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HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam Latest Updated 2022 Already Passed

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HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam Latest Updated 2022 Already Passed Following the administration of sublingual nitroglycerin to a client experiencing an acute anginal attack, which assessment findin... g indicates to the nurse that the desired effect has been achieved? A. Client states chest pain is relieved B. Client's pulse decreases from 120 to 90 C. Client's systolic blood pressure decreases from 180 to 90 D. Clients SaO2 level increases from 92% to 96% Correct Answer-A. nitroglycerin reduces mycocardial oxygen consumption which decreases ischemia and reduces chest pain A client with hyperlipidemia recieves a prescription for niacin (niaspan). which client teaching is most important for the nurse to provide a. expected duration of flushing b. symptoms of hyperglycemia c. diets that minimize gi irritation d. comfort measure for pruritis Correct Answer-A. flushing of the face and neck, lasting up to an hour, is a frequent reason for discontinuing niacin. inclusion of this effect in clietn teaching may promote compliance in taking the med. When assessing an adolescent who recently overdosed on acetaminophen (tylonel), it is most important for the nurse to assess for pain in which area of the bodya. flank b. abdomen c. chest d. head Correct Answer-B. acetaminophen toxicisty an result in liver damage; therefore, it is especially important for the nurse to assess for pain in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen (which might indicated liver damage) A client is admitted to the coronary care unit with a medical diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction. which medication prescription decreases both preload and afterload a. nitroglycerin b. propranolol c. propranolol d. captopril Correct Answer-A. nitroglycerin is a nitrate that causes peripheral vasodilation and decreases contractility, thereby decreasing both preload and afterload A client is being treated for hyperthyroidism with propylthiouracil (PTU). The nurse knows that the action of this drug is to A. decrease the amount of the thyroid-stimulating hormone circulating in the blood B. increase the amount of thyroid-stimulating hormone circulating in the blood C. increase the amount of T4 and decrease the amount of T3 produced by the thyroidD. inhibit synthesis of T3 and T4 by the thyroid gland Correct Answer-D. PTU is an adjunct therapy used to control hyperthyroidism by inhibiting production of thyroid hormones. It is often prescribed in prep for thyroidectomy or radioactive iodine therapy Which change in data indicates to the nurse the desired effect of the angiotensin II receptor antagonist has been achieved A. Dependent edema reduced form +3 to +1 B. Serum HDL increased from 35 to 55mg/dl C. PUlse rate reduced from 150 to 90 beats/min D. Blood pressure reducedf rom 160/90 to 130.80 Correct Answer-D. angiotensin II receptor antagonist (blocker), prescribed from treatment of HTN. The desired effect is a decrease in blood pressure. Which instructions should the nurse give to a female client who just recieved a prescription for oral metronidazole (flagyl) for treatment of trichomonas vaginalis (select all that apply) A. increase fluid intake, especially cranberry juice B. Do not abruptly discontinue the medication; taper use C. Check blood pressure daily to detect hypertension D. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication E. Use condoms until treatment is completed F. Ensure that all sexual partners are treated at the same time Correct Answer-ADEFThe nurse is transcribing a new prescription for spironolactone (aldactone) for a client who receives an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor. Which action should the nurse implement A. verify both prescriptions with the HCP B. report the med interactions to the nurse manager C. hold the ACE inhibitor and give the new prescription D. Transcribe and send the prescription to the pharmacy Correct Answer-A. the concomitant use of an ACE inhibitor and a potassium-sparing diuretic sucha s spironolactone, should be given with caution b/c the two drugs may interact to cause an elevation in serum potassium levels. A client has myxedema, which results from a deficiency of thyroid hormone synthesis in adults. The nurse knows that which medication should be contraindicated for this client? A. liothyronine (cytomel) to replace iodine B. Furosemide (Lasix) for relief of fluid retention