CPH Exam - All Sample Questions & Answers, 100% Accurate. Graded A
Many people do not attempt to decrease unhealthy behaviors such as overeating or smoking because they lack the confidence that they can successfully
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CPH Exam - All Sample Questions & Answers, 100% Accurate. Graded A
Many people do not attempt to decrease unhealthy behaviors such as overeating or smoking because they lack the confidence that they can successfully change. This is an example of:
(A) Perceived susceptibility
(B) Perceived severity
(C) Perceived self-efficacy
(D) Perceived response efficacy - ✔✔C
The construct of normative beliefs is from which model/theory?
(A) Transtheoretical model
(B) Theory of reasoned action/planned behavior
(C) Social cognitive theory
(D) Social ecological model - ✔✔B
Which of the following do social cognitive theory and the social ecological model have in common?
(A) Both take into consideration factors that are within the individual and factors that operate outside the individual.
(B) Both focus primarily on environmental determinants of behavior that must be addressed at the policy level.
(C) Both come out of the value expectancy paradigm that associates behaviors with valued outcomes.
(D) Both originally were developed exclusively to explain unhealthy versus healthy behaviors. - ✔✔A
A population of rural women experiences a high rate of mortality related to breast cancer. Researchers at a local university implement a breast cancer screening intervention. This intervention is an example of:
(A) Tertiary prevention
(B) Advocacy
(C) Secondary prevention
(D) Primary prevention - ✔✔C
All intervention messages (printed, computer-delivered, or Internet-based) must:
(A) Start with the most important information first
(B) Include graphics, pictures, and the like to attract people's attention
(C) Be written at a reading level suitable to the target population
(D) Be no longer than four sentences so that the reader does not become bored - ✔✔C
Franklin's Grove is the county seat of Franklin County, a small rural county in the Southeast. On the basis of its demographic and economic profile, it was selected as a health improvement zone to receive Federal funds to implement programs to improve progress toward reaching the national health objectives. Communities receiving such funds are charged with identifying the most significant gaps between the current health status and national health objectives and with putting programs in place to narrow such gaps.
What is the first step to take to address the goals of the funding?
(A) Consult Healthy People 2010 to identify relevant objectives
(B) Convene a group of community leaders to decide how to spend the funds
(C) Convene a group of community citizens to decide how to spend the funds
(D) Consult an expert in community health to draw up a program plan - ✔✔A
Franklin's Grove is the county seat of Franklin County, a small rural county in the Southeast. On the basis of its demographic and economic profile, it was selected as a health improvement zone to receive Federal funds to implement programs to improve progress toward reaching the national health objectives. Communities receiving such funds are charged with identifying the most significant gaps between the current health status and national health objectives and with putting programs in place to narrow such gaps.
Using the PRECEDE framework, the county health department has conducted a social and health diagnosis. Some of the most severe quality-of-life problems were related to limb amputation and kidney failure. Prevalent health problems included diabetes, hypertension, and cardiovascular disease. Which of the following behavioral factors are most likely responsible for the above health and quality-of-life issues in Franklin 's Grove?
(A) Unprotected sex, early sexual initiation, use of drugs
(B) Sedentary lifestyle, high caloric consumption, low fiber intake
(C) Advanced age, low levels of education, history of racism
(D) Frequent tobacco, drug, and alcohol us - ✔✔B
Franklin's Grove is the county seat of Franklin County, a small rural county in the Southeast. On the basis of its demographic and economic profile, it was selected as a health improvement zone to receive Federal funds to implement programs to improve progress toward reaching the national health objectives. Communities receiving such funds are charged with identifying the most significant gaps between the current health status and national health objectives and with putting programs in place to narrow such gaps.
Given the factors presumed to be responsible for the major health problems in this scenario, what would be the best source for community planners to use to find data on how widespread each behavioral factor is at the state or local level?
(A) Healthy People 2010 midcourse review
(B) Behavioral Risk Factor Surveillance System (BRFSS)
(C) Community Guide to Preventive Services
(D) Morbidity and Mortality Weekly Report - ✔✔B
Franklin's Grove is the county seat of Franklin County, a small rural county in the Southeast. On the basis of its demographic and economic profile, it was selected as a health improvement zone to receive Federal funds to implement programs to improve progress toward reaching the national health objectives. Communities receiving such funds are charged with identifying the most significant gaps between the current health status and national health objectives and with putting programs in place to narrow such gaps.
