NRSG 663 PATHOPHYSIOLOGY TEST 1 TO 7 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS (LATEST UPDATED VERSION)

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NRSG 663 PATHOPHYSIOLOGY TEST 1 -7 TEST #1 It is true that a eukaryotic cell: • Is smaller than a prokaryotic cell. • Contains structures called organelles. Correct • Lacks a well-... defined nucleus. • Does not contain histones. The function of a histone found in a eukaryote cell focuses on cellular: • Division Incorrect • Movement • Activities • Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) folding Correct 3.An organelle that is responsible for the metabolism of cellular energy is referred to as a/an:  Golgi complex  Mitochondrion Correct  Endoplasmic reticulum  Nucleolus Mitochondria play a role in cellular metabolism, cellular respiration, and energy production. The Golgi complex is responsible for processing and packaging proteins from the endoplasmic reticulum, where they are synthesized. The nucleolus is a small, dense structure that contains the ribonucleic acid (RNA), DNA, and DNA-binding proteins. 4.Which statement best describes a desmosome?  A desmosome is a barrier to diffusion.  Desmosomes hold cells together by continuous bands. Correct  A desmosome is a communicating tunnel.  Desmosomes function as a zona occludens. The desmosome is a type of cell junction. The other two types include tight junctions and gap junctions. Desmosomes hold cells together by forming a continuous band of epithelial tissue or belt (or button like) points of contact. They are also a source of structural stability. Tight junctions serve as barriers to diffusion and prevent the movement of substances through transport proteins. Gap junctions are clusters of communicating tunnels. 5. Which statement describes the function of a second messenger?  Extracellular ligand that binds with membrane-bound receptors  Intracellular enzyme that once will trigger a cascade of intracellular events Correct  Chemical messenger that opens specific channels in the cell membrane  Chemical messenger that blocks a membrane-bound receptor signal The binding of a ligand to a cell surface receptor triggers the activation of intracellular second messengers. Second messengers activate signal transduction pathways in the cell that can initiate different intracellular events. Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) and calcium (Ca++) are the two major second-messenger pathways. First messengers are the extracellular ligands that bind to cell surface receptors. Binding of first messengers can result in the opening or closing of specific cell membrane channels or the activation of second messengers. 6.Which statement is correct regarding cellular energy?  Glycolysis is the building of sugar molecules.  Oxidative cellular metabolism is a single reaction making adenosine triphosphate (ATP).  Oxidative phosphorylation occurs in the mitochondria. Correct  Anaerobic glycolysis occurs in the presence of oxygen. Oxidative phosphorylation occurs in the mitochondria. This is the mechanism by which the energy produced from carbohydrates, fats, and proteins is transferred to ATP. Glycolysis is a process that breaks down glucose molecules; it produces a net of two ATP molecules. Oxidation is a process during which a pair of electrons are removed and transferred. Oxidative cellular metabolism involves 10 biochemical reactions. Anaerobic glycolysis occurs in the absence of oxygen. Aerobic means in the presence of oxygen. 7.Movement of a solute molecule from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration is called:  Diffusion Correct  Filtration  Osmosis  Hydrostatic pressure Diffusion is the movement of a solute from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration. Osmosis is the movement of water down a concentration gradient from an area of higher water concentration to an area of lower water concentration. Filtration is the movement of water and solute through a membrane because of a greater pushing pressure on one side of the membrane than the other. Hydrostatic pressure is the mechanical force of water pushing against a cell membrane. 8.Which of the following is an example of an energy-releasing process?  Anabolism  Catabolism Correct  Substrate-induced reaction  Second messenger system Catabolism is an energy-releasing process. The energy-using process is anabolism. A substrate is a specific substance that is converted to a product in the reaction. A second messenger is a “pass-it-on signal.” This occurs when a first messenger activates a receptor that then triggers a pass-it-on signal. 9.Which of the following describes the term chemotaxis?  Uses the second messenger system  Cellular signal affecting the cell of origin  Movement of cells along a chemical gradient Correct  Ligands bind with receptors, triggering a second reaction Chemotaxis is cellular movement along a chemical gradient caused by chemical attraction. Autostimulation is when a cell releases a signal that actually affects the cell of origin. A pass-it-on signal is a description for a second messenger system. A second messenger system is a means by which a ligand binds with receptors of a membrane system and then triggers a second system or reaction. 