat foods d. High calories foods. ans: Foods sweetened with aspartame Rationale: Aspartame should not be consumed by a child with PKU because ut is converted to phenylalanine in the body. Additionally, milk and milk products are contraindicated for children with PKU. Before preparing a client for the first surgical case of the day, a part-time scrub nurse asks the circulating nurse if a 3 minute surgical hand scrub is adequate preparation for this client. Which response should the circulating nurse provide? a. Ask a more experience nurse to perform that scrub since it is the first time of the day b. Validate the nurse is implementing the OR policy for surgical hand scrub c. Inform the nurse that hand scrubs should be 3 minutes between cases. d. Direct the nurse to continue the surgical hand scrub for a 5-minute duration. ans: Direct the nurse to continue the surgical hand scrub for a 5 minute duration Rationale: The surgical hand scrub should last for 5 to 10 mints, so the nurse should be directed to continue the vigorous scrub using a reliable agent for the total duration of 5 mints. It is not necessary to reassign staff (A). The length of the hand scrub and subsequent scrubs during the day require the same process for the same amount of time, (B and C) Which breakfast selection indicates that the client understands the nurse's instructions about the dietary management of osteoporosis? a. Egg whites, toast and coffee. b. Bran muffin, mixed fruits, and orange juice. c. Granola and grapefruit juice d. Bagel with jelly and skim milk. ans: Bagel with jelly and skim milk Rationale: D includes dairy products which contain calcium and does not include any foods that inhibit calcium absorption. The primary dietary implication of osteoporosis is the need for increased calcium and reduction in foods that decrease calcium absorption, such as caffeine and excessive fiber. The charge nurse of critical care unit informed at beginning of shift that less than optimal number registered nurses be working that shift. In planning assignments, which client should receive most care hours by a registered nurse a. A 34 yo admitted today after emergency appendendectomy who has peripheral intravenous catheter, Foley catheter. b. A 48 yo marathon runner w/a central venous catheter experiencing nausea, vomiting due to electrolyte disturbance following a race. c. A 63 yo chain smoker w/ chronic bronchitis receiving O2 nasal cannula and a saline-locked peripheral intravenous catheter. d. An 82 yo client with Alzheimer's disease newly-fractures femur w/Foley catheter and soft wrist restrains applied ans: An 82-year-old client with Alzheimer's disease newly-fractures femur who has a Foley catheter and soft wrist restrains applied Rationale: (D) describe the client at the most risk for injury and complications because of the factor listed. (A) has complete the recovery period form anesthesia but requires critical care because of the invasive lines and new abdominal incision. (B) is likely to be in excellent physical condition and has one invasive line needed for rehydration. (C) is essentially stable, despite having a chronic condition. A mother brings her 6-year-old child, who has just stepped on a rusty nail, to the pediatrician's office. Upon inspection, the nurse notes that the nail went through the shoe and pierced the bottom of the child's foot. Which action should the nurse implement first? a. Cleanse the foot with soap and water and apply an antibiotic ointment b. Provide teaching about the need for a tetanus booster within the next 72 hours. c. have the mother check the child's temperature q4h for the next 24 hours d. transfer the child to the emergency department to receive a gamma globulin injection ans: Cleanse the foot with soap and water and apply an antibiotic ointment Rationale: The nurse should cleanse the wound first and implement B next. The mother of an adolescent tells the clinic nurse, "My son has athlete's foot, I have been applying triple antibiotic ointment for two days, but there has been no improvement." What instruction should the nurse provide? a. Antibiotics take two weeks to become effective against infections such as athlete's foot. b. Continue using the ointment for a full week, even after the symptoms disappear. c. Applying too much ointment can deter its effectiveness. Apply a thin layer to prevent maceration. d. Stop using the ointment and encourage complete drying of the feet and wearing clean socks. ans: Stop using the ointment and encourage complete drying of the feet and wearing clean socks. Rationale: Athlete's foot (tinea pedi) is a fungal infection that afflicts the feet and causes scaliness and cracking of the skin between the toes