ATI TEAS Practice Test #2 1. Reading 2. Mathematics 3. Science 4. English and Language use Answer Key and explanations at the end Reading Number of Questions: 53 Time Limit: 64 Minutes At first, the woman’s contractions
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ATI TEAS Practice Test #2 1. Reading 2. Mathematics 3. Science 4. English and Language use Answer Key and explanations at the end Reading Number of Questions: 53 Time Limit: 64 Minutes At first, the woman’s contractions were only intermittent, so the nurse had trouble determining how far her labor had progressed. 1. Which of the following is the definition for the underlined word? a. frequent b. irregular c. painful d. dependable 2. Which of the following would be the best source to begin developing a position about civil rights for an oral debate? a. A blog created by a proponent of civil rights. b. An interview with someone who took part in a civil rights march. c. A history textbook detailing civil rights. d. A speech by a famous civil rights leader. The heavy spring rain resulted in a plethora of zucchini in Kit’s garden, and left her desperately giving the vegetables to anyone who was interested. 3. Which of the following is the definition for the underlined word in the sentence? a. irritation b. quantity c. abundance d. waste 4. The guide words at the top of a dictionary page are needs and negotiate. Which of the following words is an entry on this page? a. needle b. neigh c. neglect d. nectar The next question is based on the following information. Chapter 4: The Fictional Writings of Dorothy L. Sayers Plays Novels Short Stories Letters Mysteries 5. Analyze the headings above. Which of the following does not belong? a. Novels b. Plays c. Mysteries d. Letters ATI TEAS Practice Test #2 The next three questions are based on the following passage. Among the first females awarded a degree from Oxford University, Dorothy L. Sayers proved to be one of the most versatile writers in post-war England. Sayers was born in 1893, the only child of an Anglican chaplain, and she received an unexpectedly good education at home. For instance, her study of Latin commenced when she was only six years old. She entered Oxford in 1912, at a time when the university was not granting degrees to women. By 1920, this policy had changed, and Sayers received her degree in medieval literature and modern languages after finishing university. That same year, she also received a master of arts degree. Sayers’s first foray into published writing was a collection of poetry released in 1916. Within a few years, she began work on the detective novels and short stories that would make her famous, due to the creation of the foppish, mystery-solving aristocrat Lord Peter Wimsey. Sayers is also credited with the short story mysteries about the character Montague Egg. In spite of her success as a mystery writer, Sayers continued to balance popular fiction with academic work; her translation of Dante’s Inferno gained her respect for her ability to convey the poetry in English while still remaining true to the Italian terza rima. She also composed a series of twelve plays about the life of Christ, and wrote several essays about education and feminism. In her middle age, Dorothy L. Sayers published several works of Christian apologetics, one of which was so well-received that the archbishop of Canterbury attempted to present her with a doctorate of divinity. Sayers, for reasons known only to her, declined. 6. Which of the following describes the type of writing used to create the passage? a. narrative b. persuasive c. expository d. technical 7. Which of the following sentences is the best summary of the passage? a. Among the first females awarded a degree from Oxford University, Dorothy L. Sayersproved to be one of the most versatile writers in post-war England. b. Sayers was born in 1893, the only child of an Anglicanchaplain, and she received an unexpectedly good education at home. c. Within a few years, she began work on the detective novels and short stories that would make her famous, due to the creation of the foppish, mystery-solving aristocrat Lord Peter Wimsey. d. In her middle age, Dorothy L. Sayers published several works of Christian apologetics, one of which was so well-received that the archbishop of Canterbury attempted to present her with a doctorate of divinity. 8. Which of the following sentences contains an opinion statement by the author? a. Among the first females awarded a degree from Oxford University, Dorothy L. Sayersproved to be one of the most versatile writers in post-war England. b. Sayers was born in 1893, the only child of an Anglicanchaplain, and she received an unexpectedly good education at home. c. Her translation of Dante’s Inferno gained her respect for her ability to convey the poetry in English while still remaining true to the Italian terza rima. d. Sayers, for reasons known only to her, declined. ATI TEAS Practice Test #2 The next four questions are based on the following information. The Dewey Decimal Classes 000 Computer science, information, and general works 100 Philosophy and psychology 200 Religion 300 Social sciences 400 Languages 500 Science and mathematics 600 Technical and applied science 700 Arts and recreation 800 Literature 900 History, geography, and biography 9. Jorgen is doing a project on the ancient Greek mathematician and poet Eratosthenes. In his initial review, Jorgen learns that Eratosthenes is considered the first person to calculate the circumference of the earth, and that he is considered the first to describe geography as it is studied today. To which section of the library should Jorgen go to find one of the early maps created by Eratosthenes? a. 100 b. 300 c. 600 d. 900 10. Due to his many interests and pursuits, Eratosthenes dabbled in a variety of fields, and he is credited with a theory known as the sieve of Eratosthenes. This is an early algorithm used to determine prime numbers. To which section of the library should Jorgen go to find out more about the current applications of the sieve of Eratosthenes? a. 000 b. 100 c. 400 d. 500 11. One ancient work claims that Eratosthenes received the nickname “beta” from those who knew him. This is a word that represents the second letter of the Greek alphabet, and it represented Eratosthenes’s accomplishments in every area that he studied. To which section of the library should Jorgen go to learn more about the letters of the Greek alphabet and the meaning of the word “beta”? a. 200 b. 400 c. 700 d. 900 ATI TEAS Practice Test #2 12. Finally, Jorgen learns that Eratosthenes was fascinated by the story of the Trojan War, and that he attempted to determine the exact dates when this event occurred. Jorgen is unfamiliar with the story of the Fall of Troy, so he decides to look into writings such as The Iliad and The Odyssey, by Homer. To which section of the library should Jorgen go to locate these works? a. 100 b. 200 c. 700 d. 800 13. Which of the answer choices gives the best definition for the underlined word in the following sentence? With all of the planning that preceded her daughter’s wedding, Marci decided that picking out a new paint color for her own living room was largely peripheral. a. meaningless b. contrived c. unimportant d. disappointing The next two questions are based on the following chart. 