CADC practice Exam questions with Correct Answers only

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CADC practice Exam questions with Correct Answers only CADC practice Exam questions with Correct Answers only What does the experienced effect of a drug depend upon? The Amount taken, past drug e... xperiences, form of administration, poly drug use, setting, circumstance. How drug tolerance is BEST described? Decreased sensitivity to a drug over time Which of the following is NOT a "drug cue"? Drug avoidance strategies What happens as tolerance for barbiturates develops? The margin between intoxication and lethality stays the same What is the most common symptom of Wernicke's encephalopathy? Confusion Which of the following conditions does alcohol NOT induce? Hep C (alcohol induces Steatosis, Nephrosis, Cirrhosis) What does formication refer to? A sensation of bugs crawling under the skin What is/are the organ(s) most damaged by cocaine abuse? The heart Which of the following is NOT a basic chemical class of amphetamines? Benzedrine (amphetaimen sulphate, dextroamphetamine, methamphetamine are amphetamines) In terms of difficulty quitting, which of the following drugs ranks the highest? Nicotine Which of the statement below is MOST correct? THC content in marijuana varies widely Regarding substance abuse, what does Convergence Theory propose? Rates of SA among women are converging with those of men Among psychiatric disorders in the elderly, where does alcohol abuse rank? Third Which of the following subcategories of alcohol use disorder onset is NOT found in the elderly? Early-onset alcoholism At an initial meeting with a new client, what is the FIRST requirement? Establish Rapport What does motivational interviewing (MI) primarily involve? Supportive Persuasion What percentage of individuals with dual diagnosis (co-occurring disorders [COD]) received treatment for only their mental illness? 32.9% What factors can affect screening instrument validity? setting, privacy, levels of trust & rapport, instructions given and clarity Which of the following functions is NOT what a certified Alcohol and Drug Abuse counselor can usually perform? Diagnose mental disorders What does GATE stand for? Gather info, Access supervision, Take responsible action, Extend the action To which of the following do assessment processes and instruments NOT need be sensitive? Political orientation What are serious mental health symptoms that resolve with abstinence in thirty days or less MOST likely due to? Substance abuse-induced disorders that require continued abstinence Which one of the following alcohol abuse screening tests is designed specifically for use with adolescents? CRAFFT Which of the following is the MOST important introductory statement or question to ask in a suicidality evaluation? I need to ask you a few questions about suicide What is the purpose of screening? to determine the need for placement or referral What is the primary purpose of SA assessment? To determine the severity of the substance problem Who should create a treatment plan? Collaborative team with the client How must assessment information be handled to be MOST effective? Converted into goal and objectives Which of these key elements does NOT bolster a client's desire to complete the program? frequent interdisciplinary consultations How many levels of treatment placement are recognized by the American Society of Addiction Medicine (ASAM)? four levels of treatment placement How many assessment dimensions are recognized by ASAM? Six assessment dimensions The Stage Model of Change addresses how many client stages? Six stages Circumstances, Motivation, Readiness, and Suitability (CMRS) Scales are used for what purpose? Assessing client readiness for treatment When is a client fully prepared to enter treatment? When a client accepts the need for treatment Guiding principles in treatment planning are identified by which acronym? MATRS (Measurable, Attainable, Time, Realistic, Specific) In cases involving the criminal justice system, what is the minimum recommendation for frequency of updating treatment plans? At all transition points How many problem domains are addressed in the Addiction Severity Index (ASI)? Six The Addiction Severity Index (ASI) has been formally adopted by which organization? By NIDA (National Institute on Drug Abuse) What does it mean if an assessment instrument is valid? The instrument assesses what it purports to assess All of the following are true of depression and SA EXCEPT that Drugs of abuse can treat depression How does motivation for participating in treatment differ from motivation to change problem behaviors? Motivation for change is internal; treatment may be pushed on a client What of the following is NOT a key component in a treatment plan? The theoretical approach to be operationalized via treatment What does the SOAP progress note acronym stand for? Subjective, Objective, Assessment and Plan What does the DAP progress note acronym stand for? Data, Assessment, Plan The mnemonic DIG-FAST evaluates which psychological state? Mania (distractibility, indiscretion, grandiosity, flight of ideas, activity, sleep deficit, talkativeness)' How does the Center for SA Treatment (CSAT) recommend that substance abuse be considered and treated? A Chronic treatable condition How does the center for SA treatment (CSAT) indicate that treatment or interventions provided following discharge from a formal inpatient or outpatient program be referred to? Continuing care What is the best distinction between substance abuse treatment programs and mutual help groups such as 12 steps support groups? Programs offer treatment and groups offer support According to the American Society of Addition Medicine (ASAM) What is the minimum of treatment time the intensive outpatient treatment(IOT) must provide? 