CERTIFIED SURGICAL TECHNOLOGIST PRACTICE EXAM #1 Latest Graded A+

Document Content and Description Below

During which of the following surgeries is a Meckel's diverticulum typically discovered? a. hysterectomy b. appendectomy c. prostatectomy d. varicocelectomy - ANSWER b. During an appendectomy, bow ... el is examined and can lead to the discovery of a Meckel's diverticulum. Which of the following solutions can be used to disinfect endoscopic instruments? a. iodophors b. ethyl alcohol 70% c. phenolic compounds d. activated glutaraldehyde - ANSWER d. Activated glutaraldehyde is a high-level disinfectant widely used for disinfection of endoscopes. Which of the following is the administration route for thrombin? a. local infiltration b. topical application c. intravenous injection d. intramuscular injection - ANSWER b. Thrombin may be applied topically, in a solution or as a powder, but should never be introduced into a large blood vessel, because significant intravascular clotting and death may result. Gl0ve powder is normally wiped from the gloved hand, because it has the potential to cause a. dehiscence b. infections c. granulomas d. contamination - ANSWER c. Glove powder is a sterile foreign body whose reaction with tissue can cause granulomas. Which of the following procedures is the removal of the entire orbital content, including the periosteum? a. recession b. resection c. evisceration d. exenteration - ANSWER d. Exenteration removes everything in the gloval orbit due to malignancies. Which of the following is MOST commonly used for wound closure in the presence of infection? a. stainless steel b. polyglactin-910 c. plain gut d. silk - ANSWER a. Stainless steel suture is recommended for use in infected areas, because it is non-absorbable with indefinite tensile strength. When preparing the Sterrad sterilization system for use in the surgical area, which of the following outlets must be available? a. suction b. oxygen c. nitrogen d. electrical - ANSWER d. The Sterrad sterilization system requires electricity to operated. When can instrument counts be omitted? a. if the incision is too small for an instrument to become buried b. when the surgical technologist in the circulator role becomes too busy c. if instruments are needed in another operating room d. when the patient is receiving outpatient surgery - ANSWER a. The count can be deleted if significant risk for a retained item is unlikely and falls within hospital protocols. When assisting with the closure of a skin incision and operating the skin stapler, the surgical technologist in the scrub role is placing the staples through which two layers? a. cuticular and subcuticular b. subicular and subcutaneous c. subcuticular and subcutaneous d. subcutaneous and fascia - ANSWER a. These layers are the two most outer layers of the skin and are closed together by the skin stapler. Which of the following is the definition of instrument sterilization? a. surgical cleaning with an antiseptic b. manual decontamination c. destruction of microorganisms d. reduction of bacteria - ANSWER c. Sterilization is the destruction of all microogranisms. When a cholecystectomy is performed, which of the following anatomical structures must be preserved? a. cystic duct b. cystic vein c. common duct d. cystic artery - ANSWER c. The common duct is preserved in order to drain bile. Which of the following instruments is used for placement of cottonoid strips during a craniotomy? a. bayonet forceps b. Russian forceps c. Kelly clamp d. angled DeBakey clamp - ANSWER a. Bayonet forceps are used as the primary forceps for neurosurgical procedures, and are used to place cottonoids and gelfoam for hemostasis. When donning gloves using the open-gloving technique, the ungloved hand will touch the a. outer side of the cuff of the glove b. outer side of the sterile glove c. cuffed edge nearest the glove palm d. folded edge of the cuff of the glove - ANSWER d. Grasp the folded edge of the cuff of the glove to maintain sterility. The inverted cuff permits a person to touch the glove's inner side. Which of the following is reshaped during a total hip arthroplasty? a. fibula b. acetabulum c. iliac crest d. tibia - ANSWER b. The acetabulum is deepened during a total hip arthroplasty. A scleral buckle procedure repairs a. astigmatism b. detached retinas c. corneal scarring d. eye muscle contractures - ANSWER b. A sceral buckle procedure is used to repair a retinal detachment. Anterior and posterior knee stability is influenced by the dynamics of the a. cruciate ligaments b. joint capsule c. patellar tendon d. collateral ligaments - ANSWER a. Knee stability is influenced by the dynamics of the anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments. During