NR302 Week 6 Final Exam 2

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NR302 Week 6 Final Exam 2 NR302 Week 6 Final Exam 2 1. The general survey consists of four distinct areas. These areas include: A. mental status, speech, behavior, and mood and affect. A general... survey does not include assessment of mental status. B. gait, range of motion, mental status, and behavior. A general survey does not include assessment of mental status. C. physical appearance, body structure, mobility, and behavior. Correct The general survey is a study of the whole person, covering the general health state and any obvious physical characteristics. The four areas of the general survey are physical appearance, body structure, mobility, and behavior. D. level of consciousness, personal hygiene, mental status, and physical condition. A general survey does not include assessment of mental status and physical condition. 2. Incorrect 3. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 4. 2.ID: 298133853 A common error in blood pressure measurement includes: A. taking the blood pressure in an arm that is at the level of the heart. The patient’s arm should be positioned at the level of the heart when obtaining a blood pressure. B. waiting less than 1 to 2 minutes before repeating the blood pressure reading on the same arm. Correct Waiting less than 1 to 2 minutes before repeating the blood pressure reading on the same arm will result in a falsely high diastolic pressure related to venous congestion in the forearm. C. deflating the cuff about 2 mm Hg per heart beat. The cuff should be deflated at a rate of 2 mm Hg per heart beat. D. using a blood pressure cuff whose bladder length is 80% of the arm circumference. The blood pressure cuff bladder length should be about 80% of the arm circumference. Incorrect Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 5. 3.ID: 298133863 Data collection for the general survey begins: A. at the first encounter. Correct The general survey is initiated at the first encounter with the patient.B. at the beginning of the physical examination. Refer to feedback in Option A. C. while taking vital signs. Refer to feedback in Option A. D. during the mental status examination. Refer to feedback in Option A. Incorrect Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 6. 4.ID: 298133855 The Doppler technique: A. is used to assess the apical pulse. A stethoscope is used to assess an apical pulse. B. augments Korotkoff sounds during blood pressure measurement. Correct The Doppler technique may be used to locate peripheral pulse sites and for blood pressure measurement to augment Korotkoff sounds. C. provides an easy and accurate measure of the diastolic pressure. The systolic blood pressure is more easily identified with the Doppler technique than is the diastolic pressure. D. measures arterial oxygenation saturation. A pulse oximeter measures arterial oxygenation saturation. Incorrect Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 7. 5.ID: 298133851 The tympanic membrane thermometer: A. provides an accurate measurement of core body temperature. Correct The tympanic membrane thermometer (TMT) is an accurate measurer of core body temperature. B. senses the infrared emissions of the cerebral cortex. The TMT senses the infrared emissions of the tympanic membrane; the tympanic membrane shares the same vascular supply that perfuses the hypothalamus. C. is not used in unconscious patients. The TMT is used with unconscious patients or those in the emergency department, recovery areas, and labor and delivery units.D. accurately measures temperature in 20 to 30 seconds. The temperature is displayed in 2 to 3 seconds. Incorrect Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 8. 6.ID: 298133849 Endogenous obesity is: A. due to inadequate secretion of cortisol by the adrenal glands. Adrenocorticotropin (ACTH) stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete excess cortisol and causes Cushing syndrome, which is characterized by weight gain and edema with central trunk and cervical obesity. B. caused by excess adrenocorticotropin production by the pituitary gland. Correct Endogenous obesity is caused by either the administration of adrenocorticotropin (ACTH) or excessive production of ACTH by the pituitary. C. characterized by evenly distributed excess body fat. Excessive catabolism causes muscle wasting with thin arms and legs. Body fat is evenly distributed in exogenous obesity due to excessive caloric intake. D. a result of excessive secretion of growth hormone in adulthood. Acromegaly is caused by an excessive secretion of growth hormone in adulthood. Incorrect Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 9. 