Firefighter 1 and 2 Study Guide Questions and Answers with Verified Solutions

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Firefighter 1 and 2 Study Guide Questions and Answers with Verified Solutions .NFPA 1021 Correct Answer-Standard for Fire Officer Professional Qualifications.. . Correct Answer-. In a typical fir... e department rank structure, an assistant chief reports to the ______. a. section chief b. chief of the department c. command staff d. battalion chief Correct Answer-b. chief of the department Which term can be defined as the set of guidelines that a department establishes for its fire fighters? a. Unity of command b. Span of control c. Discipline d. Training Correct Answer-c. discipline In a typical fire department rank structure, an assistant chief reports to the ______. a. section chief b. chief of the department c. command staff d. battalion chief Correct Answer-b. Chief of the Department Which of the following are developed to provide definitive guidelines for present and future actions? a. Regulations b. Standard operating procedures c. Policies D. After action reports Correct Answer-c. PoliciesWhich term can be defined as the set of guidelines that a department establishes for its fire fighters? a. Unity of command b. Span of control c. Discipline d. Training Correct Answer-c. Discipline Truck companies are sometimes referred to as ______ companies. a. rapid intervention b. rescue c. ladder d.engine Correct Answer-c. Ladder For whom should fire fighters consider that they work? a. The tax paying citizens b. Themselves c. Their supervisors d. Their team Correct Answer-a. the tax paying citizens The number of people whom one person can supervise effectively is known as ______. a. chain of command b. division of labor c. span of control d. functional supervision Correct Answer-c. span of control Which development led to the widespread use of the mechanized pumping apparatus? a. Private insurance companies b. Wagon mounted steam engines c. Jacketed hose d. Internal combustion engines Correct Answer-d. Internal combustion engines In the fire service, the bugle has become a symbol of_____. a. authority b. courage c. fraternity d. service Correct Answer-a. authority Medical requirements for fire fighters are specified in which NFPA standard? a. 1002 b. 1582 c. 1962 d. 904 Correct Answer-b. 1582 Which type of company specializes in saving victims from fires, confined spaces, trenches, and high angle situations? a. Rescue b. Rapid Intervention c. Truck d. Engine Correct Answer-a. Rescue NFPA standards are ________. a. regulatory law b. administrative law c. consensus documents d. model codes Correct Answer-c. consensus documents Which rank is directly above a lieutenant in the fire service? a. Division/group supervisor b. Division chief c. Captain d. Battalion chief Correct Answer-c. Captain What does the "S" stand for in "SOP"?a. Standard b. Sequential c. Specific d. Special Correct Answer-a. Standard Where was the first fire insurance company formed in America? a. New York, New York b. Boston, Massachusetts c. Charleston, South Carolina d. Chicago, Illinois Correct Answer-c. Charleston, South Carolina Training and performance qualifications for firefighters are specified in which NFPA standard? a. 1021 b. 472 c. 1001 d. 1500 Correct Answer-c. 1001 Which position specializes in reviewing plans for fire detection and suppression systems for functionality and code compliance? a. Fire protection engineer b. Fire prevention officer c. Fire systems specialist d. Fire marshal Correct Answer-a. Fire protection engineer Who developed the first fire hydrant? a. John Lofton b. Ben Franklin c. Hans Hautsch d. George Smith Correct Answer-d. George Smith The individual responsible for the overall management of an incident is the ______. a. incident commanderb. company officer c. commanding officer d. operations chief Correct Answer-a. incident commander The earliest known fire department was in _________. a. ancient Rome b. Germany c. Greece d. the Ottoman Empire Correct Answer-a. ancient Rome Which type of company is responsible for securing a water source, deploying handlines, and putting water on the fire? a. Pumper b. Initial attack c. Engine d. Truck Correct Answer-c. Engine Three out of four career fire fighters work in jurisdictions with a population of _________ or more. a. 75,000 b. 25,000 c. 50,000 d. 100,000 Correct Answer-b. 25,000 A fire fighter will most typically report directly to a person of which rank? a. Battalion chief b. Lieutenant c. Unit leader d. Section chief Correct Answer-b. Lieutenant Organizing an incident by breaking down the overall strategy into a series of smaller tasks is an example of _____. a. span of controlb. unity of command c. division of labor d. discipline Correct Answer-c. division of labor Which national organization writes codes and standards for fire protection? a. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) b. United States c. Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) d. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) Correct Answer-d. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) Which of the following is the organizational structure through which a department manages its routine and emergency operations? a. Incident command system b. Division of labor c. Chain of command d. Scalar structure Correct Answer-c. Chain of Command Specific information on the actions to be taken to accomplish a certain task is provided by _______. a. Policies b. Rules and regulations c. Standard operating procedures d. Incident action plans Correct Answer-c. standard operating procedures A fire fighter with specialized knowledge and training for high angle rescue, structural collapse, trench rescue, confined space, and similar operations is a _______. a. Special operations technician b. Fire Fighter II c. Search and rescue technician d. technical rescue technician Correct Answer-d. technical rescue technician Which basic management principle says that each fire fighter should answer to only one supervisor?a. Organizational accountability b. Division of labor c. Unity of command d. Span of control Correct Answer-c. Unity of command Which position servers as a liaison between the incident commander and the news media? a. Public information officer b. Liaison officer c. Agency representative d. Planning section chief Correct Answer-a. Public information officer Which are the two levels of NFPA fire fighter certification? a. A and B b. Basic and Advanced c. Junior and Senior d. I and II Correct Answer-d. I and II Which of the following was one of the major U.S. fires of 1871? a. Great New Orleans fire b. Great Fire of Pittsburgh c. Great Chicago fire d. Great Boston fire Correct Answer-c. Great Chicago fire A fire fighter with specialized training for aircraft and airport related incidents is a(n) _______. a. technical rescue technician b. aircraft rescue fire fighter c. hazardous material technician d. aviation operations specialist Correct Answer-b. aircraft rescue fire fighter The goal of ______ is to ensure that all members of the agency perform a given task in a uniform way. a. The manual of operations b. Policiesc. Standard operating procedures d. Tactical objectives Correct Answer-b. Policies The upper limit of span of control in a complex, dynamic situation is generally considered to be ___ to 1. a. 5 b. 10 c. 20 d. 15 Correct Answer-a. 5 Who is responsible for coordinating the activities of several fire companies in a defined geographic area such as a district? a. Section chief b. Captain c. Battalion Chief d. Assistant Chief Correct Answer-c. Battalion Chief A fire fighter who is trained and certified in chemical identification, leak control and decontamination is a(n) ____. a. Material technical specialist b. Fire Fighter II c. Spill management technician d. Hazardous materials technician Correct Answer-d. hazardous material technician Which type of company specializes in incidents involving spilled or leaking hazardous chemicals? a. Hazardous material b. Truck c. Salvage d. Engine Correct Answer-a. Hazardous material Which of the following is one of the four basic management principles used by fire departments? a. Division of labor b. Common terminologyc. Delegation of authority d. Management by objective Correct Answer-a. Division of labor Approximately ____ percent of fire fighters in the United States are volunteers. a. 34 b. 46 c. 55 d. 73 Correct Answer-d. 73 Which style of leadership does the fire department use? a. Paramilitary b. Top centralized c. Decentralized d. Distributed Correct Answer-a. Paramilitary What does the Golden Rule mean when applied to the fire service? a. Treat everyone else as if they were a member of your family b. Working as a team is essential to success c. Stay humble and teachable, and be willing to teach others d. Honor the job by working hard and doing your best Correct Answer-a. Treat everyone else as if they were a member of your family Which organization developed the Everybody Goes Home Program? a. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) b. National Fallen Firefighters Foundation (NFFF) c. International Association of Firefighters (IAFF) d. