NASM practice exam questions (Answered) 2022 update, rated A+
Which of the following glands releases growth hormone during childhood up until puberty?
Select one:
a. Pituitary gland
b. Holocrine gland
c. Adrena
...
NASM practice exam questions (Answered) 2022 update, rated A+
Which of the following glands releases growth hormone during childhood up until puberty?
Select one:
a. Pituitary gland
b. Holocrine gland
c. Adrenal gland
d. Thyroid gland - ✔✔a
Which term refers to the body being in equilibrium and stationary?
Select one:
a. Neuromuscular efficiency
b. Balance
c. Posture
d. Functional efficiency - ✔✔b
Which term refers to fibrous connective tissues that connect bone to bone and provide static and dynamic stability as well as input to the nervous system?
Select one:
a. Dendrites
b. Ligaments
c. Effectors
d. Tendons - ✔✔b
Where should the highest percentage of caloric intake come from when trying to increase lean body mass?
Select one:
a. Liquids
b. Carbohydrates
c. Proteins
d. Lipids - ✔✔b
What muscle is responsible for concentrically accelerating hip extension and external rotation?
Select one:
a. Tensor fascia latae
b. Psoas major
c. Gluteus minimus
d. Gluteus maximus - ✔✔d
Which of the following is a system of organs that collects oxygen from the external environment and transports it to the bloodstream?
Select one:
a. Respiratory system
b. Integumentary system
c. Endocrine system
d. Immune system - ✔✔a
What refers to the weight and movements placed on the body?
Select one:
a. Metabolic specificity
b. Neuromuscular specificity
c. Cardiovascular specificity
d. Mechanical specificity - ✔✔d
Deoxygenated blood is pumped from the right ventricle to the lungs through which of the following vessels?
Select one:
a. Aortic valve
b. Pulmonary arteries
c. Aortic arch
d. Pulmonary veins - ✔✔b
What is the purpose of stretch-shortening cycles?
Select one:
a. To decrease the reaction time of the muscle action spectrum
b. To produce the necessary force to change the direction of an object's center of mass efficiently
c. To check the client's core strength and balance stabilization capabilities
d. To enhance excitability and decrease the rate of force production - ✔✔b
What are the muscles of the global stabilization system primarily responsible for?
Select one:
a. Enhancing pelvic floor function and diaphragmatic breathing
b. Intravertebral stability from vertebra to vertebra
c. Transferring loads between the upper and lower extremities
d. Concentric force production of the thoracic and cervical spine - ✔✔c
A client has been performing cardiorespiratory exercise for four weeks. Which of the following physiologic adaptations should the personal trainer expect to observe in the client?
Select one:
a. Increased resting heart rate
b. Decreased cardiac output
c. Improved ability of muscles to use oxygen
d. Decreased stroke volume - ✔✔c
What is caused by a tight agonist muscle decreasing the neural drive to its functional antagonist?
Select one:
a. Autogenic inhibition
b. Altered reciprocal inhibition
c. Arthrokinetic dysfunction
d. Synergistic dominance - ✔✔b
Reactive training improves neuromuscular efficiency and improves the range of speed set by which of the following systems?
Select one:
a. Central nervous system
b. Autonomic nervous system
c. Sympathetic nervous system
d. Enteric nervous system - ✔✔a
Which of the following refers to a position on or toward the front of the body?
Select one:
a. Anterior
b. Medial
c. Superior
d. Lateral - ✔✔a
According to the 2008 Physical Activity Guidelines, what is the minimum amount of time per week an individual should engage in physical activity if performed at a moderate-intensity level?
Select one:
a. 100 min
b. 150 min
c. 200 min
d. 250 mi - ✔✔b
How many calories are in one gram of protein?
Select one:
a. 7
b. 9
c. 4
d. 2 - ✔✔c
Which of the following is a catabolic hormone secreted by the adrenal glands and serves to maintain energy supply through the breakdown of carbohydrates, fats, and protein?