7.ID: 298133861 To perform an accurate assessment of respirations, the examiner should: A. inform the person of the procedure and count for 1 minute. Patients have conscious control over respirations; the examiner should not mention that respirations will be counted. B. count for 15 seconds while keeping fingers on the pulse and then multiply by four. Avoid counting respirations for 15 seconds because the results can vary +4 or -4 with such a small number. C. count for 30 seconds after completing a pulse assessment and multiply by two. Correct Respirations should be counted for 30 seconds (if regular) and multiplied by two. The respirations should be counted after the pulse assessment. D. assess respirations for a full 2 minutes if an abnormality is suspected.Respirations should be counted for 1 minute if abnormalities are suspected. Incorrect Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 10. 8.ID: 298133847 Physical appearance includes statements that compare appearance with: A. mood and affect. Behavior is compared with mood and affect. B. stated age. Correct Physical appearance includes statements that compare appearance with age, sex, level of consciousness, skin color, and facial features. C. gait. Mobility is compared with gait. D. nutrition. Body structure is compared with nutrition. Incorrect Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 11. 9.ID: 298133865 An adult patient’s pulse is 46 beats per minute. The term used to describe this rate is: A. tachycardia. A heart rate of greater than 90 beats per minute in an adult is tachycardia. B. bradycardia. Correct A heart rate of less than 50 beats per minute in an adult is bradycardia. C. weak and thready. Weak and thready describes the force of the pulse reflecting a decreased stroke volume. D. sinus arrhythmia. Sinus arrhythmia is a pulse that is irregular; the heart rate varies with the respiratory cycle. Incorrect Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 12. 10.ID: 298133857 The nurse records that the patient’s pulse is 3+ or full and bounding. Which of the following could be the cause? A. Dehydration A weak, thready pulse may reflect a decreased stroke volume, as with dehydration.B. Shock A weak, thready pulse may reflect a decreased stroke volume, as with shock. C. Bleeding A weak, thready pulse reflects a decreased stroke volume, as with bleeding. D. Anxiety Correct A full, bounding pulse (3+) reflects an increased stroke volume, as with anxiety and exercise. Incorrect Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 1. 1.ID: 298130071 Pain signals are carried to the central nervous system by way of: A. perception. Perception indicates the conscious awareness of a painful sensation. B. afferent fibers. Correct Nociceptors carry the pain signal to the central nervous system by two primary sensory (or afferent) fibers. C. modulation. Modulation inhibits the pain message producing an analgesic effect. D. referred pain. Referred pain is pain felt at a particular site that originates from another location. Incorrect Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 2. 2.ID: 298130063 Which of the following is the most reliable indicator for chronic pain? A. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) results Chronic pain is transmitted on a cellular level, and current technology such as an MRI scan cannot reliably detect this process. B. Patient self-report Correct The most important and reliable indicator for chronic pain is the patient’s self-report. C. Tissue enzyme levels Chronic pain is transmitted on a cellular level, and current technology such as tissue enzyme levels cannot reliably detect this process.D. Blood drug levels Chronic pain is transmitted on a cellular level, and blood drug levels cannot reliably detect this process. Incorrect Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 3. 3.ID: 298130069 Which of the following is true regarding cultural/racial differences in the treatment of pain? A. White individuals receive more analgesic therapy than black or Hispanic individuals with similar symptoms. Correct Various studies describe how black and Hispanic patients are often prescribed less analgesic therapy than white patients, although most of these differences are small. B. Black and Hispanic individuals have been found to have a higher pain tolerance than white individuals. No evidence supports this statement. C. Pain modulation is more highly developed in black and Hispanic individuals. No evidence supports this statement. D. Neurotransmitters are more concentrated in whites individuals than they are in black and Hispanic individuals. No evidence supports this statement. Incorrect Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 4. 4.ID: 298130061 What occurs during transduction (the first phase of nociceptive pain)? A. Pain signals move from the site of origin to the spinal cord Correct Transduction is the first phase of nociceptive pain. During this phase, injured tissue releases chemicals that propagate the pain message; an action potential moves along an afferent fiber to the spinal cord. B. Pain impulse moves from the spinal cord to the brain During transmission (the second phase), the pain impulse moves from the level of the spinal cord to the brain. C. Interpretation of the pain signal by the brain The third phase is perception; the person has conscious awareness of a painful sensation. D. Neutralization of chemical mediators to decrease the perception of painIn phase four, modulation, the neurons from the brain stem release neurotransmitters that block the pain impulse. Incorrect Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 5. 