14. Between 1925 and 1991, Latvia was part of the Soviet Union. Since 1991, the population of which ethnic group in Latvia appears to have decreased the most? a. Latvian b. Russian c. Ukrainian d. German ATI TEAS Practice Test #2 15. After World War II ended in 1945, large numbers of non-Latvian workers entered the country, primarily to work at construction jobs. Among these non-Latvian ethnic groups, the increase in workers represented a population percentage shift of less than one percent before 1945 to more than three percent by the time of the Soviet Union’s collapse. Which ethnic group shown on the chart best represents this shift? a. Latvian b. Russian c. Ukrainian d. German 16. Which answer choice represents the most useful resource for Hilaire in the following vignette? Hilaire’s professor instructed him to improve the word choice in his papers. As the professor noted, Hilaire’s ideas are good, but he relies too heavily on simple expressions when a more complex word would be appropriate. a. Roget’s Thesaurus b. Webster’s Dictionary c. Encyclopedia Britannica d. University of Oxford Style Guide 17. Follow the instructions below to transform the starting word into a different word. • Start with the word CORPOREAL. • Remove the C from the beginning of the word. • Remove the O from the beginning of the word. • Remove the O from the middle of the word. • Move the E to follow the first R. • Move the L to follow the P. • Remove the second R. • Add the letter Y to the end of the word. What is the new word? a. REALLY b. PRETTY c. REPLAY d. POWER 18. Which answer choice gives the best definition for the underlined word in the following sentence? Although not considered the smartest student in her class, Klara was willing to work hard for her grades, and her sedulous commitment to her studies earned her top scores at graduation. a. diligent b. silent c. moderate d. complicated ATI TEAS Practice Test #2 19. Flemming is on a new diet that requires him to avoid all dairy products, as well as dairy byproducts. This will be a big change for him, so his doctor gives him information about foods that he might not realize often contain dairy products. These include bread, granola, deli meat, dry breakfast cereal, and energy bars. Which of the following items from Flemming’s standard diet will still be safe to eat? a. puffed rice cereal b. breaded chicken parmesan c. sliced turkey sandwich d. yogurt made from coconut milk The next two questions are based on the following information. Car Owner’s Manual: Table of Contents: Chapter I: Vehicle Instruments Chapter II: Safety Options Chapter III: Audio, Climate, and Voice Controls Chapter IV: Pre-Driving and Driving Chapter V: Routine Maintenance Chapter VI: Emergencies Chapter VII: Consumer Resources 20. To which chapter should Regina turn if she needs to locate information about adjusting the air conditioning in the vehicle? a. I b. II c. III d. IV 21. To which chapter should Regina turn if she needs to find out what to do if the car begins overheating? a. II b. III c. IV d. VI 22. Of the resource options listed in the answer choices, which would not be considered a reliable, scholarly source for Nora in the following vignette? Nora is preparing a large research project for the end of the term, and the instructor has required that all students make sure they are using reliable, scholarly resources in their papers. a. Encyclopedia Britannica b. Wikipedia c. Science.gov d. LexisNexis ATI TEAS Practice Test #2 The next five questions are based on the following passage. In the United States, the foreign language requirement for high school graduation is decided at the state level. This means the requirement varies, with some states deciding to forego a foreign language requirement altogether (www.ncssfl.org). It is necessary that these states reconsider their position and amend their requirements to reflect compulsory completion of a course of one or more foreign languages. Studying a foreign language has become increasingly important for the global economy. As technology continues to make international business relations increasingly easy, people need to keep up by increasing their communication capabilities. High school graduates with foreign language credits have been shown to have an increased college acceptance rate. In addition, students who have mastered more than one language typically find themselves in greater demand when they reach the job market. Students who did not study a foreign language often find themselves unable to obtain a job at all. 23. What is the main idea of this passage? a. Studying a foreign language will help graduating students find jobs after high school. b. Studying a foreign language should be a mandatory requirement for high school graduation. c. Studying a foreign language helps students gain an understanding of other cultures. d. Studying a foreign language is essential if a student hopes to get into college. 24. Which of the following statements represents the best summary of the claims made in this passage? a. Studying a foreign language is important if you want to graduate from high school and get a job. b. Studying a foreign language is important for the global economy because of the technological advances that have been made in international communications. c. Studying a foreign language is important for the global economy, college acceptance rates, and becoming a sought-after candidate in the job market. d. Studying a foreign language is important for college acceptance rates and obtaining ajob after college. 25. Which of the following statements represents an EXAGGERATED claim in support of the argument presented in this passage? a. In the United States, the foreign language requirement for high school graduation is decided at the state level. b. Studying a foreign language has become increasingly important for the global economy. c. High school graduates with foreign language credits have been shown to have an increased college acceptance rate. d. Students who did not study a foreign language often find themselves unable to obtain a job at all. ATI TEAS Practice Test #2 26. Which of the following would be a useful source of information to determine the validity of the argument presented in this passage? a. A survey of high school students’ preferences with regard to foreign language requirements. b. A comparison of the correlation between a second language introduced at home and subsequent college acceptance rates. c. A survey that asks parents to select the foreign language they would like their children to study in high school. d. A comparison of the correlation between high school students’ study of a foreign language and subsequent college acceptance rates. 27. Which of the following would be the best concluding statement for this passage? a. States should consider how important foreign languages are for the global economy when making their policies regarding foreign language requirements for graduation from high school. b. Policies regarding a foreign language requirement for graduation from high school should take into account the importance of foreign languages for the global economy and the correlation between foreign languages and increased college acceptance rates and employment opportunities. c. High school graduation requirements should include a foreign language class because of the influence knowledge of a second language has on college acceptance rates. d. Policies regarding a foreign language requirement for graduation from high school should take into account how difficult it is to obtain a job in today’s economy for those who do not have knowledge of more than one language. ATI TEAS Practice Test #2 The next four questions are based on the following information. The Big Book of Herbs and Herbal Medicine Part I: How to Grow Herbs Chapter 1: Choosing Your Herbs Chapter 2: Planting Your Herbs Chapter 3: Caring for Your Herbs Part II: How to Cook with Herbs Chapter 4: Herbs in Food Chapter 5: Herbs in Beverages Chapter 6: Herbs in Oils and Vinegars Part III: How to Heal with Herbs Chapter 7: Herbs for Children’s Needs Chapter 8: Herbs for Adult Needs Section 8–A: Women’s Needs Section 8–B: Men’s Needs Chapter 9: Herbs for Immunity Chapter 10: Herbs for Respiratory Conditions Chapter 11: Herbs for Digestive Conditions Chapter 12: Herbs for Detox Section 12–A: Circulatory Conditions Section 12–B: Musculoskeletal Conditions Section 12–C: Endocrine Conditions Section 12–D: Topical Conditions Part IV: Alphabetical Herb Listing Chapter 13: Herbs, A–I Chapter 14: Herbs, J–O Chapter 15: Herbs, P–Z 28. Clothilde is looking for an herbal remedy to combat a recent outbreak of eczema. In which chapter should she look for more information? a. Chapter 8 b. Chapter 10 c. Chapter 11 d. Chapter 12 29. Clothilde’s sister has asked her to recommend an herbal therapy for her five-year-old daughter’s chronic cough. In which chapter should Clothilde look for more information? a. Chapter 7 b. Chapter 9 c. Chapter 10 d. Chapter 12 ATI TEAS Practice Test #2 30. Clothilde’s elderberry plant is nearly overgrown, and she is hoping to trim it back and use the elderflower to prepare a blend of tea, as well as a homemade wine. In which chapter should she look for more information about how to do this? a. Chapter 3 b. Chapter 4 c. Chapter 5 d. Chapter 13 31. Clothilde realizes that she failed to maintain her elderberry plant as she should have, and she needs tips about how to keep the plant in good condition to avoid another overgrowth. In which chapter should she look for more information? a. Chapter 2 b. Chapter 3 c. Chapter 13 d. Chapter 14 The next question is based on the following information. 