Select one:
a. Norepinephrine
b. Insulin
c. Cortisol
d. Testosterone - ✔✔c
Which muscle is responsible for concentrically accelerating plantar flexion?
Select one:
a. Gastrocnemius
b. Semitendinosis
c. Bicep femoris
d. Anterior tibialis - ✔✔a
Which mechanoreceptor helps prevent muscles from stretching too far or too fast?
Select one:
a. Ruffini endings
b. Intercalated disc
c. Muscle spindle
d. Golgi tendon organ - ✔✔c
A client's shoulder elevates when performing a pushing assessment, what is a probable underactive muscle?
Select one:
a. Levator scapulae
b. Sternocleidomastoid
c. Upper trapezius
d. Lower trapezius - ✔✔d
Which assessment should a personal trainer use to determine the heart rate zone a client should begin training at?
Select one:
a. YMCA step test
b. L.E.F.T. test
c. Shark skill test
d. Davies test - ✔✔a
Which of the following is a performance assessment test used to measure upper-extremity agility and stabilization?
Select one:
a. Shark skill test
b. Push-up test
c. YMCA 3-minute step test
d. Davies test - ✔✔d
Which of the following is an example that exhibits the conditions for being classified as obese?
Select one:
a. An individual with a body mass index equal to or higher than 30
b. An individual who is 10 pounds over the ideal weight for his or her height
c. An individual who is 20 pounds over the ideal weight for his or her height
d. An individual with a body mass index equal to or less than 20 - ✔✔a
Which of the following is a site for testing in the Durnin-Womersley percent body fat test?
Select one:
a. Iliac crest
b. Neck
c. Waist
d. Calf - ✔✔a
During the overhead squat assessment, which areas should the fitness professional focus on from the anterior view?
Select one:
a. Shoulders and cervical complex
b. Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex
c. Low back and arms
d. Feet and knees - ✔✔d
What assessment is used to assess upper-extremity agility and stability?
Select one:
a. Davies test
b. Upper-extremity strength assessment
c. Shark skill test
d. Overhead squat assessment - ✔✔a
During an overhead squat assessment, a client's knees move inward. Which of the following exercises is the most appropriate to strengthen and activate the client's underactive musculature?
Select one:
a. Ice skaters
b. Leg swings: side-to-side
c. Proprioceptive plyometrics
d. Tube walking: side-to-side - ✔✔d
Which of the following assessments measures muscular endurance of the upper body?
Select one:
a. Push-up assessment
b. Pushing assessment
c. Pulling assessment
d. Bench press assessment - ✔✔a
Which of the following assessments is used to gauge lower-extremity agility and neuromuscular control?
Select one:
a. Davies test
b. Shark skill test
c. Lower-extremity strength assessment: squat
d. Overhead squat assessment - ✔✔b
Which of the following have a linear relationship during dynamic exercise?
Select one:
a. Heart rate and oxygen uptake
b. Blood pressure and oxygen release
c. Heart rate and carbon dioxide uptake
d. Blood pressure and carbon dioxide release - ✔✔a
In which muscles is overactivity or tightness common for individuals who regularly wear high heels?
Select one:
a. Gastrocnemius, soleus, and Achilles tendon
b. Extensor digitorum longus, peroneus tertius, and posterior tibial tendon
c. Popliteus, gracilis, and patellar tendon
d. Anterior tibialis, extensor hallucis longus, and peroneal brevis tendon - ✔✔a
When assessing a client's overhead squat, which of the following is an indication of overactivity in the lateral gastrocnemius?
Select one:
a. External rotation of the feet
b. Arms fall forward
c. Knees move inward
d. Low back arches - ✔✔a
Which of the following assessments would be most appropriate to determine an athlete's maximal strength capabilities of the upper body pressing musculature?