a craniotomy, removal of the bone flap is followed by a. incision of the dura mater b. incision of the galea aponeurotica c. application of the Raney clips d. suturing of the dura mater - ANSWER a. The dura mater is the first protective membranous layer over the brain which lies immediately beneath the bone (cranium). Which of the following suturing techniques features short lateral stitches that are taken beneath the epithelial layer of skin? a. purse-string b. traction c. mattress d. subcuticular - ANSWER d. A subcuticular stitch is a type of continuous stitch placed beneath the epidermis. A specimen obtained for frozen section is generally removed from the sterile field intraoperatively, because it a. needs to be labeled by the circulator b. is sent to pathology immediately c. will contaminate the sterile field d. needs to be placed in formalin solution - ANSWER b. Special preparation and examination of the tissue can determine whether it is malignant, if nodes are involved, and if margins are clear of malignant cells. Sending a frozen section will give the physician an immediate diagnosis and will be able to treat the patient correctly. In a sterilized package, a chemical indicator is used to a. show that moisture entered the package b. guarantee the sterility of the package c. verify that the package was properly wrapped d. confirm that the package was exposed to sterilization - ANSWER d. A chemical indicator verifies exposure to a sterilization process, but does not ensure sterility of the package. Which of the following statements regarding surgical scrubbing is NOT true? a. two accepted methods of surgical scrubbing are the timed method and the counted brush-stroke method b. a vigorous 5-minute scrub with a reliable agent may be as effective as a 10-minute scrub done with less mechanical action c. prolonging a scrub beyond the standard scrub length is effective in decreasing microbe counts d. when gloves are removed at the end of a surgical procedure, the hands are contaminated and should be immediately washed - ANSWER c. The hand scrub is done to decrease the number of microorganisms to an irreducible minimum and prolonging the surgical scrub will NOT decrease the microbe count beyond that. It is NOT a sterile procedure as skin cannot be sterilized. Which of the following is the best sequence for cleaning the operating room after placement of the dressings? a. remove sterile drapes, remove gown and gloves, don a pair of unsterile gloves to clean the back table b. remove gown and gloves, don a pair of unsterile gloves to remove drapes from the patient, remove instruments and supplies from the back table c. remove gown and gloves, don a pair of sterile gloves to remove drapes from patient, remove gloves and don a pair of unsterile gloves to clean the back table d. remove sterile drapes, remove gown and gloves, don a pair of sterile gloves to clean back table - ANSWER a. PPE (personal protective equipment) will protect surgical personnel from coming in contact with body fluids on the drapes. After the drapes are removed, the surgical technologist can safely remove the gown and gloves to complete clean-up with a pair of unsterile exam gloves. Note: the surgical technologist may be required to remain sterile until the patient leaves the room, in some circumstances. A Pereyra needle is used for which of the following types of surgery? a. hysterectomy b. prostatectomy c. bladder neck suspension d. anterior colporrhaphy - ANSWER c. The Pereyra needle is ONLY used in the Pereya procedure to treat incontinence. This is a type of bladder neck suspension procedure. Which of the following conditions should be treated FIRST? a. obstructed airway b. closed cerebral injury c. shock due to hemorrhage d. sucking wound to the chest - ANSWER a. The first priority is to have an unobstructed airway. Which of the following procedures treat a congenital obstructed lesion found at the distal end of an infant's stomach? a. gastrotomy b. Nissen fundoplication c. Heller myotomy d. pyloromyotomy - ANSWER d. Infantile pyloric stenosis is relieved by removing the congenital obstructive lesion in the pylorus of the stomach. This procedure is called pyloromyotomy. The surgeon asks a surgical technologist to place a drop of a mydriatic solution in OD. As a result of this medication, the pupil of the a. right eye will dilate b. left eye will dilate c. right eye will constrict d. left eye will constrict - ANSWER a. A mydriatic solution will dilate the pupil and OD is the abbreviation for the right eye. (OS is the abbreviation for the left eye) A Balfour is used in which of the following procedures? a. tracheostomy b. sigmoid resection c. pulmonary decortication