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) Correct Answer-b. National Fallen Firefighters Foundation (NFFF) When responding to domestic disputes or other scenes involving violence, fire fighters should ______. a. attempt to mediate the dispute b. wait for law enforcement to declare the scene safec. call for a critical incident stress debriefing team d. remove the involved individuals to separate rooms Correct Answer-b. wait for law enforcement to declare the scene safe Which of the following is a life threatening condition requiring immediate medical care? a. Heat exhaustion b. Heat stroke c. Heat shock d. None of the above Correct Answer-b. Heat stroke Which part of the body should be used for a heavy lift? a. The shoulder girdle b. The abdomen c. The legs d. The waist Correct Answer-c. the legs Approximately _____ fire fighters are killed in the line of duty each year in the United States. a. 1000 b. 10 c. 100 d. 10,000 Correct Answer-c. 100 What is the minimum number of fire fighters required to make up a firefighting team? a. 4 b. 3 c. 2 d. 1 Correct Answer-c. 2 It is estimated that one vehicle accident involving an emergency vehicle occurs for every ____ emergency responses. a. 1000 b. 5000c. 100 d. 10,000 Correct Answer-a. 1000 What is a common sign or symptom of heat stroke? a. Hot, dry skin b. Cramping c. Profuse sweating d. Bradycardia Correct Answer-a. Hot, dry skin Which of the following is one of the three methods by which team members working in hazardous area should maintain contact with one another at all times? a. OTOH b. Rope c. Visual d. Radio Correct Answer-C. Visual Who has the authority to directly and immediately stop any activity on the fire ground that he or she judges to be unsafe? a. Safety officer b. Division/group supervisors c. All personnel d. Company officer Correct Answer-a. Safety Officer In the United States, the number of fire fighter deaths that occurs during emergency operations is _____ the number that occur during nonemergency activates. a. nearly five teams b. about equal to c. about twice d. about half Correct Answer-b. about equal to If one team member must exit a hazard area for any reason, what should the rest of the team do? a. Defer to the team leader, who should decided based on the circumstancesb. Exit as the entire team together c. Continue working on their assignment d. Assign a buddy to accompany the member out of the hazard area Correct Answer-b. Exit as the entire team together The sole responsibility of a(n) ______ is to provide emergency assistance to crews working inside the hazardous area. a. interior attack b. rapid intervention crew c. buddy system d. rescue group Correct Answer-b. rapid intervention crew Who should accompany a fire fighter sent to the rehabilitation area? a. an EMT b. No one; the affected fire fighter should go to rehab alone c. The entire crew d. One member of his or her crew Correct Answer-c. the entire crew What is the term for acting without a superiors order or outside of department SOPs? a. Independent action b. Decentralized authority c. Initiative d. Freelancing Correct Answer-d. Freelancing Which of the following is an essential element of safe emergency operations? a. Initiative b. Teamwork c. Sacrifice d. Integrity Correct Answer-b. Teamwork Health and safety programs for the fire fighters are the subject of NFPA _____. a. 1001b. 1500 c. 1901 d. 1021 Correct Answer-b. 1500 How soon after a traumatic call should a critical incident stress debriefing (CISD) be held? a. As soon as possible b. Within a week c. Within 24 hours d. Within 72 hours Correct Answer-a. as soon as possible Which statement about downed electrical wires is correct? a. Turnout boots and thick rubber glove will afford you sufficient protection. b. A down power line may be safely pinned down under the tire of the apparatus. c. Fire fighters should operation under the assumption that all downed utility lines are energized. d. Firefighters should use tools with wood or fiberglass handles to manipulate downed lines. Correct Answer-c.Fire fighters should operate under the assumption that all downed utility lines are energized. The majority of fire fighter injuries are ______. a. Soft tissue injuries b. Inhalation injuries c. Burns d. Strains and sprains Correct Answer-d. strains and sprains What is the purpose of a personnel accountability system? a. Track personnel and assignments on the emergency scene b. Prevent freelancing c. Brief newly arriving crews on the situation status d. Ensure completion of tasks delegated to fire fighters Correct Answer-a. track personnel and assignments on the emergency scene What is the relationship between habits developed in training and performance on the fire ground? a. Habits formed in training necessarily become abbreviated and rushed on the fire ground.b. Habits developed in training will continue on the fire ground. c. In the stress of emergency operations, habits are overridden by instincts d. Fire ground performance is not significantly altered through habituation Correct Answer-b. habits developed in training will continue on the fire ground Who is responsible for determining when removal of SCBA is permissible after a fire has been extinguished? a. The company officer b. Each individual is responsible for this decision c. The incident commander d. The safety officer Correct Answer-d. the safety officer When is freelancing acceptable during emergency operations? a. Prior to the establishment of an incident command structure b. Whenever such action will result in a favorable outcome c. In response to sudden changes in circumstances or conditions d. Never Correct Answer-d. Never If, during training, you observe an unsafe practice, what should you do? a. Take immediate action to reduce the hazard b. Bring it to the attention of the instructor or designated safety officer c. Stay focused on your own assignment d. Alert the members in closest proximity to the hazard Correct Answer-b. ring it to the attention of the instructor or designed safety officer. A primary goal of investigating each fire fighter accident or injury is to ________. a. determine whether misfeasance occurred b. assess civil liability exposure c. determine how such an incident can be avoided in the future d. establish patterns and trends Correct Answer-c. determine how such an incident can be avoided in the futureWhen is it acceptable to drive a fire apparatus over a downed power line? a. In an emergency situation where there is no alternative approach b. Only if it can be done in such a way that no two tires touch the downed line simultaneously c. If the wire is motionless and silent d. never Correct Answer-d. Never Which of the following is one of the 16 Firefighter Life Safety Initiatives? a. Promote mandatory participation in fire fighter fitness and wellness programs b. Fight fire aggressively buy plan for safety first c. Ensure that fire fighters have access to counseling and psychological support services d. Empower safety officers to stop unsafe practices Correct Answer-c. Ensure that fire fighters have access to counseling and psychological support services Approximately ____ percent of fire fighters who die in vehicle collisions are not wearing seat belts. a. 10 b. 40 c. 50 d. 25 Correct Answer-b. 40 Which of the following is one of the 16 Firefighter Life Safety Initiatives? a. Ensure a mandatory rest period following full consumption of a single SCBA b. Utilize technology whenever it can produce higher levels of safety and health c. Develop and promotion national standards for rapid intervention team operations d. Promote the establishment of an annual Fire Fighter Safety Stand Down Correct Answer-b. Utilize technology wherever it can produce higher levels of safety and health At an emergency scene, the safety officer reports directly to the _______. a. Operations chief b. Medical group supervisor c. General staff d. Incident commander Correct Answer-d. incident commanderWhich statement best summarizes the types of incidents for which the incident command system (ICS) be should be implemented? a. Incidents exceeding a single 0perational period b. Incidents where the incident commander's span of control is exceeded c. Incidents involving more than a single company d. All emergency incidents Correct Answer-d. all emergency incidents Fire fighters should drink _____ of water for every 5 to 10 minutes of physical exertion. a. 12 to 15 oz (0.35 5o 0.45 L) b. 16 to 20 oz (0.5 to 0.6 L) c. 8 to 10 oz (0.2 to 0.3 L) d. 2 to 4 oz (60 to 120 mL) Correct Answer-c. 8 to 10 oz. (.2 to .3 L) What does the "buddy system" refer to? a. The passport personnel accountability system b. Two in, Two out c. A team of two partners who maintain constant contact d. The tradition of "No one left behind" Correct Answer-c. A team of two partners who maintain constant contact Fire fighters should spend a minimum of ____ minutes per day in physical fitness training. a. 30 b. 15 c. 45 d. 60 Correct Answer-d. 60 A fire department is required to have a _____ to track personnel and assignments at an emergency scene. a. passport systems b. situation status report c. unit log d. personnel accountability system Correct Answer-d. personnel accountability systemThe majority of fire fighter deaths are caused by ______. a. asphyxiation b. heart attack or stroke c. burns d. trauma Correct