10.Which of the following describes an amphipathic molecule?  Hydrophobic and not Hydrophilic  Hydrophilic and not Hydrophobic  Hydrophobic and Hydrophilic Correct  Nonpolar The amphipathic molecule is both hydrophobic and hydrophilic. A hydrophilic molecule is a charged, water-loving molecule. A hydrophobic molecule is an uncharged or water-hating molecule. A polar molecule is another name for an amphipathic molecule. 11.Which of the following are functions of a protein? (Select all that apply.)  Pores or transport channels Correct  Enzymes that drive pumps Correct  Cell surface markers Correct  Synapses for cells Proteins may act as transport channels, pores, cell surface markers, enzymes that drive pumps, catalysts, and cell adhesion molecules (CAMs), or they may act as the key components of ATP synthesis. Synapses are the connections between two nerve cells. 2. 12.A ___hypotonic_solution has a higher concentration (less dilute) than body solution. TEST# 2 1. 1.Which of the following is the most common cause of cellular injury?  Free radical–induced injury  Chemical injury  Hypoxia Correct  Mechanical factors Hypoxia is the most common cause of cellular injury and can be initiated by decreased oxygen in the environment, decreased hemoglobin, decreased red blood cells, or cardiovascular collapse. A free radical–induced injury, chemical injury, and mechanical factors are other types of cell injury but are not the most common. 2.Which chemical interferes with the excretion of urate while affecting the nervous and hematopoietic systems?  Carbon monoxide  Carbon tetrachloride  Lead Correct  Mercury Lead can interfere with the excretion of urate and thus increase an individual’s predisposition to gout; it affects the hematopoietic and nervous systems. Carbon monoxide is a gas that is an asphyxiate and interrupts respiration. Carbon tetrachloride was formerly used in dry cleaning. It damages the liver as it is converted into a highly toxic free radical. Mercury is a heavy metal and can worsen chronic conditions such as Alzheimer disease and multiple sclerosis. 3. A collection of blood that is located between the skull and the dura is called a/an:  Epidural hematoma Correct  Contusion  Subdural hematoma  Subarachnoid hemorrhage Epidural hematomas are a collection of blood between the inner surface of the skull and the dura. A contusion is a bruise or bleeding into the skin and underlying tissue. A subdural hematoma is a collection of blood between the inner surface of the dura and the surface of the brain. Subarachnoid hemorrhage is a condition in which a cerebral arterial aneurysm ruptures. 4.The possible diagnosis of shaken baby syndrome is supported when an infant brought to the emergency department is found to have which type of cerebral hematoma?  Epidural  Subdural Correct  Subarachnoid  Avulsion A subdural hematoma is associated with blows, falls, or sudden acceleration or deceleration of the head, such as the sudden movements that occur with shaken baby syndrome. Epidural hematomas are the result of a torn artery, often associated with a skull fracture. Subarachnoid hemorrhage is a condition in which a cerebral arterial aneurysm has ruptured. An avulsion is a tear or rip in the skin, resulting when tensile strength of skin or tissue is exceeded. 5.Which term describes a tear or rip of the skin with a jagged and irregular edge?  Abrasion  Incision  Laceration Correct  Incised wound Lacerations occur when the tensile strength of the skin is exceeded, resulting in ragged and irregular abraded edges; an extreme example is avulsion, in which a wide area of tissue is pulled away. An abrasion results from the removal of the superficial layers of the skin caused by friction between the skin and the injuring object. An incision is a precise cut with an instrument that leaves regular clean edges. An incised wound is longer than it is deep and has distinct edges without abrasion. 6. Which term describes oxygen failing to reach the blood?  Suffocation Correct  Strangulation  Drowning  Petechiae Suffocation occurs when oxygen fails to reach the blood. It is a subgroup of asphyxial injuries. Strangulation is caused by compression and closure of the blood vessels and air passages by external pressure on the neck. Drowning occurs when water or fluid alters the delivery of oxygen. Petechiae are found on the neck of a victim who has been strangled. It is the result of compression of soft tissue and the breakage of blood vessels. 7. Heat exhaustion is defined as:  Chilling or freezing of the cells  Cramping of voluntary muscles  Hemoconcentration from salt and water loss Correct  Significantly decreased blood volume Heat exhaustion is defined by a sufficient salt and water loss that results in hemoconcentration. Hypotension occurs secondary to fluid loss and may cause a collapse. The individual may feel weak and nauseated. Chills or freezing cells are associated with hypothermic injury. Heat cramps are cramping of voluntary muscles, usually the result of vigorous exercise. Heat stroke is a life-threatening condition associated with high environmental temperatures and humidity. Generalized peripheral vasodilation and decreased circulating blood volume are significant. 