32. Florence receives a number of calls about the roommate advertisement. Of the individuals described below, who seems like the best applicant? a. Frances is a research assistant in the science department; she has a Yorkshire terrier. b. Adelaide works in the humanities department; she is looking for a three-month rental. c. Cosette is allergic to cigarette smoke; she needs a quiet place to study. d. Felix is a graduate student in the history department; he doesn’t have a car. 33. Which answer choice gives the best definition for the underlined word in the following sentence? Based on the student’s florid complexion, Vivienne knew that his nerves were getting the better of him before the debate. a. rambling b. flushed c. unclear d. weak ATI TEAS Practice Test #2 The next two questions are based on the following table. COMPANY ENGLISH BREAKFAST EARL GREY DARJEELING OOLONG GREEN Tea Heaven $25 $27 $26 $32 $30 Wholesale Tea $24 $24 $24 $26 $27 Tea by the Pound $22 $25 $30 $28 $29 Tea Express $25 $28 $26 $29 $30 Note: Prices per 16 oz. (1 pound) 34. Noella runs a small tea shop and needs to restock. She is running very low on English Breakfast and Darjeeling tea, and she needs two pounds of each. Which company can offer her the best price on the two blends? a. Tea Heaven b. Wholesale Tea c. Tea by the Pound d. Tea Express 35. After reviewing her inventory, Noella realizes that she also needs one pound of Earl Grey and two pounds of green tea. Which company can offer her the best price on these two blends? a. Tea Heaven b. Wholesale Tea c. Tea by the Pound d. Tea Express The next question is based on the following passage. When people are conducting research, particularly historical research, they usually rely on primary and secondary sources. Primary sources are the more direct type of information. They are accounts of an event that are produced by individuals who were actually present. Some examples of primary sources include a person’s diary entry about an event, an interview with an eyewitness, a newspaper article, or a transcribed conversation. Secondary sources are pieces of information that are constructed through the use of other, primary sources. Often, the person who creates the secondary source was not actually present at the event. Secondary sources could include books, research papers, and magazine articles. 36. From the passage it can be assumed that a. primary sources are easier to find than secondary sources. b. primary sources provide more accurate information than secondary sources. c. secondary sources give more accurate information than primary sources. d. secondary sources are always used when books or articles are being written. ATI TEAS Practice Test #2 The next question refers to the following graphic. 37. The year listed with each country is when the nation gained independence. Which of the following conclusions is true? a. The nations of North America were also fighting for independence at the same time as nations in South America. b. France lost most of its control in the New World because of these revolutions. c. Nations on the west coast gained independence first. d. South America had many revolutions in the first three decades of the 19th century. The next two questions are based on the following information. Dear library patrons: To ensure that all visitors have the opportunity to use our limited number of computers, we ask that each person restrict himself or herself to 30 minutes on a computer. For those needing to use a computer beyond this time frame, there will be a $3 charge for each 15- minute period. We thank you in advance for your cooperation. Pineville Library ATI TEAS Practice Test #2 38. Which of the following is a logical conclusion that can be derived from the announcement above? a. The library is planning to purchase more computers, but cannot afford them yet. b. The library is facing budget cuts, and is using the Internet fee to compensate for them. c. The library has added the fee to discourage patrons from spending too long on the computers. d. The library is offsetting its own Internet service costs by passing on the fee to patrons. 39. Raoul has an upcoming school project, and his own computer is not working. He needs to use the library computer, and he has estimated that he will need to be on the computer for approximately an hour and a half. How much of a fee can Raoul expect to pay for his computer use at the library? a. $6 b. $9 c. $12 d. $15 The next question is based on the following passage. Victims of Marah’s disease, a virtually unknown neurological condition, appear pain- free and content. Often, they also have a desire to engage in vigorous physical activities such as contact sports. Beneath it all, they are in great physical pain but have an inability to express it or act to reduce it, making diagnosis difficult. As a result, they are inaccurately diagnosed as very low on the pain scale, their discomfort level much lower than victims of severe sprains, despite the fact that sprains, although more painful, are temporary and comparatively easy to manage nature. 40. This passage makes the argument that a. the pain scale is not an accurate or adequate way to measure the physical discomfort of certain people, such as those suffering from Marah’s disease b. sprain victims have more intense pain than Marah’s sufferers, but they can manage their pain more easily c. the pain scale seems to put more emphasis on intensity of pain than duration d. victims of Marah’s syndrome are often unable to deal effectively with their discomfort The next question is based on the following passage. There is a clear formula that many students are taught when it comes to writing essays. The first is to develop an introduction, which outlines what will be discussed in the work. It also includes the thesis statement. Next come the supporting paragraphs. Each paragraph contains a topic sentence, supporting evidence, and finally a type of mini-conclusion that restates the point of the paragraph. Finally, the conclusion sums up the purpose of the paper and emphasizes that the thesis statement was proven. 41. After the topic sentence, a. a thesis statement is included. b. supporting evidence is presented. c. the conclusion is stated. d. the author outlines what will be discussed. ATI TEAS Practice Test #2 The next question is based on the following passage. At one time, the use of leeches to treat medical problems was quite common. If a person suffered from a snake bite or a bee sting, leeches were believed to be capable of removing the poison from the body if they were placed on top of the wound. They have also been used for bloodletting and to stop hemorrhages, although neither of these leech treatments would be considered acceptable by present-day physicians. Today, leeches are still used on a limited basis. Most often, leeches are used to drain blood from clogged veins. This results in little pain for the patient and also ensures the patient’s blood will not clot while it is being drained. 42. The main purpose of the passage is a. to discuss the benefits of using leeches to treat blocked veins. b. to give an overview of how leeches have been used throughout history. c. to compare which uses of leeches are effective and which are not. d. to explain how leeches can be used to remove poison from the body. The next two questions are based on the following passage. For lunch, she likes ham and cheese (torn into bites), yogurt, raisins, applesauce, peanut butter sandwiches in the fridge drawer, or any combo of these. She’s not a huge eater. Help yourself too. Bread is on counter if you want to make a sandwich. It’s fine if you want to go somewhere, leave us a note of where you are. Make sure she’s buckled and drive carefully! Certain fast food places are fun if they have playgrounds and are indoors. It’s probably too hot for playground, but whatever you want to do is fine. Take a sippy cup of water and a diaper wherever you go. There’s some money here for you in case you decide to go out for lunch with her. As for nap, try after lunch. She may not sleep, but try anyway. Read her a couple of books first, put cream on her mosquito bites (it’s in the den on the buffet), then maybe rock in her chair. Give her a bottle of milk, and refill as needed, but don’t let her drink more than 2 1 bottles of milk or she’ll throw up. Turn on music in her room, leave her in crib with a dry 2 diaper and bottle to try to sleep. She likes a stuffed animal too. Try for 30–45 minutes. You may have to start the tape again. If she won’t sleep, that’s fine. We just call it “rest time” on those days that naps won’t happen. 