9hrs of txt per week Which of the following is not a core feature or service that the Center for Substance Abuse Treatment (CSAT) consensus panel agreed upon? Recreational Therapy Which form of SA is naltrexone used to treat? Alcohol and Opioid dependence Which of the following is not a core treatment and recovery skill? Exercise and health training Which of the following is NOT a primary learning style? Gustatory What is the influence of family on treatment outcomes? treatment outcomes are improved with family supportive family members involved How many main levels exist in the SA continuum of care, according to the American Society of Addiction Medicine (ASAM) Five levels of care How many sequential stages must outpatient clients work through, regardless of the level of care at which enter treatment? Four Stages What is the usual recommended minimum duration of days for the intensive outpatient treatment (IOT) phase? Ninety Days How is the MOST effective relapse-prevention training provided? Group therapy and individual therapy Which of the following is not a type of intensive outpatient (IOT) group? Transitional care group What is the MOST common duration of counseling in an intensive outpatient treatment (IOT) program? 20-30mins, one time a week How are pharmacology and medication management in SA treatment described? Of inconsiderable, albeit limited, value in treatment Topics addressed in psychoeducational groups are typically sequenced by concept for maximal effectiveness What was the original CIWA-Ar scale designed for? evaluation of alcohol withdrawal risk Which of the following substances lack effective treatment medications? cocaine and marijuana Adjunction therapies refer to all EXEPT which of the following? Vocational training Dealing with smoking cessation during a substance abuse treatment program is something to be seriously considered if the client desires it. Disilfuram (Antabuse) is contraindicated for clients whose alcohol abuse is combined with which of the following circumstances? cocaine or methadone? - NONE OF THESE What is the sandwich technique? An intake interview technique Which of the following was NOT identified as being among the three MOST effective screening tools for SA disorders? The SA screening instrument What is the SDSS designed to measure? Drug use disorder severity over time What is the primary purpose of the Texas Christian University Drug Screen (TCUDS)? To identify those with vs. those without drug dependency issues What is physiological dependence on a drug determined by? Tolerance or symptoms of withdrawal According to DSM-5 criteria, a client that has previously met the criteria for stimulant use disorder but now has not met criteria the criteria for stimulant use in 10months (except for craving) would be termed to be in _____________ remission Early What is a client's family of choice used to describe? Relationships created by marriage, friendship and other associations What does a dual relationship refer to? A working relationship with a client outside the professional domain What is an appropriate response to a substantial gift from a client? "I can't accept that, but thank you!" (A gift $20 or less, can be shared with other staff, handmaid or cultural related can be accepted) Two clients in a treatment group begin dating. What would a proper response be? address program policy preventing dating among group members At a local dance club, a counselor spots a client drinking at a bar. What is the BEST response to this? avoid contact with the client and leave immediately As a substance abuse counselor, you work in a treatment program and also personally attend a 12-step program in the community. A treatment program client asks you to become his or her 12-step sponsor. What is the proper, thoughtful response? Decline, recognizing the potential conflicts in multiple roles. In providing counseling treatment, what are counselors encouraged to do? Use multiple client approaches to meet client's needs. What does the 12-step facilitation Approach refer to? Encouraging clients to enter a community 12-step program Which of the following is not a strength of 12 step-program? 