and on the soles of the feet. The feet should be ventilated, dried well after bathing, and clean socks should be placed on the feet after bathing. Antifungal ointments may be prescribed, but antibiotic ointments are not useful. A 26-year-old female client is admitted to the hospital for treatment of a simple goiter, and levothyroxine sodium (Synthroid) is prescribed. Which symptoms indicate to the nurse that the prescribed dosage is too high for this client? The client experiences a. Palpitations and shortness of breath b. Bradycardia and constipation c. Lethargy and lack of appetite d. Muscle cramping and dry, flushed skin ans: Palpitations and shortness of breath Rationale: An overdose of thyroid preparation generally manifests symptoms of an agitated state such as tremors, palpitations, shortness of breath, tachycardia, increased appetite, agitation, sweating and diarrhea. A client with a history of heart failure presents to the clinic with a nausea, vomiting, yellow vision and palpitations. Which finding is most important for the nurse to assess to the client? a. Determine the client's level of orientation and cognition b. Assess distal pulses and signs of peripheral edema c. Obtain a list of medications taken for cardiac history. d. Ask the client about exposure to environmental heat. ans: Obtain a list of medications taken for cardiac history Rationale: The client is presenting with signs of digitalis toxicity. A list of medication, which is likely to include digoxin (Lanoxin) for heart failure, can direct further assessment in validating digitalis toxicity with serum labels greater than 2 mg/ml that is contributing to client's presenting clinical picture. The healthcare provider prescribes an IV solution of isoproterenol (Isuprel) 1 mg in 250 ml of D5W at 300 mcg/hour. The nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver how many ml/hour? (Enter numeric value only.) 75 ans: 75 Rationale: Convert mg to mcg and use the formula D/H x Q. 300 mcg/hour / 1,000 mcg x 250 ml = 3/1 x 25 = 75 ml/hour The pathophysiological mechanism are responsible for ascites related to liver failure? (Select all that apply) a. Bleeding that results from a decreased production of the body's clotting factors b. Fluid shifts from intravascular to interstitial area due to decreased serum protein c. Increased hydrostatic pressure in portal circulation increases fluid shifts into abdomen d. Increased circulating aldosterone levels that increase sodium and water retention e. Decreased absorption of fatty acids in the duodenum leading to abdominal distention. ans: b. Fluid shifts from intravascular to interstitial area due to decreased serum protein c. Increased hydrostatic pressure in portal circulation increases fluid shifts into abdomen d. Increased circulating aldosterone levels that increase sodium and water retention Rationale: When liver fail production of albumin is reduced. Since albumin is the primary serum protein creating intravascular osmotic pressure, decreased serum protein allows a fluids shift into the interstitial space. Pressure increases in the portal circulation © when venous return from the upper GI tract cannot flow freely into sclerosed liver, which cause a pressure gradient to further Increase fluid shifts into the abdomen. A failing liver ineffectively inactivates steroidal hormones, such as aldosterone resulting in sodium and water retention. The nurse is auscultating a client's heart sounds. Which description should the nurse use to document this sound? (Please listen to the audio first to select the option that applies) a. S1 S2 b. S1 S2 S3 c. Murmur d. Pericardial friction rub. ans: Murmur Rationale: A murmur is auscultated as a swishing sound that is associated with the blood turbulence created by the heart or valvular defect. B is associate with Heart Failure. The healthcare provider prescribes celtazidime (Fortax) 35 mg every 8 hours IM for an infant. The 500 mg vial is labeled with the instruction to add 5.3 ml diluent to provide a concentration of 100 mg/ml. How many ml should the nurse administered for each dose? (Enter numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest tenth. 