ATI TEAS 6 Practice Test #3: Questions, Answers and Explanations: From: ATI TEAS Secrets Study Guide: TEAS 6 Complete Study Manual, Full-Length Practice Tests, Review Video Tutorials for the Test of Essential Academic Skills, Sixth Edition

Reading Number of Questions: 53 Time Limit: 64 Minutes 1. Ernestine has a short research project to complete, and her assigned topic is the history of the Globe Theatre in London. Which of the following sources would ...

Reading Number of Questions: 53 Time Limit: 64 Minutes 1. Ernestine has a short research project to complete, and her assigned topic is the history of the Globe Theatre in London. Which of the following sources would be the best starting point for Ernestine’s research? a. Roget’s Thesaurus b. Webster’s Dictionary c. Encyclopedia Britannica d. University of Oxford Style Guide The next question is based on the following passage. Mother Jones, who was a labor activist, wrote the following about children working in cotton mills in Alabama: “Little girls and boys, barefooted, walked up and down between the endless rows of spindles, reaching thin little hands into the machinery to repair snapped threads. They crawled under machinery to oil it. They replaced spindles all day long; all night through…six-year-olds with faces of sixty did an eight-hour shift for ten cents a day; the machines, built in the North, were built low for the hands of little children.” 2. Which of the following do you predict occurred after this was published? a. More children signed up to work in the factories b. Cotton factories in the South closed c. Laws were passed to prevent child labor d. The pay scale for these children was increased 3. The guide words at the top of a dictionary page are considerable and conspicuous. Which of the following words is an entry on this page? a. consonantal b. consumption c. conserve d. conquistador 4. Which of the following is not a reliable resource for a research paper? a. The New York Times b. A personal interview with a politician c. A medical journal d. Wikipedia The next question is based on the following passage. On April 30, 1803, the United States bought the Louisiana Territory from the French. Astounded and excited by the offer of a sale and all that it would mean, it took less than a month to hear the offer and determine to buy it for $15 million. Right away the United States had more than twice the amount of land as before, giving the country more of a chance to become powerful. They had to move in military and governmental power in this region, but even as this was happening they had very little knowledge about the area. They did not even really know where the land boundaries were, nor did they have any idea how many people lived there. They needed to explore. ATI TEAS Practice Test #3 5. What prediction could you make about the time immediately following the Louisiana Purchase? a. Explorers were already on the way to the region. b. The government wanted to become powerful. c. People in government would make sure explorers went to the region. d. Explorers would want to be paid for their work. 6. Follow the instructions below to transform the starting word into a different word. • Start with the word PREVARICATE. • Remove the P. • Replace the first A with the final E. • Remove the I from the word. • Remove the C from the word. • Remove the A from the word. What is the new word? a. REVEST b. REVERT c. REVIEW d. REVERSE 7. Ethan works in his company’s purchasing department, and he needs to purchase 500 pens to give away to customers. He finds the following information about purchasing pens in bulk. Company Specialty Pens Office in Bulk Office Warehouse Ballpoint & Lead Price per unit $.97 per pen $45 per 50 pens $95 per 100 pens $1 per pen OR $99 per 100 pens Based on the information above, which company will have the best price for 500 pens? a. Specialty Pens b. Office in Bulk c. Office Warehouse d. Ballpoint & Lead ATI TEAS Practice Test #3 The next four questions are based on the following image. 8. On the map above, the symbol /\ indicates mountains. How many different mountain ranges are listed on the map? a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6 9. On the map above, the star symbol indicates the state capital. Which city is the capital of Wyoming? a. Laramie b. Cheyenne c. Jackson d. Sheridan 10. On the map above, how many national parks are shown in the state of Wyoming? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 11. On the map above, which states are south of Wyoming? a. Utah and Idaho b. Colorado and Utah c. Montana and Colorado d. Colorado and Nebraska ATI TEAS Practice Test #3 12. In a lesson on mass media, a teacher is showing commercials and analyzing their hidden messages. Which of the following is an example of a commercial that claims professional authority not supported by evidence? a. A commercial selling pain relief featuring a professional basketball player who says he uses the product b. A commercial for cold medicine narrated by a man in a doctor’s coat c. A commercial for a new toy showing footage of children playing happily with it d. A commercial for a prepared food with testimonials by real consumers The next three questions are based on the following passage. They were known as “The Five”: a group of Russian musicians who eschewed rigidly formal classical training and set out on their own to give a new artistic sound to classical music in Russia. Mily Balakirev and Cesar Cui are considered the founders of the movement, but the three who later joined them have become far more famous and respected outside, and perhaps even inside, of Russia. Modest Mussorgsky, with his passion for themes of Russian folklore and nationalism, is remembered for the piano piece Pictures and an Exhibition, as well as for the passionate opera Boris Godunov. Nikolai Rimsky-Korsakov, who spent his early years as a naval officer, had a penchant for infusing his works with the sounds of the sea. But, he might be best remembered for the hauntingly beautiful symphonic suite Scheherazade. Alexander Borodin balanced a career as a skilled and highly respected chemist with his interest in classical music. He produced a number of symphonies, as well as the opera Prince Igor. Despite their lack of formal training and their unorthodox approach to producing classical music, The Five had an influence that reached far beyond their time. Composers such as Alexander Glazunov, Sergei Prokofiev, and Igor Stravinsky studied under Rimsky-Korsakov. Additionally, the mid-twentieth century composer Dmitri Shostakovich studied under Glazunov, creating a legacy of musical understanding that persisted well beyond the era of The Five. 13. Which of the following describes the type of writing used in the passage? a. narrative b. persuasive c. expository d. technical 14. Which of the following is the best summary sentence for the passage? a. Composers such as Alexander Glazunov, Sergei Prokofiev, and Igor Stravinsky studied under Rimsky-Korsakov. b. Despite their lack of formal training and their unorthodox approach to producing classical music, The Five had an influence that reached far beyond their time. c. They were known as “The Five”: a group of Russian musicians whoeschewed rigidly formal classical training and set out on their own to give a new artistic sound to classical music in Russia. d. Mily Balakirev and Cesar Cui are considered the founders of the movement, but the three who later joined them have become far more famous and respected outside, and perhaps even inside, of Russia. ATI TEAS