43. To whom is this passage probably being written? a. a mother b. a father c. a babysitter d. a nurse 44. You can assume the writer of the passage is: a. a mom b. a dad c. a teacher d. a parent ATI TEAS Practice Test #2 The next two questions are based on the following passage. Volleyball is easy to learn and fun to play in a physical education class. With just one net and one ball, an entire class can participate. The object of the game is to get the ball over the net and onto the ground on the other side. At the same time, all players should be in the ready position to keep the ball from hitting the ground on their own side. After the ball has been served, the opposing team may have three hits to get the ball over the net to the other side. Only the serving team may score. If the receiving team wins the volley, the referee calls, “side out” and the receiving team wins the serve. Players should rotate positions so that everyone gets a chance to serve. A game is played to 15 points, but the winning team must win by two points. That means if the score is 14 to 15, the play continues until one team wins by two. A volleyball match consists of three games. The winner of the match is the team that wins two of the three games. 45. Who can score in a volleyball game? a. the receiving team b. the serving team c. either team d. there is no score 46. How many people can participate in a volleyball game? a. 14 b. 15 c. half of a class d. an entire class The next five questions are based on the following passage. Global warming and the depletion of natural resources are constant threats to the future of our planet. All people have a responsibility to be proactive participants in the fight to save Earth by working now to conserve resources for later. Participation begins with our everyday choices. From what you buy to what you do to how much you use, your decisions affect the planet and everyone around you. Now is the time to take action. When choosing what to buy, look for sustainable products made from renewable or recycled resources. The packaging of the products you buy is just as important as the products themselves. Is the item minimally packaged in a recycled container? How did the product reach the store? Locally grown food and other products manufactured within your community are the best choices. The fewer miles a product traveled to reach you, the fewer resources it required. You can continue to make a difference for the planet in how you use what you bought and the resources you have available. Remember the locally grown food you purchased? Don’t pile it on your plate at dinner. Food that remains on your plate is a wasted resource, and you can always go back for seconds. You should try to be aware of your consumption of water and energy. Turn off the water when you brush your teeth, and limit your showers to five minutes. Turn off the lights, and don’t leave appliances or chargers plugged in when not in use. Together, we can use less, waste less, recycle more, and make the right choices. It may be the only chance we have. ATI TEAS Practice Test #2 47. What is the author’s tone? a. The author’s tone is optimistic. b. The author’s tone is pessimistic. c. The author’s tone is matter-of-fact. d. The author’s tone is angry. 48. Why does the author say it is important to buy locally grown food? a. Buying locally grown food supports people in your community. b. Locally grown food travels the least distance to reach you, and therefore uses fewer resources. c. Locally grown food uses less packaging. d. Locally grown food is healthier for you because it has been exposed to fewer pesticides. 49. What does the author imply will happen if people do not follow his suggestions? a. The author implies we will run out of resources in the next 10 years. b. The author implies water and energy prices will rise sharply in the near future. c. The author implies global warming and the depletion of natural resources will continue. d. The author implies local farmers will lose their farms. 50. “You should try to be aware of your consumption of water and energy.” What does the word “consumption” mean in the context of this selection? a. Using the greatest amount b. Illness of the lungs c. Using the least amount d. Depletion of goods 51. The author makes a general suggestion to the reader: “You should try to be aware of your consumption of water and energy.” Which of the following is one way the author specifies that this suggestion be carried out? a. Food that remains on your plate is a wasted resource, and you can always go back for a second helping. b. Locally grown food and other products manufactured within your community are the best choices. c. Turn off the lights, and don’t leave appliances or chargers plugged in when not in use. d. Participation begins with our everyday choices. ATI TEAS Practice Test #2 The next question is based on the following passage. The butterfly effect is a somewhat poorly understood mathematical concept, primarily because it is interpreted and presented incorrectly by the popular media. It refers to systems, and how initial conditions can influence the ultimate outcome of an event. The best way to understand the concept is through an example. You have two rubber balls. There are two inches between them, and you release them. Where will they end up? Well, that depends. If they’re in a sloped, sealed container, they will end up two inches away from each other at the end of the slope. If it’s the top of a mountain, however, they may end up miles away from each other. They could bounce off rocks; one could get stuck in a snow bank while the other continues down the slope; one could enter a river and get swept away. The fact that even a tiny initial difference can have a significant overall impact is known as the butterfly effect. 52. The purpose of this passage is: a. To discuss what could happen to two rubber balls released on top of a mountain. b. To show why you can predict what will happen to two objects in a sloped, sealed container. c. To discuss the primary reason why the butterfly effect is a poorly understood concept. d. To give an example of how small changes at the beginning of an event can have large effects. The next question refers to the following graphic. 53. In what way is the family tree organized? a. The oldest generation at the bottom, and the youngest generation at the top. b. The youngest children on right and the oldest children on the left. c. The youngest children on the left and the oldest children on the right. d. The grandparents (Queen Victoria and Prince Albert) are on the top, followed by their children, grandchildren, and great-grandchildren on the bottom layers. ATI TEAS Practice Test #2 Mathematics Number of Questions: 36 Time Limit: 54 Minutes 1. Within a certain nursing program, 25% of the class wanted to work with infants, 60% of the class wanted to work with the elderly, 10% of the class wanted to assist general practitioners in private practices, and the rest were undecided. What fraction of the class wanted to work with the elderly? a. 1 4 1 10 c. 3 1 20 2. Veronica has to create the holiday schedule for the neonatal unit at her hospital. She knows that 35% of the staff members will not be available because they are taking vacation days during the holiday. Of the remaining staff members who will be available, only 20% are certified to work in the neonatal unit. What percentage of the TOTAL staff is certified and available to work in the neonatal unit during the holiday? a. 7% b. 13% c. 65% d. 80% 3. A patient requires a 30% decrease in the dosage of his medication. His current dosage is 340 mg. What will his dosage be after the decrease? a. 70 mg b. 238 mg c. 270 mg d. 340 mg 4. A study about anorexia was conducted on 100 patients. Within that patient population 70% were women, and 10% of the men were overweight as children. How many male patients in the study were NOT overweight as children? a. 3 b. 10 c. 27 d. 30 5. University Q has an extremely competitive nursing program. Historically, ? ? of the students in each incoming class major in nursing but only ? of those who major in nursing actually ? complete the program. If this year’s incoming class has 100 students, how many students will complete the nursing program? a. 75 b. 20 c. 15 d. 5 ATI TEAS Practice Test #2 The next two questions are based on the following information. Four nurse midwives open a joint practice together. They use a portion of the income to pay for various expenses for the practice. Each nurse midwife contributes $2000 per month. 