Bio 105 exam new questions and answers solution 100% correct

Bio 105 exam new questions and answers solution 100% correct 1. Which statement about living organisms is not correct? a. Living organisms create energy b. Living organisms have adaptations c. Living organisms ...

Bio 105 exam new questions and answers solution 100% correct 1. Which statement about living organisms is not correct? a. Living organisms create energy b. Living organisms have adaptations c. Living organisms grow and develop d. Living organisms maintain homeostasis 2. About when did scientific research begin to make rapid progress, partially due to improvements in science methodology and communication, including the founding of the first scientific society? a. only recently, in the last 150 years or so b. in the 1600’s c. early in the Middle Ages d. before the birth of Christ 3. Peer review a. is a mechanism of distributing funding to deserving scientists b. is a way to explain scientific results in an understandable way to laymen c. is a method to ensure high quality in scientific work and publications d. is how scientists are hired 4. A scientific hypothesis is a. an opinion b. a proposed explanation for an observation c. a fact d. easily proved true 5. When scientists carry out an experiment, they are testing a(n) a. theory b. control c. hypothesis d. variable 6. What is the primary reason for including a control in the design of an experiment? a. to insure that the results obtained are due to a difference in only one variable b. to demonstrate in what way the experiment was performed incorrectly c. to provide more data so a more sophisticated statistical analysis can be performed d. to test the effect of more than one variable 7. In an experiment designed to measure the distance a golf ball is hit by clubs made of different materials, the dependent variable is a. how far the golf ball travels b. the type of material the club is made of c. the wind direction when the experiment takes place d. the type of material the golf ball is made of 8. Correlations are less convincing than controlled experimental results because correlations a. do not eliminate as many alternative hypotheses as experimental results b. are subject to greater bias than experimental results c. cannot be observed outside the laboratory d. cannot be statistically significant 9. Describing a person as having phenylketonuria (PKU) is to indicate his or her a. genetic code b. genotype c. karyotype d. phenotype 10. Which of the following represents a heterozygous genotype? a. ABCD b. AABB c. AB d. AaBb 11. Alleles are different forms of the same a. gene b. genome c. chromosome d. chromatid 12. If two people are the parents of a child with (recessive) Tay-Sachs disease, what is the probability that their next child will also have Tay-Sachs disease? a. 0% b. 100% c. 50% d. 25% 13. What phenotype ratio would be expected in the offspring of a cross between two dogs, both heterozygous for one gene? a. 1:1 b. 3:1 c. 9:3:3:1 d. 1:2:1 14. If one parent has A blood type and the other has O, what types of children could they have? a. A, B, or O b. A or O c. O only d. A only 15. If most people in a certain ethnic group show a particular phenotype, you can conclude that a. you can’t tell whether the allele causing that phenotype is dominant or recessive b. the allele causing that phenotype is most likely recessive c. the phenotype is most likely due to the heterozygous condition d. the allele causing that phenotype is most likely dominant 16. Alvin has free earlobes (caused by a dominant gene) and is unable to taste PTC (the ability to taste is dominant). Alvin's father had attached earlobes and could taste PTC. Alvin marries Haruka who has attached earlobes and is a heterozygous taster. What types of children could they have? a. 1/4 free earlobes, taster; 1/4 free earlobes, non-taster; 1/4 attached earlobes, taster; 1/4 attached earlobes, non-taster b. 1/2 free earlobes, taster; 1/2 attached earlobes, taster c. 100% free earlobes, taster d. 9/16 free earlobes, taster; 3/16 free earlobes, non-taster; 3/16 attached earlobes, taster; 1/16 attached earlobes, non-taster 17. An individual has the genotype Aa. What kind(s) of gametes could this individual form? a. all would be Aa b. half would be A and half would be a c. All would be A since A is dominant d. 1/4 AA, 1/2 Aa, and 1/4 aa 18. In dogs, dark coat color (D) is dominant over albino (d), and short hair (S) is dominant over long hair (s). Determine the genotypes of the parents in the cross below. number of puppies of each type dark, dark, albino, albino, parents short long short long dark, short X albino, short 3 1 3 1 a. DDSS X ddSs b. DdSs X DdSs c. DdSs X ddSs d. DDSs X ddSs 19. Human skin color is a polygenic trait. The more dominant alleles a person has, the darker their skin color is. If two people both with the genotype AaBbCc married, their children would be: a. all dark skinned b. all light skinned c. all medium skinned d. anywhere along the continuum of skin color 20. Which is true concerning monozygotic (identical) twins? a. they from the same sperm fertilizing two different eggs b. they came from the same egg and sperm c. they came from the same egg, but different sperm d. they from two different sperm fertilizing two different eggs 21. Defective dentine (outer surface of teeth) is a dominant sex-linked trait. A woman with normal teeth marries a man with bad teeth. What kinds of children could they expect? a. ½ affected boys, ½ carrier girls b. ½ affected boys, ½ normal girls c. ¼ affected girls, ¼ affected boys, ¼ carrier girls, ¼ normal boys d. ½ affected girls, ½ normal boys 22. You get one of these from your mother and one from your father. a. sister chromatids b. both c. neither d. homologous chromosomes 23. Chromosomal problems in the offspring are most closely associated with which type of parent? a. a younger father b. an older