Practice Test #3 15. Based on the information in the passage, which of the composers among The Five would the author likely agree was the most influential? a. Alexander Glazunov b. Modest Mussorgsky c. Nikolai Rimsky-Korsakov d. Cesar Cui 16. Which of the answer choices gives the best definition for the underlined word in the following sentence? Seeing the cookie crumbs on the child’s face, Ena could not believe he would tell such a barefaced lie and claim he had not eaten any cookies. a. effective b. arrogant c. shameless d. hostile The next five questions are based on the following passage. Stories have been a part of the world since the beginning of recorded time. For centuries before the invention of the printing press, stories of the world were passed down to generations through oral tradition. With the invention of the printing press, which made written material available to wide ranges of audiences, books were mass-produced and introduced into greater society. For the last several centuries, books have been at the forefront of education and entertainment. With the invention of the Internet, reliance on books for information quickly changed. Soon, almost everything that anyone needed to know could be accessed through the Internet. Large printed volumes of encyclopedias became unnecessary as all of the information was easily available on the Internet. Despite the progression of the Internet, printed media was still very popular in the forms of both fiction and non-fiction books. While waiting for an appointment, enduring a several-hour flight, or relaxing before sleep, books have been a reliable and convenient source of entertainment, and one that society has not been willing to give up. With the progression and extreme convenience of technology, printed books are going to soon become a thing of the past. Inventions such as the iPad from Macintosh and the Kindle have made the need for any kind of printed media unnecessary. With a rechargeable battery, a large screen, and the ability to have several books saved on file, electronic options will soon take over and society will no longer see printed books. Although some people may say that the act of reading is not complete without turning a page, sliding a finger across the screen or pressing a button to read more onto the next page is just as satisfying to the reader. The iPad and Kindle are devices that have qualities similar to a computer and can be used for so much more than just reading. These devices are therefore better than books because they have multiple uses. ATI TEAS Practice Test #3 In a cultural society that is part of the world and due to a longstanding tradition, stories will always be an important way to communicate ideas and provide information and entertainment. Centuries ago, stories could only be remembered and retold through speech. Printed media changed the way the world communicated and was connected, and now, as we move forward with technology, it is only a matter of time before we must say goodbye to the printed past and welcome the digital and electronic future. 17. What is the main argument of this essay? a. iPad and Kindles are easier to read than books b. The printing press was a great invention c. The Internet is how people receive information d. Technology will soon replace printed material 18. What is the main purpose of paragraph 1? a. To explain oral tradition b. To explain the importance of the printing press c. To explain the progression of stories within society d. To introduce the essay 19. According to the essay, what was the first way that stories were communicated and passed down? a. Oral tradition b. Printed books c. Technology d. Hand writing 20. Which of the following statements is an opinion? a. Despite the progression of the Internet, printed media was still very popular in theforms of both fiction and non-fiction books b. Although some people may say that the act of reading is not complete without turning a page, sliding a finger across the screen or pressing a button to read more onto the next page is just as satisfying to the reader c. With the invention of the Internet, reliance on books for information quickly changed d. Stories have been a part of the world since the beginning of recorded time 21. What is a secondary argument the author makes? a. Devices such as the iPad or Kindle are better than books because they have multiple uses b. Books are still important to have while waiting for an appointment or taking a flight c. Printed encyclopedias are still used and more convenient that using the Internet d. With technology, there will soon be no need for stories ATI TEAS Practice Test #3 The next four questions are based on the following passage. Starting in 1856, Alfred, Lord Tennyson began publishing his compilation of Arthurian legends that became known as Idylls of the King. These poems were based on the earlier Medieval collection Le Morte d’Arthur, by Sir Thomas Malory, which dated to the middle of the 15th century. Malory’s work, which is believed to be largely a translation of older French stories, was written in prose style. It combined the earlier tales into a single grouping for English readers. As the title suggests, Malory’s focus was largely on the epic nature of Arthur’s life. Malory discussed his birth, his rise as a prince and warrior, his quests as a knight, and his eventual death. Malory also included chapters on knights such as Lancelot and Gareth, and he discussed the relationships between Tristan and Isolde, and Lancelot and Guinevere. Instead of embracing the romance angle, however, Malory focused more on the moral elements within these stories. Tennyson, though heavily influenced by Malory, took a different approach to the Arthurian stories. For one, he wrote them in poetry form, not prose. Additionally, Tennyson, as a Victorian poet, was more interested in the romantic qualities of the stories, and included the distinct elements of nature and elegy. Idylls of the King has a softer focus overall. For instance, in Malory’s work, Guinevere faces execution for her adultery, and is only spared when Lancelot rides in to rescue her. In Tennyson’s work, Arthur chooses to forgive Guinevere, and she chooses to spend the rest of her days doing good works in a convent. Some literary scholars believe that Tennyson was writing an allegory about social problems and the need for social justice that existed during Tennyson’s own time. Charles Dickens is remembered for doing the same thing in his novels about the abuses of lower- class children in Victorian England. 22. Which of the following describes the structure of the above passage? a. problem-solution b. sequence c. comparison-contrast d. cause-effect 23. The author of the passage notes several distinctions between Tennyson and Malory. Which of the following is not identified as a difference between the two authors? a. Malory wrote prose, while Tennyson wrote poetry. b. Malory wrote during the Medieval era, while Tennyson wrote during the Victorian era. c. Malory was more focused on heroism and morality, while Tennyson was more focused on nature and elegy. d. Malory wrote stories about Gareth, Tristan, and Isolde, while Tennyson focused only on Arthur, Lancelot, and Guinevere. 