Answer-b. heart attack or stroke Which of the following must occur before self contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) is removed? a. A personnel accountability report has been performed b. All remaining fire has been extinguished c. The atmosphere has been tested and found safe d. Salvage efforts are complete Correct Answer-c. the atmosphere has been tested and found safe Following notification of an emergency response, when should fire fighters don personal protective equipment (PPE)? a. After the first arriving unit gives its report on conditions b. Upon dismounting the apparatus at the scene c. While on the apparatus, en route to the call d. Prior to mounting the apparatus Correct Answer-d. Prior to mounting the apparatus Which term describes the small magnetic boards carried by company officers as part of a personnel accountability system? a. Dog tags b. Passports c. Scoreboards d. Unit rosters Correct Answer-b. Passports Fire fighters responding to a dispatch in a emergency vehicles are exempt from _______. a. only those exemptions specified by statute b. traffic laws dealing with traffic signals and parking c. most civil and criminal liability d. standards of reasonable care that apply to emergency vehicles Correct Answer-a. only those exemptions specified by statuteAt least one member of every interior firefighting team should be equipped with a ________. a. a spare SCBA cylinder b. guide rope c. portable radio d. thermal imager Correct Answer-c. portable radio The majority of ground cover fires are extinguished with which item? a. backfire b. aircraft c. backpack pump d. CAFS Correct Answer-c. backpack pump Which tool is a combination of hoe and rake? a. forestry hoe b. combination c. Pulaski d. McLeod Correct Answer-d. McLeod What is a consequence of falling relative humidity? a. falling burn index b. increased lapse rate c. decreased ignitability d. decreased fuel moisture Correct Answer-d. decreased fuel moisture What is the term for the capability of an apparatus to pump water while moving? a. dual drive b. auxiliary drive c. power take off d. pump and roll Correct Answer-d. pump and roll Subsurface fuels are challenging to deal with because they are ______.a. hard to locate b. continuous c. highly susceptible to changes in weather d. readily ignitable Correct Answer-a. hard to locate What is the term for a long, narrow extension of fire projecting out from the main body of a wildland fire? a. spot b. island c. finger d. run Correct Answer-c. finger Why do compact fuels burn slowly? a. they retain moisture b. they are less continuous c. they have less surface area d. air cannot circulate as freely Correct Answer-d. air cannot circulate as freely Which type of map details changes in elevation? a. topographic b. cartometric c. planometric d. orthographic Correct Answer-a. topographic A safety zone should be large enough ______. a. to fit apparatus as well as personnel b. to be accessible by rotary-winged aircraft c. to accommodate an entire division d. that fire shelters are not needed to prevent injury Correct Answer-d. that fire shelters are not needed to prevent injury Which NFPA standard covers wildland fire fighter professional qualifications? a. 1051b. 1021 c. 1041 d. 1031 Correct Answer-a. 1051 What is the term for the burned area of a wildland fire? a. body b. black c. heel d. island Correct Answer-b. black What does the "E" in LCES stand for? a. Escape routes b. Expect surprises c. Establish accountability d. Establish lookouts Correct Answer-a. Escape routes (Lookout, Communications, Escape route, Safety zone) The most rapidly moving part of a wildland fire is the _____. a. point b. head c. apex d. foot Correct Answer-b. head Which tool combines an axe with an adze? a. council rake b. McLeod c. Brush hook d. Pulaski Correct Answer-d. Pulaski Which condition will generally result in lower relative humidity? a. higher fuel moisture b. increasing temperaturec. nighttime d. precipitation Correct Answer-b. increasing temperature What is another term for surface fuels? a. litter b. understory c. ground d. duff Correct Answer-c. ground Wildland fuels that lie under the surface of the ground are _____ fuels. a. substory b. duff c. understory d. subsurface Correct Answer-d. subsurface What is the most common type of wildland fire? a. forest b. brush c. ground cover d. crown Correct Answer-c. ground cover What is slash? a. partially decomposed organic matter b. debris from logging or clearing operations c. partially burned fuel d. seasonal ground cover Correct Answer-b. debris from logging or clearing operations Which term means areas where underdeveloped land with vegetative fuels is mixed with human-made structures? a. greenbelt b. rural-urban intermix c. wild-urban interfaced. rural development zone Correct Answer-c. wild-urban interface What is a characteristic of fine fuels? a. resistance to rapid changes in fuel moisture b. difficulty in extinguishing them c. large surface area relative to volume d. long burn duration Correct Answer-c. large surface area relative to volume What is one of the 10 standard wildland firefighting order? a. do not attempt to outrun a fire uphill b. base all actions on current and expected fire behavior c. focus on what is not burning, rather than what is burning d. attack the flanks of the fire, not the head Correct Answer-b. base all actions on current and expected fire behavior 10 Wildland Fire Order: 1. keep informed on the fire weather conditions & forecasts 2. know what you fire is doing at all times 3. base all actions on current and expected fire behavior 4. identify escape routes & safety zones and make them known 5. post lookouts when there is possible danger 6. be alert, keep calm, think clearly, act decisively 7. maintain prompt communications with yoru forces, your supervisor & adjoining forces 8. give clear instructions and ensure they are understood 9. maintain control of your forces at all times 10.fight fire aggressively, having provided for safety first Which fuel classification included large brush? a. ground b. heavy c. moderate d. median Correct Answer-b. heavyWhich extinguishing agent is best suited for use in wildland fire operations? a. AFFF b. carbon dioxide c. compressed air foam d. dry chemical Correct Answer-c. compressed air foam What is the area between the fingers of a wildland fire? a. joint b. pocket c. island d. peninsula Correct Answer-b. pocket What is another term for aerial fuels? a. raised b. canopy c. ladder d. elevated Correct Answer-b. canopy What is dry lightning? a. a lightning strike that does not cause a fire b. lightning strike without rain c. lightning that does not contact the ground d. lightning occurring in otherwise fair weather Correct Answer-b. lightning strike without rain Which factor has the greatest effect on the moisture content of fuels? a. temperature b. continuity c. wind d. relative humidity Correct Answer-d. relative humidity Which federal government agency manages wildland incidents occurring on federal lands? a. Occupational Health and Safety Administrationb. US Fire Administration c. US Forest Service f. Federal Emergency Management Agency Correct Answer-c. US Forest Service Which of the following is a component of the wildland fire triangle? a. fuel moisture b. wind c. heat d. humidity Correct Answer-c. heat The maximum diameter of a 1 hour fuel is ____. a. 1 " b. 1/2" c. 1/4" d. 3/4" Correct Answer-c. 1/4" What is the term for the natural and human-made features of land? a. geology b. cartography c. topography d. geography Correct Answer-c. topography What is usually the main type of fuel present in ground cover fires? a. heavy b. fine c. light d. course Correct Answer-b. fine The unburned part of a wildand fire area is the ______. a. clear b. island c. perimeterd. green Correct Answer-d. green What is the term for an area of unburned land surrounded by burned land? a. pocket b. heel c. finger d. island Correct Answer-d. island Fuels that are in contact with each other are described as _____. a. continuous b. uninterrupted c. compact d. unbroken Correct Answer-a. continuous The location near where a wildland fire began is the _______. a. origin b. heel c. launch d. source Correct Answer-b. heel Which component of the fire triangle is in greatest abundance in a wildland fire? a. heat b. fuel c. oxygen d. reducing agent Correct Answer-c. oxygen Aerial fuels are at least ____ above the ground. a. 6ft b. 10ft c. 8ft d. 4ft Correct Answer-a. 6ftIf a wildland or ground cover fire is too dangerous for a direct attack, which type of fire attack should be used? a. pincer b. flanking c. head d. indirect Correct Answer-d. indirect The distance between fire fighters is a safety zone and the flames should be a minimum of ____ times the flame height. a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 2 Correct Answer-b. 4 The smothering method of extinguishment is most frequently used in which wildland operation? a. indirect attack b. direct attack c. overhaul d. cold trailing Correct Answer-c. overhaul Typical backpack pumps contain ______. a. 4 to 8 gal b. 8to 12 gal c. 2 to 4 gal d. 5 to 10 gal Correct Answer-a. 4 to 8 gal What is one of the two primary methods of direct attack on a wildland fire? a. aerial b. backfire c. pincer d. frontal