6. The first midwife uses ? of her monthly contribution to pay the rent and utilities for the ? office space. She saves half of the remainder for incidental expenditures, and uses the rest of the money to purchase medical supplies. How much money does she spend on medical supplies each month? a. $600 b. $800 c. $1000 d. $1200 7. The second midwife allocates ? of her funds to pay an office administrator, plus another ? ? ?? for office supplies. What is the total fraction of the second midwife’s budget that is spent on the office administrator and office supplies? a. 3 5 2 12 2 20 1 20 8. A mathematics test has a 4:2 ratio of data analysis problems to algebra problems. If the test has 18 algebra problems, how many data analysis problems are on the test? a. 24 b. 28 c. 36 d. 38 9. Jonathan pays a $65 monthly flat rate for his cell phone. He is charged $0.12 per minute for each minute used, in a roaming area. Which of the following expressions represents his monthly cell phone bill for x roaming minutes? a. 65 + 0.12? b. 65? + 0.12 c. 65.12? d. 65.12 + 0.12? 10. Robert is planning to drive 1,800 miles on a cross-country trip. If his car gets 30 miles to the gallon, and his tank holds 12 gallons of gas, how many tanks of gas will he need to complete the trip? a. 3 tanks of gas b. 5 tanks of gas c. 30 tanks of gas d. 60 tanks of gas ATI TEAS Practice Test #2 11. A patient was taking 310 mg of antidepressant each day. However, the doctor determined that this dosage was too high and reduced the dosage by a fifth. Further observation revealed the dose was still too high, so he reduced it again by 20 mg. What is the final dosage of the patient’s antidepressant? a. 20 mg b. 42 mg c. 228 mg d. 248 mg 12. A lab technician took 100 hairs from a patient to conduct several tests. The technician used ? of the hairs for a drug test. How many hairs were used for the drug test? Roundyour ? answer to the nearest hundredth. a. 14.00 b. 14.20 c. 14.29 d. 14.30 13. What kind of association does the scatter plot show? a. Positive, Linear Association b. Negative, Linear Association c. Non-linear Association d. No association can be determined 14. Joshua has to earn more than 92 points on the state test in order to qualify for an academic scholarship. Each question is worth 4 points, and the test has a total of 30 questions. Let x represent the number of test questions. Which of the following inequalities can be solved to determine the number of questions Joshua must answer correctly? a. 4? < 30 b. 4? < 92 c. 4? > 30 d. 4? > 92 15. Susan decided to celebrate getting her first nursing job by purchasing a new outfit. She bought a dress for $69.99 and a pair of shoes for $39.99. She also bought accessories for $34.67. What was the total cost of Susan’s outfit, including accessories? a. $69.99 b. $75.31 c. $109.98 d. $144.65 ATI TEAS Practice Test #2 16. Given the histograms shown below, which of the following statements is true? a. Group A is negatively skewed and has a mean that is less than the mean of Group B. b. Group A is positively skewed and has a mean that is more than the mean of Group B. c. Group B is negatively skewed and has a mean that is more than the mean of Group A. d. Group B is positively skewed and has a mean that is less than the mean of Group A. 17. Complete the following equation: ? + (?)(?) − ? ÷ ? = ? a. 5 b. 3 c. 2 d. 1 18. Which of the following is listed in order from least to greatest? a. −2, − 3 , −0.45, 3%, 0.36 b. 3 4 − , −0.45, −2, 0.36, 3% c. 4 d.3−0.45, −2, − , 3%, 0.36 −2, − , −0.45, 0.36, 3% 4 19. As part of a study, a set of patients will be divided into three groups: ? of the patients ?? will be in Group Alpha, ? of the patients will be in Group Beta, and ? of the patients will be in ? ? Group Gamma. Order the groups from smallest to largest, according to the number of patients in each group. a. Group Alpha, Group Beta, Group Gamma b. Group Alpha, Group Gamma, Group Beta c. Group Gamma, Group Alpha, Group Beta d. Group Gamma, Group Beta, Group Alpha ATI TEAS Practice Test #2 20. Solve for x: a. ? = 4 b. ? = 8 c. ? = 10 d. ? = 13 ?? + ? = ?? 21. In the 2008 Olympic Games, the semifinal heat for the Women’s 200m event had the following results: Time (in seconds) 22.33 22.50 22.50 22.61 22.71 22.72 22.83 23.22 What was the mean time for the women who ran this 200m event? a. 22.50 sec b. 22.66 sec c. 22.68 sec d. 22.77 sec 22. During week 1, Nurse Cameron worked 5 shifts. During week 2, she worked twice as many shifts as she did during week 1. During week 3, she added 4 shifts to the number of shifts she worked during week 2. Which equation below describes the number of shifts Nurse Cameron worked during week 3? a. shifts = (2)(5) + 4 b. shifts = (4)(5) + 2 c. shifts = 5 + 2 + 4 d. shifts = (5)(2)(4) 23. Simplify the following expression: (?)(−?) + (?)(?) − ? a. –1 b. 1 c. 23 d. 24 ATI TEAS Practice Test #2 24. How many cubic inches of water could this aquarium hold if it were filled completely? a. 3600 cubic inches b. 52 cubic inches c. 312 cubic inches d. 1144 cubic inches 25. What statement best describes the rate of change? a. Every day, the snow melts 10 centimeters. b. Every day, the snow melts 5 centimeters. c. Every day, the snow increases by 10 centimeters. d. Every day, the snow increases by 5 centimeters. ATI TEAS Practice Test #2 26. What are the dependent and independent variables in the graph below? a. The dependent variable is Nurses. The independent variable is Physicians. b. The dependent variable is Physicians. The independent variable is Nurses. c. The dependent variable is Hospital Staff. The independent variable is Average hours worked per week. d. The dependent variable is Average hours worked per week. The independent variable is Hospital Staff. 27. How many milligrams are in 5 grams? a. 0.005 mg b. 50 mg c. 500 mg d. 5000 mg 28. 9.5% of the people in a town voted for a certain proposition in a municipal election. If the town’s population is 51,623, about how many people in the town voted for the proposition? a. 3,000 b. 5,000 c. 7,000 d. 10,000 29. A charter bus driver drove at an average speed of 65 mph for 305 miles. If he stops at a gas station for 15 minutes, then drives another 162 miles at an average speed of 80 mph, how long, will it have been since he began the trip? a. 0.96 hours b. 6.44 hours c. 6.69 hours d. 6.97 hours ATI TEAS Practice Test #2 30. A box in the form of a rectangular solid has a square base of 5 feet in length, a width of 5 feet, and a height of h feet. If the volume of the rectangular solid is 200 cubic feet, which of the following equations may be used to find h? a. 5ℎ = 200 b. 5ℎ2 = 200 c. 25ℎ = 200 d. ℎ = 200 ÷ 5 31. Two even integers and one odd integer are multiplied together. Which of the following could be their product? a. 3.75 b. 9 c. 16.2 d. 24 32. There are ? ? ?? in Acetaminophen Concentrated Infant Drops. If the proper dosage for a ?.? ?? four-year-old child is 240 mg, how many milliliters should the child receive? a. 0.8 mL b. 1.6 mL c. 2.4 mL d. 3.2 mL 33. Using the chart below, which equation describes the relationship between x and y? x y 2 6 3 9 4 12 5 15 a. x = 3y b. y = 3x c. y = 1x 3 d. ? = 3 ? 34. On a highway map, the scale indicates that 1 inch represents 45 miles. If the distance on the map is 3.2 inches, how far is the actual distance? a. 45 miles b. 54 miles c. 112 miles d. 144 miles 35. Andy has already saved $15. He plans to save $28 per month. Which of the following equations represents the amount of money he will have saved? a. ? = 15 + 28? b. ? = 43? + 15 c. ? = 43? d. ? = 28 + 15? ATI TEAS Practice Test #2 36. Given the double bar graph shown below, which of the following statements is true? a. The number of trees planted by the Juniors is positively skewed, while the number of trees planted by the Seniors is approximately normal. b. The number of trees planted by the Juniors is negatively skewed, whilethe number of trees planted by the Seniors is positively skewed. c. The number of trees planted by the Juniors is positively skewed, while the number of trees planted by the Seniors is negatively skewed. d. The number of trees planted by the Juniors is approximately normal, while the number of trees planted by the Juniors is positively skewed. ATI TEAS Practice Test #2 Science Number of Questions: 53 Time Limit: 63 Minutes 1. Which of the following is NOT a function of the circulatory system? a. Pumping blood throughout the body to provide tissues and organs with nutrients and oxygen. b. Removing toxins and waste from the blood c. Transmitting nerve impulses between the brain and the rest of the body. d. Transporting important hormones released from glands to their sites of action. 