24. Which of the following sentences distracts the reader from the main focus of the passage? a. Malory’s work, which is believed to be largely a translation of older French stories, was written in prose style. b. Instead of embracing the romance angle, however, Malory focused more on the moral elements within these stories. c. In Tennyson’s work, Arthur chooses to forgive Guinevere, and she chooses to spend the rest of her days doing good works in a convent. d. Charles Dickens is remembered for doing the same thing in his novels about the abuses of lower-class children in Victorian England. ATI TEAS Practice Test #3 25. With which of the following statements would the author of the passage most likely agree? a. Malory and Tennyson shaped their approach to the Arthurian legends based on the defining qualities of their respective eras. b. Because Le Morte d’Arthur is more of a translation than a literary creation, Idylls of the King is a superior work. c. By undermining the moral qualities that Malory highlighted, Tennyson failed to appreciate the larger purpose of the stories in a Medieval context. d. Ultimately, Malory’s influence on Tennyson was minimal, because Tennyson took a different approach and infused his poems with the mood of his day. 26. Regina has a severe allergy to dairy products. She is going to attend a work-related function during which lunch will be served. She requests to see the menu before the function to make sure there is something she will be able to eat. For lunch, the organizers will be serving soup, bread, and a light salad. The following soup options are available: • Cream of potato soup • Lentil soup • Broccoli cheese soup • Cream of tomato soup Which of the above options is most likely the best choice for Regina? a. Cream of potato b. Lentil soup c. Broccoli cheese soup d. Cream of tomato soup The next two questions are based on the following information. World War I Casualties: European Allies (1914–1918) Country Military Deaths Military Wounded Civilian Deaths (war/famine/ disease) Total Population Percent of Population Lost Belgium 58,637 44,686 62,000 7,400,000 1.63 France 1,397,800 4,266,000 300,000 39,600,000 4.29 Italy 651,000 953,886 589,000 35,600,000 3.48 Romania 250,000 120,000 450,000 7,500,000 9.33 Russia 2,254,369 4,950,000 1,500,000 175,100,000 2.14 United Kingdom 886,939 1,663,435 109,000 45,400,000 2.19 Sources: Commonwealth War Graves Commission, La Population de la France pendant de la guerre, United Kingdom War Office, United States War Department 27. In terms of the percentage of its entire population, which of the following nations suffered the greatest loss during World War I? a. France b. Italy c. Romania d. Russia ATI TEAS Practice Test #3 28. In terms of numbers alone, which of the following nations suffered the greatest loss during World War I? a. Belgium b. Romania c. Russia d. United Kingdom The next four questions refer to the following passage. Tips for Eating Calcium Rich Foods Dairy: Beverage • Include milk as a beverage at meals. o Consider choosing fat-free or low-fat milk. • Whole milk: consider a gradual shift to fat-free milk to lower saturated fat and calories. Start with reduced fat (2%), then low-fat (1%), and finally fat-free (skim). • Cappuccinos or lattes: ask for them with fat-free (skim) milk. Dairy: Meals • Oatmeal and hot cereals: Try adding fat-free or low-fat milk instead of water • Use fat-free or low-fat milk when making condensed cream soups (e.g., cream of tomato). • Shredded low-fat cheese with casseroles, soups, stews, or vegetables • Fat-free or low-fat yogurt with a baked potato Dairy: Snack • Have fat-free or low-fat yogurt as a snack. o Make a dip for fruits or vegetables from yogurt. o Make fruit-yogurt smoothies in the blender. Dairy: Dessert • Chocolate or butterscotch pudding with fat-free or low-fat milk. • Cut-up fruit with flavored yogurt for a quick dessert. Non-Dairy Products: • Lactose Intolerance o Lactose-free alternatives within the milk group (e.g., cheese, yogurt, or lactose-free milk) o Consume the enzyme lactase before consuming milk products. • Personal choice to avoid dairy: o Calcium fortified juices, cereals, breads, and soy or rice beverages o Canned fish (sardines, salmon with bones) soybeans and other soy products, some other dried beans, and some leafy greens. 29. What text feature does the author use to organize the passage? a. headings and subheadings b. superscripts c. diagrams d. labels and footnotes ATI TEAS Practice Test #3 30. Which of the following is true about calcium rich foods? I. Canned salmon with bones contains calcium. II. Cheese is a lactose-free food. III. Condensed soup made with water is a calcium rich food. a. I only b. I and II only c. II and III only d. III only 31. What information should the author include to help clarify information in the passage? a. The fat content of yogurt. b. How much calcium is in fortified juice. c. Which leafy greens contain calcium. d. The definition of lactose intolerance. 32. The style of this passage is most like that found in a(n) a. tourist guidebook. b. health textbook. c. encyclopedia. d. friendly letter. The next two questions are based on the following information. Announcement for all faculty members: It has come to the university’s attention that there is crowding in the faculty canteen between the hours of 11 a.m. and 1 p.m., an issue that is due to the increase in staff numbers in several faculty departments. A number of faculty members have complained that they stood in line so long that they were unable to get lunch, or did not have time to eat lunch. To offset the crowding, the university has polled the various departments about schedules, and has settled on a recommended roster for when the members of each department should visit the faculty canteen for lunch: • Business Dept: 10.30 a.m.–11.30 a.m. • Art Dept: 10.45 a.m.–11.45 a.m. • Math and Science Dept: 12 p.m.–1 p.m. • Social Sciences Dept: 12.30 p.m.–1.30 p.m. • Humanities Dept: 1 p.m.–2 p.m. We ask that all faculty members respect this schedule. Faculty will be expected to display a department badge before entering the canteen for lunch. ATI TEAS Practice Test #3 33. Based on the information in the announcement, what might the reader assume about how the university determined the lunch schedule? a. The university arranged the schedule alphabetically, according to the name of each department. b. The university checked with the departments in advance to make sure faculty members would be amenable to the change. c. The university checked to see when the most faculty members from each department would be entering the canteen. d. The university was most concerned about crowding in the canteen, and simply decided to establish different times for each department. 