The Franklin County health program planners intend to keep close track of the number of programs and activities offered, the number of adults and children who participate in each program or activity, and all feedback given by community members about the programs and activities. These actions would most appropriately fit into which of the following evaluation categories?
(A) Cost-effectiveness
(B) Impact
(C) Outcome
(D) Process - ✔✔D
Which term refers to a collective body of individuals identified by geography, common interests, concerns, characteristics, or values?
(A) Community
(B) Population
(C) Sample
(D) Group - ✔✔A
Which of the following is defined as a community's ability to define and solve its own problems?
(A) Social capital
(B) Community development
(C) Community organization
(D) Community capacity - ✔✔D
Biological, environmental, behavioral, organizational, political, and social factors that contribute to the health status of individuals, groups and communities are commonly referred to as:
(A) Health behavior causal factors
(B) Social ecology factors
(C) Needs assessment factors
(D) Determinants of health - ✔✔D
An individual's capacity to obtain, interpret, and understand basic health information and services and the individual's competence to use such information and services in ways that advance health are called:
(A) Medical informatics
(B) Health literacy
(C) Health education
(D) Patient education - ✔✔B
Which of the following terms refers to a consumer-driven application of sales and promotional techniques to the analysis (including the review of background information and formative work), planning, implementation, and evaluation of programs designed to encourage positive health behaviors within intended audiences?
(A) Health communication
(B) Health promotion
(C) Focus group testing
(D) Social marketing - ✔✔D
Which of the following terms from the social cognitive theory refers to the dynamic interaction among the person, environment, and behavior?
(A) Behavioral norms
(B) Reciprocal determinism
(C) Decisional balance
(D) Bidirectional dependence - ✔✔B
A community has high rates of HIV infection among injection drug users (IDUs). The community council decides to legalize needle exchange programs in an effort to provide clean syringes to prevent the sharing of contaminated needles in drug-using networks. This type of program is an example of:
(A) Harm reductions
(B) Policy advocacy
(C) Community organization
(D) Behavior change - ✔✔A
Theory is defined as:
(A) A branch of philosophy that deals with morality
(B) A tested set of hypotheses listed in order of importance
(C) A systematic relationship of constructs devised to analyze, predict, and otherwise explain the nature of behavior of a specified set of phenomena
(D) A verified fact that the majority does not believe to be true - ✔✔C
Which of the following is not a construct from the Health Belief Model?
(A) Susceptibility
(B) Cues to action
(C) Decisional balance
(D) Barriers - ✔✔C
Which of the following processes from the Transtheoretical Model refers to substituting healthy behaviors for unhealthy ones?
(A) Stimulus control
(B) Consciousness raising
(C) Reinforcement management
(D) Counter-conditioning - ✔✔D
Which of the following is the best example of a process evaluation for a program designed to decrease mortality from drinking and driving among high school youth?
(A) Document change in mortality associated with drinking and driving
(B) Document change in numbers of youth riding with impaired drivers
(C) Document about risks of riding with impaired drivers
(D) Document number of students who attend the school's alcohol-free party - ✔✔D
Which of the following most directly deals with the issue of internal validity in program evaluation design?
(A) Having a reliable and valid measurement instrument
(B) Having well-written process objective (s)
(C) Having a comparison group
(D) Ensuring generalizability of program effects - ✔✔C
Which of the following is the best example of intrapersonal factors that affect an individual's behavior as outlined by the Social Ecological Model?
(A) National laws and policies
(B) Informal social networks
(C) Personal knowledge or skills
(D) Community partnerships - ✔✔C
Which of the following is not an example of a methodology used during a social assessment?
(A) Process evaluation
(B) Focus groups research
(C) Delphi method
(D) Survey administration - ✔✔A
Which of the following is not a principle/key concept in community organization and community building practice?
(A) Critical consciousness and empowerment
(B) Critical allocation of resources and sharing among partners
(C) Principle of relevance or "start where the people are"
(D) Principle of participation - ✔✔B
When a person is healthy, without signs and symptoms of disease, illness, or injury, the level of prevention most appropriate would be:
(A) Primary prevention
(B) Secondary prevention
(C) Tertiary prevention
(D) No prevention level is needed - ✔✔A
In the planning process, the group being served is referred to as the:
(A) Pilot population
(B) Key informants
(C) General population
(D) Priority population - ✔✔D
The social marketing conceptual framework if known for its 4 P's and competition. Which of the following is not one of the 4 P's?
