Patho Mid term Chamberlain nr507

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Patho Mid term Chamberlain nr507 Housekeeping genes are vital to the function and maintenance of all the body's cells. What characteristic is associated with these genes? D. They are transcriptional... ly active. Mutations in the encoding of histones modifying proteins have been shown to influence the development of what congenial condition Heart disease Signals to change or modify epigenetic tags are ... from where? Signals come from inside the cell, from neighboring cells or the environment During which stage of human development does the role of epigenetics have the greatest impact on the development of epigenetic abnormalities A. In utero The difference between DNA sequence mutations and epigenetic modifications is? Epigenetic modifications are REVERSIBLE Explain the characteristics of totipotent stem cells and the sources of it Totipotent cells are cells that can mature into any type of body cell in an organism including the cells that make up the placenta in mammals. Totipotent cells are only present in mammals in the first few cell divisions of an embryo. Give 2 examples of totipotent cells A zygote Cells in the early embyro up to 5 days What is a Totipotent cell? Totipotent cells are cells that can differentiate into any type of body cell and extra embryonic tissue What are the characteristics of Prader-Willi syndrome? 1. Chronic feeling of hunger (severe, even life-threatening obesity) 2. Low muscle tone 3. Short 4. Poor sex characteristic development 5. Behavioral problems 6. Poor cognitive development Angelman syndrome is sometimes called "happy puppet syndrome." What are the signs of this disorder? 1. Severe mental retardation 2. No speech 3. Abnormal gait 4. Wide stance 5. Arms held out kinda weird What is the most common genetic cause of Prader-Willi syndrome? A deletion of a segment of PATERNAL chromosome 15q. The maternal counterpart is methylated via genomic imprinting. What is the most common genetic cause of Angelman syndrome? A deletion of a segment of MATERNAL chromosome 15q. The paternal counterpart is methylated via genomic imprinting. Upgrade to remove ads Only $35.99/year A child with Prader-Willi syndrome has been hospitalized. Which assessment findings does the nurse expect with this syndrome? Prader-Willi syndrome is characterized by insatiable hunger that can lead to morbid obesity in childhood. Abnormal, puppetlike gait, paroxysms of inappropriate laughter, and nonverbal are characteristics seen in Angelman syndrome. The nurse is examining an 8-year-old boy with chromosomal abnormalities. Which sign or symptom suggests the boy has Angelman syndrome? Observation shows jerky ataxic movement Angelman syndrome is characterized by jerky ataxic movements, similar to a puppet's gait. Hypotonicity is a symptom of Angelman syndrome as well as Prader Willi syndrome, and Cri-du-chat. Cleft palate is a symptom of velo-cardio-facial/DiGeorge syndrome What is the role of inactive MLH1 in the development of some forms of inherited colon cancer? DNA Damage is left unrepaired When considering abnormal epigenetic modifications, what factor is currently being viewed as strongly associated with the development of some cancers? Environmental Stressors 42. The most common cause of pathologic hyperbilirubinemia is: Hemolytic disorders in the newborn are the most common cause of pathologic jaundice. Which infant is most likely to express Rh incompatibility? Infant of an Rh-negative mother and a father who is Rh positive and homozygous for the Rh factor Rh-positive offspring of an Rh-negative mother are at risk for Rh incompatibility Rh hemolytic disease is suspected in a mother's second baby, a son. Which factor is important in understanding how this could develop? The first child was Rh positive The nurse is caring for an infant with hemolytic disease. Which medication should the nurse anticipate to be prescribed to decrease the bilirubin level? Phenobarbital Which of the following combinations may result in the hemolytic disease of the newborn? mother Rh negative, baby Rh positive The nurse is caring for a newborn with hemolytic disease of the newborn who is receiving phototherapy. Which of the following nursing interventions would be most appropriate for the nurse to do? The nurse turns the newborn every 3 or 4 hours A patient diagnosed with acute primary HIV infection is in the clinic. What treatment should be initiated for this patient? Combination antiretroviral therapy Didanosine therapy once daily Zidovudine therapy once daily Monotherapy protease inhibitor therapy A patient has human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). A nurse realizes the HIV will attack: C) helper T cells. The nursing instructor is discussing the development of human immunodeficiency disease (HIV) with the students. What should the instructor inform the class about helper T cells? Fighting infection * A patient has DiGeorge syndrome. Which assessment findings should the nurse monitor for in this patient? Low calcium levels and tetany A nurse is caring for a client who is deficient in T cells. Which result of this T cell deficiency does the nurse anticipate? B) Decrease in leukocytes C) Impaired cellular immunity T cells are subtypes of​ leukocytes, and they are a key factor in cellular​ immunity; therefore the client may experience impaired cellular immunity and a decrease in leukocytes. What is the purpose of pulmonary function testing To identify and measure pulmonary disease. What is the role of pulmonary function testing? It serves both a diagnostic and therapeutic role. It determines how well the lungs work. What does PFT screening do? It may detect pulmonary abnormalities caused by disease or environmental factors in general populations, occupational settings, smokers, or other high risk goups A 15-year-old female is diagnosed with restrictive lung disease caused by fibrosis. The patient had a pulmonary functions test. Which of the following findings is expected? Decreased functional residual capacity A nurse is teaching about the functions of the pulmonary system. Which information should the nurse include? 1-Provides potassium to the cells 2-Provides red blood cells to the body 3-Provides oxygen-rich blood to tissue 4-Provides carbon dioxide-rich blood to organs Upgrade to remove ads Only $35.99/year An 80-year-old male presents to his primary care provider reporting difficulty breathing. Pulmonary function tests reveal that he has increased residual volume. A nurse suspects the most likely cause of this disorder is _____? An increase in lung compliance In a patient with acidosis or a fever, the nurse would expect the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to shift: To the right, causing more O2 to be released to the cells The oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve is shifted to the right by acidosis (low pH) and hypercapnia (increased PaCO2). What factors affect oxyhemoglobin dissociation? pH Temperature Carbon Dioxide Fetal hemoglobin Carbon Monoxide Hemoglobin 2,3-DPG-hypoxia, anemia, pH changes, stored blood A shift to the left in oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve causes = an increased affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen but it makes it more difficult for hemoglobin to release bound oxygen A shift to the left in oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve is caused by = decreased Pa CO2, alkalosis, decreased metabolism and increased altitude A shift to the right in oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve causes = a decreased affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen but it makes it easier for hemoglobin to release bound oxygen A shift to the right in oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve is caused by = increased Pa CO2, acidosis, increased metabolism, and fever A shift to the left of the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve could result in = hypothermia, hypocarbia, alkalosis, 1,2,3 DPG A shift to the right of the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve could result in = hyperthermia, hypercarbia, acidosis and 1,2,3 DPG Most carbon dioxide in the blood is transported? most carbon dioxide is transported as carbaminohemoglobin. 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