34. Which best describes the final two sentences of the announcement? a. a friendly reminder to all faculty members to bring a badge to the canteen b. a word of caution to faculty members about trying to enter the canteen at the wrong time c. an implied suggestion that faculty members should consider getting lunch elsewhere d. an indication of university sanctions for faculty members who enter the canteen outside the schedule The next two questions are based on the following information. During the summer, Angela read the following classics: The Great Gatsby, by F. Scott Fitzgerald; Brave New World, by Aldous Huxley; A Passage to India, by E.M. Forster; and “The Cask of Amontillado,” by Edgar Allen Poe. 35. In the statement above, several items are italicized, while only one is placed in quotation marks. According to the rules of punctuation, the following should be placed in quotation marks: article titles, book chapters, short stories, and episodes of television shows. Considering the list of works that Angela read, into which category does “The Cask of Amontillado” most likely fit? a. newspaper article b. book chapter c. short story d. television show episode 36. What is the purpose of the italics used for several of the works identified in the sentence above? a. to indicate a full-length published book b. to indicate a work of classic literature c. to indicate recommended summer reading d. to indicate books that Angela completed 37. Based on this description, what can be inferred about the reviewer’s opinion? In a book review published in a large national newspaper, the reviewer said the book was “most likely to be enjoyed only by those with puerile fantasies.” a. The reviewer strongly recommends the book for young adults. b. The reviewer believes the book is inappropriate for children. c. The reviewer considers the book to have wide audience appeal. d. The reviewer feels that the book would not appeal to mature adults. ATI TEAS Practice Test #3 The next two questions are based on the following information. Thomas and his sister are planning to see a new science fiction film, but they have to work around their schedules. Both are free for a showing before 6 p.m. or after 10 p.m. Here are the current show times for cinemas in their area: • Twin Theatres: 6:15 p.m., 7:20 p.m., and 8:40 p.m. • Reveler Cinema: 5:45 p.m. and 7:15 p.m. • Big Screen 14: 6:00 p.m., 6:45 p.m., 9:10 p.m., and 10:05 p.m. • Best Seat in The House: 8:20 p.m., 9:55 p.m., and 11:25 p.m. 38. Which of these cinemas does not have an option that will work for Thomas and his sister? a. Twin Theatres b. Reveler Cinema c. Big Screen 14 d. Best Seat in The House 39. After an unexpected rearrangement of their schedules, Thomas and his sister realize that they will have to squeeze in the film after 10.30 p.m. Given this new information, which cinema is the best option? a. Twin Theatres b. Reveler Cinema c. Big Screen 14 d. Best Seat in The House The next two questions are based on the information above. In an effort to conserve water, the town of Audley has asked residents and businesses to water their lawns just one day a week. It has provided the following schedule based on addresses: • Monday: addresses ending in 0 and 9 • Tuesday: addresses ending in 1 and 8 • Wednesday: addresses ending in 2 and 7 • Thursday: addresses ending in 3 and 6 • Friday: addresses ending in 5 • Saturday: addresses ending in 4 Businesses with suite numbers should use the final number in the suite number to determine their watering schedule. 40. The Morgan family lives at 5487 South Elm Street. On which day of the week will they be able to water their lawn? a. Tuesday b. Wednesday c. Thursday d. Saturday ATI TEAS Practice Test #3 41. The watering schedule has only one number for both Friday and Saturday. Based on the information provided, what is the most logical reason for this? a. There are more addresses ending with these numbers than with the other numbers. b. All businesses have addresses ending in these numbers, and they consume the most water. c. The residents at these addresses are the most likely to consume more water. d. The city is more concerned about water usage in the latter part of the week. 42. Which of the following stories' messages is significantly distorted through the use of an irrelevant detail? a. A soft profile about a local politician's part-time rock band that mentions his political differences with his band mates b. A feature story of a local business owner running for political office in which she admits to having employed illegal laborers c. A profile of several local Jewish and Arab business leaders that mentions ongoing hostilities in the Middle East d. A news report about a local citizen protesting property tax rates that includes details about an immigration violation he committed twenty years previously The next four questions are based on the following two passages. Passage 1: Fairy tales, fictional stories that involve magical occurrences and imaginary creatures like trolls, elves, giants, and talking animals, are found in similar forms throughout the world. This occurs when a story with an origin in a particular location spreads geographically to, over time, far-flung lands. All variations of the same story must logically come from a single source. As language, ideas, and goods travel from place to place through the movement of peoples, stories that catch human imagination travel as well through human retelling. Passage 2: Fairy tales capture basic, fundamental human desires and fears. They represent the most essential form of fictionalized human experience: the bad characters are pure evil, the good characters are pure good, the romance of royalty (and of commoners becoming royalty) is celebrated, etc. Given the nature of the fairy tale genre, it is not surprising that many different cultures come up with similar versions of the same essential story. 43. On what point would the authors of both passages agree? a. Fairy tales share a common origin. b. The same fairy tale may develop independently in a number of different cultures. c. There are often common elements in fairy tales from different cultures. d. Fairy tales capture basic human fears. 44. What does the “nature of the fairy tale genre” refer to in Passage 2? a. The representation of basic human experience b. Good characters being pure good and bad characters being pure evil c. Different cultures coming up with similar versions of the same story d. Commoners becoming royalty ATI TEAS Practice Test #3 45. Which of the following is not an example of something the author of Passage 1 claims travels from place to place through human movement? a. Fairy tales b. Language c. Ideas d. Foods 46. Which of the following is not an example of something that the author of Passage 1 states might be found in a fairy tale? a. Trolls b. Witches c. Talking animals d. Giants The next two questions are based on the passage above. What outdoorsy, family adventure can you have on a hot, summer day? How about spelunking? If you live in an area that is anywhere near a guided, lit cave, find out the hours of operation and hit the road towards it as soon as you can. Hitch up the double jogging stroller and make your way out into the wilderness, preferably with a guide, and discover the wonders of the cool, dark earth even while it is sweltering hot in the outside world. It will be 58 degrees in that cave, and you can explore inside for as long as you please. Best part? The absolutely awesome naps that the kids will take after such an exciting adventure! Be sure to bring the following items: • Bottled water • Light-up tennis shoes if you have them (they look fabulous in the dark) • Flashlights or glow sticks just for fun • Jackets • Changes of clothes in case of getting muddy and/or dirty 47. Based on the information given, what is spelunking? a. going in a cave b. an outdoor adventure c. walking with a double stroller d. a hot, summer day 48. Given the style of writing for the passage, which of the following magazines would be the best fit for this article? a. Scientific Spelunking b. Family Fun Days c. Adventures for Men d. Mud Magazine ATI TEAS Practice Test #3 The next four questions are based on the following passage: How are Hypotheses Confirmed? Most scientists agree that while the scientific method is an invaluable methodological tool, it is not a failsafe method for arriving at objective truth. It is debatable, for example, whether a hypothesis can actually be confirmed by evidence. When a hypothesis is of the form “All x are y,” it is commonly believed that a piece of evidence that is both x and y confirms the hypothesis. For example, for the hypothesis “All monkeys are hairy,” a particular monkey that is hairy is thought to be a confirming piece of evidence for the hypothesis. A problem arises when one encounters evidence that disproves a hypothesis: while no scientist would argue that one piece of evidence proves a hypothesis, it is possible for one piece of evidence to disprove a hypothesis. To return to the monkey example, one hairless monkey out of one billion hairy monkeys disproves the hypothesis “All monkeys are hairy.” Single pieces of evidence, then, seem to affect a given hypothesis in radically different ways. For this reason, the confirmation of hypotheses is better described as probabilistic. Hypotheses that can only be proven or disproven based on evidence need to be based on probability because sample sets for such hypotheses are too large. In the monkey example, every single monkey in the history of monkeys would need to be examined before the hypothesis could be proven or disproven. By making confirmation a function of probability, one may make provisional or working conclusions that allow for the possibility of a given hypothesis being disconfirmed in the future. In the monkey case, then, encountering a hairy monkey would slightly raise the probability that “all monkeys are hairy,” while encountering a hairless monkey would slightly decrease the probability that “all monkeys are hairy.” This method of confirming hypotheses is both counterintuitive and controversial, but it allows for evidence to equitably affect hypotheses and it does not require infinite sample sets for confirmation or disconfirmation. 49. What is the main idea of the second paragraph? a. One hairy monkey proves the hypothesis “All monkeys are hairy.” b. The same piece of evidence can both confirm and disconfirm a hypothesis. c. Confirming and disconfirming evidence affect hypotheses differently. d. The scientific method is not a failsafe method for arriving at objective truth. 50. A synonym for disconfirmed would be: a. proven b. dissipated c. distilled d. disproven 51. Which of the following is true of hypotheses of the form “All x are y”? a. Something that is neither x nor y disproves the hypothesis. b. Something that is both x and y disproves the hypothesis. c. Something that is x but not y disproves the hypothesis. d. Something that is y but not x disproves the hypothesis. ATI TEAS Practice Test #3 52. Using the same reasoning as that in the passage, an automobile with eighteen wheels does what to the following hypothesis: “All automobiles have only four wheels”? a. It proves the hypothesis. b. It raises the hypothesis’s probability. c. It disproves the hypothesis. d. It decreases the hypothesis’s probability. The next question refers to the following graphic. 53. Shaded areas on the map indicate water use, with darker areas indicating heavier use. Which of the following is the best inference regarding the areas where there is no shading? a. They are less inhabited. b. They are more desert-like. c. Residents are better at conservation. d. Residents require less water per capita. ATI TEAS Practice Test #3 Mathematics Number of Questions: 36 Time Limit: 54 Minutes 1. Solve for x: a. ? = 8 b. ? = −4 c. ? = −8 d. ? = 4 ? ? + ? = ? 2. Dr. Lee saw that 30% of all his patients developed an infection after taking a certain antibiotic. He further noticed that 5% of that 30% required hospitalization to recover from the infection. What percentage of Dr. Lee’s patients were hospitalized after taking the antibiotic? a. 1.5% b. 5% c. 15% d. 30% 3. A patient requires a 30% increase in the dosage of her medication. Her current dosage is 270 mg. What will her dosage be after the increase? a. 81 mg b. 270 mg c. 300 mg d. 351 mg 4. Which of the following describes a graph that represents a proportional relationship? a. The graph has a slope of 2,500 and a y-intercept of 250 b. The graph has a slope of 1,500 and a y-intercept of −150 c. The graph has a slope of 2,000 and a y-intercept of 0 d. The graph has a slope of −1,800 and a y-intercept of −100 5. University X requires some of its nursing students to take an exam before being admitted into the nursing program. In this year’s class, ? the nursing students were required totake ? the exam and ? of those who took the exam passed the exam. If this year’s class has 200 ? students, how many students passed the exam? a. 120 b. 100 c. 60 d. 50 ATI TEAS Practice Test #3 The next two questions are based on the following information. Four roommates must use their financial aid checks to pay their living expenses. Each student receives $1000 per month. 6. One roommate is saving to buy a house, so each month he puts money aside in a special house savings account. The ratio of his monthly house savings to his rent is 1:3. If hepays $270 per month in rent, how much money does he put into his house savings account each month? a. $90 b. $270 c. $730 d. $810 7. Three of the roommates decided to combine their money to purchase a single birthday gift for the fourth roommate. The first roommate donated $12.03. The second roommate contributed $11.96, and the third roommate gave $12.06. Estimate the total amount of money the roommates used to purchase the gift. a. $34 b. $35 c. $36 d. $37 8. Jeremy put a heavy chalk mark on the tire of his bicycle. His bike tire is 27 inches in diameter. When he rolled the bike, the chalk left marks on the sidewalk. Which expression can be used to best determine the distance, in inches, the bike rolled from the first mark to the fourth mark? a. 3(27?) b. 4?(27) c. (27 ÷ 3)? d. (27 ÷ 4)? 9. The table below shows the average amount of rainfall Houston receives during the summer and autumn months. Month Rainfall (inches) June 5.35 July 3.18 August 3.83 September 4.33 October 4.5 November 4.19 What percentage of rainfall received during this timeframe, is received during the month of October? a. 13.5% b. 15.1% c. 16.9% d. 17.7% ATI TEAS Practice Test #3 10. Matthew has to earn more than 96 points on his high school entrance exam in order to be eligible for varsity sports. Each question is worth 3 points, and the test has a total of 40 questions. Let x represent the number of test questions. How many questions can Matthew answer incorrectly and still qualify for varsity sports? a. ? > 32 b. ? > 8 c. 0 ≤ ? < 8 d. 0 ≤ ? ≤ 8 11. Which of the following best represents the surface area of the cylinder shown below? a. 602.9 cm² b. 904.3 cm² c. 1,408.7 cm² d. 1,507.2 cm² 12. A lab technician took 500 milliliters of blood from a patient. The technician used ? of the ? blood for further tests. How many milliliters of blood were used for further tests? Round your answer to the nearest hundredth. a. 83.00 b. 83.30 c. 83.33 d. 83.34 13. Hannah spends at least $16 on 4 packages of coffee. Which of the following inequalities represents the possible costs? a. 16 ≥ 4p b. 16 < 4p c. 16 > 4p d. 16 ≤ 4p ATI TEAS Practice Test #3 14. Which of the following describes a proportional relationship? a. Jonathan opens a savings account, with an initial deposit of $150, and deposits $125 per month b. Bruce pays his employees $12 per hour worked, during the month of December, as well as a $250 bonus c. Alvin pays $28 per month for his phone service, plus $0.07 for each long-distance minute used d. Kevin drives 65 miles per hour 15. Veronica decided to celebrate her promotion by purchasing a new car. The base price for the car was $40,210. She paid an additional $3,015 for a surround sound system and $5,218 for a maintenance package. What was the total price of Veronica’s new car? a. $50,210 b. $48,443 c. $43,225 d. $40,210 16. Simplify the following expression: a. 19 22 7 22 10 11 5 11 ?? − ?? ? ?? 