8.Which statement regarding altitude and illness is true?  Caisson disease occurs when descending too quickly while diving.  Pulmonary edema as the result of hypoxia and increased pulmonary hypertension. Correct  Gas emboli are caused by oxygen bubbles.  Altitude sickness occurs from blast injuries. High altitude causes hypoxic injury. This hypoxia causes shunting of blood from the periphery to vital organs including the lungs and results in pulmonary hypertension. Caisson disease is often called the bends and occurs when divers ascend too quickly, resulting in a gas embolism. Gas emboli are formed when carbon dioxide and nitrogen, which are normally dissolved in blood, bubble out of solution. Blast injuries cause significant injury through the collapse of the thorax, the rupture of internal organs, and widespread hemorrhage. 9. Which form of necrosis is associated with tuberculous infections?  Coagulative  Liquefactive  Fat Incorrect  Caseous Correct Caseous necrosis is normally found in the lung from tuberculosis. Tissues appear soft and granular and resemble clumped cheese (hence the name caseous) and are surrounded by a granulomatous inflammatory wall; this pulmonary infection is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. It is a combination of liquefactive and coagulation necrosis. Coagulative necrosis occurs primarily in the kidneys, heart, and adrenal glands and is caused by protein degradation. Liquefactive necrosis commonly occurs in the neurons and glial cells. Fat necrosis occurs in the breast, pancreas, and other abdominal structures. It is cellular dissolution caused by powerful enzymes called lipases. 10. Which statements are true regarding apoptosis? (Select all that apply.)  An active process of cellular self-destruction Correct  A process that deletes cells during embryonic development Correct  Local cell death after severe and sudden injury Incorrect  Nuclear and cytoplasmic shrinkage of a cell Correct Apoptosis is programmed cell death. It is an active process of cellular self-destruction that is implicated in normal embryonic development, as well as in rapidly proliferating cancer cells. Apoptosis affects single cells by causing nuclear and cytoplasmic shrinkage, followed by the fragmentation of the cell membrane. Necrosis is accidental cell death that occurs to local cells after a severe and sudden injury. 11._Metaplasia_ is the term for the reversible replacement of one mature cell by a less mature cell type. The term metaplasia refers to a mature cell type being replaced by another sometimes less mature cell type. 12. A deficiency of lipids in the blood stream is known as __hyperlipidemia__. TEST #3 1. When considering water balance, which statement is the correct balance?  Isotonic fluids cause increased cellular swelling.  Hypertonic fluid causes increased cellular swelling.  Hypotonic fluid causes cellular swelling. Correct  Hypernatremia causes cellular swelling. Hypotonic extracellular fluid (ECF) causes intracellular water gain and swelling. When the ECF is hypotonic, water moves from the intravascular space to the interstitial space, across the cell membrane, and into the cell. This action causes the cell to swell. An isotonic solution is equal to the plasma in concentration of solute molecules. Therefore no net water will move because equilibrium exists. The cell size is unchanged. A hypertonic fluid has excessive solute; therefore water will leave the cell and move into the vascular space to help balance this excess. Water leaving the cell results in cell shrinkage. Hypernatremia can occur with an acute gain in sodium or a loss of water, but generally it does not cause cellular swelling. 2. It is true that hyperchloremia:  Occurs with a deficit of sodium.  Occurs with an excess of bicarbonate.  Has specific symptoms such as thirst.  Requires treatment of the underlying disorder. Correct Hyperchloremia (too much chloride) is usually related to an underlying disorder, and therefore treatment is centered on the underlying disorder. Because chloride usually follows sodium, this condition usually occurs with an increase in sodium and a deficit of bicarbonate. Normally, neither specific symptoms are observed nor treatments are available for chloride excess. 3. It is true that hyponatremia:  Is commonly caused by inadequate sodium intake.  Can occur with a decrease in total body water (TBW).  Never occurs with burns, vomiting, or diarrhea.  Occurs when sodium drops below 135 mEq/L. Correct Hyponatremia occurs when the serum sodium drops below 135 mEq/L. It is the most common electrolyte disorder in individuals who are hospitalized. Although inadequate sodium intake can cause hyponatremia, it is uncommon. It can also occur with an increase in TBW or as a result of burns, vomiting, diarrhea, or gastrointestinal suctioning. 3. Which statement is true regarding potassium balance?  