12-step programs offer easy monitoring of assigned step tasks Staff familiarity with the 12-step program facilitation is important because of all of the following except that clients feel more pressure to attend 12-step programs by these staff. When outcomes from cognitive-behavioral coping skill therapy and motivational enhancement therapy are compared with outcomes from 12-step facilitation, how do clients fare best? 12-step facilitation Traditionally, what was the term therapeutic community (TC) referred to? A drug free residential treatment environment Why do therapeutic communities (TCs) often focus on habilitation instead of rehabilitation? habilitation helps clients learn new skills they never had In what setting is the therapeutic community (TC) treatment model most effective? in a formal full-time residential setting and intensive day treatment setting. What is the MOST important reason that ordered and routine activities are built into the therapeutic community (TC) treatment process? to counter the typically disordered lives of substance abuse clients What is the MATRIX model design to treat? Stimulant abuse (designed in the 80s to fight the cocaine and meth abuse) What are significant drawbacks to community reinforcement (CR) and contingency management (CM) approaches? CR is labor intensive, and CM can be costly With regard to co-occurring disorders, what does the term integrated treatment refer to? Treating both psychiatric and substance abuse issues concurrently What would be the MOST typical co-occurring disorder client? an alcohol-abusing woman How many categories does SAMHSA's Service Coordination Framework for Co-occurring Disorders have? 4 categories When behaviorally assessing for a co-occurring disorder, what is the MOST important variable to consider? Alcohol or drug toxicity, or withdrawal symptoms How are substance abuse treatment programs for adolescents described? very different from programs for adults What is the most effective treatment approach for adolescents, in terms of less drug use at treatment completion? family therapy How is the concept of culture BEST described? shared set of beliefs, norms, and values among any given group Who is primarily responsible for ensuring that treatment is effective for culturally diverse clients? the provider What does the term culture-bound syndrome refer to? an illness (mental or physical) unique to a cultural group and an illness presenting or interpreted distinctively, due to cultural influence Beyond the culture of the client, what is another key cultural issue? Culture of the counselor What are the two key mental health treatment paradigms of Western medicine? Pharmacological therapy and psychotherapy Racism may jeopardize the mental health of minorities in all of the following ways EXCEPT: Discrimination and racism limit recreational and leisure opportunities to improve mental health What is the trend for cultural diversity in the United States? Increasing rapidly and steadily What is the difference between HIV and AIDS? HIV is the virus that causes AIDS (Human immunodeficiency virus & Acquired immune deficiency syndrome) As compared with current older adults, what is the upcoming baby boomer generation (born between 1946 and 1964) expected to have? Much higher treatment needs When older adults enter treatment, how do their rates of attendance and incidence relapse, compare to their younger cohorts? Much higher attendance and much lower relapse rates Confidentiality requirements exist to protect client's and their personal lives and information. Without a client signed information release, what is information that can be disclosed? a report of child abuse suspected to be caused by the client The CAGE questionnaire is a four question screening tool. What is this screening instrument designed to screen for? Alcohol Abuse The MAST screening test is a 25 question instrument that is used to explore the degree and severity of a client's problem with which type of abuse? Alcohol Abuse The relapse and remitting model addresses cycles of relapse and recovery common to addiction. What else can it be usefully applied to? a. Medication Management b. Unemployment c. Issues of anger and violence d. All of the above <-------------- The term authentically connected referral network is used in conjunction with case management. How is it BEST defined? a set of defined relationships able to adapt and flexibly meet client needs. In providing case management services, beyond providing seamless case and being client focused, what is the primary aim? produce the leas-restrictive level of care possible in meeting the client's needs. Sensitive interviewing and engagement techniques are important to optimize client responsiveness and investment. What does the ask-tell-ask technique refer to? Asking permission of a client to talk with them, telling them of any concerns you have and then asking for their thoughts on what you shared. After referrals are made, it is important to track the associated outcomes for measures of referral success. What are the three MOST important evaluation aspects? Who, what and how Given a client's history, referral for co-occurring disorders as well as medical, educational, and psychological needs should be ongoing as discovered. When should planning for aftercare be engaged? At the point of the initial counselor-client contact What are withdrawal symptoms, characterized by severe flu-like symptoms (nausea, vomiting, runny nose, watery eyes, chills, abdominal cramps, anorexia, weakness, tremors, sweating, etc.) MOST characteristic? Opioid withdrawal Genetic factors make up roughly what proportion of the risk for addiction? one-half What is the adolescent tendency to impulsivity and risk taking due to primarily? Neurological immaturity What are depressant drugs (alcohol, opiates, barbiturates, benzos) typically used to cope with? Stress Past which point is benzodiazepine treatment of anxiety NOT effective? four months At low doses, what does alcohol act as physiologically? Stimulant (at high doses it acts as a suppressant) Among the following, what is the MOST harmful drug a mother