17. The number of vacuum cleaners sold by a company per month during Year 1 is listed below. 18, 42, 29, 40, 24, 17, 29, 44, 19, 33, 46, 39 Which of the following is true? a. The mean is less than the median b. The mode is greater than the median c. The mode is less than the mean, median, and range d. The mode is equal to the range 18. Lauren must travel a distance of 1,480 miles to get to her destination. She plans to drive approximately the same number of miles per day for 5 days. Which of the following is a reasonable estimate of the number of miles she will drive per day? a. 240 miles b. 260 miles c. 300 miles d. 340 miles ATI TEAS Practice Test #3 19. Based on their prescribing habits, a set of doctors was divided into three groups: ? of the ? doctors were placed in Group X because they always prescribed medication. ? of the doctors ?? were placed in Group Y because they never prescribed medication. ? of the doctors were ? placed in Group Z because they sometimes prescribed medication. Order the groups from largest to smallest, according to the number of doctors in each group. a. Group X, Group Y, Group Z b. Group Z, Group Y, Group X c. Group Z, Group X, Group Y d. Group Y, Group X, Group Z 20. Solve for y: a. ? = 25 b. ? = 100 c. ? = 150 d. ? = 200 21. Solve for x: a. ? = 2 b. ? = 8 3 c. ? = −5 d. ? = 5 ?? ?? + ? = ?? ?(? − ?) = ?(?? − ?) 22. During January, Dr. Lewis worked 20 shifts. During February, she worked three times as many shifts as she did during January. During March, she worked half the number of shifts she worked during February. Which equation below describes the number of shifts Dr. Lewis worked in March? a. shifts = 20 + 3 + 1 b. shifts ( )( ) 1 2 = 20 3 ( ) 2 c. shifts = (20)(3) + 1 2 d. shifts = 20 + (3) 1) 2 23. A book has a width of 2.5 decimeters. What is the width of the book in centimeters? a. 0.25 centimeters b. 25 centimeters c. 250 centimeters d. 0.025 centimeters ATI TEAS Practice Test #3 24. Robert secures three new clients every eight months. After how many months has he secured 24 new clients? a. 64 b. 58 c. 52 d. 66 25. Simplify the following expression: 5 12 8 13 20 27 d. 47 36 ? ? × ? ? 26. What is the independent variable in the graph below? a. Anesthesia b. Geriatrics c. Nurse specialties d. Number of nurses 27. How many centimeters are in 7 meters? a. 7 m = 7 cm b. 7 m = 70 cm c. 7 m = 700 cm d. 7 m = 7000 cm ATI TEAS Practice Test #3 28. About how long is the average human eyelash? a. 1 nanometer b. 1 centimeter c. 1 meter d. 1 kilometer 29. A farmer plans to install fencing around a certain field. If each side of the hexagonal field is 320 feet long, and fencing costs $1.75 per foot, how much will the farmer need to spend on fencing material to fence the perimeter of the field? a. $2,240 b. $2,800 c. $3,360 d. $4,480 30. Which of the following is listed in order from least to greatest? a. −2 3 , −2 7 , − 1 , 2 ,1 4 2 8 5 5 8 3 b. − 1 , 1 , , −2 , −2 7 578 5 3 4 8 c. −2 , −2 ,− 1 , 1 ,2 8 4 5 8 5 d. 1 , 2 , −1 , −2 7 , −2 3 8 5 5 8 4 ATI TEAS Practice Test #3 The next three questions are based on the following information. Profile of Staff at Hospital X and Hospital Y (Total Staff: 433) Hospital X (250) Profession Hospital Y (183) 74 Doctor 55 121 Registered Nurse 87 14 Administrator 9 15 Maintenance 11 6 Pharmacist 5 4 Radiologist 2 2 Physical Therapist 2 1 Speech Pathologist 1 13 Other 11 Gender 153 Male 93 97 Female 90 24 Age Youngest 22 73 Oldest 77 51 Ethnicity African American 42 50 Asian American 27 45 Hispanic American 35 47 Caucasian 37 57 Other 42 64 Years on Staff 0–5 32 63 5–10 41 57 10–15 67 47 15–20 30 14 20–25 19 5 More than 25 5 202 Number of Patient Complaints 0 161 43 1–4 21 5 5–10 1 0 More than 10 0 ATI TEAS Practice Test #3 31. Which percentage is greatest? a. The percentage of Asian Americans to staff as a whole at Hospital X? b. The percentage of staff members who have been on staff 10–15 years to staff as a whole at Hospital X? c. The percentage of Doctors to staff as a whole at Hospital X and Hospital Y? d. The percentage of staff with 1–4 complaints to staff as a whole at Hospital Y? 32. Approximately what percentage more staff members at Hospital Y are female than at Hospital X? a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20 33. According to the chart, the percentage of staff who have received zero complaints is a. greater at Hospital X than at Hospital Y b. greater at Hospital Y than at Hospital X c. the same at Hospital X and at Hospital Y d. increasing at both hospitals 34. The number of flights a flight attendant made per month is represented by the line graph below. What is the range in the number of flights the flight attendant made? a. 20 b. 25 c. 29 d. 32 ATI TEAS Practice Test #3 35. The number of houses Amelia has sold per year over the past ten years is listed below: 42, 36, 39, 45, 11, 47, 38, 41, 44, 34 Which of the following measures will most accurately reflect the number of houses she sold per year? a. Mean b. Median c. Mode d. Range 36. The histogram below represents the overall GRE scores for a sample of college students. Which of the following is a true statement? a. The range of GRE scores is approximately 600 b. The average GRE score is 750 c. The median GRE score is approximately 500 d. The fewest number of college students had an approximate score of 800 ATI TEAS Practice Test #3 Science Number of Questions: 53 Time Limit: 63 Minutes 1. Which of the following items is NOT appropriately matched with its corresponding bodily system? a. Kidneys; genitourinary system. b. Heart; circulatory system. c. Blood; endocrine system. d. Diaphragm; respiratory system. 2. Which of the following describes the order food travels through the digestive system? a. Trachea, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, rectum. b. Mouth, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, rectum. c. Stomach, large intestine, small intestine, rectum. d. Esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, rectum. 3. Which of the following structures is the natural pacemaker of the heart? a. Sinoatrial node. b. Submental node. c. Atrioventricular node. d. Scalene node. 4. A patient’s heart rate is measured at 118 beats per minute (bpm). What is this condition called? a. Tachycardia. b. Apnea. c. Bradycardia. d. Tachypnea. 5. Which of the following items is NOT a primary function of a healthy immune system? a. The immune system helps the body avoid infections. b. The immune system detects infections. c. The immune system eliminates infections. d. The immune system creates infections. 6. The spine and hips belong to which of the following bone types? a. Curvy bones. b. Irregular bones. c. Flat bones. d. Long bones. 7. Long bones are one of the five major types of bone in the human body. All of the following bones are long bones, EXCEPT: a. thighs. b. forearms. c. ankles. d. fingers. ATI TEAS Practice Test #3 8. Which of the following is not a type of muscle tissue? a. Skeletal. b. Smooth. c. Cardiac. d. Adipose. The next two questions pertain to the following passage: Your class is competing with another class to determine who has the best plant color. Your class decides to test a couple of solutions to determine which would be best for overall plant color before competing. The class decides to water the plants once a week with 200 mL of the following solutions: water, diet soda, 1% bleach solution, and a 1% salt solution. All plants are placed in the window that receives the recommended amount of light. After a month of testing, your class notices that only two plants are alive, but one of those two does not look healthy. 