Select one:
a. Bench press 1RM test
b. Push-up test
c. Davies test
d. Pushing assessment - ✔✔a
Which of the following is the appropriate protocol with a client who has coronary heart disease, is obese, and is beginning an exercise program after receiving clearance from her physician?
Select one:
a. Use prediction formulas to estimate the client's max heart rate
b. Use the talk test to measure an exercise's intensity
c. Employ plyometric-stabilization training
d. Implement a 4-2-1 repetition tempo - ✔✔b
During a pushing and pulling assessment, the personal trainer notices that a client demonstrates shoulder elevation. Which of the following muscles are most likely overactive?
Select one:
a. Levator scapulae
b. Deep cervical flexors
c. Intrinsic core stabilizers
d. Mid and lower trapezius - ✔✔a
Which of the following is a formula that determines a client's target heart rate during exercise?
Select one:
a. Heart rate reserve (HRR) method
b. Peak Metabolic Equivalent Method
c. Peak Maximal Heart Rate Method
d. VO2 Reserve Method - ✔✔a
Which of the following most accurately describes an individual with a body mass index (BMI) of 29?
Select one:
a. Normal
b. Overweight
c. Obese
d. Underweight - ✔✔b
During a single-leg squat assessment, a personal trainer notices a client's knee drifting inward. Which of the following muscles is probably underactive?
Select one:
a. Adductor brevis
b. Biceps femoris
c. Vastus lateralis
d. Gluteus medius - ✔✔d
In a client with lower crossed syndrome, which of the following muscles is lengthened?
Select one:
a. Gluteus maximus
b. Erector spinae
c. Soleus
d. Gastrocnemius - ✔✔a
Which of the following involves performing exercises in a superset sequence?
Select one:
a. Aerobic Endurance Training
b. Anaerobic Endurance Training
c. Speed Endurance Training
d. Strength Endurance Training - ✔✔d
During the overhead squat assessment a clien'ts knees move inward. Which of the following strengthening exercises is MOST appropriate to correct this movement impairment?
Select one:
a. Tube walking
b. Sumo deadlift
c. Hip adductor machine
d. Lunge jumps - ✔✔a
During the Stabilization Phase of the OPT model, which tempo is recommended for resistance training exercises?
Select one:
a. 4/2/1
b. 1/1/1
c. 2/0/2
d. 1/0/1 - ✔✔a
The adaptation of muscular hypertrophy is best achieved using which of the following repetition tempos?
Select one:
a. 4/2/1
b. X/X/X
c. 1/1/1
d. 2/0/2 - ✔✔d
According to the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model, which of the following is a goal of the Maximal Strength Phase of training?
Select one:
a. Increase peak force production
b. Decrease the volume of training
c. Decrease metabolic demand
d. Increase the amount of fat loss - ✔✔a
Which of the following terms means creating a purposeful system or plan to achieve a specific goal?
Select one:
a. Quantitative analysis
b. Program design
c. Hypothesis
d. Qualitative analysis - ✔✔b
How many sets per exercise should be performed by a client in the resistance portion of the Stabilization Endurance Level of training?
Select one:
a. 0-2
b. 2-4
c. 3-5
d. 1-3 - ✔✔d
How long does NASM suggest the cardiorespiratory portion of the warm-up should last?
Select one:
a. 3-5 minutes
b. 5-10 minutes
c. 10-15 minutes
d. 0-3 minutes - ✔✔b
During resistance training, a client is most likely to achieve strength endurance goals when performing which of the following?
Select one:
a. Fewer sets when performing lower repetitions at a moderate intensity
b. More sets when performing higher repetitions at a high intensity
c. More sets when performing lower repetitions at a high intensity
d. Fewer sets when performing higher repetitions at a moderate intensity - ✔✔d
Which of the following percentages of ATP and PC recovery result from a rest interval of 40 seconds between sets of resistance exercise?
Select one:
a. 100%
b. 50%
c. 25%
d. 75% - ✔✔a
Which of the following balance exercises is appropriate for a client training in Phase 2 of the OPT™ model?