5.ID: 298130073 What type of pain is short and self-limiting and dissipates after the injury heals? A. Chronic Chronic pain lasts for 6 months or longer; the pain persists after the predicted trajectory. B. Persistent Persistent pain is another term for chronic pain. C. Acute Correct Acute pain is short term and self-limiting, often follows a predictable trajectory, and dissipates after an injury heals. D. Breakthrough Breakthrough pain starts again or escalates before the next scheduled analgesic dose. Incorrect Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 6. 6.ID: 298130067 Neuropathic pain implies an abnormal: A. degree of pain interpretation. Neuropathic pain does not adhere to the typical and rather predictable phases inherent in nociceptive pain. B. processing of the pain message. Correct Neuropathic pain results from abnormal processing of the pain message. C. transmission of pain signals. Refer to feedback in Option A. D. modulation of pain signals. Refer to feedback in Option A. Incorrect Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 7. 7.ID: 298130057 What is the source of deep somatic pain? A. Skin and subcutaneous tissuesCutaneous pain is derived from skin surface and subcutaneous tissues. B. Bones and joints Correct Deep somatic pain comes from sources such as the blood vessels, joints, tendons, muscles, and bones. C. Pancreas Visceral pain originates from the larger interior organs such as the pancreas. D. Intestine Visceral pain originates from the larger interior organs such as the intestine. Incorrect Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 8. 8.ID: 298130065 Which of the following has been found to influence pain sensitivity in women? A. Age Age has not been found to influence pain sensitivity in women. B. Hormonal changes Correct Gender differences are influenced by societal expectation, hormones, and genetic makeup. Hormonal changes are found to have strong influences on pain sensitivity for women. C. Parity Parity has not been found to influence pain sensitivity in women. D. Weight Weight has not been found to influence pain sensitivity in women. Incorrect Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 9. 9.ID: 298130075 Specialized nerve endings that are designed to detect painful sensations are: A. synapses. A synapse is a region (or small gap) where nerve impulses are transmitted and received. B. dorsal horns. The dorsal horn is a longitudinal subdivision of gray matter in the dorsal part of each lateral half of the spinal cord that receives terminals from some afferent fibers of the dorsal roots of the spinal nerves. C. nociceptors. CorrectNociceptors are specialized nerve endings designed to detect painful sensations from the periphery and transmit them to the central nervous system. D. C fibers. C fibers are one of two primary sensory or afferent fibers that are unmyelinated and smaller; C fibers transmit the signal slowly. Incorrect Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 10. 10.ID: 298130059 An older adult patient with dementia has a pain rating of 5 on the Pain Assessment in Advanced Dementia (PAINAD) Scale. The nurse should: A. reassess the pain level in 3 to 4 hours. The nurse should not wait an additional 3 to 4 hours for another pain assessment. B. administer prescribed pain medication. Correct A patient with a pain score of 4 or greater (on the PAINAD scale) should receive pain intervention. Patients with dementia can be given an analgesic trial or option. C. ask the patient to verify the pain rating. The patient with dementia may say “No” if asked about having pain even if he or she is having pain. Words lose their meaning with dementia. D. use only nonpharmacologic pain relief interventions. Nonpharmacologic pain relief interventions can be implemented with or without prescribed pain medication. Incorrect Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible poi 1. When taking the health history, the patient complains of pruritus. What is a common cause of this symptom? A. Excessive bruising Excessive bruising is not a common cause of pruritus. B. Hyperpigmentation Hyperpigmentation is not a common cause of pruritus. C. Melasma Melasma is not a common cause of pruritus. D. Drug reactions Correct Common causes of pruritus include dry skin, aging, drug reactions, allergy, obstructive jaundice, uremia, and lice.2. Incorrect 3. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 4. 2.ID: 298118634 A flat macular hemorrhage is called a(n): A. purpura. Correct Purpura is a flat, macular, red to purple hemorrhage that is a confluent and extensive patch of petechiae and ecchymoses greater than 3 mm. B. ecchymosis. An ecchymosis is petechiae that are greater than 3 mm. C. petechiae. Petechiae are tiny punctuate hemorrhages that are 1 to 3 mm, round and discrete, and dark red, purple, or brown caused by bleeding from superficial capillaries. D. hemangioma. Hemangiomas are vascular lesions caused by a benign proliferation of blood vessels in the dermis. Incorrect Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 5. 