can abuse during pregnancy? Alcohol (regular alcohol abuse can cause FAS and when facial characteristics are missing it's called FAE) Theorist posit that stimulant abuse often occurs to compensate for deficiencies in all of the following neurotransmitters EXCEPT: acetylcholine (MAOs regulare dopamine, norepinophrine, serotonin) What is the euphoria experienced when under the influence of cocaine caused by? A build up of neurotransmitters (cocaine triggers the release of dopamine, serotonin and norepinephrine) What kind of drug does the term nootropic refer to? memory enhancing (nootropics are designed to boost cognitive performance) Which of the following is NOT a stage in the development of alcoholism? morning drinking (the 1st stage is social drinking) In the lifecycle of heroin addiction, what is the stage known as dis-junction characterized by? Crime, arrests, imprisonment, and serial treatment1 Name the lifecycle of heroine addiction: **E.I.C.D.M.** 1. Experimentation - dabbling with drugs 2. Initiation - initially unpleasant nausea/vomiting followed by more enjoyable injections 3. Commitment - habit maintenance 4. Disjunction - crime, arrests, imprisonment, efforts to reduce habit. 5. Maturation - phasing out drugs (40s-60s) or dying from abuse. Which is NOT a typical stage in the development of cocaine addiction? Isolated use Stages in the development of cocaine addiction 1. Experimental use 2. Compulsive use 3. Dysfunctional use Stages in the development of cocaine addiction 1. Experimental use 2. Compulsive use 3. Dysfunctional use Social control theorists suggest that deviance results from which TWO of the following? weak societal ties within the individual & weak family ties with the individual Withdrawal symptoms from anabolic steroids most closely resemble those of which drug? Cocaine (steroids engage on opioid & dopamine neurotransmitters) Which is the most correct statement regarding individuals voluntarily entering treatment for substance? they are at varying stages of change readiness What is ambivalence about substance abuse treatment symptomatic? Uncertainty What is the primary goal of screening a client with a known substance abuse disorder? determine a best initial treatment course In screening clients, what does a cutoff score refer to? the threshold above which a more thorough assessment is indicated What are the stages of change? 1. Pre-contemplation 2. Contemplation 3. Preparation 4. Action 5. Maintenance 6. Relapse What is the suicide risk for individuals treated for alcohol use disorder? 10x as high as among the general population Which of the following MOST properly defines screening and assessment? screening for a problem and assessment defines it When does assessment of a client with co-occurring disorders occur? Regularly over time Which is the gold standard assessment tool for co-occurring disorders? there's not one single gold standard During the assessment, what does the term "collateral" contacts refer to? family, friends, treatment providers which of the following is NOT included in basic intake information? Feelings about institutional treatment Which instrument is used to screen for substance abuse in individuals who frequently distort or misrepresent the truth? SASSI (Substance Abuse Subtle Screening Inventory) Which of the following is NOT a key informational outcome of screening and assessment? Measures of client treatment compliance Which of the following is NOT a key goal and purpose of assessments? Whether or not a substance or alcohol problem exists What must treatment planning discussions with clients be like? a. Appropiate to client age & developmental level b. Sensitive to issues of races, ethnicity, and culture. c. Free of technical jargon and obscure acronyms. d. All of the above <-------- Why should data findings from the assessment be presented to the client and his.her significant others? Client understanding affects treatment What does the treatment term matching refer to? Selecting resources by client needs and preferences Which of the following does NOT address patient placement criteria (PPC)? Outcome measurement criteria What is a client's readiness for treatment strongly associated? The perception of needing help in change What does the term 'treatment sequencing' refer to? Prioritizing client needs in treatment process How is Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs BEST described? A fundamental ranking of essential needs Which of the following was NOT proposed by Maslow in his hierarchy of needs? Recreational needs Information gathering and assessment can be biased if a clinician uses very general questions, uses open-ended leading questions, uses professional jargon. What does the Biopsychosocial Model suggest that problems have? Numerous casual factors that are interconnected What is the Chemical Used, Abuse and Dependence (CUAD) Scale BEST known for? It's utility in assessing substance abuse in mentally ill clients What is the Symptom Checklist 90-R (SCL-90-R) used for? An in depth- assessment of physiological health and tracking client progress or treatment outcomes What is COPES scale used for? Assessing community based treatment programs What does TSR assessment instrument measure? Nature and intensity of treatment services What does the BIRP progress note acronym stand for? Behavior, Intervention, Response, Plan. What does the