C. Pentobarbital sodium for sleep D. nitroglycerin for angina pain Correct Answer-C. persons with myxedema are dangerously hypersensitive to narcotics, barbiturates, and anesthetics. They do not tolerate liothyronine and usually receive iodine replacement therapy. These clients are also suceptable to heart problems such as angina for which nitroglycerine would be indicated and and congestive heart failure for which furosemide would be indicated A client has a continuous IV infusion of dopamine and an IV of normal saline at 50ml/hour. The nurse noes that the client's urinary output has been 20ml/hour for the last two hours. Which intervention should the nurse initiate?A. stop the infusion of dopamine B. change the normal saline to a keep open rate C. replace the urinary catheter D. notify the healthcare provider of the urinary output. Correct Answer-D. A healthcare provider prescrives cephalexin monhydrate (Keflex) for a client with a postoperative infection. It is most important for the nurse to assess for what additional drug allergy before administering this prescription? A. Penicillins B. Aminoglycosides C. Erythromycins D.Sulfonamides Correct Answer-A. Cross-allergies exist between penicillins and cephalosporines, such as keflex. so checking for penicillin allergy is a wise precaution Which medications should the nurse caution the client about taking while receiving an opioid analgesic? A. Antacids. B. Benzodiasepines C. Antihypertensives D. Oral antidiabetics Correct Answer-B. respiratory depression increases with the concurrent use of opioid analgesics and other cns depressant agents, such as alcohol, barbiturates, and benzodiasepinesWhich nursing diagnosis is important to include in the plan of care for a client recieving the angiotensin II receptor antagonist irbesartan (avapro)? A. Fluid volume deficit B.Risk for infection C. Risk for injury D. Impaired sleep patterns Correct Answer-C. Avapro is an antihypertensive agent, which acts by blocking vasoconstrictor effects at various receptor sites. This can cause hypotension and dizziness, placing the client at high risk for injury A postoperative client has been recieving a continuous IV infusion of meperidine (demerol) 35mg/hr for four days. The client has a PRN prescription for Demorol 100mg PO Q3H. The nurse notes that the client has become increasingly restless, irritable and confused, stating that there are bugs all over the walls. What action should the nurse take FIRST? A. Administer a PRN dose of the PO meperidine (demorol) B. Administer naloxone (narcan) IV per PRN protocol C. Decrease the IV infusion rate of the demerol per protocol D. notify the healthcare provider of the clients confusion and hallucinations Correct Answer-C. The client is exhibiting symptoms of demerol toxicity, which is consistent with the large dose of demerol recieved over four days. C. is the most effective action to immediately decrease the amount of serum demerol. The client with a dysrhythmia is to receive procainamide (pronestyl) in 4 divided doses over the next 24 hours. What dosing schedule is best for the nurse to implement? A. q6hB. QID C. AC and bedtime D. PC and bedtime Correct Answer-A. q6h After abdominal surgery, a male client is prescribed low molecular weight heparin. during administration of the medication, the client asks the nurse why he is receiving this medication. Which is the best response for the nurse to provide. A. This medication is a blood thinner given to prevent blood clot formation B. this medication enhances antibiotics to prevent infection C. This medication dissolves any glots that develop int he legs D. This abdominal injection assists in the healing of the abdominal wound Correct Answer-A Following heparin treatment for a PE, a client is being discharged with a prescription for warfarin. In conducting discharge teaching, the nurse advises the client to have which diagnostic test monitored regularly? A. Perfusion scan B. Prothrombin time (PT/INR) C. Activated Partial thromboplastin (APTT) D. Serum Coumadin Level (SCL) Correct Answer-B. When used for a client with PE, the therapeutic goal for wafarin therapy is a PT 1/5 to 2/5 times greater than the control or an INR of 2-3. A perfusion might be preformed to monitor lung function but not monthly. APTT is monitored for Heparin.A client who has been taking levodopa PO TID to control the symptoms of Parkinsons disease has a new prescription for sustained release levodopa/carbidopa (sinemet 25/100 PO BID. The client took his levodopa at 0800. Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan for this client? A. take the first dose of sinemet today, as soon as your prescription is filld B. Since you already took your levodopa, wait until tomorrow to take the sinemet C. Take both drugs for the 1st week, then switch to taking only the sinemet. D. You can begin taking the sinemet this evening, but do not take anymore levodopa Correct Answer-D While taking a nursing history, the client states, "I am allergice to penicillin." what related allergy to another type of anti-infective agent should the nurse ask the client about when taking nursing history. A. aminoglycosides B. Cephalosporins C. Sulfonamides D. Tetracyclines Correct Answer-B. Cross allergies exist between penicillins and cephalosporins A client asks the nurse if glipizide (Glucotrol) is an oral insulin. Which response should the nurse provide? A. Yes it is an oral insulin and has the same actions and properties as intermediate insulin B. Yes, it is an oral insulin and is distributed, metabolized, and excreted in the same manner as insulin C. No it is not an oral insulin and can be used only when some beta cell function is presentD. No, it is not an oral insulin, but it is effective for those who are resistant to injectable insulins Correct Answer-C An adult client has prescriptions for morphine sulfate 2.5 mg IV q6h and ketorlac (toradol) 30mg IV q6h. which action should the nurse implement? A. administer both medications according to the prescription B. Hold the ketorolac to prevent an antagonist effect C. Hold the morphine to prevent an additive drug interaction D. Contact the healthcare provider to clarify the prescription Correct Answer-A. Morphine and ketorolac can be administered concurrently and may produce additive analgesic effect resulting in ability to reduce the dose of morphine, as seen in this prescription The healthcare provider prescribes digitalis (Digoxin) for a client diagnosed with congestive heart failure. Which intervention should the nurse implement prior to adminstering the digoxin? A. Observe resp rate and depth B. assess the serum potassium level C. Obtain the clients blood pressure D. Monitor the serum glucose level Correct Answer-B. hypokalemia (decreased serum potassium) will precipitate digitalis toxicity in persons receiving digoxin An antacid (maalox) is prescribed for a client with PUD. The nurse knows that the purpose of this medication is toA. Decrease production of gastric secretions B. produce an adherent barrier over the ulcer C. Maintain a gastric pH of 3.5 or above D. decrease gastric motor activity Correct Answer-C. Which client should the nurse identify as being at the highest risk for complications during the use of an opioid analgesic? A. an older client with type 2 diabetes B. A client with chronic rheumatoid arthritis C. A client with a open compound fracture D. A young adult with inflammatory bowel disease Correct Answer-D A client is being treated for osteoporosis with alendronate (fosamax), and the nurse has completed discharge teaching regarding medication administration. Which morning schedule would indicated to the nurse that the client teaching has been effective? A. take medication, go for a30 minutes morning walk, then eat breakfast B. take med, rest in bed for 30 min., eat breakfast, go for morning walk C. take medication with breakfast, then take a 30 minute morning walk D. go for a 30minute morning walk, eat breakfast, then take the med Correct Answer-A.A client is receiving clonidine (catapres) 0.1mg/24hr via transdermal patch. Which assessment finding indicates that the desired effect of the medication has been achieved? A. client denies recent episodes of angina B. Change in peripheral edema from +3 to +1 C. Client denies recent nausea or vomiting D. Blood pressure has changed from 180/120 to 140/70 Correct Answer-D. Catapres acts as a centrallyacting analgesic and antihypertensive agent. D. indicates a reduction in hypertention A female client with RA takes ibuprofen (motrin) 600mg PO 4xday. To preven GI bleeding, misoprostol (cytotec) 100mcg PO is prescribed. Which information is most important for the nurse to include in client teaching? A. use contraception during intercourse B. ensure the cytotec is taken on an empty stomach C. encourage oral fluid intake to prevent constipation D. take cytotec 30min prior to motrin Correct Answer-A. Cytotec, a synthetic form of prostaglandin, is classified as pregnancy category X and can act as an abortifacient, so the client should be instructed to use contraception during intercourse to prevent loss of early pregnancy Which dosing schedule should the nurse teach the client to observe for a controlled-release oxycodone