2. Which item below is NOT a disease of the digestive system? a. Crohn’s disease. b. Diabetes. c. Ulcerative colitis. d. Diverticulosis. 3. Which item below best describes the primary function of the nervous system? a. The nervous system is the center of communication in the body. b. The nervous system is primarily responsible for helping the body breathe. c. The nervous system transports blood throughout the body. d. The nervous system helps the body break down food. 4. Which of the following is NOT an element of the respiratory system? a. Ribs. b. Trachea. c. Diaphragm. d. Alveoli. 5. Which of the following cells is NOT part of the immune system? a. Neurons. b. Dendritic cells. c. Macrophages. d. Mast cells. 6. Which of the following is NOT one of the major types of bones in the human body? a. Dense bone. b. Long bone. c. Short bone. d. Irregular bone. 7. Which of the following bone types is embedded in tendons? a. Long bones. b. Sesamoid bones. c. Flat bones. d. Vertical bones. ATI TEAS Practice Test #2 8. Two nursing students will be completing a scientific experiment measuring the mass of chewed gum after one-minute chewing increments. Which lab equipment will the students most likely use? a. Triple beam balance. b. Anemometer. c. Hot plate. d. Microscope. 9. Which of the following is not a product of respiration? a. Carbon dioxide. b. Water. c. Oxygen. d. ATP. 10. Of the following, the blood vessel containing the least-oxygenated blood is: a. the aorta. b. the vena cava. c. the pulmonary artery. d. the capillaries. 11. Which layer of the heart contains striated muscle fibers for contraction of the heart? a. Pericardium. b. Epicardium. c. Endocardium. d. Myocardium. 12. Which blood vessel carries oxygenated blood back to the heart? a. Pulmonary vein. b. Pulmonary artery. c. Aorta. d. Superior vena cava. 13. Mrs. Jones’s class conducted an experiment on the effects of sugar and artificial sweetener on the cookie recipe’s overall color when baked. What would be the independent variable in the cookie experiment? a. The students should use the same ingredients in both recipes, but bake the cookies with sugar at 450 degrees and those with artificial sweetener at 475 degrees. They should increase the baking time on the artificial sweetener cookies, since the package instructs them to do so. b. The students should use the same ingredients in both recipes, but increase the baking time on the artificial sweetener cookies, since the package instructs them to do so. c. The students should use the same ingredients, same baking temperatures, and same baking times for both recipes. d. The students should use the same ingredients and baking times in both recipes, but bake the cookies with sugar at 450 degrees and the artificial sweetener cookies at 475 degrees. ATI TEAS Practice Test #2 14. Which part of the cell is often called the cell “power house” because it provides energy for cellular functions? a. Nucleus. b. Cell membrane. c. Mitochondria. d. Cytoplasm. 15. What function do ribosomes serve within the cell? a. Ribosomes are responsible for cell movement. b. Ribosomes aid in protein synthesis. c. Ribosomes help protect the cell from its environment. d. Ribosomes have enzymes that help with digestion. 16. What is the most likely reason that cells differentiate? a. Cells differentiate to avoid looking like all the cells around them. b. Cells differentiate so that simple, non-specialized cells can become highly specialized cells. c. Cells differentiate so that multicellular organisms will remain the same size. d. Cells differentiate for no apparent reason. 17. How is meiosis similar to mitosis? a. Both produce daughter cells that are genetically identical. b. Both produce daughter cells that are genetically different. c. Both occur in humans, animals, and plants. d. Both occur asexually. 18. In the suburban neighborhood of Northwoods, there have been large populations of deer, and residents have complained about them eating flowers and garden plants. What would be a logical explanation, based on observations, for the large increase in the deer population over the last two seasons? a. Increased quantity of food sources in surrounding areas. b. Decreased population of a natural predator in Northwoods. c. Deer migration from surrounding areas. d. Increase in hunting licenses sold. 19. How do DNA and RNA function together as part of the human genome? a. DNA carries genetic information from RNA to the cell cytoplasm. b. RNA carries genetic information from DNA to the cell cytoplasm. c. DNA and RNA carry genetic information from the cell nucleus to the cytoplasm. d. DNA and RNA do not interact within the cell. 20. The majority of nutrient absorption occurs in the: a. mouth. b. stomach. c. small intestine. d. large intestine. ATI TEAS Practice Test #2 21. What process should the DNA within a cell undergo before cell replication? a. The DNA should quadruple so that daughter cells have more than enough DNA material after cell division. b. The DNA should triple so that daughter cells have three times the amount of DNA material after cell division. c. The DNA should replicate so that daughter cells have the same amount of DNA material after cell division. d. The DNA should split so that daughter cells have half the amount of DNA material after cell division. 22. What basic molecular unit enables hereditary information to be transmitted from parent to offspring? a. Genes. b. Blood. c. Traits. d. Cell. 23. Which statement most accurately compares and contrasts the structures of DNA and RNA? a. Both DNA and RNA have 4 nucleotide bases. Three of the bases are the same but the fourth base is thymine in DNA and uracil in RNA. b. Both DNA and RNA have the same 4 nucleotide bases. However, the nucleotides bond differently in the DNA when compared to RNA. c. Both DNA and RNA have 6 nucleotide bases. However, the shape of DNA is a triple helix and the shape of RNA is a double helix. d. Both DNA and RNA have a double helix structure. However, DNA contains 6 nucleotide bases and RNA contains 4 nucleotide bases. 24. Which of the following characteristics is part of a person’s genotype? a. Brown eyes that appear hazel in the sunlight. b. CFTR genes that causes cystic fibrosis. c. Black hair that grows rapidly. d. Being a fast runner. The next two questions are based on the following information. Let B represent the dominant gene for a full head of hair, and let b represent the recessive gene for male pattern baldness. The following Punnett square represents the offspring of two people with recessive genes for baldness. B b B Possibility 1 Possibility 2 b Possibility 3 Possibility 4 25. According to the Punnett square, which selection includes all outcomes that would produce an offspring with male pattern baldness? a. Possibility 1. b. Possibility 4. c. Possibilities 1, 2, and 3. d. Possibilities 2, 3, and 4. ATI TEAS Practice Test #2 26. According to the Punnett square, which selection includes all outcomes that would produce an offspring with a full head of hair? a. Possibility 1. b. Possibility 4. c. Possibilities 1, 2, and 3. d. Possibilities 2, 3, and 4. 27. Where is the interstitial fluid found? a. In the blood and lymphatic vessels. b. In the tissues around cells. c. In the cells. d. In the ventricles of the brain. 28. Which type of cell secretes antibodies? a. Bacterial cell. b. Viral cell. c. Lymph cell. d. Plasma cells. 29. Chemical C is a catalyst in the reaction between chemical A and chemical B. What is the effect of chemical C? a. Chemical C increases the rate of the reaction between A and B. b. Chemical C decreases the rate of the reaction between A and B. c. Chemical C initiates the reaction between A and B. d. Chemical C converts A from a base to an acid. 30. What type of molecules are enzymes? a. Water molecules. b. Protein molecules. c. Tripolar molecules. d. Inorganic molecules. 31. Which structure controls the hormones secreted by the pituitary gland? a. Hypothalamus. b. Adrenal gland. c. Testes. d. Pancreas. 32. Where does gas exchange occur in the human body? a. Alveoli. b. Bronchi. c. Larynx. d. Pharynx. 