Correct Answer-c. pincerWhich fuel is most susceptible to changes in relative humidity? a. compacted b. grass c. brush d. aerial Correct Answer-b. grass Which type of wildland fire attack is made on the fire's burning edge? a. indirect b. direct c. frontal d. offensive Correct Answer-b. direct What is the ratio of water in air compared to the maximum amount of water vapor that air can hold at a given temperature? a. saturation index b. barometric pressure c. moisture ratio d. relative humidity Correct Answer-d. relative humidity On which basis are wildland fuels classified? a. weight b. moisture content c. diameter d. composition Correct Answer-c. diameter What is one of the three categories of wildland fire causes? a. spontaneous b. conditional c. criminal d. intentional Correct Answer-d. intentional What is the last resort for a fire fighter in danger of being overrun by a wildland fire?a. flee to the safety zone b. deploy a fire shelter c. take shelter in a vehicle cab d. take shelter in a house Correct Answer-b. deploy a fire shelter What is one of the 10 standard wildland firefighting orders? a. avoid downhill fire line construction b. establish & maintain chain of command & span of control c. keep informed on weather conditions and forecasts d. beware of unburned fuel between you and the fire Correct Answer-c. keep informed on weather conditions and forecasts Which type of respiratory protection is normally used in wildland firefighting? a. SCBA b. PAPR c. Filter Mask d. APR Correct Answer-c. Filter Mask What is one of the three categories of wildland fire causes? a. proximal b. electrical c. natural d. mechanical Correct Answer-c. natural Which NFPA standard covers protective clothing and equipment for wildland firefighting? a. 1980 b. 1978 c. 1977 d. 1979 Correct Answer-c. 1977 The NFPA defines wildland fires as unplanned and uncontrolled fire burning in _____ fuel. a. naturalb. living c. vegetative d. organic Correct Answer-c. vegetative What is the term for the partly organic material on a forest floor? a. ground duff b. understory c. litter d. surface compost Correct Answer-a. ground duff The quantity of wildland fuel available in specific area is fuel _______. a. volume b. loading c. density d. continuity Correct Answer-a. volume Ground cover is an example of a(n) ______ fuel. a. understory b. compact c. surface d. live Correct Answer-c. surface Which of the following is an example of a fine fuel? a. grass b. branch c. root d. stick Correct Answer-a. grass In which type of fuel will a fire spread the most rapidly? a. brush b. slash c. fined. compacted Correct Answer-c. fine According to the NFPA, rehab should be required after ____ minutes of intense work without SCBA. a. 20 b. 30 c. 40 d. 60 Correct Answer-c. 40 How should company members check into the rehab center? a. on an as needed basis b. all members together c. individually d. in assigned pairs Correct Answer-b. all members together What is the primary goal of rehabilitation? a. replacement of SCBA cylinders b. minimizing exposure to critical incident stress c. restoring normal body temperature d. reinforcing team integrity Correct Answer-c. restoring normal body temperature PPE has the greatest effect on which body function? a. temperature regulation b. respiration c. perfusion d. cellular metabolism Correct Answer-a. temperature regulation How does wearing PPE affect the body's ability to regulate temperature? a. heat in efficiently conducted from the skin to the shell b. cool SCBA cylinder air improves respiratory cooling c. the perspiration-soaked inner liner enhances cooling by convection d. PPE prevents evaporative cooling Correct Answer-d. PPE prevents evaporative coolingAt 5% of dehydration, work capacity can be decreased by as much as ______. a. 30% b. 20% c. 10% d. 5% Correct Answer-a. 30% Which of the following is a form of active cooling? a. removal of PPE b. rest in a shady area c. rest in an air-conditioned environment d. application of wet, cool towels Correct Answer-d. application of wet, cool towels Which of the following is a form of passive cooling? a. immersion in cool water b. use of misting fans c. application of wet towels d. rest in an air-conditioned environment Correct Answer-d. rest in an air-conditioned environment Once a fire fighter loses an initial 2 quarts of water of internal fluid, how long will rehydration take? a. 5 to 15 minutes b. 15 to 30 minutes c. 30 to 60 minutes d. 1 to 2 hours Correct Answer-d. 1 to 2 hours The USFA recommends establishing a rehabilitation operation when the heat stress index reaches _______. a. 90 degree F b. 80 degree F c. 95 degree F d. 85 degree F Correct Answer-a. 90 degree F Safety begins with _______.a. taking personal responsibility b. developing good habits c. leadership by example d. realistic training Correct Answer-a. taking personal responsibility Which of the following activities produces the highest level of physiological stress? a. vehicle accident requiring extrication b. working in a fully encapsulated suit c. a medical emergency where the victim is choking d. back to back incidents Correct Answer-b. working in a fully encapsulated suit Which of the following is a component of the seven part rehabilitation model? a. air cylinder replacement b. active/passive warming/cooling c. injury prevention d. check in/check out Correct Answer-b. active/passive warming/cooling What is the most reliable way to stay well hydrated? a. drink early and often b. drink as much as you can during work periods c. drink when you are thirsty d. use urine color as an indicator of hydration Correct Answer-a. drink early and often Protein should account for approximately ____ of calories in a balanced diet? a. 25% b. 40% c. 10% c. 55% Correct Answer-c. 10% Drinks that contain _____ should be avoided for fluid replacement. a. electrolytes b. caffeinec. salt d. sugar Correct Answer-b. caffeine When should a full rehabilitation center be established? a. for any incident occurring in extreme weather b. at all incidents requiring the use of PPE c. at all incidents d. in varies with conditions and the nature of the incident Correct Answer-b. at all incidents requiring the use of PPE How are rehabilitation concerns affected by cold weather? a. recommended fluid intake is reduced b. PPE reduces the likelihood of hypothermia c. drinking hot liquids should be prohibited d. rehab should include access to dry clothing Correct Answer-d. rehab should include access to dry clothing What is the body's primary source of energy? a. electrolytes b. protein c. glucose d. insulin Correct Answer-c. glucose Who plans ahead to make sure there is a fresh or rested crew ready to rotate with a crew that needs rehabilitation? a. the company officer b. the logistics section chief c. the staging officer d. the incident commander Correct Answer-d. the incident commander The amount of rest needed to recover from physical exertion is _______ related to the intensity of the work performed.a. not b. inversely c. somewhat d. directly Correct Answer-d. directly What are electrolytes? a. specialized tissues that conduct nerve impulses b. compounds that provide energy for physical exertion c. salts and other chemicals dissolved in body fluids d. nutrients required for body temperature regulation Correct Answer-c. salts and other chemicals dissolved in body fluids How does PPE prevent evaporate cooling? a. perspiration is absorbed in the layers b. the thermal barrier prevents heat transfer c. the vapor barrier prevents evaporation of sweet d. the liner reflects evaporative heat Correct Answer-c. the vapor barrier prevents evaporation of sweet How does humidity affect the body's temperature-regulating mechanisms? a. high humidity reduces evaporative cooling b. the need for fluid replacement decreases as humidity increases c. low humidity improves convective cooling d. sweating increases as humidity decreases Correct Answer-a. high humidity reduces evaporative cooling Which fire ground situation is most likely to result in bloating? a. gulping water b. use of positive pressure SCBA c. heavy exertion d. stress and anxiety Correct Answer-a. gulping water According to NFPA, rehab should be required after a fire fighter has consumed ____ 30-minute SCBA bottle(s).a. 4 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3 Correct Answer-c. 2 What is the best source of complex carbohydrates? a. whole grain bread b. red meat c. fish d. vegetables Correct Answer-a. whole grain bread What is the effect of rest on physical endurance? a. rest improves endurance b. there is no significant effect c. rest decreases endurance d. the effect varies with the type of exertion Correct Answer-a. rest improves endurance In which type of incident is the rehab center located farthest from the operational area? a. confined space b. wildland c. high-rise d. hazardous materials Correct Answer-d. hazardous materials When does the rest phase begin during the rehabilitation process? a. after body temperature has been restored b. after rehydration and calorie replacement c. upon arrival at the rehabilitation center d. after the initial medical evaluation Correct Answer-c. upon arrival at the rehabilitation center Which of the following is a component of the seven part rehabilitation model? a. debriefing