Select one:
a. Single-leg lift and chop
b. Single-leg box hop-up
c. Single-leg squat touchdown
d. Single-leg balance reach - ✔✔c
Which of the following is a proper equation when determining a clients heart rate for zone 1?
Select one:
a. (220-client's age)x (65% and 75%)
b. (220-client's age)x (65% and 70%)
c. (200-client's age)x (60% and 70%)
d. (200-client's age)x (60% and 75%) - ✔✔a
A new client with limited exercise experience has recently begun a Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance training program. Which of the following is the most appropriate way for this client to increase muscular endurance?
Select one:
a. Pyramid system training
b. Plyometric-strength training
c. Drop-set training
d. Circuit training - ✔✔d
A client's increase in biceps strength from performing dumbbell curls is evidence of which fitness principle?
Select one:
a. Specificity
b. Muscular endurance
c. General adaptation
d. Periodization - ✔✔a
Which of the following exercises is also a dynamic stretch?
Select one:
a. Active latissimus dorsi ball stretch
b. Step-up to balance
c. Static 90/90 hamstring stretch
d. Single-leg squat touchdown - ✔✔d
When starting with a brand new client who has never exercised, which resistance training system would be most appropriate?
Select one:
a. Circuit training
b. Drop-set
c. Split set
d. Single-set - ✔✔d
A personal trainer is working with a 65-year-old client who is sedentary. Which of the following SAQ drills would be appropriate for this client?
Select one:
a. Follow the snake
b. Modified box drill
c. Red light, green light
d. Stand-up to figure 8 - ✔✔d
Which of the following training variables should be low when intensity is high?
Select one:
a. Volume
b. Tempo
c. Frequency
d. Rest - ✔✔a
In the Power Phase, which of the following supersets would be the most appropriate?
Select one:
a. Barbell squat followed by step-up
b. Barbell squat followed by tuck jump
c. Step-up followed by tuck jump
d. Step-up followed by barbell squat - ✔✔b
Maximal strength adaptations during a resistance training program are best achieved with which of the following rest periods?
Select one:
a. 1-2 minutes
b. 0-90 seconds
c. 3-5 minutes
d. 0-60 seconds - ✔✔c
Which of the following core exercises is appropriate for a client in Phase 1 of the OPT model?
Select one:
a. Cable rotation
b. Ball crunch
c. Reverse crunch
d. Floor prone cobra - ✔✔d
Which of the following exercises is most appropriate for a client in the hypertrophy phase of the OPT model?
Select one:
a. Single-leg Romanian deadlift
b. Single-leg balance reach
c. Seated stability ball military press
d. Barbell squat - ✔✔d
When working with loads exceeding 90 percent of maximum, a client would not exceed a workout volume of?
Select one:
a. 20 reps
b. 30 reps
c. 10 reps
d. 60 reps - ✔✔b
Which of the following has the objective of uniformly strengthening the deep and superficial muscles that stabilize, align, and move the trunk of the body?
Select one:
a. Core training
b. Volume training
c. Flexibility training
d. Interval training - ✔✔a
What exercise is considered a total-body Strength Level exercise?
Select one:
a. Barbell clean
b. Kettlebell hang clean and jerk
c. Multiplanar step-up to balance, curl, to overhead press
d. Squat, curl, to two-arm press - ✔✔d
What is the next immediate progression for the ball two-arm dumbbell chest press?
Select one:
a. Single-leg ball dumbbell chest press
b. Single-arm ball dumbbell chest press
c. Alternating-arm ball dumbbell chest press
d. Two-arm dumbbell chest press on a bench - ✔✔c
Shortly after starting his new job as an editor and writer, Mark begins to complain of pain in the neck and shoulders. Which of the following postures are most likely to have led to his discomfort?
Select one:
a. Knees caved in and feet turned out
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