9. Based on the results that were stated, what would be a logical reason for some of the plants dying with the salt solution? a. Salt caused the plants to begin to dry up, causing them to die. b. The salt did not affect the plants. c. The salt provided adequate nutrients for color. d. None of the above 10. What is the control, if any, in this experiment? a. There is no control in this experiment. b. The control is the water. c. The control is the diet soda. d. The control is the amount of sunlight provided to the plants. 11. When describing a part of the body that is in the front, which of the following anatomical location descriptors would be utilized? a. Superior. b. Anterior. c. Inferior. d. Posterior. 12. Which of the following statements is accurate? a. The spine is located posteriorly, inferior to the pelvic bone. b. The sternum is located anteriorly, superior to the pelvic bone. c. The mandible is located superior to the nasal cavity, and inferior to the esophagus. d. The femur is located inferior to the tibia. 13. Which of the following terms means close to the trunk of the body? a. Superficial. b. Sagittal. c. Proximal. d. Distal. ATI TEAS Practice Test #3 14. Which part of the cell serves as the control center for all cell activity? a. Nucleus. b. Cell membrane. c. Cytoplasm. d. Mitochondria. 15. What are the cellular functions of cilia and flagella? a. Cilia and flagella are responsible for cell movement. b. Cilia and flagella synthesize proteins. c. Cilia and flagella help protect the cell from its environment. d. Cilia and flagella have enzymes that help with digestion. 16. What is the process by which simple cells become highly specialized cells? a. Cellular complication. b. Cellular specialization. c. Cellular differentiation. d. Cellular modification. 17. How does meiosis differ from mitosis? a. Meiosis is used to repair the body. Mitosis is used to break down the body. b. Meiosis is used for asexual reproduction of single-celled organisms. Mitosis is used for sexual reproduction of multicellular organisms. c. Meiosis only occurs in humans. Mitosis only occurs in plants. d. Meiosis produces cells that are genetically different. Mitosis produces cells that are genetically identical. 18. Which of the following is NOT a function of the integumentary system? a. Protects internal tissues from injury. b. Waterproofs the body. c. Helps regulate body temperature. d. Returns fluid to the blood vessels. 19. What are groups of cells that perform the same function called? a. Tissues. b. Plastids. c. Organs. d. Molecules. 20. Which of the following correctly matches the tissue to its function? a. Epithelial: movement, contraction, support and positioning. b. Nervous: transmission and reception. c. Muscular: support, protection, separation and connection. d. Connective: protection, sensation, absorption, and secretion. ATI TEAS Practice Test #3 21. The function of the adrenal glands is to: a. produce hormones that stimulate the thyroid, therefore influencing metabolism. b. produce hormones that regulate the salt and water balance andcontrol blood pressure and heart rate. c. regulate the release of insulin in response to glucose. d. regulate the release of oxytocin, an important hormone in reproduction and childbirth. 22. What functions do genes serve in the relationship between parents and offspring? a. Genes enable hereditary information to be passed from parents to offspring. b. Genes prohibit hereditary information from being passed from parents to offspring. c. Genes enable environmental factors to affect parents and offspring. d. Genes serve no function in the relationship between parents and offspring. 23. Which of the following inappropriately describes hemoglobin? a. Hemoglobin transports oxygen from the lungs to the rest of the body. b. Hemoglobin is the ratio of red blood cells to total blood volume. c. Hemoglobin is a type of protein found in red blood cells of all mammals. d. Hemoglobin is the portion of the red blood cell that contains iron, to which oxygen binds. 24. All of the following belong together EXCEPT: a. thyroid. b. stomach. c. intestines. d. pancreas. The next two questions are based on the following information. A person with the T gene will be tall and a person with the t gene will be short. A person with the B gene will have black hair and a person with the b gene will have red hair. Now consider the Punnett square below. T t B Possibility 1 Possibility 2 b Possibility 3 Possibility 4 25. What are the characteristics of the person with genes from possibility 3? a. Short with black hair. b. Short with red hair. c. Tall with black hair. d. Tall with red hair. 26. Which possibility would produce a short offspring with black hair? a. Possibility 1. b. Possibility 2. c. Possibility 3. d. Possibility 4. ATI TEAS Practice Test #3 27. What is the purpose of conducting an experiment? a. To test a hypothesis. b. To collect data. c. To identify a control state. d. To choose variables. 28. The valve that allows blood flow from the right atria into the right ventricle is the: a. tricuspid valve. b. pulmonic valve. c. mitral valve. d. aortic valve. 29. What are substances that stimulate adaptive immunity called? a. Peptides. b. Phagocytes. c. Prions. d. Platelets. 30. Fill in the blanks in the following sentence: Enzymes are ________ molecules that serve as _______ for certain biological reactions. a. irrelevant; suppressors b. acidic; catalysts c. lipid; catalysts d. protein; catalysts 31. Which of the following has the least number of sweat glands? a. Back. b. Palms. c. Axilla. d. Forehead. 32. What type of chemical bond connects the oxygen and hydrogen atoms in a molecule of water? a. Static bond. b. Aquatic bond. c. Ionic bond. d. Covalent bond. 33. Which of the following statements describes a chemical property of water? a. Water has a pH of 1. b. A water molecule contains 2 hydrogen atoms and 1 oxygen atom. c. A water molecule contains 2 oxygen atoms and 1 hydrogen atom. d. The chemical formula for water is HO2. 34. Which of the following is needed for an experiment to be considered successful? a. A reasonable hypothesis. b. A well-written lab report. c. Data that others can be reproduced. d. Computer-aided statistical analysis. ATI TEAS Practice Test #3 35. An atom has 2 protons, 4 neutrons, and 2 electrons. What is the approximate atomic mass of this atom? a. 2. b. 4. c. 6. d. 8. 36. Which of the following is true regarding T cells? a. They are only seen in those with leukemia. b. They are a specialized type of red blood cell. c. They mature in the thyroid. d. They play a role in the immune response. 37. What type of bond is formed when electrons are transferred between atoms? a. Transfer bond. b. Static bond. c. Covalent bond. d. Ionic bond. 38. The table below contains information from the periodic table of elements. Element Atomic number Approximate atomic weight B 5 11 C 6 12 N 7 14 O 8 16 Which pattern below best describes the masses of the elements listed in the table? a. The elements are listed in random order, C being the heaviest element and N being the lightest element. b. The elements are listed in decreasing order, B being the heaviest element and O being the lightest element. c. The elements are listed in increasing order, B being the lightest element and O being the heaviest element. d. All the elements weigh the same, so the order is irrelevant. 