b. rotationc. stress management d. medical monitoring Correct Answer-d. medical monitoring What should fire fighters do with their PPE in rehabilitation? a. keep it on in cold or wet weather b. remove helmets, hoods and gloves c. keep it on d. remove it Correct Answer-d. remove it The body's ability to absorb fluid is limited to approximately ____ per hour. a. 1 pint b. 1 gallon c. 1 quart d. 1 ounce Correct Answer-c. 1 quart What is the most common source of saturated fats? a. fish b. animal products c. deaf-leaf vegetables c. cereal grains Correct Answer-b. animal products At which type of incidents should a rehabilitation center be established? a. incidents requiring the use of full PPE b. all fire incidents c. high intensity / long duration incidents d. all incidents Correct Answer-c. high intensity / long duration incidents The USFA recommends establishing a rehabilitation operation when the chill factor drops to ___ or lower. a. 10 degrees F b. 20 degrees F c. 15 degrees F d. 25 degrees F Correct Answer-a. 10 degrees FWhat is the standard method for managing the workload for fire fighters working a high-rise fire? a. hoist, rather than carry, tools and equipment b. do not require PPE for personnel working in smoke-proof stairwells c. assign several companies to do the work normally assigned to one company d. enforce a 1:1 work time/rehabilitation time rule Correct Answer-c. assign several companies to do the work normally assigned to one company What is a common sign or symptom of low blood sugar? a. excessive thirst b. feeling weak and shaky c. muscle cramps d. nausea and vomiting Correct Answer-b. feeling weak and shaky Which condition is defined as an internal body temperature less than 95 degree F? a. frost bite b. cold stroke c. exposure d. hypothermia Correct Answer-d. hypothermia A PPE ensemble weighs at least ______. a. 25 lb b. 60 lb c. 75 lb d. 40 lb Correct Answer-d. 40 lb How should fire fighters be released from rehabilitation? a. individuals should be released as they complete the rehab process b. all member of a company should be released together c. personnel should be released on an as needed basis d. personnel should check out in the same order that they checked in Correct Answer-b. all member of a company should be released togetherA fire fighter can lose up to ___ in an hour of strenuous exertion. a. 1.5 quarts b. 1 quart c. .5 quart d. 2 quarts Correct Answer-d. 2 quarts Localized tissue damage resulting from prolonged exposure to cold is called _______. a. hypothermia b. frostbite c. frostnip d. coldsnap Correct Answer-b. frostbite What is the main component in tissue growth and repair? a. unsaturated fats b. lipids c. protein d. carbohydrates Correct Answer-c. protein Which statement about rehabilitation is correct? a. a rehab center should be established at every incident b. rehab should be limited to high intensity or long-duration incidents c. rehab should be a consideration on every incident d. the need for rehab should be determined by line personnel Correct Answer-c. rehab should be a consideration on every incident Hypothermia is defined as body temperature less than ____. a. 91 degrees F b. 95 degrees F c. 93 degrees F d. 89 degrees F Correct Answer-b. 95 degrees FThe danger category of the heat stress index is determined by the _____. a. relative humidity b. duration of exposure c. apparent temperature d. air temperature Correct Answer-c. apparent temperature As fatigue increases, the risk of injury ______. a. stays the same b. becomes unavoidable c. increases d. decreases Correct Answer-c. increases At which type of incidents is rehabilitation a concern? a. all fire incidents b. all incidents c. incidents requiring the use of full PPE d. high intensity / long duration incidents Correct Answer-b. all incidents What is the ideal location for the rehabilitation center at a high-rise fire? a. in the lobby of the fire building b. outside but nearby the fire building c. in a safe location on the fire floor d. 2 or 3 floors below the fire Correct Answer-d. 2 or 3 floors below the fire Fire fighters wearing fully encapsulated suits are particularly susceptible to ______. a. heat stress b. mechanical injury c. respiratory injury d. cardiac arrhythmia Correct Answer-a. heat stress What is the most serious consequence of untreated dehydration? a. syncopeb. death c. heat exhaustion d. heat stroke Correct Answer-b. death According to NFPA, the minimum rest time during rehabilitation is ____ minutes. a. 20 b. 5 c. 10 d. 15 Correct Answer-a. 20 Upon release from rehabilitation, fire fighters should _____. a. be medically evaluated b. report for reassignment c. be released from the scene d. return to their previous assignment Correct Answer-b. report for reassignment Which fuel is used most readily by the body during high intensity physical activities? a. carbohydrates b. starch c. amino acids d. saturated fats Correct Answer-a. carbohydrates What is the common sign or symptom of high blood glucose? a. nausea/vomiting b. syncope c. sluggish feeling d. profuse sweating Correct Answer-c. sluggish feeling How are rehabilitation concerns affected by high humidity? a. the likelihood of hypothermia increases with humidity b. time spent is rehab can be reduced c. rehab time must doubled. plain water only Correct Answer-d. plain water only During short duration incidents, which type of nourishment is ideal for fire fighters to sustain peak performance levels? a. caffeinated soda b. low sugar, high protein sports bars c. equal portions of protein, carbohydrate, and fat d. plan water only Correct Answer-b. low sugar, high protein sports bars Nutrition during extended-duration incidents should emphasize ______. a. complete, balanced meals b. fluid and electrolyte replacement c. carbohydrate loading d. high protein, high fat foods Correct Answer-a. complete, balanced meals In the time it takes to consume two SCBA air cylinders, enough body fluid can be lost to result in ______. a. heat exhaustion b. impaired temperature regulation c. syncope d. heat stroke Correct Answer-d. heat stroke Fats should account for approximately ____ of calories in a balanced diet. a. 40 to 50 percent b. 10 to 15 percent c. 55 to 65 percent d. 25 to 30 percent Correct Answer-d. 25 to 30 percent What does the SAID (specific adaptation to imposed demands) principle apply to? a. training methods b. tactics and strategy c. critical incident stress d. rehabilitation Correct Answer-a. training methodsCarbohydrates should account for approximately ____ of calories in a balanced diet. a. 30% b. 45% c. 60% d. 75% Correct Answer-c. 60% A fire fighter's first priority should be to take care of ______. a. himself or herself b. people affected by the incident c. the general public d. the members of his or her company Correct Answer-a. himself or herself Which kind of steel has been specially treated to resist cutting by normal means? a. case hardening b. alloy c. ductile d. tempered Correct Answer-a. case hardening What must be done prior to making forcible entry into a fire building? a. utilities must be controlled b. an "all clear" must be declared c. the fire attack team must be ready d. ventilation must be established Correct Answer-c. the fire attack team must be ready Before beginning any forcible entry, which reminder phrase should fire fighters keep in mind? a. without a hose, the fire grows b. get low before you go c. doors are replaceable; lives are not d. try before you pry Correct Answer-d. try before you pry Which tool is part of the "irons"?a. pick head axe b. mallet c. flat-head axe d. pry bar Correct Answer-c. flat-head axe Where are the hinges placed on a casement window? a. side b. middle c. top d. bottom Correct Answer-a. side Ideally, when forcible entry is used, what should fire fighters do before leaving the scene? a. make the occupant aware of the unsecured openings b. bring the matter to the attention of the LE personnel c. take steps to secure the building d. photograph and document the damage Correct Answer-c. take steps to secure the building Which tool combines an axe, a pick, and a claw? a. halligan bar b. pick-head axe c. ram bar d. clemens Correct Answer-a. halligan bar Which type of glass is normally used in automobile side and rear windows? a. annealed b. laminated c. polycarbonated d. tempered Correct Answer-d. tempered Where should a fire fighter stand when breaking windows? a. windward side of the window with the hands above the break b. leeward side of the window with the hands below the breakc. leeward side of the window with the hands about the break d. windward side of the window with the hands below the break Correct Answer-a. windward side of the window with the hands above the break What should be done after a self-closing door is forced? a. return the door to the closed position b. allow the mechanism to resume its normal operation c. cut the actuation cable d. chock the door in the open position Correct Answer-d. chock the door in the open position How much damage is caused by forcing the locks on double-hung windows? a. moderate b. none c. minor d. extensive Correct Answer-d. extensive Which action should fire fighters perform first before forcing a door? a. gap the door b. look for a glass panel in or adjacent to the door c. sound