(A) Price
(B) Product
(C) Population
(D) Place - ✔✔C
Which of the following had the greatest impact on average life expectancy?
(A) Vaccinations for infectious diseases
(B) Improvements in sanitation and hygiene
(C) Advances in medical care technology
(D) Health education - ✔✔B
According to John Wennberg and colleagues, small area variations in Medicare expenditures across geographic areas are primarily attributable to differences in:
(A) Physician practice styles
(B) Consumer preferences for high-cost services
(C) Age of the population served
(D) Health status of the population served - ✔✔A
Which of the following statements accurately describes the financing of health care in the United States?
(A) Public health services represent approximately half of the total expenditures for health care
(B) Health care expenditures as a percentage of GDP have remained stable within the range of 5%-8% since the 1970s
(C) Medicare funds most of the services received by the elderly living in institutional long term care facilities
(D) Medicaid is a Federal-State partnership which covers some health care and related services for low-income families with children and individuals who are elderly, blind and disabled - ✔✔D
Community rating basis for health insurance:
(A) Automatically assigns lower rates to subscribers from disadvantaged communities
(B) Allows community representatives to negotiate favorable rates
(C) Spreads the risk across the pool of insured
(D) Benefits financially the healthiest insured people who use the fewest services - ✔✔C
According to Mintzberg, "the central purpose of structure [in an organization] is to":
(A) Produce a high-quality product
(B) Allow for the development of strategy based on the organization's mission, vision, and values
(C) Provide the content for organization charts
(D) Coordinate the work of the organization, which has been divided in a variety of ways - ✔✔D
Which of the following pairs of values are most likely to conflict during a response to a public health emergency?
(A) Truth-telling versus justice
(B) Beneficence versus justice
(C) Individual autonomy versus community welfare
(D) Community welfare versus justice - ✔✔C
Executive managers in a not-for-profit health care organization have an obligation to:
(A) Maximize return for their stockholders
(B) Increase revenues annually
(C) Be prudent stewards of the community's assets
(D) Avoid earning any net income, i.e., profits - ✔✔C
Which of the following principles of medical and public health ethics requires doing no harm while promoting the welfare of others?
(A) Autonomy
(B) Beneficence
(C) Privacy
(D) Justice - ✔✔B
The "police powers" that public officials rely on to enforce compliance with public health standards and interventions are based on:
(A) Explicit language in the U.S. Constitution
(B) Inferences about the government's obligation to protect the health, safety, and welfare of its citizens
(C) Inferences from the Racketeer Influenced and Corrupt Organization (RICO) Act legislation
(D) Presidential executive orders - ✔✔B
Which of the following is likely to be a major obstacle to community readiness for a public health emergency such as an act of bioterrorism?
(A) People no longer feel anxiety about the risks of bioterrorism
(B) The average person has faith that public officials are competent to handle such threats
(C) The consequences of the anthrax-letter threat following 9/11 were far less serious than anticipated
(D) Individuals are unsure about the practical actions to take to protect themselves and their families - ✔✔D
Which of the following terms is defined as "the systematic determination of certain risks to a population incident to a disaster"?
(A) Baseline data evaluation
(B) Risk communication
(C) Vulnerability assessment
(D) Biohazard analysis - ✔✔C
Which of the following is not a true statement about the policy-making process?
(A) A policy is a blueprint for action relevant to some area of public concern
(B) Policy-making often occurs in the absence of complete information about all relevant variables
(C) Only experts trained in public policy have a meaningful role to play in policy development
(D) Policies as enacted often reflect compromises among key players with conflicting interests - ✔✔C
A health policy that is implemented within a representative democracy with separation of powers at all governmental levels and that is characterized by the presence of well-funded interest groups:
(A) Will reflect the preferences of the majority of citizens
(B) Must be based on the best scientific evidence available
(C) Will represent a compromise among multiple and competing interests
(D) Is doomed to failure - ✔✔C
Which of the following is most likely to enhance the staff performance appraisal?