Potassium is the major extracellular electrolyte.  During acidosis, potassium shifts into the cell.  Aldosterone is secreted when potassium is decreased.  Insulin causes the movement of potassium into the cell. Correct Insulin causes movement of potassium into the cell and is one of the treatments for hyperkalemia. Potassium balance is especially significant in the treatment of conditions requiring insulin administration, such as insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (type 1). Potassium is the major intracellular electrolyte and maintains the osmotic balance of the intracellular fluid (ICF) space. During acidosis, potassium is shifted out of the cell in exchange for hydrogen ions. Aldosterone is secreted when potassium is elevated, resulting in the excretion of potassium by the kidneys. 5. Which statement is true regarding hypokalemia?  Hypokalemia occurs when the serum level is below 135 mEq/L.  One cause of hypokalemia is diabetic ketoacidosis. Correct  Dietary causes of hypokalemia are common.  Diuretics do not cause hypokalemia. Hypokalemia is low potassium. Therefore hypokalemia is defined as a serum level less than 3.5 mEq/L. It is often caused by diuretics. Diabetic ketoacidosis does cause hypokalemia. Potassium is shifted out of the cell in exchange for hydrogen and then excreted. The serum level may remain within a normal range, but then when insulin is administered, potassium is shifted back into the cells and a deficit occurs. Potassium balance is especially significant in the treatment of conditions requiring insulin administration, such as insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (type 1). Dietary causes are uncommon. 6. Hypernatremia is defined as levels above:  147 mEq/L Correct  5.5 mEq/L  105 mEq/L  8.5 mg/dl Hypernatremia is defined as serum levels above 147 mEq/L. Hyperkalemia is defined as serum levels above 5.5 mEq/L, and hyperchloremia is defined as serum levels above 105 mEq/L. Hypocalcemia occurs when serum calcium concentrations are less than 8.5 mg/dl. 7. Which statement is true regarding magnesium?  Hypomagnesemia occurs with a concentration less than 2.5 mEq/L.  Magnesium is a major extracellular cation.  Thirty percent is stored in the muscle and bone.  Symptoms of hypomagnesemia include weakness and depression. Correct Symptoms of low magnesium include weakness, tetany, increased reflexes, depression, ataxia, convulsions, and irritability. Magnesium level is normal when between 1.8 and 2.4 mEq/L and is a major intracellular cation. Thirty percent is stored in the cells, with 40% to 60% stored in the bones and muscle. 8. Which statement describes acidemia?  State in which the pH of arterial blood is greater than 7.45  State in which the pH of arterial blood is less than 7.35 Correct  Systemic decrease in hydrogen ion concentration  Systemic excess of base Acidemia is a state in which the pH of arterial blood is less than 7.35. Alkalemia is a state in which the pH of arterial blood is greater than 7.45. A systemic increase in hydrogen ion concentration or loss of base is termed acidosis. A systemic decrease in hydrogen ion concentration or an excess of base is termed alkalosis. 9. Common causes of edema formation (increased filtration of fluid from capillaries and lymph into surrounding tissues) include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)  Decreased hydrostatic pressure  Decreased plasma oncotic pressure Correct  Increased capillary membrane permeability Correct  Lymphatic obstruction Correct  Sodium retention Correct The five common causes of increased edema are: (1) increased hydrostatic pressure, (2) decreased plasma oncotic pressure, (3) increased capillary membrane permeability, (4) lymphatic obstruction, and (5) sodium retention. 10. Which of the following are clinical manifestations of hypokalemia? (Select all that apply.)  Carbohydrate metabolism is affected as a result of decreased insulin secretion. Correct  Renal function is impaired. Correct  Neuromuscular excitability is decreased. Correct  Skeletal muscle is affected with increased contractility. Carbohydrate metabolism is affected by depressing insulin secretion and alters hepatic and skeletal muscle glycogen synthesis. Renal function may be impaired with a decreased ability to concentrate urine, and renal tubular atrophy and fibrosis may occur. Neuromuscular excitability is decreased causing skeletal muscle weakness, smooth muscle atony, and cardiac dysrhythmias. Hypokalemia causes the skeletal muscle to be weak. 11.Which treatments are appropriate for hyperkalemia? (Select all that apply.)  Calcium gluconate Correct  Treating the contributing cause Correct  Administering glucagon  Sodium bicarbonate Correct Calcium gluconate, treating the contributing cause, and sodium bicarbonate are all appropriate treatments. Calcium gluconate can be administered to restore normal neuromuscular irritability when serum potassium levels are dangerously high. Glucose, which readily stimulates insulin secretion, or the administration of glucose and insulin for those with diabetes, facilitates cellular entry of potassium. Sodium bicarbonate corrects metabolic acidosis and lowers serum potassium. Glucagon is administered to treat beta-blocker overdose or hypoglycemia. 