d. stapedectomy - ANSWER b. A sigmoid resection requires a large abdominal incision and thus a Balfour is appropriate for this procedure, because it is a large, self-retaining abdominal retractor. Which of the following is a contrast media? a. Marcaine b. Hypaque c. Depo-Medrol d. Lymphazurin - ANSWER b. Hypaque is a contract media. Which of the following is the most common complication of a strangulated hernia? a. shock b. necrosis c. infection d. hemorrhage - ANSWER b. The blood supply of the trapped sac becomes compromised and evetually the sac contents necrose. Which of the following structures is behind and below the base of the penis? a. scrotum b. seminal vesicles c. vas deferens d. prepuce - ANSWER a. The scrotum is located behind and below the base of the penis. In a steam autoclave set on pre-vacuum, the minimum temperature that must be reached is a. 200° b. 230° c. 250° d. 270° - ANSWER d. This temperature combined with the pressure in an autoclave is required to destroy microbial life. Hepatitis B is caused by a a. prion b. virus c. protozoan d. bacterium - ANSWER b. Hepatitis B is a generalized inflammation of the liver caused by one of several viral agents. If two basins are wrapped together for sterilizing, how should they be packaged? a. with one basin stacked inside the other and separated by impervious material b. with one basin on its side and the other upside down c. with one basin stacked inside the other and wrapped in a towel d. with one basin stacked inside the other and separated by a towel - ANSWER d. Nested basins must be separated by a porous material, such as a towel, to allow the sterilizing agent to permeate and contact all surface areas of the basins. A resectoscope is used to resect the a. ovaries b. prostate c. vas deferens d. fallopian tubes - ANSWER b. A resectoscope is used to resect the prostate. Which of the following wounds is most likely in the inflammatory phase of wound healing? a. a Bankart repair, one week post procedure b. a laparotomy incision with a cicatrix c. an open reduction internal fixation (ORIF) of a finger, two weeks post procedure d. an abdominal incision, 20 minutes post-closure - ANSWER d. The inflammatory phase is the first phase of wound healing and begins within minutes of injury and lasts for 3 to 5 days. Cicatrix - the scar of a healed wound How must basins be positioned for sterilization in the autoclave? a. upside down b. right side up c. on their sides d. tightly stacked - ANSWER C. The autoclave should be loaded to facilitate removal of air and aid in the flow of the sterilizing agent. Placing basins on their sides helps remove air and exposes all surfaces to the sterilizing agent. Which of the following vasoconstrictors is used to prolong the action of local anesthetics? a. heparin sodium b. ergonovine (Ergotrate) c. lidocaine (Xylocaine) d. epinephrine - ANSWER d. Epinephrine is a vasoconstrictor used with a local anesthetic to prolong its action. Which of the following surgical procedures may be used to remove a carcinoma from the head of the pancreas? a. Heller b. Whipple c. Bankart d. Billroth I - ANSWER b. A Whipple procedure is performed on a patient with carcinoma of the head of the pancreas. Place the following phases of wound healing by first intention in correct order from first to last: I. proliferation, II. remodeling, III. inflammatory a. I, II, III b. II, I, III c. III, I, II d. III, II, I - ANSWER c. The inflammatory phase begins within minutes of tissue trauma. The proliferation phase begins on the third day following tissue trauma. The remodeling phase begins 14 days following tissue trauma. Which of the following is NOT an acceptable technique when placing a patient in the lithotomy position? a. arms placed on arm boards b. legs placed in stirrups one at a time c. both legs placed in stirrups simultaneously d. hips placed over the lower break of the table - ANSWER b. Legs should not be placed one at a time due to back, knee, and hip pain; also for pressure injury to skin, nerves, and blood vessels and blood pressure changes. Which of the following characterizes bacteria of the genus Clostridium? a. aerobic b. anaerobic c. Gram-negative d. non-spore-forming - ANSWER b. The Clostridium species is anaerobic and can survive without oxygen. (Clostridium is a Gram-positive bacteria) When performing a right hemicolectomy, the surgeon will most likely remove portions of which of the following? a. jejunum b. ascending and transverse colon c. transverse and descending colon d. sigmoid and rectum - ANSWER b. The ascending and transverse colon are portions of the large bowel and are found on the patient's right side. [Show More]

Last updated: 3 years ago

Preview 1 out of 43 pages