3.ID: 298118638 A student nurse has been assigned to teach fourth graders about hygiene. While preparing, the student nurse adds information about the sweat glands. Which of the following should be included while discussing this topic? A. There are two types of sweat glands: the eccrine and the sebaceous. There are two types of sweat glands: the eccrine glands and the apocrine glands. B. The evaporation of sweat, a dilute saline solution, increases body temperature. The evaporation of sweat reduces body temperature. C. Eccrine glands produce sweat and are mainly located in the axillae, anogenital area, and navel. The apocrine glands produce a thick, milky secretion and open into the hair follicles; they are located mainly in the axillae, anogenital area, nipples, and navel. D. Newborn infants do not sweat and use compensatory mechanisms to control body temperature. Correct Newborn infants’ eccrine glands do not secrete sweat in response to heat until the first few months of life; newborn temperature regulation is ineffective. Incorrect Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points.6. 4.ID: 298118630 Functions of the skin include: A. production of vitamin C. The skin produces vitamin D, not vitamin C. B. temperature regulation. Correct Functions of the skin include protection, prevention of penetration, perception (of touch, pain, temperature, and pressure), temperature regulation, identification, communication, wound repair, absorption and excretion, and production of vitamin D. C. the production of new cells by melanocytes. The basal cell layer of the epidermis forms new skin cells. Melanocytes produce melanin, which gives brown tones to the skin and hair. D. the secretion of a drying substance called sebum. Sebum is produced by the sebaceous glands to lubricate the skin and hair. Incorrect Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 7. 5.ID: 298118640 Risk factors that may lead to skin disease and breakdown include: A. loss of protective cushioning of the dermal skin layer. Aging results in the loss of protective cushioning of the subcutaneous layer of the skin. B. decreased vascular fragility. Aging results in decreased vascularity of the skin. C. a lifetime of environmental trauma. Correct An accumulation of factors placing the aging person at risk for skin disease and breakdown include the thinning of the skin, the decrease in vascularity and nutrients, the loss of protective cushioning of the subcutaneous layer, a lifetime of environmental trauma to skin, the social changes of aging, the increasingly sedentary lifestyle, and the chance of immobility. D. increased thickness of the skin. Aging results in thinning of the skin. Incorrect Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 8. 6.ID: 298118624 What term refers to a linear skin lesion that runs along a nerve route? A. Zosteriform CorrectZosteriform describes a lesion that has a linear arrangement along a nerve root. B. Annular Annular describes a lesion that is circular and begins in the center and spreads to the periphery. C. Dermatome A dermatome is an area of skin that is mainly supplied by a single spinal nerve. D. Shingles Shingles (herpes zoster) are small grouped vesicles that emerge along the route of a cutaneous sensory nerve, then pustules, then crusts; shingles is caused by the herpes zoster virus. Incorrect Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 9. 7.ID: 298118632 The components of a nail examination include: A. contour, consistency, and color. Correct The nails should be assessed for shape and contour, consistency, and color. B. shape, surface, and circulation. See feedback for Option A. C. clubbing, pitting, and grooving. See feedback for Option A. D. texture, toughness, and translucency. See feedback for Option A. Incorrect Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 10. 8.ID: 298118628 To determine if a dark skinned patient is pale, the nurse should assess the color of the: A. conjunctivae. Correct To detect pallor in a dark skinned individual, the nurse should assess an area with the least pigmentation, such as the conjunctivae or mucous membranes. B. ear lobes. See feedback for Option A. C. palms of the hands. See feedback for Option A.D. skin in the antecubital space. See feedback for Option A. Incorrect Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 11. 9.ID: 298118626 An example of a primary lesion is a(n): A. erosion. Erosions are secondary lesions; a secondary lesion is a lesion that changes over time or changes because of a factor such as scratching or infection. B. ulcer. Ulcers are secondary lesions; a secondary lesion is a lesion that changes over time or changes because of a factor such as scratching or infection. C. urticaria. Correct Urticaria is a primary lesion; a primary lesion is a lesion that develops on previously unaltered skin. D. port-wine stain. A port-wine stain is a vascular lesion. Incorrect Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 12. 