12. One third of the body’'s fluid is ___extracellular__. Two thirds of the body’s water is intracellular; one third is extracellular. Two components of the extracellular compartment are interstitial and intravascular. TBW is approximately 60% of body weight. TEST #4 • 1. Which term describes the deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) subunit of one deoxyribose molecule, one phosphate group, and one base? • Polypeptide • Double helix • Nucleotide Correct • Codon A nucleotide consists of one deoxyribose molecule, one phosphate group, and one base. A polypeptide is a chain of proteins. The double helix is the twisted staircase presentation of DNA that was proposed by Watson-Crick. A codon is a triplet of amino acids. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. • 2.Which statement is true regarding termination codons? • Eighty codons are possible. • Three codons signal the end of a gene. Correct • Seventy codons specify amino acids. • Each amino acid has one codon. Three codons signal the end of a gene, and they are called termination or nonsense codons. • 3.Which statement describes the function of DNA polymerase? • Synthesizes ribonucleic acid (RNA) from the DNA template. • Synthesizes a polypeptide. • Performs base pairing in replication. Correct • Splits DNA molecules. The function of DNA polymerase is to assist with base pairing when replicating DNA. This enzyme travels along the single DNA strand, adding the correct nucleotides to the free end of the new strand. It also proofreads. Transcription is the synthesis of RNA from DNA. Translation is the formation of a polypeptide from RNA. • 4.Which statement is true regarding protein synthesis? • Protein synthesis takes place in the cytoplasm. Correct • DNA is replicated in the cytoplasm. • RNA is double stranded. • RNA contains the same bases as DNA. Protein synthesis takes place in the cytoplasm, whereas DNA replication takes place in the nucleus. RNA is single stranded and has uracil, which is structurally similar to thymine. Therefore the bases are slightly different for RNA. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. • 5.Which statement is true regarding base pairs? • Adenine pairs with guanine • Guanine pairs with thymine • Cytosine pairs with adenine • Uracil pairs with adenine Correct Uracil is structurally similar to thymine. Therefore the correct base pairs are adenine with thymine, guanine with cytosine, and uracil with adenine. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. • 6.Which term describes the sequence for the beginning of a gene? • Intron • Exon • Promoter site Correct • Anticodon Transcription of a gene begins when an enzyme called RNA polymerase binds to a promoter site on the DNA. A promoter site is a sequence of DNA that specifies the beginning of a gene. Many of the RNA sequences are removed, and the remaining sequences are spliced together to form the functional messenger RNA (mRNA) that will migrate to the cytoplasm. The excised sequences are called introns, and the sequences that are left to code for proteins are called exons. The anticodon is the sequence of three nucleotides that undergo complementary base pairing in translation. • 7.ID: 793035648 Which statement is true regarding chromosomes? • There are three cell types. • The somatic cells contain 46 chromosomes. Correct • Gametes are diploid cells. • Diploid cells are formed through meiosis. There are two cell types: somatic and gametes. Somatic cells are those that are not gametes (sperm and eggs). They have 46 chromosomes in the nucleus. These are also considered diploid cells. The gametes are haploid cells and have only 23 chromosomes. They are formed from diploid cells through meiosis. • 8.ID: 793035658 Which term describes a cell that does not contain a multiple of 23 chromosomes? • Aneuploid Correct • Monosomy • Trisomy • Tetraploidy The term aneuploid means that the cell does not contain a multiple of 23 chromosomes. Monosomy is the presence of only one copy of a given chromosome in a cell. Trisomy is the presence of three copies of a chromosome. Tetraploidy is a cell that contains 92 chromosomes. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. • 9.ID: 793035660 Which term describes an allele with an observable effect? • Homozygous • Heterozygous • Dominant Correct • Recessive Dominant alleles have effects that are observable. Homozygous is when two alleles at a locus are identical. Heterozygous is when the two alleles at a locus are different. Recessive alleles may be hidden. • 10.ID: 793035662 Which statement is true regarding autosomal dominant gene transmission? • The affected parent transmits the gene to one-half of his or her children. Correct • The affected gene is found in males only. • Generations are skipped for transmission. • Females will transmit the disease more often than males. The affected parent will transmit the trait to (approximately) one-half of his or