(A) Deferring performance feedback until the scheduled annual appraisal
(B) Setting performance goals in collaboration with the employee
(C) Refusing to award outstanding ratings that might lead the employee to expect a merit-based salary increase
(D) Ensuring that no negative information is included in the written appraisal to decrease legal liability - ✔✔B
The following statement is a tenet of which of these motivational models: "Individuals are motivated to satisfy lower-order physiological needs before they can respond to higher needs such as self-fulfillment."?
(A) Hierarchy of needs (Maslow)
(B) Expectancy theory (Vroom)
(C) Two-factor theory (Herzberg)
(D) Theory X/Theory Y (McGregor) - ✔✔A
What is the best explanation for the importance of liquidity to the not-for-profit health care organization (HCO) and its stakeholders?
(A) Liquidity is necessary to ensure that the HCO achieves its revenue projections.
(B) In the event that the HCO decides to invest heavily in plant expansion, it will have cash on hand.
(C) Liquidity will allow the HCO to cover its short-term obligations and unexpected cash demands.
(D) All HCO competitors have liquidity. - ✔✔C
Which of the following best characterizes the "iron triangle" logic of U.S. health care policy goals?
(A) Making necessary tradeoffs to achieve acceptable levels of quality of and access to health services while insuring profitability for health care providers
(B) Making necessary tradeoffs to achieve acceptable quality of and access to health services while controlling cost
(C) Maintaining highest quality of and full access to services regardless of cost
(D) Providing highest quality of services to all who can afford to pay and rationing services for those who cannot. - ✔✔B
Which of the following statements best characterizes a progressive employee discipline process?
(A) The discipline process is structured as a staged series of increasingly severe responses to chronic violations of accepted rules of behavior.
(B) The punishment must fit the crime.
(C) Discipline is not considered relevant in the modern health care organization.
(D) Progressive discipline allows the employee to exercise immunity for the first violation of the code of conduct. - ✔✔A
The primary disadvantage of incremental program budgeting is:
(A) It makes comparison from one year to the next difficult
(B) It requires the justification of all dollars allocated
(C) It requires far more time and effort than zero-based budgeting (ZBB)
(D) It may not reflect the current programmatic priorities of the organization - ✔✔D
The four P's of marketing health services include:
(A) Product, promotion, prestige, and planning
(B) Product, place, promotion, and pragmatism
(C) Product, price, place, and promotion
(D) Product, price, precision, and promotion
(E) Personnel, promotion, price, and place - ✔✔C
An example of backward vertical integration by an academic medical center is:
(A) Offering a managed care health plan
(B) Establishing a skilled nursing unit within the hospital
(C) Acquiring an established home health agency
(D) Taking over a smaller, faith-based health care system - ✔✔A
Which of the following is an expected benefit of consolidating independent hospitals and provider groups into an integrated health care system?
(A) Economies of scale in production
(B) Lower costs of integration
(C) Ease of accommodating diverse organizational cultures
(D) Immediate gains in administrative efficiency - ✔✔A
As a research analyst at a large HMO, you are asked to benchmark the percentage of enrollees treated for depression who received 6-month follow-up care. Applying Donabedian's framework, the percentage of enrollees receiving follow-up care is what type of indicator?
(A) Structure
(B) Process
(C) Outcome
(D) System - ✔✔B
A pediatric patient complaining of an inner ear infection was diagnosed by an overworked emergency room resident who then prescribed an asthma medication. This is an example of:
(A) Poor interpersonal quality
(B) Poor technical quality
(C) Inequitable access
(D) Inefficient access - ✔✔B
What is the relevance of HEDIS for ensuring quality in health care delivery?
(A) HEDIS (Health Enforcement, Disciplinary & Investigation Staff) is the agency the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services that investigates and prosecutes fraud and abuse violations in Medicare-funded hospitals
(B) Health Education Deserves Industry Support (HEDIS) is a consumer advocacy group that lobbies corporations to invest in employee health and fitness
(C) The Health Plan Employer Data and Information Set (HEDIS) provides an assessment tool for measuring the quality of care provided by HMOs
(D) HEDIS (Healthcare Education Development & Improvement System) provides programmed instruction and self-assessment tools for professional development of clinical managers in health care - ✔✔C
What is the term for recommendations about how to treat a patient with a particular disease that are based on findings from experimental and/or observational studies?