0.4 ans: 0.4 rationale: 35mg/100mg x 1 = 0.35 = 0.4 ml The nurse notes that a client has been receiving hydromorphone (Dilaudid) every six hours for four days. What assessment is most important for the nurse to complete? a. Auscultate the client's bowel sounds b. Observe for edema around the ankles c. Measure the client's capillary glucose level d. Count the apical and radial pulses simultaneously ans: Auscultate the client's bowel sounds Rationale: hydromorphone is a potent opioid analgesic that slows peristalsis and frequently causes constipation, so it is most important to Auscultate the client's bowel sounds A female client is admitted with end stage pulmonary disease is alert, oriented, and complaining of shortness of breath. The client tells the nurse that she wants "no heroic measures" taken if she stops breathing, and she asks the nurse to document this in her medical record. What action should the nurse implement? Ask the client to discuss "do not resuscitate" with her healthcare provider ans: Ask the client to discuss "do not resuscitate" with her healthcare provider A client is receiving a full strength continuous enteral tube feeding at 50 ml/hour and has developed diarrhea. The client has a new prescription to change the feeding to half strength. What intervention should the nurse implement? a. Add equal amounts of water and feeding to a feeding bag and infuse at 50ml/hour b. Continue the full strength feeding after decreasing the rate of infusion to 25 ml/hr. c. Maintain the present feeding until diarrhea subsides and the begin the next new prescription. d. Withhold any further feeding until clarifying the prescription with healthcare provides. ans: Add equal amounts of water and feeding to a feeding bag and infuse at 50ml/hour Rationale: Diluting the formula can help alleviate the diarrhea. Diarrhea can occur as a complication of enteral tube feeding and can be due to a variety of causes including hyperosmolar formula. A female client reports that her hair is becoming coarse and breaking off, that the outer part of her eyebrows have disappeared, and that her eyes are all puffy. Which follow-up question is best for the nurse to ask? a. "Is there a history of female baldness in your family?" b. "Are you under any unusual stress at home or work?" c. "Do you work with hazardous chemicals?" d. "Have you noticed any changes in your fingernails?" ans: Have you noticed any changes in your fingernails? Rationale: The pattern of reported manifestations is suggestive of hypothyroidism After a third hospitalization 6 months ago, a client is admitted to the hospital with ascites and malnutrition. The client is drowsy but responding to verbal stimuli and reports recently spitting up blood. What assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse? a. Bruises on arms and legs b. Round and tight abdomen c. Pitting edema in lower legs d. Capillary refill of 8 seconds ans: Capillary refill of 8 seconds Rationale: The client is bleeding and hypovolemia is likely. Capillary refill is greater than 3 to 5 seconds indicates poor perfusion and requires immediate attention After the nurse witnesses a preoperative client sign the surgical consent form, the nurse signs the form as a witness. What are the legal implications of the nurse's signature on the client's surgical consent form? (Select all that apply) a. The client voluntarily grants permission for the procedure to be done b. The surgeon has explained to the client why the surgery is necessary. c. The client is competent to sign the consent without impairment of judgment d. The client understands the risks and benefits associated with the procedure e. After considering alternatives to surgery, the client elects to have the procedure. ans: a. The client voluntarily grants permission for the procedure to be done c. The client is competent to sign the consent without impairment of judgment d. The client understands the risks and benefits associated with the procedure Rationale: Inform consent is required for any invasive procedure. The nurse's signature as a witness to the client's signature on surgical consent indicates that the client voluntary gives consent for the scheduled procedure. C is competent to give consent, and D and understand the risk and benefits of the procedure. Following surgery, a male client with antisocial personality disorder frequently requests that a specific nurse be assigned to his care and is belligerent when another nurse is assigned. What action should the charge nurse implement? a. Ask the client to explain why he constantly request the nurse b. Encourage the client to verbalize his feelings about the nurse c. Reassure the client that his request will be met whenever possible. d. Advise the client that assignments are not based on client requests ans: Advise the client that assignments are not based on clients requests Rationale: Those with antisocial personality disorders are manipulative in order to meet their own needs. The charge nurse must set limits on this behavior. The client's superficial charm and emotional maturity prevent effective therapeutic communication and (A and B) will be used to the client's advantage. C encourage further manipulative behavior. A client with cervical cancer