her children; in each match, a 50% chance exists that either a normal gene or an affected gene will be transmitted to the child. The affected gene is found equally in males and females, both sexes transmit the trait equally, and no skipping of generations occurs. • 11.ID: 793035652 Which statement is true regarding autosomal recessive inheritance? • Parents will always display the trait. • Approximately 50% of children will display the trait. • Males and females are equally affected. Correct • An individual must be heterozygous to display a recessive trait. Males and females are equally affected by autosomal recessive traits. Generally, parents will not display the trait; that is, they are heterozygous themselves, but each will pass the recessive trait to 25% of their children. The child must be homozygous for the trait to express the recessive trait. Term Definition Down syndrome = distinctive facial appearance Turner syndrome =always female Klinefelter syndrome =male appearance but sterile Cri du chat syndrome = characteristic cry TEST#5 • 1.ID: 793038941 What is the definition of incidence rate? • Number of new cases of a disease reported during a specific period, divided by the number of individuals in the population Correct • Proportion of the population affected by a disease at a specific point in time • Effect of a specific risk factor • Variation caused by the multiple effects of genes The number of new cases of a disease reported during a specific period of time (typically 1 year), divided by the number of individuals in the population, is the incidence rate. The proportion of the population affected by a disease at a specific point in time is the prevalence rate. The effect of a specific risk factor is the relative risk. Polygenic genes cause variation. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. • 2.ID: 793038939 Which statement is true regarding the risks of developing a disease? • Empiric risks are based on assumptions. • Recurrence risk is higher if more than one family member is affected. Correct • An individual below the threshold of liability for a disease will have the disease. • The recurrence risk for disease usually increases rapidly in more remotely related relatives. Recurrence risk is higher if more than one family member is affected and usually decreases rapidly in more remotely related relatives. Empiric risks are based on observation. For diseases that have a threshold of liability, an individual usually does not have the disease below the threshold of liability. Awarded 1.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. • 3.ID: 793038917 Which statement describes a monozygotic twin? • Twins who share very few traits • Twins who share all traits Correct • Twins who form from double ovulation • Twins whose rates vary among populations Monozygotic twins divide from one embryo and actually share traits. They are natural clones. Twins from double ovulation are dizygotic and may not share traits. Monozygotic twins have the same rate across populations. Dizygotic or fraternal rates vary among populations. • 4.ID: 793038937 Which statement regarding coronary heart disease is true? • It is the leading killer of Americans. Correct • Atherosclerosis causes widening of the blood vessels. • It is more common in women. • Relative risk does not increase with relatives affected. Coronary heart disease is the leading killer of Americans. Narrowing of blood vessels occurs as a result of atherosclerosis. Men are more commonly affected. Relative risk increases when two or more relatives are affected before the age 55 years. • 5.ID: 793038935 Which statement regarding hypertension is true? • Systemic hypertension is observed in less than 5% of populations. • Environmental factors do not cause hypertension. • One of the most important factors affecting blood pressure is sodium intake. Correct • A 100% correlation exists among family members and blood pressure. Sodium intake, obesity, decreased physical activity, and psychosocial stress are important environmental risk factors for obesity. Systemic hypertension affects approximately 25% to 30% of the population. Only a 20% to 40% correlation exists among family members. • 6.ID: 793038915 Which gene is linked with breast cancer? • BRCA1 Correct • APC • HLA II • IDDM BRCA1 is located on chromosome 17, and BRCA2 is located on chromosome 13. If women inherit these genes, then their lifetime risk of getting breast cancer increases by 50% to 80%. The APC gene is associated with colon cancer. Human leukocyte antigen (HLA) II is associated with diabetes. IDDM stands for insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus. • 7.ID: 793038943 Which statement is true regarding type II diabetes? • Type II diabetes accounts for fewer than 10% of all cases of diabetes. • Pancreatic insulin is not produced. • These individuals experience insulin resistance. Correct • Type II diabetes is less common among obese persons. Type II diabetes is responsible for 90% of all cases of diabetes. Usually people who develop type II diabetes are older than 40 years of age and are obese. They