(A) Cost analysis
(B) Physician consensus statements
(C) Clinical practice guidelines
(D) Patient preference guidelines - ✔✔C
Which of the following statements is not associated with the current paradigm of quality management in health care?
(A) Sanctioning individuals for mistakes is the most appropriate method for ensuring effective quality of care
(B) The appropriate locus for ensuring quality is at the system level
(C) Process improvement is essential to ensuring quality of care
(D) Employee satisfaction and patient satisfaction are closely linked - ✔✔A
Which of the following is an example of a utilization rate used to monitor health system performance?
(A) Congenital syphilis rate
(B) Late stage breast cancer incidence rate
(C) Infant mortality rate
(D) Readmission rate for depression - ✔✔D
Which of the following represents a boundary management function in public health?
(A) Creating cubicles for the staff to maximize the efficiency of the work space
(B) Developing maps showing the incidence of diabetes within target communities
(C) Reprimanding an employee for behavior perceived to be sexual harassment
(D) Scheduling the Director of the county health department to be interviewed by a journalist about a recent outbreak of food-borne illness - ✔✔D
One implication of the claim that "the complex organization tends to map its environment" is that the public health agency:
(A) Uses geographic information system (GIS) technology to map the spread of a contagious disease
(B) Hires a professional to provide environmental law expertise
(C) Only serves the population within its political boundaries
(D) Identifies its various constituencies geographically - ✔✔B
Identify which of the following terms characterizes the throughput of the health care system?
(A) The geographical boundary that defines the system's market
(B) Measures of patient's functionality post-surgery
(C) Patient satisfaction scores
(D) The core technologies involved in providing health care services - ✔✔D
Which of the following statements best characterizes the contingency theory of leadership?
(A) The leader's authority is unchallenged by subordinates.
(B) The leader's effectiveness depends on various factors in the leadership context.
(C) The leader's effectiveness is contingent primarily on the technical competence of followers.
(D) The leader's authority depends on formal legislation and sanctions. - ✔✔B
SCHIP is a federal program that is important for public health because:
(A) It remedies the state differences in health insurance that characterize Medicaid
(B) It covers preventive services for children who otherwise might not have access to them
(C) It provides a comprehensive immunization program
(D) It increases funding for school health initiatives - ✔✔B
The two largest categories of expenditures for the Medicare program (not necessarily in order of magnitude) are:
(A) Hospitals and nursing homes
(B) Physicians and hospitals
(C) Public health and physicians
(D) Hospitals and pharmaceuticals - ✔✔B
While the 10th amendment to the constitution gives the states primary responsibility for public health, inequities between and among the states persist because:
(A) The amendment did not specify standards of care that each state had to meet
(B) Standards of care are implied but implementation is left to the states
(C) Each state has the right to define and delegate authority and responsibility for public health services
(D) Public health services are funded through property taxes that vary from state to state - ✔✔C
The principal difference between those who believe in universal health care and those who believe in a free market system for allocating care is:
(A) A willingness to sustain continuing tax increases to support a predetermined level of care for those who cannot afford to pay for their own care
(B) The belief that health care is an entitlement versus the belief that health care is a reward
(C) A moral judgment regarding the origin of disease and the corresponding belief that we all are ultimately responsible for our own health and well being
(D) A desire to not have the government involved in the health care of its citizens - ✔✔B
When confronted with constrained community resources for emergency preparedness, a critical success factor for a community emergency response program is:
(A) Community-wide practice drills
(B) A community-wide alert system
(C) A unified command and control center
(D) A community-wide campaign promoting family preparedness
(E) All of the above - ✔✔E
What are the non-traditional partners that could be effective collaborators in community-wide preparedness planning?
(A) Public safety agencies (e.g. Fire, Police)
(B) Public health departments
(C) Emergency management
(D) Social service and faith-based agencies - ✔✔D
Public health is concerned with the health of populations. Accordingly one of the core functions of public health as described by the Institute of Medicine (1988) is:
(A) Refining the definition of populations
(B) To create and advocate for solutions to address, at all levels, the health concerns of populations
(C) Making certain that health policy legislation always contains the phrase "population health"
(D) Developing a new model for solving all public health problems - ✔✔B
It is frequently said that the most difficult component of the policy process is not implementation but getting health legislation approved because of the
(A) Politics of health care and services delivery are so value laden
(B) Need to have funds to hire well connected lobbyists
(C) Very different opinions held by the two major political parties
(D) Ability to preserve and keep a piece of legislation on the agenda and in front of those in power - ✔✔D
The largest single component in most public health and health care budgets, and therefore the one with which managers must be most familiar is:
(A) Computer software and hardware
(B) Pharmaceuticals
(C) Personnel
(D) Shortfalls - ✔✔C
For the overarching guidance of an organization, which of the following should be measurable?