prescription Correct Answer-Q12HThe nurse is reviewing the use of the patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump with a client in the immediate postoperative period. The client will receive morphine 1mg IV/hour basal rate with 1mg IV every 15minutes per PCA to toal 5mg IV max per hour. WHat assessment has the highest priority before initating the PCA pump A. The expiration date on the morphine syringe in the pump B. The rate and depth of the client's respirations C. The type of anesthesia used during the surgical procedure D. The client's subjective and objective signs of pain Correct Answer-ANS: B A life-threatening side effect of intravenous administration of morphine sulfate, an opiate narcotic, is respiratory depression (B). The PCA pump should be stopped and the healthcare provider notified if the client's respiratory rate falls below 12 breaths per minute, and the nurse should anticipate adjustments in the client's dosage before the PCA pump is restarted. A client receiving albuterol (Proventil) tablets complains of nausea every evening with her 9 p.m. dose. What action should the nurse take to alleviate this side effect? A) Change the time of the dose. B) Hold the 9 p.m. dose. C) Administer the dose with a snack. D) Administer an antiemetic with the dose. Correct Answer-C. Administering oral doses with food (C) helps minimize GI discomfort. (A) would be appropriate only if changing the time of the dose corresponds to meal times while at the same time maintaining an appropriate time interval between doses. (B) would disrupt the dosing schedule, and could result in a nontherapeutic serum level of the medication. (D) should not be attempted before other interventions, such as (C), have been proven ineffective in relieving the nausea.In evaluating the effects of lactulose (Cephulac), which outcome should indicate that the drug is performing as intended? A) An increase in urine output. B) Two or three soft stools per day. C) Watery, diarrhea stools. D) Increased serum bilirubin. Correct Answer-B. Lactulose is administered to reduce blood ammonia by excretion of ammonia through the stool. Two to three stools a day indicate that lactulose is performing as intended (B). (A) would be expected if the patient received a diuretic. (C) would indicate an overdose of lactulose and is not expected. Lactulose does not affect (D). A client is admitted to the hospital for diagnostic testing for possible myasthenia gravis. The nurse prepares for intravenous administration of edrophonium chloride (Tensilon). What is the expected outcome for this client following administration of this pharmacologic agent? A) Progressive difficulty with swallowing. B) Decreased respiratory effort. C) Improvement in generalized fatigue. D) Decreased muscle weakness. Correct Answer-D. Administration of edrophonium chloride (Tensilon), a cholinergic agent, will temporarily reduce muscle weakness (D), the most common complaint of newly-diagnosed clients with myasthenia gravis. This medication is used to diagnose myasthenia gravis due to its short duration of action. This drug would temporarily reverse (A and B), not increase these symptoms. (C) is not a typical complaint of clients withmyasthenia gravis, but weakness of specific muscles, especially after prolonged use, is a common symptom. Dobutamine (Dobutrex) is an emergency drug most commonly prescribed for a client with which condition? A) Shock. B) Asthma. C) Hypotension. D) Heart failure Correct Answer-D. Dobutamine is a beta-1 adrenergic agonist that is indicated for short term use in cardiac decompensation or heart failure (D) related to reduced cardiac contractility due to organic heart disease or cardiac surgical procedures. Alpha and beta adrenergic agonists, such as epinephrine and dopamine, are sympathomimetics used in the treatment of shock (A). Other selective beta-2 adrenergic agonists, such as terbutaline and isoproterenol, are indicated in the treatment of asthma (B). Although dobutamine improves cardiac output, it is not used to treat hypotension (C). A client who was prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor) one month ago calls the triage nurse at the clinic complaining of muscle pain and weakness in his legs. Which statement reflects the correct drug-specific teaching the nurse should provide to this client? A) Increase consumption of potassium-rich foods since low potassium levels can cause muscle spasms. B) Have serum electrolytes checked at the next scheduled appointment to assess hyponatremia, a cause of cramping [Show More]

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