CHEAP progress note acronym stand for? Chief complaint, History, Exam, Assessment, and Plan The mnemonic SIGECAPS evaluates which psychological state? Depression What do the acronyms CART and CHART both refer to? Progress notes formats What does the term 'client matching' refer to? tailoring resources and services to the client needs The statement "clients must hit bottom to be ready for treatment" is.... FALSE. (a client's presence in the office is indicator of desire to change) How is client motivation for treatment BEST maintained? remind them of what brought them to treatment What does client resistance to treatment MOST likely indicate? a client is being pressured to change too quickly What factor contributes MOST meaningfully to client treatment in retention? Therapeutic alliance Which treatment episode is associated with better outcomes? Completion of any length episode is most important What should the position of treatment programs toward 12-step programs be? 12-step programs are an integral part of overall client success Which statement BEST reflects the nature of mutual-help groups such as 12-step programs? These programs vary greatly and should be carefully chosen How is the proper role for mental health medications in individuals with co-ocurring disorders BEST described? Clients with substance abuse disorder and co-occurring mental health disorder can benefit from medications What is the purpose of open-ended heterogeneous groups? to allow flexibility in new member assignments What is the purpose of client-specified groups? to meet unique client needs and to facilitate the counseling procecss Clients that should never be assigned to the same group include all of the following EXCEPT: Opioid and amphetamine abusers During the initial treatment phase how may therapeutic contact hours per week does the ASAM require for intensive outpatient treatment (IOT) participants? 9hrs Optimal grou size in a typical treatment group involves how many members? 8-15 participants Which of the following medications is NOT commonly used in the treatment of alcohol abuse? Buprenorphine What are the medications used for the treatment of alcohol abuse? Disulfiram (Antabuse) Naltrexone (ReVia) Acamprosate (Campral) Which of the following medications is NOT commonly used in the treatment of opioid abuse? Luminal What are the medications used for the treatment of meth addiction? Methadone Buprenorphine Levo-Alpha Acetyl Methadol The ASAM recommends patients with co-occurring disorders be placed in a specialty addition and mental health treatment program at which level of mental illness severity? High co-ocurring severity What are the most common biological samples used for treatment program drug testing? Urine and breath Which one if the following is not an established 12-step program? Hallucinogens anonymous What is the ADS scale used to measure? Alcohol dependence What is the CIDI instruments used to measure? Psychiatric disorders and Substance use disorder Which of the following is NOT measured by the DIS schedule? Physical health disorders For which of the following is the MINI designed? Clinical Trials Treatment outcome assessments Epidemiological studies Psychiatric Research Interview for SA and MH disorders (PRISM) evaluates for which personality disorder? Antisocial and Boderline How is the term genogram BEST defined? a diagram of family relationships How is the CRAFT program or approach BEST described? A community or family approach to motivating a client into treatment What are family education groups primarily designed to do? Educate families about addiction Primary difference between a lapse and relapse? A single use episode versus a prolonged use What is the influence of a famous client in group MOST likely to be? Negative - disruptive group dynamics What is the BEST response by a counselor if a potential client enters a program for treatment and the counselor recognizes the client from Little League team in which their sons are both still active? Speak with the client privately, and offer assurances of confidentiality. What is the AASE scale used to determine or evaluate? Alcohol Abstinence commitment in high-relapse situations Education regarding subtance abuse includes toppicss such as triggers, patterns of abuse, and relapse prevention. What should treatment MOSTLY be focused on? SA issues, recovery, health issues, co-occurring disorders In a client's efforts to maintain emotional and psychological balance, what does the term "bookend" refer to? Discussing a trigger event with someone trusted before and after it occurs In working with substance-abusing clients, counselors must be aware of the applicable guideline in CFR titel 42 part 2. What do the guidelines deal with? Confidentiality in areas of alcohol and substance abuse In working with substance abuse clients, counselors must be aware specific guidelines found in the HIPAA statutes. What do these guidelines address? The health privacy and confidentiality standards Confidentiality is particularly stringent in situations of alcohol abuse, drugs abuse, and HIV infection. When are limited confidentiality breaches permitted? in situations where an individual is at risk of harming himself or others and when suspected of child abuse and when suspected of elder abuse Group work is utilized extensively in substance abuse treatment. How do group therapy and 12-step groups compare? Very different type of groups with very different purposes There are five primary group models used in substance abuse treatment. Which is the model that views dependency as a learned behavior that can be modified? CBT group type Matching clients with groups requires careful consideration. Where would a 1st generation American Hispanic woman be BEST assigned? A group based on immediate needs Treatment for longer periods of time is closely associated with enhanced outcomes. What is the baseline duration for improvoved outcomes? 