33. All of the following are parts of the respiratory system EXCEPT the: a. trachea. b. bronchi. c. esophagus. d. larynx. ATI TEAS Practice Test #2 34. What lab equipment would most likely be used to measure a liquid solution? a. Flask. b. Triple beam balance. c. Graduated cylinder. d. Test tube. 35. An atom has 5 protons, 5 neutrons, and 6 electrons. What is the electric charge of this atom? a. Neutral. b. Positive. c. Negative. d. Undetermined. 36. All of the following are components of the genitourinary system EXCEPT: a. the kidneys. b. the urethra. c. the rectum. d. the bladder. 37. Which of the following best describes the structures found underneath each rib in descending order? a. Vein, nerve, artery. b. Artery, vein, nerve. c. Vein, artery, nerve. d. Nerve, vein, artery. The table below contains information from the periodic table of elements. Element Atomic number Approximate atomic weight H 1 1 He 2 4 Li 3 7 Be 4 9 38. Which pattern below best describes the elements listed in the table? a. The elements are arranged in order by weight with H being the heaviest atom and Be being the lightest atom. b. The elements are arranged in order by electron charge with H having the most electrons and Be having the fewest electrons. c. The elements are arranged in order by protons with H having the most protons and Be having the fewest protons. d. The elements are arranged in order by protons with H having the fewest protons and Be having the most protons. 39. Which of the following is true regarding the primary function of the spleen? a. It produces bile to emulsify fats. b. It filters microorganisms and other foreign substances from the blood. c. It helps control blood glucose levels and regulates blood pressure. d. It regulates blood clotting factors. ATI TEAS Practice Test #2 40. The process of changing from a liquid to a gas is called ________. a. freezing b. condensation c. vaporization d. sublimation 41. A nurse wants to investigate how different environmental factors affect her patients’ body temperatures. Which tool would be the most helpful when the nurse conducts her investigation? a. Scale. b. Yard stick. c. Thermometer. d. Blood pressure monitor. 42. A scientific study has over 2000 data points. Which of the following methods is most likely to help the researcher gain usable information from the data? a. Use statistical analysis to understand trends in the data. b. Look at each individual data point, and try to create a trend. c. Eliminate 90% of the data so that the sample size is more manageable. d. Stare at the data until a pattern pops out. The next question is based on the following information. Many years ago, people believed that flies were created from spoiled food because spoiled food that was left out in the open often contained fly larvae. So a scientist placed fresh food in a sealed container for an extended period of time. The food spoiled, but no fly larvae were found in the food that was sealed. 43. Based on this evidence, what is the most likely reason that spoiled food left out in the open often contained fly larvae? a. The spoiled food evolved into fly larvae. b. Since the food was left out in the open, flies would lay eggs in the food. c. Fly larvae were spontaneously generated by the spoiled food. d. People only imagined they saw fly larvae in the spoiled food. 44. The average life expectancy in the 21st century is about 75 years. The average life expectancy in the 19th century was about 40 years. What is a possible explanation for the longer life expectancy in the present age? a. Advances in medical technology enable people to live longer. b. Knowledge about how basic cleanliness can help avoid illness has enabled people to live longer. c. The creation of various vaccines has enabled people to live longer. d. All of the statements above offer reasonable explanations for longer life expectancy. ATI TEAS Practice Test #2 45. A doctor needs to convince his boss to approve a test for a patient. Which statement below best communicates a scientific argument that justifies the need for the test? a. The patient looks like he needs this test. b. The doctor feels that the patient needs this test. c. The patient’s symptoms and health history suggest that this test will enable the correct diagnosis to help the patient. d. The patient has excellent insurance that will pay for several tests, and the doctor would like to run as many tests as possible. 46. Which of the following is a protein that interferes with virus production? a. Lysozyme. b. Prion. c. Interferon. d. Keratin. 47. Which of the following does not contain blood vessels? a. Hyperdermis. b. Hypodermis. c. Dermis. d. Epidermis. 48. What structure is responsible for the release of hormones that stimulate the gonads during puberty? a. Hypothalamus. b. Midbrain. c. Basal ganglia. d. Hippocampus. 49. Which of the following structures has the lowest blood pressure? a. Arteries. b. Arteriole. c. Venule. d. Vein. 50. Which of the heart chambers is the most muscular? a. Left atrium. b. Right atrium. c. Left ventricle. d. Right ventricle. 51. Which part of the brain interprets sensory information? a. Cerebrum. b. Hindbrain. c. Cerebellum. d. Medulla oblongata. ATI TEAS Practice Test #2 52. A vaccination is a way of acquiring which type of immunity? a. Passive natural immunity. b. Active natural immunity. c. Active artificial immunity. d. Passive artificial immunity. 53. Which component of the nervous system is responsible for lowering the heart rate? a. Central nervous system. b. Sympathetic nervous system. c. Parasympathetic nervous system. d. Distal nervous system. ATI TEAS Practice Test #2 English and Language Usage Number of Questions: 28 Time Limit: 28 Minutes 1. Which of the following sentences shows the correct way to separate the items in the series? a. These are actual cities in the United States: Unalaska, Alaska; Yreka, California; Two Egg, Florida; and Boring, Maryland. b. These are actual cities in the United States: Unalaska; Alaska, Yreka; California, Two Egg; Florid, and Boring; Maryland. c. These are actual cities in the United States: Unalaska, Alaska, Yreka, California, Two Egg, Florida, and Boring, Maryland. d. These are actual cities in the United States: Unalaska Alaska, Yreka California, TwoEgg Florida, and Boring Maryland. 2. Choose the sentence that most effectively follows the conventions of Standard Written English: a. Wilbur and Orville Wright were two brothers, and they tested their prototype airplane ona beach in Kitty Hawk, North Carolina. b. The two brothers, Wilbur and Orville Wright, tested their prototype airplane on a beach in Kitty Hawk, North Carolina. c. Testing their prototype airplane on a beach in Kitty Hawk, North Carolina, were the two brothers, Wilbur and Orville Wright. d. The beach in Kitty Hawk, North Carolina was where the two brothers, Wilbur and Orville Wright, came and tested their prototype airplane. 3. Which of the following types of language are not appropriate in a research paper? a. colloquialisms b. contractions c. relative pronouns d. both A and B 4. Which of the following sentences demonstrates the correct use of an apostrophe? a. Lyle works for the courthouse, and among his responsibilities is getting the jurors meal’s. b. Lyle works for the courthouse, and among his responsibilities is getting the juror’s meals. c. Lyle works for the courthouse, and among his responsibilities is getting the jurors’ meals. d. Lyle works for the courthouse, and among his responsibilities is getting the jurors meals’. 