the surrounding wall d. check for the presence of a dead bolt Correct Answer-b. look for a glass panel in or adjacent to the door How are jalousie windows normally opened and closed? a. pulling the chain attached to the drum b. sliding the sash within the frame c. turning a small hand-crank d. using a remote operated electric motor Correct Answer-c. turning a small hand-crank Which type of glass is used in most sliding doors? a. tempered b. laminated c. annealedd. polycarbonate Correct Answer-a. tempered Which of the following is a type of door frame? a. jointed b. stiled c. stopped d. dadoed Correct Answer-c. stopped For forcible entry, who usually determines the point of entry and method to be used? a. fire fighter b. chief officer c. company officer d. incident commander Correct Answer-c. company officer Which type of tool is a pick-head axe? a. combination b. cutting c. prying d. striking Correct Answer-b. cutting Which type of cutting blade can be damaged by gasoline vapors? a. carbide tip b. plastic c. wood d. metal Correct Answer-d. metal Which statement about outward-opening doors is correct? a. these doors can be identified by their exposed stiles b. the hinges of these doors are not accessible c. these doors are designed to facilitate exit d. these doors are typically found on residential structures Correct Answer-c. these doors are designed to facilitate exitForcible entry tools are classified by type. What is one of those classifications? a. striking b. rotary c. nondestructive d. lever Correct Answer-a. striking What is the minimum acceptable level of protective equipment when conducting forcible entry during fire suppression operations? a. helmet, coat and gloves b. helmet and eye protection c. gloves and eye protection d. full structural firefighting PPE Correct Answer-d. full structural firefighting PPE A K tool is used in combination with _______. a. vise grips b. a strap wrench c. a pick head axe d. a pry bar Correct Answer-d. a pry bar Which of the following is one of the four major categories of door locks? a. cylindrical b. tumbler c. dead bold d. recessed Correct Answer-a. cylindrical Breaching of which type of wall is most likely to result in structural collapse? a. sleeper b. bearing c. partition d. exterior Correct Answer-b. bearingWhat is one of the three types of wooden swinging doors? a. tambour b. panel c. gibb d. stopped Correct Answer-b. panel Which type of door is typically used for entrance doors? a. solid core b. panel c. hollow core d. ledge Correct Answer-a. solid core Which hazard should be of particular concern to fire fighters who are carrying long tools? a. self-closing doors b. tight turns in corridor c. overhead wires d. windows Correct Answer-c. overhead wires Tempered glass is about ______ as strong as regular glass. a. four times b. half c. twice d. equally Correct Answer-a. four times Which type of glass is normally used in automobile windshields? a. annealed b. laminated c. tempered d. reinforced Correct Answer-b. laminated Which part of a door lock catches and holds the door frame? a. strikerb. shackle c. latch d. mortise Correct Answer-c. latch What is the term for a small opening in which a prying tool can be inserted? a. purchase b. anchor c. maw d. bite Correct Answer-d. bite Which tool is designed for both cutting and prying? a. pry axe b. halligan c. ram bar d. bam bam Correct Answer-a. pry axe What is the one of the two styles of wooden door frames? a. rabbet b. ledge c. barn d. finger joint Correct Answer-a. rabbet Which type of window is made of overlapping sections of tempered glass in a metal frame? a. jointed b. jalousie c. projected d. casement Correct Answer-b. jalousie What is the term for the transparent part of a window? a. glass b. glazing c. lightd. lens Correct Answer-b. glazing Which type of tool is used to apply an impact force directly on another tool or object? a. lever b. striking c. impact d. swinging Correct Answer-b. striking What is the U-shaped part of a padlock that locks into the padlock body? a. bow b. latch c. tongue d. shackle Correct Answer-d. shackle Which circular saw blade is susceptible to damage from gasoline vapors? a. all blades b. wood c. polycarbonate d. masonry Correct Answer-d. masonry A chisel is classified as a ______ tool. a. pushing/pulling b. prying/spreading c. cutting d. striking Correct Answer-d. striking What is an approved treatment to prevent rusting of bare metal tool surfaces? a. paint b. a light film of oil c. cosmoline d. a nonflammable rust inhibitor Correct Answer-b. a light film of oilA specialized tool for tightening or loosening hose couplings is the ______ wrench. a. spanner b. ring c. strap d. hose Correct Answer-a. spanner Which of the following is a common type of handsaw? a. chop b. coping c. lanier d. band Correct Answer-b. coping What is a common use for a wooden wedge during overhaul? a. stopping the flow of water from a sprinkler head b. plugging a gas leak c. pulling a meter d. shoring unstable objects Correct Answer-a. stopping the flow of water from a sprinkler head When should fire fighters begin to think about which tools they might need for a given call? a. during the response b. after size up c. at the beginning of the shift d. upon arrival at the scene Correct Answer-a. during the response The use of a fan to blow clean air into a structure and force fire gases out is known as ______ ventilation. a. positive pressure b. mechanical c. ejection d. horizontal Correct Answer-a. positive pressure Which tool has two retractable blades? a. ceiling hookb. plaster hook c. a tool d. shove knife Correct Answer-b. plaster hook Which statement about painting hand tools is correct? a. paint will evolve flammable vapors in a fire environment b. rust-inhibiting paint should be applied to the nonworking surfaces of metal tools c. paint will extend the life of wood handles d. the use of paint on tools can hide defects or damage Correct Answer-d. the use of paint on tools can hide defects or damage Which saw is designed for cutting curves into wood? a. coping b. fret c. hacksaw d. carpenter's handsaw Correct Answer-a. coping Rotating tools are used to assemble parts that are connected by which means? a. threaded fasteners b. welds c. nails d. rivets Correct Answer-a. threaded fasteners Which tool is most commonly used for debris removal? a. hux b. pike pole c. shovel d. pulaski Correct Answer-c. shovel Which statement about the use of existing roof openings for vertical ventilation is correct? a. no additional openings should be cut in a roof that has preexisting openings b. existing roof openings are generally impractical to force openc. existing roof openings are generally too small to be useful d. existing roof openings should be used whenever possible Correct Answer-d. existing roof openings should be used whenever possible Which tool is part of the basic set of interior fire fighting tools? a. rotating tool b. lever c. fulcrum tool d. prying tool Correct Answer-d. prying tool A Roberts head is a type of _______. a. cylinder head b. axe head c. screwdriver d. maul Correct Answer-c. screwdriver For which application would the use of a pick-head axe be incorrect? a. puncturing a door b. prying up boards c. ventilating a roof d. striking another tool Correct Answer-d. striking another tool Which wrench has a closed end and is used to tighten nuts and bolts? a. adjustable b. spanner c. box-end d. pipe Correct Answer-c. box-end Which tool is a hand powered hydraulic spreader tool? a. spanner b. rabbet c. pivotd. kelly Correct Answer-b. rabbet Which mechanical device is needed to accomplish negative pressure ventilation? a. draft curtain b. fog stream c. chainsaw d. fan Correct Answer-d. fan Which phase of a fire ground operation involves the observation and evaluation of factors used to determine the strategy and tactics to be employed? a. evaluation b. initial assessment c. investigation d. size-up Correct Answer-d. size-up Which tool is designed to pull a lock cylinder out of a door? a. rabbet tool b. K tool c. lock cutter d. hux bar Correct Answer-b. K tool What is required to perform vertical ventilation? a. a positive pressure fan b. a smoke ejector c. an opening in the top of the building d. a roof ladder Correct Answer-c. an opening in the top of the building Which tool is classified as a rotating tool? a. halligan b. pike pole c. screwdriver d. pry bar Correct Answer-c. screwdriverWhat is the rabbet tool used for? a. making a temporary repair to a burst hose b. forcing open a locked door c. anchoring a rope d. opening a hydrant Correct Answer-b. forcing open a locked door What is the easiest, quickest way to ventilate interior spaces in a building? a. use natural ventilation through windows b. use the building HVAC system c. create a vertical opening d. open interior doors Correct Answer-d. open interior doors Which statement best describes the process of overhaul? a. overhaul ensures that all remaining fire is discovered and extinguished after the main fire has been knocked down b. overhaul includes demobilization and the release of resources from the scene c. actions are taken to protect property from preventable smoke, fire, and water damage d. overhaul focuses on preservation of evidence, investigation, and determination of