3 months There are numerous classification systems describing various stages of recovery. How many stages does the most common stage classification provide for? 3 stages What does an expressive group therapy model involve? Art, dance, psychodrama therapies In 1965, Bruce Thuckman proposed a model of a group development that included 5 phases. What is the one phase that is NOT part of Thuckman's model? framing A productive group therapeutic engages deep issues in many individuals with remedial or neglected issues. This may at times induce regression. How is regression defined? Reverting to a prior developmental level Substance abuse affects not only the use but the family as well. What are inter-generational affects MOST commonly caused by? Compensating issues needed to cope with addictive dysfunction HIV remains a profound problem in the U.S.A. What approximate percentage of all HIV cases are found among females in this country? 25% Members of the LGBTQ community face many challenges, including issues of discrimination. Regarding substances abuse as compared with the general population, how is the LGBTQ community likely to act? More likely to use alcohol or drugs What is the MOST likely period in life for a substance abuse problem to begin? Adolescence Which is NOT a category of youth prevention substance abuse programs? Targeted Programs Proper program and progress documentation is necessary for a great variety of reasons. Which of the following is NOT a particularly important reason? Avoiding client challenges of records and documentation Accurate documentation and reports are necessary if effective treatment and recovery plans are to be developed and implemented. Which of the following is NOT fundamental assessment information at intake? Documentation regarding referrals and referral outcomes Treatment and recovery plans must remain current and effective for optimal progress and well-being. Consequently, how often are treatment plans typically updated? Every thirty to ninety days or as changes or progress indicate a need What is the key difference between a current treatment plan and a current progress note? the treatment plan provides an action blueprint, while the progress note captures what did or did not occur. What is the proper response if something is entered in a client record in error? Line through the error, and putting your initials next to it. Clients actively in a treatment program need regular chart entries. Typically, state requirements mandate an updating entry no less often than.... weekly If a client leaves a treatment program early or involuntarily, how is the written discharge summary affected? It is produced as usual The Code of Federal Regulations, Title 42, Part 2, addresses client confidentiality. Other than through a written information release, when do expectation to confidentiality exist? a. When a program funding requires it b. when a police officer demands it c. when a subpoena requests it d. None of the above <---------correct The Code of Federal Regulations, Title 42, Part 2, addresses situations where law enforcement or courts can breach client confidentiality. What is a subpoena signed by a judge? Insufficient, unless a qualified hearing is first held in court Clients with extensive SA history often struggle with impulse control and anger. If a client becomes verbally agitated, angry, and elevated with a counselor, what is the BEST response? validate his or her affect but not expression Many SA clients suffer from high impulsivity. If a client begins to act out inappropriately, what is an IDEAL grounding technique? Anchoring exercises/ grounding techniques Clients with history of abuse tend to place themselves in situations in which further abuse is likely, particularly an unsafe relationship. If this occurs, what is the counselor's BEST response? Coach them to explore the situation, issues of risk and self-endangerment A counselor finds herself treating a perpetrator of incest abuse. A survivor of past abuse herself, the counselor finds deeply disturbing. What would be her BEST response? Refer the client to a counselor more comfortable with the client. In providing services, an agency needs to maintain a vision of purpose and important objectives. Of the following, what is the MOST significant mission? to break the cycle of abuse and neglect What is the purpose of the purpose of the AEQ instrument? to assesses expected positive and negative affects of alcohol What is the SCQ designed to do? Reveal a client's situational confidence in high-risk drinking situations What is the ASRPT instrument used for? to role-play client responses to situations that pose a threat of relapse Cognitve-behavioral therapy (CBT) does NOT address which of the following? the role of a higher power in achieving and maintaining abstinence Which of the following