5. Which of the following is a complex sentence? a. Milton’s favorite meal is spaghetti and meatballs, along with a side salad and garlic toast. b. Before Ernestine purchases a book, she always checks to see if the library has it. c. Desiree prefers warm, sunny weather, but her twin sister Destiny likes a crisp, cold day. d. Ethel, Ben, and Alice are working together on a school project about deteriorating dams. ATI TEAS Practice Test #2 6. Which of the answer choices gives the best definition of the underlined word in the following sentence? Finlay flatly refused to take part in the piano recital, so his parents had to cajole him with the promise of a trip to his favorite toy store. a. prevent b. threaten c. insist d. coax 7. Which of the following nouns is the correct plural form of the word tempo? a. tempo b. tempae c. tempi d. tempos 8. Which of the following sentences follows the rules of capitalization? a. Kristia knows that her aunt Jo will be visiting, but she is not sure if her uncle will be there as well. b. During a visit to the monastery, Jess interviewed brother Mark about the dailyprayer schedule. c. Leah spoke to her Cousin Martha about her summer plans to drive from Colorado to Arizona. d. Justinia will be staying with family in Chicago during the early Fall. 9. Which of the answer choices gives the best definition of the underlined word in the following sentence? The discussion over the new park had begun well, but it soon descended into an acrimonious debate over misuse of tax revenues. a. shocking b. childish c. rancorous d. revealing 10. Which of the following sentences does NOT use correct punctuation to separate independent clauses? a. Anne likes to add salsa to her scrambled eggs; Gordon unaccountably likes his with peanut butter. b. Anne likes to add salsa to her scrambled eggs, however Gordon unaccountably likes his with peanut butter. c. Anne likes to add salsa to her scrambled eggs. Gordon unaccountably likes his with peanut butter. d. Anne likes to add salsa to her scrambled eggs, but Gordon unaccountably likes his with peanut butter. ATI TEAS Practice Test #2 11. Considering both style and clarity, which of the answer choices best combines the following sentences? Fenella wanted to attend the concert. She also wanted to attend the reception at the art gallery. She tried to find a way to do both in one evening. She failed. a. Although Fenella wanted to attend the concert, she also wanted to attend the reception at the art gallery, so she tried to find a way to do both in one evening. She failed. b. Fenella wanted to attend both the concert and the reception at the art gallery, but she failed to find a way to do both in one evening. c. Fenella failed to find a way to attend both the concert and the reception at the art gallery. d. Because Fenella wanted to attend both the concert and the reception at the art gallery, she tried to find a way to do both in one evening. Unfortunately, she failed. 12. Which of the answer choices gives the best definition of the underlined word in the following sentence? Mara enjoyed great felicity when her missing dog found his way home. a. Discomfort b. Anxiety c. Disbelief d. Happiness 13. Based on the definition of the word permeate “to penetrate or pervade,” which of the following is the most likely meaning of the prefix per-? a. across b. by c. with d. through 14. The following words share a common Greek-based suffix: anthropology, cosmetology, etymology, and genealogy. What is the most likely meaning of the suffix -logy? a. record b. study c. affinity d. fear 15. Which of the following words functions as an adverb in the sentence below? Jacob had been worried about the speech, but in the end he did well. a. worried b. about c. but d. well ATI TEAS Practice Test #2 16. Which of the following would belong in a formal speech? a. We all need to work together to make this school better. First, we need to organize a list of our issues. Then we need to form small groups to discuss them and find solutions. Finally, we need to implement those solutions. b. Our purpose is to work together to improve the quality of education at this school. Ideally, we need to organize a list of our issues. Secondly, we need to form small groups to discuss them and find solutions. Then, we need to implement some solutions. c. We all got to work together to make this school much better than before. First, we need to say what is on our mind. We got to form small groups to discuss them and find solutions. And, we need to talk about those solutions. d. It is possible for us to talk about the problems in school and solve them. Of course, we need to organize a list of our issues. For example, we should form small groups to discuss them and find solutions. Finally, we need to implement those solutions. 17. Which of the following sentences contains a correct example of subject-verb agreement? a. Neither Jeanne nor Pauline like the dinner options on the menu. b. All of the council likes the compromise that they have reached about propertytaxes. c. The faculty of the math department were unable to agree on the curriculum changes. d. Both Clara and Don feels that they need to be more proactive in checking on the contractors. 18. Which of the answer choices gives the best definition of the underlined word in the following sentence? The guest speaker was undoubtedly an erudite scholar, but his comments on nomological determinism seemed to go over the heads of the students in the audience. a. authentic b. arrogant c. faulty d. knowledgeable 19. What is the correct spelling of the word that completes the following sentence? Wearing white to a funeral is considered by many to be _____. a. sacrelegious b. sacriligious c. sacrilegious d. sacreligious 20. What is the most effective way to combine the two sentences below? German cuisine is known for its hearty, meat and potato dishes. Families often enjoy a rich Sunday dinner of roast meat, potatoes, and cabbage. a. German cuisine is known for its hearty, meat and potato dishes but families often enjoy a rich Sunday dinner of roast meat, potatoes, and cabbage. b. German cuisine is known for its hearty, meat and potato dishes, but families often enjoy a rich Sunday dinner of roast meat, potatoes, and cabbage. c. German cuisine is known for its hearty, meat and potato dishes, and families often enjoy a rich Sunday dinner of roast meat, potatoes and cabbage. d. German cuisine is known for its hearty, meat and potato dishes, and families often enjoy a rich Sunday dinner of roast meat, potatoes, and cabbage. ATI TEAS Practice Test #2 21. Which of the following is a simple sentence? a. Ben likes baseball, but Joseph likes basketball. b. It looks like rain; be sure to bring an umbrella. c. Although he was tired, Edgar still attended the recital. d. Marjorie and Thomas planned an exciting trip to Maui. 22. Which of the following words functions as a pronoun in the sentence below? Anne-Charlotte and I will be driving together to the picnic this weekend. a. be b. this c. together d. I 23. Which of the following sentences is the best in terms of style, clarity, and conciseness? a. Ava has a leap year birthday; she is really twenty, and her friends like to joke that she is only five years old. b. Because Ava has a leap year birthday, her friends like to joke that she is only five years old when she is really twenty. c. Ava is twenty years old, her friends like to joke that she is five because she has a leap year birthday. d. Although Ava has a leap year birthday, she is twenty years old, but her friends like to joke that she is five. 24. Which of the answer choices gives the best definition of the underlined word in the following sentence? The housekeeper Mrs. Vanderbroek had a fixed daily routine for running the manor and was not particularly amenable to any suggested changes. a. capable b. agreeable c. obstinate d. critical 25. Which of the following words does not function as an adjective in the sentence below? A quick review of all available housing options indicated that Casper had little choice but to rent for now and wait for a better time to buy. a. quick b. available c. little d. rent ATI TEAS Practice Test #2 26. What is the most effective way to combine the two sentences below? A lot of teens express themselves through fashion. Since many teens start earning their own money, they can buy their own clothes and choose the fashions that they want. a. A lot of teens express themselves through fashion, and since many teens start earning their own money, they can buy their own clothes and choose the fashions that they want. b. A lot of teens express themselves through fashion and since many teens start earningtheir own money, they can buy their own clothes and choose the fashions that they want. c. A lot of teens express themselves through fashion, but since many teens start earning their own money, they can buy their own clothes and choose the fashions that theywant. d. A lot of teens express themselves through fashion but since many teens start earning their own money, they can buy their own clothes and choose the fashions that they want. 27. Use of formal language would be LEAST essential when addressing which of the following audiences? a. a board of directors b. a grammar school class c. a gathering of college professors d. none of the above 28. Which of the following words correctly fills in the blank in the sentence below? The Bill of Rights protects the right to _____ arms, but one common mistake is to spell this as though the Founding Fathers were ensuring the right to go sleeveless. a. bear b. bare c. barre d. baire Show Less
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