is hospitalized for insertion of a sealed internal cervical radiation implant. While providing care, the nurse finds the radiation implant in the bed. What action should the nurse take? a. Call the radiology department b. Reinsert the implant into the vagina c. Apply double gloves to retrieve the implant for disposal. d. Place the implant in a lead container using long-handled forceps ans: Place the implant in a lead container using long-handled forceps Rationale: Solid or sealed radiation sources, such as Cesium which is removed after treatment, are inserted into an applicator or cervical implant to emit continuous, low energy radiation for adjacent tumor tissues. If the radiation source or the applicator become dislodged long-handled forceps should be used to retrieve the radiation implant to prevent injury due to direct handling. The applicator is then placed in the lead container. The client with which type of wound is most likely to need immediate intervention by the nurse? a. Laceration b. Abrasion c. Contusion d. Ulceration ans: Laceration Rationale: A laceration is a wound that is produced by the tearing of soft body tissue. This type of wound is often irregular and jagged. A laceration wound is often contaminated with bacteria and debris from whatever object caused the cut The nurse is planning care for a client admitted with a diagnosis of pheochromocytoma. Which intervention has the highest priority for inclusion in this client's plan of care? a. Record urine output every hour b. Monitor blood pressure frequently c. Evaluate neurological status d. Maintain seizure precautions ans: Monitor blood pressure frequently Rationale: A pheochromocytoma is a rare, catecholamine-secreting tumor that may precipitate life-threatening hypertension When caring for a client who has acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), the nurse elevates the head of the bed 30 degrees. What is the reason for this intervention? a. To reduce abdominal pressure on the diaphragm b. to promote retraction of the intercostal accessory muscle of respiration c. to promote bronchodilation and effective airway clearance d. to decrease pressure on the medullary center which stimulates breathing ans: To reduce abdominal pressure on the diaphragm Rationale: a semi-sitting position is the best position for matching ventilation and perfusion and for decreasing abdominal pressure on the diaphragm, so that the client can maximize breathing When assessing a mildly obese 35-year-old female client, the nurse is unable to locate the gallbladder when palpating below the liver margin at the lateral border of the rectus abdominal muscle. What is the most likely explanation for failure to locate the gallbladder by palpation? a. The client is too obese b. Palpating in the wrong abdominal quadrant c. The gallbladder is normal d. Deeper palpation technique is needed ans: The gallbladder is normal Rationale: a normal healthy gallbladder is not palpable A woman with an anxiety disorder calls her obstetrician's office and tells the nurse of increased anxiety since the normal vaginal delivery of her son three weeks ago. Since she is breastfeeding, she stopped taking her antianxiety medications, but thinks she may need to start taking them again because of her increased anxiety. What response is best for the nurse to provide this woman? a. Describe the transmission of drugs to the infant through breast milk b. Encourage her to use stress relieving alternatives, such as deep breathing exercises c. Inform her that some antianxiety medications are safe to take while breastfeeding d. Explain that anxiety is a normal response for the mother of a 3-week-old. ans: Inform her that some antianxiety medications are safe to take while breastfeeding Rationale: There are several antianxiety medications that are not contraindicated for breastfeeding mothers. The woman is apparently aware that drugs can be transmitted through breast milk, so A is not helpful. C might be helpful, but the client's history suggest that nonpharmacological methods of anxiety management do not produce the best outcome. (D) the mother's history places her at risk for severe anxiety. An older male client with a history of type 1 diabetes has not felt well the past few days and arrives at the clinic with abdominal cramping and vomiting. He is lethargic, moderately, confused, and cannot remember when he took his last dose of insulin or ate last. What action should the nurse implement first? a. obtain a serum potassium level b. administer the client's usual dose of insulin c. assess pupillary response to light d. Start an intravenous (IV) infusion of normal saline ans: Start an intravenous (IV) infusion of normal saline