fire cause and origin Correct Answer-a. overhaul ensures that all remaining fire is discovered and extinguished after the main fire has been knocked down For an extinguishing agent to be rated for a particular class of fire, it must ______. a. be effective in portable volumes b. prevent rekindling c. be nontoxic d. be noncorrosive Correct Answer-b. prevent rekindling The use of Halon 1211 is strictly controlled because it is _____. a. harmful to the environment b. carcinogenic c. mutagenicd. a chemical asphyxiant Correct Answer-a. harmful to the environment Which feature of some carbon dioxide extinguishers makes them dangerous for use on Class C fires? a. steel cylinder b. metal horn c. loaded stream d. external cartridge Correct Answer-b. metal horn A class K agent's effect on the fuel is known as _______. a. dissolution b. emulsification c. hydrolyzation d. saponification Correct Answer-d. saponification Which of the following is commonly used as a dry chemical extinguishing agent? a. carbon tetrachloride b. potassium hydrate c. ammonium phosphate d. calcium bicarbonate Correct Answer-c. ammonium phosphate Which statement best summarizes when a dry chemical extinguisher should be serviced and recharged? a. after a discharge resulting in loss of 30 percent or pressurization b. after a discharge resulting in loss of 10 percent of pressurization c. after any discharge d. after a discharge resulting in loss of 20 percent of pressurization Correct Answer-c. after any discharge Bromochlorodifluoromenthane is a ______ agent. a. class D b. multipurpose dry chemical c. halogenated d. wet chemical Correct Answer-c. halogenatedWhat is one disadvantage of CO2 extinguishers? a. corrosive residue b. cost c. electrical conductivity d. short discharge range Correct Answer-d. short discharge range All portable fire extinguishers use which means for expelling their contents? a. volume b. gravity c. pressure d. vacuum Correct Answer-c. pressure Which class of fire involves energized electrical equipment? a. C b. B c. D d. A Correct Answer-a. C How do multipurpose dry chemical agents prevent rekindling of Class A fuel? a. by attracting and holding moisture b. by forming a crust over the fuel c. by penetrating the fuel d. by interrupting the chemical chain reaction Correct Answer-b. by forming a crust over the fuel Which compound is added to a water extinguisher to improve penetration of fuel? a. alcohol b. alkai metal salt c. a wetting agent d. bicarbonate Correct Answer-c. a wetting agent What does it mean when a fire extinguisher has a pictograph with a red slash through it? a. use on that class of fire would be ineffectiveb. the fire extinguisher is rated for use on that class of fire c. the fire extinguisher has not been tested for use on that class of fire d. use on that class of fire could be hazardous Correct Answer-d. use on that class of fire could be hazardous What is the term for the substance that puts out the fire? a. propellant b. extinguishing agent c. live load d. dry charge Correct Answer-b. extinguishing agent Which agent is approved for use in a Class K system? a. carbon dioxide b. aqueous film-forming foam c. dry chemical d. wet chemical Correct Answer-d. wet chemical A loaded stream extinguisher is designed to ______. a. improve fuel penetration b. resist freezing c. prevent unnecessary water damage d. create a foam blanket Correct Answer-b. resist freezing A portable fire extinguisher is best suited for which situation? a. room and contents fire b. vegetation fire c. car fire d. fire in a wastebasket Correct Answer-d. fire in a wastebasket If a private residence has a single fire extinguisher, where should it be located? a. near the bedrooms b. laundry areac. kitchen d. garage Correct Answer-c. kitchen A class B foam extinguisher is NOT rated for which fuel? a. cooking oil b. paint thinner c. diesel fuel d. gasoline Correct Answer-a. cooking oil All fire extinguishers are classified according to ______. a. the classes of fire on which they are effective b. their relative extinguishing power c. the net weight of their contents d. the type of extinguishing agent used Correct Answer-a. the classes of fire on which they are effective What is a correct use for a portable fire extinguisher? a. diluting flammable liquids b. pretreating exposures c. overhaul d. situations in which the use of water is not recommended Correct Answer-d. situations in which the use of water is not recommended Which hazard category includes automotive service or repair facilities? a. moderate b. extra c. severe d. ordinary Correct Answer-b. extra For the purpose of fire extinguisher placement, what is the relationship between occupancy use category and hazard classification? a. hazard determines occupancy b. occupancy determines hazardc. they are different terms for the same thing d. they are not necessarily related Correct Answer-d. they are not necessarily related Which class of fire includes cloth? a. B b. C c. A d. D Correct Answer-c. A Combustion begins when a fuel is heated to its _____. a. lower flammable limit b. fire point c. flash point d. ignition point Correct Answer-d. ignition point What expels the extinguisher agent from a pump tank water extinguisher? a. gravity b. pressure cartridge c. compressed air d. manual effort Correct Answer-d. manual effort Dry chemical extinguishers may be used on Class C fires because they _______. a. are noncorrosive b. do not conduct electricity c. leave no residue d. are chemically similar to water Correct Answer-b. do not conduct electricity What is a primary factor when determining hazard classifications for extinguisher selection and placement? a. permissible occupancy load b. do not conduct electricity c. presence of sprinkler systemd. amount of combustibles present Correct Answer-d. amount of combustibles present A class A fire extinguisher with a numerical rating of 2 contains _____ gallons of water. a. 2.2 b. 1.5 c. 1.0 d. 2.5 Correct Answer-d. 2.5 What residue does a CO2 fire extinguisher leave when discharged? a. iron oxide b. none c. carbon d. mineral salt Correct Answer-b. none Which extinguishing method is being used when a foam blanket is placed over the surface of a burning liquid? a. diluting the fuel b. inhibiting the chemical chain reaction c. cooling the fuel d. cutting off the oxygen supply Correct Answer-d. cutting off the oxygen supply Which class of fire is depicted in the pictograph system by a flame and gasoline can. a. C b. A c. B d. D Correct Answer-c. B Which class of fire is depicted in the pictograph system by a fire in a frying pan? a. C b. B c. K d. D Correct Answer-c. KWhich class of fire is depicted in the pictograph system by a flame and electrical plug and socket? a. C b. D c. K d. B Correct Answer-a. C Which extinguishing agent is suitable for use on a Class C fire? a. aqueous film-forming foam (AFF) b. carbon tetrachloride c. dry powder d. carbon dioxide Correct Answer-d. carbon dioxide What is the primary extinguishing mechanism of dry chemical agents? a. forming a crust over the fuel b. interrupting the chemical chain reaction c. displacing oxygen d. suppressing vapor production Correct Answer-b. interrupting the chemical chain reaction Which fire extinguishing agent is best for use on sensitive electronic equipment? a. aqueous film-forming foam (AFFF) b. loaded stream c. ammonium phosphate d. carbon dioxide Correct Answer-d. carbon dioxide For the purpose of extinguisher selection and placement, what is an example of a light hazard environment? a. restaurant kitchen b. parking garage c. classroom d. self-storage building Correct Answer-c. classroomFor an extinguishing agent to be approved for use on energized electrical equipment, it must ______. a. form a vapor barrier b. leave no residue c. be safe of ruse in a closed room d. be electrically non-conductive Correct Answer-d. be electrically non-conductive According to NFPA 10, the maximum floor area that can be protected by each extinguisher depends on the _____. a. occupancy load b. construction class c. occupancy type d. presence of a built-in suppression system Correct Answer-c. occupancy type Which of the following is one of the three basic components required for fire? a. carbon b. oxygen c. an ignition source d. a catalyst Correct Answer-b. oxygen Which statement about foam fire extinguishers is correct? a. both class A and class B extinguishers may be used to some effect on either class of fire b. neither class A nor class B extinguishers can be used to any effect on the other class of fire c. class A foam extinguishers may be used to some effect on Class B fires d. class B foam extinguishers may be used to some effect on class A fires Correct Answer-d. class B foam extinguishers may be used to some effect on class A fires What is the best way to extinguish a class C fire? a. withdraw to a safe distance and let the fire burn itself out b. shut off the power and treat it as a class A or B fire c. use a class C extinguisher d. shut off the fuel flow at a valve Correct Answer-b. shut off the power and treat it as a class A or B fireA class C agent must _______. a. be safe for use in an enclosed area b. be compatible with foam c. resist freezing d. not conduct electricity Correct Answer-d. not conduct electricity What is the most commonly