10.ID: 298118636 A scooped out, shallow depression in the skin is called a/an: A. ulcer. An ulcer is a deeper depression extending into the dermis. B. excoriation. An excoriation is self-inflicted abrasion that is superficial. C. fissure. A fissure is a narrow opening of tissue or skin. D. erosion. Correct An erosion is a scooped out, shallow depression in the skin. Incorrect Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 1. Bleeding into the periosteum during birth is known as:A. caput succedaneum. A caput succedaneum is edematous swelling and ecchymosis of the presenting part of the head caused by birth trauma. B. craniosynostosis. Craniosynostosis is marked asymmetry caused by a severe deformity caused by premature closure of the sutures resulted in a long, narrow head. C. molding. Molding of the cranial bones during passage through the birth canal makes the head asymmetric and ridges more prominent. D. cephalhematoma. Correct A cephalhematoma is a subperiosteal hemorrhage resulting from birth trauma. 2. Incorrect 3. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 4. 2.ID: 298126709 Craniosynostosis is a severe deformity caused by: A. premature closure of the sutures. Correct Craniosynostosis is marked asymmetry caused by a severe deformity caused by premature closure of the sutures resulting in a long, narrow head. B. increased intracranial pressure. Hydrocephalus (obstruction of drainage of cerebrospinal fluid) results in excessive accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid, increasing intracranial pressure, and enlargement of the head. C. a localized bone disease that softens, thickens, and deforms bone. Paget disease (osteitis deformans) is a localized bone disease of unknown etiology that softens, thickens, and deforms bone. D. excess growth hormone or a deficit in thyroid hormone. Acromegaly results from excessive secretion of growth hormone from the pituitary after puberty. Congenital hypothyroidism and myxedema are caused by thyroid hormone deficiency. Incorrect Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 5. 3.ID: 298126701 Narrow palpebral fissures, epicanthal folds, and midfacial hypoplasia are characteristic of: A. Down syndrome.Facial characteristics of Down syndrome include upslanting eyes with inner epicanthal folds, flat nasal bridge, small broad flat nose, protruding thick tongue, and ear dysplasia. B. fetal alcohol syndrome. Correct Facial characteristics of fetal alcohol syndrome include narrow palpebral fissures, epicanthal folds, and midfacial hypoplasia. C. chronic childhood allergies. Facial characteristics of chronic allergies include exhausted face, blue shadows below the eyes, double or single crease on the lower eyelids, central facial pallor, open mouth breathing (malocclusion of the teeth and malformed jaw), and a transverse line on the nose. D. congenital hypothyroidism. Facial characteristics of congenital hypothyroidism include low hairline, hirsute forehead, swollen eyelids, narrow palpebral fissures, widely spaced eyes, depressed nasal bridge, puffy face, thick tongue protruding through an open mouth, and a dull expression. Incorrect Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 6. 4.ID: 298126397 Kyphosis of the spine is common with aging. To compensate, older adults will: A. increase their center of gravity. See feedback for Option B. B. extend their heads and jaws forward. Correct The older adult may show an increased anterior cervical (concave or inward) curve when the head and jaw are extended forward to compensate for kyphosis of the spine. C. stiffen their gait. See feedback for Option B. D. shuffle. See feedback for Option B. Incorrect Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 7. 5.ID: 298126707 Which statement is accurate related to aggravating symptoms or triggers of headaches? A. Alcohol consumption may precipitate the onset of cluster or migraine headaches. Correct Aggravating symptoms or triggers for cluster headaches include alcohol consumption, stress, or wind or heat exposure. Aggravating symptoms or triggers for migraines includehormonal fluctuations, certain foods, letdown after stress, changes in sleep pattern, sensory stimuli, and changes in weather or physical activity. B. Certain foods such as chocolate or cheese may precipitate the onset of tension headaches. Aggravating symptoms or triggers for tension headaches include stress anxiety, depression, poor posture. C. Premenstrual hormonal fluctuations may precipitate the onset of cluster headaches. See feedback for Option A. D. Poor posture may trigger a migraine headache. See feedback for Option B. Incorrect Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 8. 