is NOT a strength of CBT? CBT was developed as an effective group counseling approach Which of the following statements is true regarding CBT? It is superior to contingency management approaches In motivational interviewing, what is the role of the counselor? a coach or consultant, asking key questions for learning How is motivational enhancement therapy (MET) different from motivational interviewing (MI)? MET incorporates structured assessments and follow-up sessions How many treatment weeks are involved in the current Matrix Model program? Sixteen-weeks Which of the following is NOT a group in the MATRIX Model of treatment? Stress management groups What have efficacy studies of the MATRIX Model of treatment found? the model is significantly positive in measures of efficacy Of the following, what are the TWO most significant drawbacks to the MATRIX Model? Cognitively impaired clients may have difficulty with some materials, and some clients may be adverse to the highly structured content and scheduling. What theory is community reinforcement (CR) and contingency management (CM) based upon? Operant conditioning theory Osher and Kofoed developed a staged approach to the treatment of co-occurring disorders that incorporates how many stages? four stages Why do clients with co-occurring psychiatric disorders respond poorly to confrontational counseling approaches? They decompensate in stressful interpersonal situations How is the use of group therapy with co-occurring disorders clients BEST described? widely accepted and effective The term double trouble, in reference to mutual-help groups, refers to what? Groups for clients with both psychiatric and substance abuse issues Why are medication management groups created primarily? to offer education and address compliance concers Among the following mental health disorders, which one is the MOST influenced by culture? depression For the counselor, in which of the following is the influence of culture is MOST likely to be apparent? Symptom presentation What cultural group is least susceptible to suicide? Rates are lowest for African America women When experiencing mental health concerns, from whom are racial and ethnic minorities LEAST likely to seek help? a counselor What is the GREATEST cultural barrier to receiving mental health treatment? the stigma of mental illness What do studies indicate about lesbian, gay, bisexual, and transgender individuals? they are more likely to abuse alcohol and drugs than the general population What does the term cultural brokering refer to? Liaison work between cultures to meet needs How do the rates of heavy alcohol use among youth ages 12-17 in rural areas compare? double the rates in metropolitan areas Although homeless individuals are more likely to receive detoxification services than people not homeless, what percentage will receive full treatment for their alcohol or substance abuse? 25% Homeless individuals are particularly susceptible to SA due to stress and hopelessness of their current situation. What are the three most common substances of abuse among this population? Alcohol, opioids and crack cocaine What is the case management model that seeks to identify client's needs and assist clients in obtaining access various identified resources known as? Brokerage or generalist Model Which is the ONLY case management model that specifically addresses making contact with clients in their homes and other natural settings? program of assertive community treatment model What is the case management approach that focuses on helping clients assert direct and personal control in the search for resources? Strengths based perspective Which is the ONLY case management model that specifically addresses making contact with clients in their home and other natural settings? Program of Assertive Community Treatment Model (PACTM) Among the numerous principles that are essential to effective case management, how is the principle of advocacy BEST described? Advocating for the client's best interests How are the clinical, evaluative, and administrative activities that link clients with treatment, community services, and other resources needed to carry out a treatment plan MOST comprehensively referred to? Service coordination How is the individual who is responsible to carry out the clinical monitoring and collaborative client assessments, evaluations, referrals, treatment coordination, and goodness-of-fit appraisals of the treatment plan to client goals and objectives BEST known as? Case Management A program or agency at times may require outside services to continue functioning properly. When an outside official or agency provides services solely maintain the function and viability of a treating agency or program, confidentiality is maintained when service providers sign a ....... Qualified Service Organization Agreement (QSOA) What is the case management model that integrates therapeutic and resource acquisition activities known as? Clinical or Rehabilitation model What is a brief but comprehensively integrated public health approach to early substance abuse intervention and treatment known as? Screening, Brief Intervention and referral to treatment (SBIRT) What is the key feature that differentiates a substance abuse counselor who merely practices in the field from one who succeeds in changing client's lives? the ability to be empathetic A great deal is communicated nonverbally in the counseling process. How much communication does nonverbal body language account for, according to research? 