mother c. a younger mother d. an older father 24. Which type of people always have bodies made up of two genetically different types of cells with respect to X chromosomes? a. men b. women c. neither d. both 25. Refer to the pedigree below. Miguel and his Uncle Juan have hemophilia. None of the other members of their family have hemophilia. Which other members of the family must be carriers of the X-linked disease hemophilia? a. Beatrice, Marie and Fran b. all of the female family members c. Beatrice and Marie d. only Beatrice 26. A human conception with which of the following chromosomal abnormalities will never develop into a viable embryo? a. XYY b. YO (Y and no other sex chromosome) c. XXY d. XO (X and no other sex chromosome) 27. Women over the age of 35 are at increased risk of giving birth to a child with a. color blindness b. Down syndrome c. Tay Sachs disease d. phenylketonuria (PKU) 28. A human sperm cell receives autosomes and a. an X chromosome always b. either an X or a Y chromosome c. both an X and a Y chromosome d. a Y chromosome always 29. DNA consists of repeating units known as a. dipeptides b. nucleotides c. amino acids d. sugars 30. To what does the phrase ‘ladder-like appearance’ refer when considering the structure of DNA? a. complementary base pairing b. the complementary base pairs as rungs and the sugar phosphate backbone as the rails c. each gene is like a rung on the ladder d. the fact that each individual nucleotide resembles a ladder 31. If the sense side of a DNA molecule read ATATGG, the other, antisense side would be a. AUAUGG b. ATATGG c. UAUACC d. TATACC 32. Which is not a part of DNA replication? a. a double-stranded molecule unwinds b. nitrogenous base pairs are formed c. ribosomes are synthesized d. all of these are part of DNA replication 33. Exposure of harmless R type bacteria to the DNA of lethal S type bacteria can a. kill the R cells b. none of these c. change the R cells into S cells d. change the S cells into R cells 34. In the process called transcription: a. DNA is not used b. messenger RNA and transfer RNA are used to make a protein sequence c. messenger RNA is synthesized d. DNA is used to make more DNA 35. Which is true of DNA “words” (codons)? a. none of these are true b. they are all 3 letters long c. only certain combinations of letters carry information d. they can be any length 36. The injured soldier is the child of which pair of parents? a. C and D b. G and H c. A and B d. E and F 37. Translation results in the production of a. protein b. DNA c. amino acids d. RNA 38. Which base may be found in an RNA molecule but not a DNA molecule? a. uracil b. thymine c. guanine d. adenine 39. A cell can correctly read and translate genes from a. itself only b. another cell from the same species c. any other cell in the world d. other cells in the same body 40. Which is the correct order of events during gene expression? a. DNA is used to make protein, which is used to make RNA b. DNA is used to make RNA, which is used to make protein c. RNA is used to make protein, which is used to make DNA d. Protein is used to make DNA, which is used to make RNA 41. The information content of a gene is delivered to the protein-producing part of the cell by a. DNA b. tRNA c. mRNA d. rRNA 42. Which of the following are possible results of a change in the genetic material? a. no change in the organism b. a genetic disease c. an altered phenotype d. all are possible 43. If one nucleotide is accidentally changed for another, it causes a a. frameshift mutation b. point mutation c. inversion d. none of these 44. Amino acids are found in _______; while __________ make up the DNA. a. proteins; phosphates b. nucleotide bases; proteins c. proteins; nucleotide bases d. phosphates; nucleotide bases 45. Which of the following statements about cancer is FALSE? a. Tumor suppressors can prevent a cell from dividing b. Activation of an oncogene can lead to cancer c. One mutation in a cell’s DNA is enough to cause it to become cancerous d. Cancer can result if the cell cycle becomes unregulated 46. Which type of gene does not regulate cell growth correctly? a. none of these regulate cell growth correctly b. a tumor suppressor gene c. an oncogene d. a proto-oncogene 47. Which of the following stimulate(s) the growth of a tumor? a. angiogenesis b. all of these c. anchorage dependence d. contact inhibition 48. Which statement is FALSE? a. Malignant tumors can be invasive to neighboring cells b. All of these statements are true c. Malignant tumors are capable of movement from their original location d. Malignant tumors are seldom harmful 49. Cytokinesis usually, but not always, follows mitosis. If cells undergo mitosis and not cytokinesis, what would result? a. cells with multiple nuclei b. cells with abnormally small nuclei c. abnormally small cells with normal nuclei d. cells with single very large nuclei 50. Which is NOT a function of mitosis? a. to form cells needed for sexual reproduction b. to form new red blood cells to replace old ones c. to replenish cells of the lining of the intestines that are shed daily d. to repair cuts or abrasions of the skin 51. In which phase of mitosis do chromosomes become visible? a. telophase b. metaphase c. anaphase d. prophase 52. Which of the following is true of a species with a chromosome number of N = 36? a. A gamete from this species has 18 chromosomes. b. A diploid cell will have 72 chromosomes. c. The species has 18 different types of chromosomes. d. There are 6 homologous pairs. 53. Which are found together in prophase I of meiosis? a. sister chromatids b. homologous chromosome c. neither d. both Please try the questions first without looking at the answers! Then check to see if you were right. Contact me for help if you don’t understand an answer. These questions are in order of our chapters in class to help you study, but on the real exam the order will be scrambled.