6.ID: 298126705 Most facial bones articulate at a suture. Which facial bone articulates at a joint? A. Nasal bone See feedback for Option B. B. Mandible Correct The facial bones articulate at sutures (nasal bone, zygomatic bone, and maxilla), except for the mandible. The mandible articulates at the temporomandibular joint. C. Zygomatic bone See feedback for Option B. D. Maxilla See feedback for Option B. Incorrect Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 9. 7.ID: 298126393 A severe deficiency of thyroid hormone leading to nonpitting edema, coarse facial features, dry skin, and dry coarse hair is known as: A. congenital hypothyroidism. Congenital hypothyroidism is a thyroid deficiency that occurs at an early age; characteristics include low hairline, hirsute forehead, swollen eyelids, narrow palpebral fissures, widely spaced eyes, depressed nasal bridge, puffy face, thick tongue protruding through an open mouth, and a dull expression.B. scleroderma. Scleroderma is a rare connective tissue disease characterized by chronic hardening and shrinking degenerative changes in the skin blood vessels, synovium, and skeletal muscles. C. myxedema. Correct Myxedema (hypothyroidism) is a deficiency of thyroid hormone. If severe, the symptoms include nonpitting edema or myxedema; a puffy edematous face, especially around eyes (periorbital edema); coarse facial features; dry skin; and dry, coarse hair and eyebrows. D. Hashimoto thyroiditis. Hashimoto thyroiditis is a condition with excess thyroid hormone production; symptoms include goiter, nervousness, fatigue, weight loss, muscle cramps, heat intolerance, tachycardia, shortness of breath, excessive sweating, fine muscle tremor, thin silky hair and skin, infrequent blinking, and a staring appearance. Incorrect Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 10. 8.ID: 298126395 Which of the following statements describing a headache would warrant an immediate referral? A. "This is the worst migraine of my life." See feedback for Option C. B. "This is the worst headache I've had since puberty." See feedback for Option C. C. "I have never had a headache like this before; it is so bad I can't function." Correct A sudden severe headache in an adult or child who has never had it before warrants an immediate referral. A sudden severe headache could indicate a subarachnoid hemorrhage. D. "I have had daily headaches for years." See feedback for Option C. Incorrect Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 11. 9.ID: 298126391 What disease is characterized by a flat, expressionless, or mask-like face, a staring gaze, oily skin, and elevated eyebrows? A. Acromegaly Facial characteristics of acromegaly include an elongated head, a massive face, a prominent nose and lower jaw, a heavy eyebrow ridge, and coarse facial features.B. Scleroderma Facial characteristics of scleroderma include hard, shiny skin on forehead and cheeks; thin, pursed lips with radial furrowing; absent skinfolds; muscle atrophy on face and neck; and absence of expression. C. Cushing syndrome Facial characteristics of Cushing syndrome include a plethoric, rounded, “moonlike” face, prominent jowls, red cheeks, and hirsutism on the upper lip, lower cheeks, and chin. D. Parkinson disease Correct Facial characteristics of Parkinson disease include a flat and expressionless face that is “mask­like” with elevated eyebrows, a staring gaze, oily skin, and drooling. Incorrect Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 12. 10.ID: 298126399 A patient is admitted to the emergency room after a motor vehicle accident. The trachea is deviated to the left side. This finding is characteristic of: A. right pneumothorax. Correct The trachea is normally midline; the trachea will deviated to the unaffected side (left) with a right pneumothorax. B. aortic arch aneurysm. The trachea will be pulled downward with systole of an aortic arch aneurysm occurs. C. right pleural adhesion. The trachea will be deviated to the affected side (right) with a large right sided pleural adhesion. D. right sided atelectasis. The trachea will be deviated to the affected side (right) with a large right sided atelectasis. Incorrect Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points 1. The extraocular muscles consist of four straight or muscles and two slanting or muscles. A. palpebral; conjugate See feedback in Option C. B. superior; inferiorSee feedback in Option C.C. rectus; oblique Correct The four straight, or rectus, muscles are the superior, inferior, lateral, and medial rectus muscles. The two slanting, or oblique, muscles are the superior and inferior muscles. D. rectilinear; diagonal See feedback in Option C. 2. Incorrect 3. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 4. 2.ID: 298135027 A slight protrusion of the eyeballs may be noticed when examining individuals who come from which ethnic/cultural group? A. Asian See feedback in Option B. B. African American Correct African Americans normally may have a slight protrusion of the eyeball beyond the supraorbital ridge. C. Hispanic See feedback in Option B. D. American Indian See feedback in Option B. Incorrect Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 5. 