50% During the intake process it is important for client to sign and informed consent form. What is the MOST important reasons for signing this form? to acquaint clients with program rules, regulations, and boundaries SAMHSA maintains a national registry known as NREPP. What does this acronym refer to? National Registry of Evidence based Programs Practices It is important to determine a client's readiness for change at the outset of treatment. What is the BEST indicator of readiness? The client and family's level of emotional and physical pain Significant substance abuse can arrest personal progress and growth in many ways. How will emotional and other normal developmental stages MOST likely to be affected? they will be largely skipped due to significant substance abuse What is one reason substance abuse in the family is NOT initiated or maintained? The need to exert control over other family members Who carries out a programmed confrontation? a family member How is Community Reinforcement Training (CRT) used? to motivate a substance user to enter a treatment program Which treatment method uses the intervention network as part of its motivational process? The ARISE Method What is the main goal of involving the family in treatment? To educate the family about substance abuse as chronic disorder requiring lifelong changes Who are the family members most likely to participate in treatment? Adult women How does Bowen family systems theory view the family? As interdependent emotional unit What is the therapeutic intervention that draws upon extended support linkages to produce motivation and reinforcement known as? Network therapy Which brief therapeutic approach use the miracle question technique? Solution focused family therapy It is estimated that genetic factors account for: 40%-60% of addiction vulnerability If the home itself is a high risk environment, how can a minor's healthy development be optimized? they distance themselves from their dysfunctional families and/or develop a talent, skill, or something valued by others. How is the concept of resilience, from the perspective of mental health, BEST described? Internal strengths necessary to cope with challenging events How do Hispanic and Latino populations, in general, tend to respond to alcohol problems in the family? By attempting to ignore and avoid discussing the drinking problem African Americans have a significant presence in the US. What is the percentage of the population that identifies themselves as black? 13% Native Americans have distinct cultures, particularly among those living on reservations or trust lands.What percentage report alcohol use? 20% The racial mix of the US continues to shift. What is the fastest growing minority group in the nation? Asians & Pacific Islanders What is the difference between a discharge summary and a continuing care plan? A discharge plan provides an overview of treatment and outcomes, while the continuing care plan addresses after care options based on the client's response to treatment Tracking client progress longitudinally is important to measure progress and document program effectiveness. How often is client data typically reviewed? Annually Ideally, a treatment plan should be developed with which of the following sets of people? the counselor and the client together Treatment plans should refer to the type of program service modality being offered. Which of the following is NOT a common modality? Scholastic Fundamental ethical principles govern the addiction treatment process, especially in situations of medication-assisted treatment (MAT) for opioid addiction. What does the principle of nonmaleficence refer to? Doing no harm The capacity to be empathetic is important in counseling. What must a counselor do when relating to clients over issues of their past? avoid becoming overly drawn into the client's history and issues the counselor-client relationship can be very complex. What does the term transference refer to? feelings from a past relationship that are projected onto the counselor. What does the term countertransference refer to? feelings from the counselor that are projected onto the client Working with substance abusing clients can result in a variety of emotive experiences. What does the term secondary trauma refer to? symptoms in the counselor emerging from high exposure to client traumas Substance abusing clients can be clinically and personally challenging. Of what is compassion fatigue a key symptom? Counselor burnout What does a treatment frame assist both the counselor and clients to establish and maintain? healthy boundaries in treatment Trust is an essential component of a productive counseling relationship. Which of the following is NOT a key counselor contribution to the development of trust? greater latitude in boundary setting Counselor-client relationships can at times become inappropriately intimate and intense. What is one particularly problematic potential from this? Client romantic feelings for a counselor Client with a history of sexual abuse may have poor boundaries with others. If a counselor becomes sexually involved with a client, what are the consequences? [Show More]

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