used extinguishing agent for Class A fires? a. water b. ammonium phosphate c. dry chemical d. potassium bircarbonate Correct Answer-a. water The weight of carbon dioxide is about _____ the weight of air. a. twice b. half of c. equal to d. one-and -a-half times Correct Answer-d. one-and -a-half times For an area to qualify for the classification of "light hazard", most of the combustibles present must be _______. a. arranged so that a fire is unlikely to spread b. extinguishable by a portable fire extinguisher c. Class A only d. no more than moderately combustible Correct Answer-a. arranged s that a fire is unlikely to spread Which class of fire involves combustible metals? a. A b. D c. B d. K Correct Answer-b. D Which motion best accomplishes the removal of the pin and tamper seal from a portable fire extinguisher?a. push, then pull b. side to side motion c. twisting motion d. a strong pull directly outward Correct Answer-c. twisting motion What is used to pressurize a stored-pressure water extinguisher? a. water b. nitrogen c. compressed air d. carbon dioxide Correct Answer-c. compressed air The "P" in the acronym PASS, used in reference to fire extinguisher operation, stands for _______. a. point b. pause c. pull d. pick Correct Answer-c. pull To qualify as a light hazard for the purpose of extinguisher selection and placement, the majority of materials in the area must ________. a. be fire resistive b. be class A or C combustibles c. have a flash point exceeding 150 degrees F d. be noncombustible Correct Answer-d. be noncombustible The hydrostatic test interval for a dry chemical extinguisher with a stainless steel shell is every _____ years. a. 12 b. 10 c. 3 d. 5 Correct Answer-d. 5 Which statement about the numerical rating of a class K extinguisher is correct?a. the numerical rating indicates the relative extinguishing power of the agent b. a numerical rating is required for commercial hood systems c. there is no numerical rating for a class K extinguisher d. the numerical rating indicates the relative duration of the agent Correct Answer-c. there is no numerical rating for a class K extinguisher In general, the maximum reach of a CO2 extinguisher is ____ feet. a. 16 b. 8 c. 4 d. 32 Correct Answer-b. 8 What is the term for a water-soluble flammable liquid? a. miscible liquid b. hypergolic fuel c. solute d. polar solvent Correct Answer-d. polar solvent A class C extinguisher is rated for use on ______. a. radioactive materials involved in flame b. flammable chemical c. energized electrical equipment d. wood, paper, or cloth Correct Answer-c. energized electrical equipment What does a rating of 40 on a class B extinguisher mean? a. sufficient extinguisher power for 40 square feet of burning fuel b. BTU absorption comparable to 40 gallons of water c. discharge duration of at least 40 seconds d. sufficient extinguishing power for 40 gallons of burning fuel Correct Answer-a. sufficient extinguisher power for 40 square feet of burning fuel The traditional symbol for a class D fire extinguisher is a(n) _______.a. orange circle b. green triangle c. blue square d. yellow star Correct Answer-d. yellow star Which class of fire extinguisher includes a number in its classification? a. C b. D c. A d. K Correct Answer-c. A A fire extinguisher's agent is stored within its _____. a. cylinder b. tank c. chamber d. horn Correct Answer-a. cylinder Which statement about dry chemical agents is correct? a. dry chemical agents are not subject to freezing b. dry chemical agents are noncorrosive c. all dry chemical agents have a multipurpose rating d. dry chemical agents are compatible with all types of foam Correct Answer-a. dry chemical agents are not subject to freezing Requirements for placing and mounting portable fire extinguishers are found in NFPA _____. a. 470 b. 1201 c. 10 d. 170 Correct Answer-c. 10 Which statement is correct regarding class D extinguishing agents? a. application methods are similar regardless of the agent and fuel involvedb. some agents are also rated for other classes of fire c. the specific agent must be matched to the specific fuel d. most agents are effective on several class D fuels Correct Answer-c. the specific agent must be matched to the specific fuel What is an advantage of portable fire extinguishers over hose lines? a. longer duration b. faster deployment c. controllable rates of flow d. greater heat absorption Correct Answer-b. faster deployment Class D agents work primarily by ______. a. suppressing vapor production b. inhibiting the chemical chain reaction c. penetrating the fuel d. forming a crust over the fuel Correct Answer-d. forming a crust over the fuel What is the difference between dry powder and dry chemical extinguishing agents? a. "dry powder" and "dry chemical" are both terms for the same class of agents b. a dry powder is compatible with foam; a dry chemical is not c. each is rated for a different class of fire d. a dry powder is harmful to the environment; a dry chemical is not Correct Answer-c. each is rated for a different class of fire A potential problem with application of a multipurpose dry chemical agent to a class K fire is ______. a. spitting and splattering of fuel b. neutralization of other agents applied to the fire c. production of toxic gas d. sudden flare-up of the fire Correct Answer-b. neutralization of other agents applied to the fire Which agent is rated for use on class A fires? a. potassium chlorideb. ammonium phosphate c. sodium bircarbonate d. potassium bircarbonate Correct Answer-b. ammonium phosphate Which class of fire is depicted in the pictograph system by a burning trash can next to a wood fire? a. A b. C c. B d. K Correct Answer-c. A For the purpose of extinguisher selection and placement, light hazard environments usually contain a limited amount of combustibles of which class? a. D b. C c. B d. K Correct Answer-c. B Which class of fire involves combustible cooking oils and fats? a. K b. A c. B d. D Correct Answer-a. K When approaching a fire with an extinguisher in hand, you should always have a(n) ________. a. exit route b. light source c. portable radio d. backup unit Correct Answer-a. exit route For the purpose of extinguisher selection and placement, a woodworking shop is a(n) _______ hazard environment. a. lightb. ordinary c. extra d. moderate Correct Answer-c. extra Which class of fire includes flammable and combustible liquids? a. A b. C c. D d. B Correct Answer-d. B What is the term for protective measures taken to minimize risk of exposure to communicable disease in the presence of blood or body fluids? a. infection control procedures b. universal precautions c. exposure risk reduction measures d. body substance protection Correct Answer-b. universal precautions Which explosive was used in the 1995 bombing of the Alfred E. Murrah Federal Building? a. TNT b. TATP c. Urea nitrate d. ANFO Correct Answer-d. ANFO Which system is used to issue alerts when a terrorist threat poses a significant danger to the US? a. National Terrorism Advisory System b. Color-coded threat level system c. Homeland Security Threat Advisory d. Homeland Security Information Bulletin Correct Answer-a. National Terrorism Advisory System Which agent was used in the 1995 terrorist attack on the Tokyo subway system? a. Anthrax b. Sarinc. ANFO d. Cynide Correct Answer-b. Sarin Which type of team conducts a quick evaluation of an area to identify the number of people involved in an incident? a. Rescue b. Survey c. Reconnaissance d. Search Correct Answer-c. Reconnaissance What is the largest terrorist event in the history of the US? a. the World Trade Center attack in NYC b. the Kobar Towers military housing bombing in Daharan, Saudi Arabia c. the Alfred P. Murrah Building bombing in Oklahoma City d. the bombing of Pan Am flight 103 over Lockerbie, Scotland Correct Answer-a. the World Trade Center attack in NYC A dirty bomb spreads _______ contamination. a. biological b. neutron c. chemical d. radioactive Correct Answer-d. radioactive The food supply is an example of a(n) _____ target. a. infrastructure b. agroterrorism c. ecoterrorism d. cyberterrorism Correct Answer-b. agroterrorism What is the normal state of a nerve agent? a. gas b. powderc. liquid d. it varies with the specific agent Correct Answer-c. liquid Which of the following is a common reaction to low-level radiation exposure? a. skin burns b. tremors c. nausea and vomiting d. nose bleed Correct Answer-c. nausea and vomiting When can the presence of chemical, biological, or radiological agents be ruled out? a. when the area has been cleared by qualified personnel with detection equipment b. when there are no plumes, spills or property damage c. when there is no evidence of suspicious activity d. if persons in the hazard exhibit no signs or symptoms Correct Answer-a. when the area has been cleared by qualified personnel with detection equipment How can pipe bombs be modified to enhance their injurious effect? a. use of PVC piping b. pack them with nails c. time them to explode at dusk d. use a blasting cap detonator Correct Answer-b. pack them with nails Which advisory indicates the most severe risk of terrorist threat? a. elevated b. orange c. red d. imminent Correct Answer-d. imminen [Show More]

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