3.ID: 298135033 The location in the brain where optic nerve fibers from the temporal fields of vision cross over is identified as the: A. optic chiasm. Correct At the optic chiasm, nasal fibers (from both temporal visual fields) cross over. B. fovea centralis. The fovea centralis is the area of the retina that has the sharpest and keenest vision. C. optic disc. The optic disc is the area in which fibers from the retina converge to form the optic nerve. D. choroid.The choroid is the middle vascular layer of the eye; the choroid has dark pigmentation to prevent light from reflecting internally and is heavily vascularized to deliver blood to the retina. Incorrect Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 6. 4.ID: 298135023 Which of the following groups of individuals need to be tested for the presence of color blindness (deficiency)? A. Black males between the ages of 10 and 15 years See feedback in Option B. B. White males between the ages of 4 and 8 years Correct Color blindness is an inherited recessive X-linked trait affecting about 8% of white males and 4% of black males. Test only boys for color vision, once between the ages of 4 and 8 years. C. Asian females between the ages of 3 and 6 years See feedback in Option B. D. White females between the ages of 4 and 8 years See feedback in Option B. Incorrect Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 7. 5.ID: 298135037 Which of the following statements is true in regard to the results obtained from use of the Snellen chart? A. The smaller the denominator, the poorer the vision. See feedback in Option B. B. The larger the denominator, the poorer the vision. Correct Using the Snellen chart, the larger the denominator, the poorer the vision. C. The larger the numerator, the better the vision. See feedback in Option B. D. The smaller the numerator, the poorer the vision. See feedback in Option B. Incorrect Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 8. 6.ID: 298135021The lens of the eye functions as a: A. refracting medium. Correct The lens serves as a refracting medium, keeping a viewed object in continual focus on the retina. B. mediator of light. The muscle fibers of the iris function as the mediator of light. C. sensory facilitator. The cornea is very sensitive to touch. D. controller of intraocular pressure. The intraocular pressure is determined by a balance between the amount of aqueous produced and resistance to its outflow at the angle of the anterior chamber. Incorrect Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 9. 7.ID: 298135041 When inspecting the eyeballs of an African American individual, which of the following might the examiner expect to observe? A. A slight misalignment of the eyeballs See feedback in Option C. B. A slight yellow discoloration of the sclera See feedback in Option C. C. Small brown macules on the sclera Correct Dark-skinned people may normally have small brown macules on the sclera. D. A slight amount of drainage around the lacrimal apparatus See feedback in Option C. Incorrect Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 10. 8.ID: 298135039 The normal color of the optic disc is: A. red. See feedback in Option C. B. creamy pink. See feedback in Option C.C. creamy yellow-orange to pink. Correct The color of a normal optic disc will range from creamy yellow-orange to pink. D. creamy red to yellow-orange. See feedback in Option C. Incorrect Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 11. 9.ID: 298135035 Which of the following is an expected response on the cover test? A. The covered eye moves into a relaxed position. If muscle weakness is present the covered eye will drift into a relaxed position. B. The covered eye maintains its position when uncovered. Correct A normal response to the cover test is a steady fixed gaze. C. The uncovered eye is unable to maintain its gaze on a fixed object. See feedback in Option B. D. The covered eye jumps to reestablish fixation when it is uncovered. If when the eye is uncovered, it jumps to reestablish fixation, then eye muscle weakness exists. Incorrect Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 12. 10.ID: 298135031 Which of the following findings is associated with Horner syndrome? A. Bilateral miosis See feedback in Option C. B. Bilateral mydriasis See feedback in Option C. C. A unilateral small regular pupil that reacts to light and accommodation Correct Horner syndrome is caused by a lesion of the sympathetic nerve. An individual with Horner syndrome will have a unilateral, small, regular pupil that does react to light and accommodation. There will be unilateral ptosis and absence of sweat on the same side. D. A unilateral dilated pupil with no reaction to light or accommodation See feedback in Option C. Incorrect Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points.13. 11.ID: 298135029 Decreased vision in the elderly may be due to which of the following conditions? [Show More]

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