(A) Vision and values
(B) Mission and vision
(C) Goals and objectives
(D) Mission and goals - ✔✔C
The primary purpose of strategic planning is:
(A) To beat the competition
(B) To define the organization's vision
(C) To maximize financial status
(D) To determine the direction an organization will pursue within its chosen environment and guide the allocation of resources and efforts - ✔✔D
The definition of healthcare marketing is:
(A) The process of publicizing services and programs
(B) Management activities that create markets for goods and services
(C) A management process that assesses customer wants and needs and performs the activities associated with the development, pricing, provision, and promotion of product solutions that satisfy those wants and needs
(D) Multi-media outreach to a single or multiple target audiences - ✔✔C
The CEO of a managed care organization praised her administrators at a national conference for exceeding their enrollment targets. She noted that long waits for care and travel distances might increase but that the members would certainly understand given the popularity of their health plan. The CEO's statements reflect:
(A) A sound knowledge of quality care
(B) The ability to integrate quality and organizational solvency
(C) A serious lack of understanding around members' perceptions of quality of care and the consequences of poor organizational performance
(D) Her perception of quality care - ✔✔D
In order to effectively evaluate organizational performance, an administrator must also have:
(A) Measurable performance indicators
(B) Previously agreed upon performance standards
(C) Measurable performance indicators benchmarked to previously agreed upon performance standards
(D) Measurable performance indicators that can be used to identify acceptable and superior performance - ✔✔C
It is often said that the typical manager (and health care managers are no exception) devote up to 81% of his/her time to communication daily. This implies that:
(A) Managers have to be equipped with the most technological advancements for speedy communication
(B) Have a thorough understanding of the communication process including the role of "noise" in the communication process
(C) Know how to encode and decode a message
(D) Have a thorough understanding of the communication process including when to use the most appropriate communication venue and how to use it most effectively - ✔✔D
Information management deserves greater attention nationally from public health administrators and managers. Which of the functions below would not be a priority reason for IMs increased funding for public health departments?
(A) Pivotal, all encompassing role information plays in management's organizing function
(B) Strategic implications of storing information for operational decision making
(C) Potential information management holds for mitigating health disparities
(D) Potential for developing public health electronic medical records - ✔✔D
What would be the best source of information on adult and infant mortality?
(A) Disease registers
(B) Vital statistics
(C) Special survey study
(D) Hospital clinic statistics - ✔✔B
Which of the following terms is expressed as a ratio (as distinguished from a proportion)?