produce insulin and have insulin resistance. • 8.ID: 793038929 Which statement is true regarding Alzheimer disease? • Alzheimer disease affects 40% of the population older than 65 years of age. • Alzheimer disease is characterized by progressive dementia and memory loss. Correct • It has one gene locus. • Antidiuretic hormone is a key factor. Alzheimer disease affects approximately 5% to 10% of the population, age 65 years and older. It is characterized by progressive dementia and memory loss. There are multiple gene loci with three being identified. ADH is aldehyde dehydrogenase, which is responsible for alcohol metabolism. • 9.ID: 793089858 Which of the following are congenital diseases? (Select all that apply.) • Cleft lip Correct • Clubfoot Correct • Hydrocephaly Correct • Obesity Although people are born with factors that may cause obesity, infants are not born with this condition present. All of the other choices are traits that are present at birth. • 10.ID: 793038921 Term Definition Type II diabetes =TCF7L2 Colorectal cancer =APC Early-onset Alzheimer disease =PS1 Prevention of alcoholism ALDH2 TEST#6 1. Which gene is often seen in retinoblastoma?  MLH1  RB1 Correct  BRCA1  BRCA2 Hypermethylation of the promoter region on the RB1 gene is often seen in retinoblastoma. An inherited form of colon cancer is related to methylation of the promoter region of the MLH1 gene. The BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes are observed in some cases of inherited breast cancer. Renal cell carcinoma in some cases is related to the VHL gene. 2. 2.ID: 793021713 5-azacytidine has been used as a therapeutic drug in the treatment of which disease process?  Leukemia Correct  Brain cancer  Benign neoplasm  Type II diabetes 5-azacytidine, a demethylating agent, has been used as a therapeutic drug in the treatment of leukemia and myelodysplastic syndrome. 3. 3.ID: 793021711 Which characteristic supports the diagnosis of Angelman syndrome?  Short stature, hypotonia, obesity  Tall stature, hypertonia, creases on the tongue  Hypertonia, large hands, webbed toes  Severe mental retardation, seizures, ataxia Correct Angelman syndrome is characterized by severe mental retardation, seizures, and ataxia. 4. 4.ID: 793021715 Children with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome are at risk for the development of:  Wilms tumor Correct  Rectal cancer  Diabetes  Pulmonary fibrosis Children with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome are at an increased risk for the development of Wilms tumor or hepatoblastoma. Awarded 1.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 5. 5.ID: 793090100 Noncoding RNAs have been shown to regulate gene expression by which mechanisms? (Select all that apply.)  RNA interference Correct  Gene co-suppression Correct  Imprinting Correct  Gene splicing  Gene silencing Correct Noncoding RNAs have been shown to regulate gene expression by novel mechanisms such as RNA interference, gene co-suppression, gene silencing, imprinting, and DNA demethylation. 6. 6.ID: 793090115 Which features are associated with Prader-Willi syndrome? (Select all that apply.)  Short stature Correct  Small hands and feet Correct  Hypertonia  Hypogonadism Correct  Mild mental retardation Correct The following are features of a person with Prader-Willi syndrome: short stature, hypotonia, small hands and feet, obesity, hypogonadism, and mild-to-moderate retardation. TEST# 7 1. Which of the following is an example of a physical barrier?  Antibacterial fatty acids  Lysozymes in tears  Epithelial cells Correct  Earwax Epithelial cells form tight junctions that are a physical barrier to entry for organisms. 2. Which statement is true regarding the inflammatory response?  Inflammatory response is the third line of defense.  Inflammatory response relies on cellular components only.  Inflammatory response generates a nonspecific response. Correct  Inflammatory response occurs at healthy tissue. The inflammatory response is the second line of defense. It occurs at the site of tissue injury and generates a nonspecific response that involves cellular and chemical components. 3.Which complement factor is considered an anaphylatoxin?  C3a Correct  C1  C7  C9 C3a, C5a, and C4a are anaphylatoxins. They can induce the rapid degranulation of mast cells and the release of histamine. 4.Which receptor is expressed on macrophages and facilitates recognition and phagocytosis of bacterial pathogens?  Complement receptors  Scavenger receptors Correct  Toll-like receptors  Pattern recognition receptors The scavenger receptors are primarily expressed on macrophages and facilitate recognition and phagocytosis of bacterial pathogens. Complement receptors recognize a variety of fragments produced through activation of the complement system. Toll-like receptors are expressed on the surface of cells, including epithelial, mast, neutrophils, macrophages, dendritic cells, and lymphocytes. They recognize pathogen-associated molecular patterns or stressed host cells. Pattern recognition receptors recognize patterns of infectious molecules. These receptors are found on cells involved in innate resistance. 5.Which statement regarding mast cells is true?  Histamine causes vasoconstriction.  Mast cells are found only in blood vessels.  Snake bites, bee venoms, and toxins may cause activation. Correct  Mast cells are not involved in allergic reactions. A number of things cause the activation of mast cells, including physical injury, chemical agents (including toxins, bee venom, and snake bites), immunologic means, and activation of an inflammatory response. Histamine is released from mast cells and causes vasodilation. Mast cells are found in loose connective tissue close to blood vessels. Mast cells are involved in initiating many allergic reactions. 6.Which term describes an acidic sulfur-containing lipid that produces effects similar to histamine?  Leukotriene Correct  Prostaglandin  Adhesion molecule  Phagocyte Leukotrienes act similar to histamine and cause smooth muscle contraction, increased vascular permeability, and chemotaxis. Prostaglandins cause increased vascular permeability, chemotaxis, and pain. Adhesion molecules increase the stickiness between cells. Phagocyte cells ingest and dispose of foreign material. 7.Which statement is true regarding neutrophils?  Neutrophils are agranular.  Neutrophils are the predominant phagocytes of early inflammation. Correct  Neutrophils are the largest blood cells.  Neutrophils enter the site of injury after lymphocytes and macrophages. Neutrophils are the predominant phagocytes of early inflammation. They arrive before lymphocytes and macrophages. Monocytes are the largest blood cells and are granular. 8.What biochemical messenger is produced by macrophages and lymphocytes in response to a bacterial pathogen?  Interleukins Correct  Interferons  Chemokines  Tumor necrosis factor Interleukins are biochemical messengers produced by macrophages and lymphocytes in response to a bacterial pathogen. Interferons primarily protect against viral infections. Chemokines induce leukocyte chemotaxis. Tumor necrosis factor, produced by macrophages and lymphocytes, induces a multitude of proinflammatory effects including the enhancement of endothelial cell adhesion. 9.Chronic inflammation is characterized by a(an):  Lack of giant cells  Absence of exudate  Dense infiltrate of lymphocytes and macrophages Correct  Inflammation that lasts less than 2 weeks Chronic inflammation is characterized by a dense infiltrate of lymphocytes and macrophages. Giant cells are multinucleated cells that are formed by fused macrophages during granuloma formation. Chronic inflammation often results in pus formation, purulent discharge, and incomplete wound healing. Chronic inflammation of any cause lasts longer than 2 weeks. 10.Which of the following are not natural barriers?  Physical  Resistance Correct  Biochemical  Mechanical Incorrect Resistance is a means by which the body may avoid being infected, but it is not a natural barrier. The natural barriers include physical, biochemical, and mechanical, as well as inflammation at the body’s surfaces 11.Which characteristics are observable of vascular injury and inflammation? (Select all that apply.)  Redness Correct  Coolness to the touch Incorrect  Warmth to the touch Correct  Increased swelling Correct  Pain Correct The four characteristics that are observable for inflammation in vascular tissue are redness, heat, swelling, and pain. 12.Which pathways activate the complement system? (Select all that apply.)  Antigen-antibody  Classical Correct  Lectin Correct  Alternative Correct The complement system may be activated by the classical, lectin, and alternative pathways. 13.Which functions of the clotting system are exhibited at the site of injury or inflammation? (Select all that apply.)  Prevents the spread of infection to adjacent tissues. Correct  Traps microorganisms at the site of greatest inflammatory cell activity. Correct  Prevents clot formation at the site of injury.  Provides a framework for future repair and healing. Correct The clotting system exhibits the following functions: (1) prevents the spread of infection to adjacent tissues; (2) traps microorganisms and foreign bodies at the site of inflammation for removal by infiltrating cells such as neutrophils and macrophages; (3) forms a clot that stops bleeding; and (4) provides a framework for future repair and healing. 14.Which of the following are systemic effects of inflammation? (Select all that apply.)  Abscess formation  Fever Correct  Leukocytosis Correct  Increased levels of plasma proteins Correct  Decreased levels of plasma proteins The three primary systemic changes associated with an acute inflammatory response are fever, leukocytosis, and increased levels in circulating plasma proteins. Abscesses are a local manifestation of inflammation and are walled-off lesions filled with purulent exudates. 15.Chemotactic factors are biochemical substances that attract leukocytes to the site of inflammation. Chemotactic factors are biochemical substances that attract leukocytes to the site of inflammation. [Show More]

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