(A) Male Births / Male + Female Births
(B) Female Births / Male + Female Births
(C) Male Births / Female Births
(D) Stillbirths / Male + Female Birth - ✔✔C
Mortality rates by sex in the United States generally show the following sex differences:
(A) Males greater than females
(B) Females greater than males
(C) Males equal to females
(D) Males equal to females in the first years of life - ✔✔A
Morbidity rates by sex in the United States show the following sex differences:
(A) Males greater than females
(B) Females greater than males
(C) Males equal to females
(D) Males equal to females in the first years of life - ✔✔B
Case-control studies are among the best observational designs to study diseases of:
(A) High prevalence
(B) High validity
(C) Low case fatality
(D) Low prevalence - ✔✔D
Comparison of mortality rates due to cancer of the uterus in users and non-users of supplemental estrogen revealed the following mortality rates per 100,000:
Age Users of Estrogen Non-Users of Estrogen
45-54 3.0 1.0
55-70 17.0 6.0
A valid conclusion derived from the above data concerning mortality among estrogen users is:
(A) The mortality rates for cancer of the uterus are higher in estrogen users than non-users in both age groups studied
(B) A causal relationship is demonstrated between the use of estrogen and incidence of uterine cancer
(C) Mortality from cancer of the uterus rises with age regardless of whether estrogen is used
(D) The mortality rate is lower in non-users than users because the symptoms of uterine cancer are detected earlier in the former group of women - ✔✔A
In a large case-control study of pancreatic cancer, 20% of the cases were found to be diabetic at the time of diagnosis, compared to 5% of a control group (matched by age, sex, ethnic group, and several other characteristics) that was examined for diabetes at the same time that the cases were diagnosed. The authors concluded that diabetes played a causal role in the development of pancreatic cancer. This conclusion:
(A) Is correct
(B) May be incorrect because there is no control or comparison group
(C) May be incorrect because of failure to establish the time sequence between the onset of diabetes and pancreatic cancer
(D) May be incorrect because of less complete ascertainment of diabetes in pancreatic cancer cases
(E) May be incorrect because of more complete ascertainment of pancreatic cancer in non-diabetic people - ✔✔C
Cohort study is to risk ratio as:
(A) Ecologic fallacy is to cross-sectional study
(B) Case-control study is to odds ratio
(C) Genetics is to environment
(D) Rate ratio is to ecologic study - ✔✔B
It is essential in cohort studies of the role of a suspected factor in the etiology of a disease that:
(A) There are equal numbers of people in both study groups.
(B) At the beginning of the study, those with the disease and those without the disease have equal risks of having the factor.
(C) The exposed and non-exposed groups under study should be as similar as possible with regard to possible confounders.
(D) The incidence of the disease is low. - ✔✔C
A researcher is interested in identifying potential risk factors for a rare form of bone cancer in children. Which of the following study designs would be best suited to investigate the risk factors for this type of cancer?
(A) Prevalence-survey
(B) Case-control
(C) Cohort
(D) Descriptive
(E) Experimental - ✔✔B
Which of the following statements regarding disease measures is inaccurate?
(A) Prevalence equals duration times incidence
(B) Prevalence is a proportion
(C) Cumulative incidence is a proportion
(D) Incidence density is a proportion - ✔✔D
In a population of 5,000 people, 100 ate spinach contaminated with E. coli (O157:H7) and became ill. Of the ill, 15 died. What was the case fatality rate?
(A) 20 per 1,000
(B) 3 per 1,000
(C) 150 per 1,000
(D) 15 deaths - ✔✔C
A case-control study comparing ovarian cancer cases with community controls found an odds ratio of 2.0 in relation to exposure to radiation. Which is the correct interpretation of the measure of association?
(A) Women exposed to radiation had 2.0 times the risk of ovarian cancer when compared to women not exposed to radiation
(B) Women exposed to radiation had 2.0 times the risk of ovarian cancer when compared to women without ovarian cancer
(C) Ovarian cancer cases had 2.0 times the odds of exposure to radiation when compared to controls
(D) Ovarian cancer cases had 2.0 times the odds of exposure to radiation when compared to women with other cancers - ✔✔C
Double-blinded (masked) studies are an important way to:
(A) Achieve comparability of cases and controls
(B) Avoid observer and interviewee bias
(C) Avoid observer bias and sampling variation
(D) Reduce the effects of sampling variation
(E) Avoid interviewee bias and sampling variation - ✔✔B
The difference between primary and secondary prevention of disease is:
(A) Primary prevention focuses on control of causal factors, while secondary prevention focuses on control of symptoms
(B) Primary prevention focuses on control of acute disease, while secondary prevention focuses on control of chronic disease
(C) Primary prevention focuses on control of causal factors, while secondary prevention focuses on early detection and treatment of disease
(D) Primary prevention focuses on increasing resistance to disease, while secondary prevention focuses on decreasing exposure to disease - ✔✔C
A screening test is used in the same way in two similar populations, but the proportion of false-positive results among those who test positive in population B is higher than that among those who test positive in population A. What is the most likely explanation for this finding?
(A) The specificity of the test is higher in population A
(B) The specificity of the test is lower in population A
(C) The prevalence of disease is higher in population A
(D) The prevalence of disease is lower in population A - ✔✔C
The relative risk of drying for smokers compared to non-smokers is: "The death rate per 100,000 for lunch cancer is 7 among non-smokers and 71 among smokers. The death rate per 100,000 for coronary thrombosis is 422 among non-smokers and 599 among smokers. The
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