39. What is the primary function of antibodies? a. Production of white blood cells. b. Initiates gluconeogenesis. c. Promotes the intracellular storage of lipids. d. Facilitate the breakdown of antigens. 40. Which statement below best describes the process of condensation? a. Condensation is the process of changing from a gas to a liquid. b. Condensation is the process of changing from a liquid to a gas. c. Condensation is the process of changing from a solid to a liquid. d. Condensation is the process of changing from a solid to a gas. ATI TEAS Practice Test #3 41. Which of the following lists the normal blood flow through the heart? a. Left ventricle, left atria, body, right ventricle, right atrium, lungs. b. Left atrium, left ventricle, lungs, right atrium, right ventricle, body. c. Right atrium, right ventricle, lungs, left atrium, left ventricle, body. d. Right ventricle, right atria, body, left atrium, left ventricle, lungs. 42. Which of the following functions is not controlled by the autonomic nervous system? a. Digestion. b. Walking. c. Heartbeat. d. Temperature regulation. 43. Every child in a certain family suffers from autism. Based on this evidence, what possible conclusion can be drawn about autism? a. Autism may be lethal. b. Autism may be genetic. c. Autism is related to traditional nuclear family structures. d. No conclusion can be drawn based on this evidence. 44. Women were more likely to die in childbirth in the 18th century than in the 21st century. What is a possible explanation for why women are less likely to die in childbirth in the present age? a. Doctors are better equipped to perform cesarean sections. b. Doctors have more tools to monitor mothers during childbirth, so complications can be detected much earlier. c. Doctors wash their hands well to avoid transferring germs and infections. d. All of the statements above offer reasonable explanations for decreases in mortality during childbirth. 45. A dietitian wants to convince a patient to lose weight. Which statement below best communicates a scientific argument that justifies the need for weight loss? a. Losing weight can lower blood pressure, increase energy level, and promote overall health. b. Society tends to treat overweight people unfairly. c. Members of the opposite sex are more interested in people who maintain a healthy weight. d. Losing weight is easy to do. 46. A researcher wants to investigate the relationship between family income and quality of medical care. Which statement provides the best reason to conduct this investigation? a. The researcher can learn more about wealthy people and ask them for money. b. The investigation can help target healthy people so that they can remain healthy. c. Results of this investigation may identify a group of people who do not receive quality medical care so that these people could receive better medical treatments. d. There is no reason to conduct this investigation. 47. Which of the following best describes the primary function of Bartholin’s glands? a. Secretes hormones that help the body respond to stress. b. Provide lubrication for the vagina. c. Helps control growth and development of the body. d. Stimulate the development of T cells. ATI TEAS Practice Test #3 48. Mildly elevated levels of thyroxine will do what to the heart rate? a. Stop the heart rate. b. No effect. c. Decrease the heart rate. d. Increase the heart rate. 49. Which nervous system controls voluntary motor movement? a. Parasympathetic. b. Sympathetic. c. Autonomic. d. Somatic. 50. Which of the following functions would be most affected by laryngeal damage? a. Eating. b. Walking. c. Singing. d. Hearing. 51. A researcher is studying the response of bacteria to a certain chemical. In three experiments, the bacteria swim towards the chemical, and in one experiment the bacteria swim away from it. What would be the most appropriate next step for the researcher? a. Report only the first three experiments. b. Report all the experiments, but refrain from making any conclusions. c. Repeat the experiment several more times and apply a statistical analysis to the data. d. Repeat the experiment, adding a new chemical to determine its effect on the bacteria. 52. How many different types of tissue are there in the human body? a. 4. b. 6. c. 8. d. 10. 53. What is the name of the outermost layer of skin? a. Dermis. b. Epidermis. c. Subcutaneous tissue. d. Hypodermis. ATI TEAS Practice Test #3 English and Language Usage Number of Questions: 28 Time Limit: 28 Minutes 1. Which of the answer choices is an effective revision of the ambiguous sentence below? Tanya told her sister to tell her boyfriend Joe to call her as soon as he got home. a. “Tanya,” told her sister, “tell Joe to call your boyfriend as soon as Joe gets home.” b. Her sister told her boyfriend Joe to call Tanya as soon as she got home. c. Tanya’s sister was told by her, “Joe should call me when he gets home.” d. Tanya said to her sister, “Tell your boyfriend Joe to call me right after he gets home.” 2. In the words proactive, progress, and projecting, pro- is a(n) _______ and means _______. a. suffix; good/on top of/over b. prefix; before/forward/front c. affix; after/behind/in back of d. prefix; against/under/below 3. Among the following transitional words or phrases, which one indicates contrast? a. Regardless b. Furthermore c. Subsequently d. It may appear 4. Which of the answer choices gives the best definition of the underlined word in the following sentence? Thomas Macaulay once commented, “Few of the many wise apothegms which have been uttered have prevented a single foolish action.” a. advice b. preferences c. quotes d. sayings 5. Which of the answer choices correctly completes the following sentence? A childhood reading of Tales from Shakespeare permanently _____ Helene’s interest in studying the Great Bard. a. piqued b. peaked c. peked d. peeked 6. Which of the following demonstrates correct punctuation? a. Graham still needs the following items for his class: a sable brush, soft pastels, a sketchbook, and an easel. b. Graham still needs the following items for his class, a sable brush, soft pastels, a sketchbook, and an easel. c. Graham still needs the following items for his class: a sable brush; soft pastels; a sketchbook; and an easel. d. Graham still needs the following items for his class – a sable brush; soft pastels; a sketchbook; and an easel. ATI TEAS Practice Test #3 7. Which of the answer choices best combines the following sentences? The French and Indian War was not an isolated war in North America. It was part of a larger war that Europe was fighting. Europeans called it the Seven Years’ War. a. The French and Indian War did not occur in North America but was rather a small part of the larger European war known as the Seven Years’ War. b. What Europeans called the Seven Years’ War was called the French and Indian War in North America. It was part of a larger war that Europe was fighting. c. The French and Indian War was not an isolated war in North America but was rather part of a larger war that Europe was fighting, known among Europeans as the Seven Years’ War. d. While North America was fighting the French and Indian War, the Europeans were fighting a much larger war known as the Seven Years’ War. 8. Which of the following words functions as a verb in the sentence below? During the Seven Years’ War, England and France fought over the control of the North American colonies, as well as the trade routes to those colonies. a. fought b. control c. trade d. those 9. Which of the following is a simple sentence? a. Following the French and Indian War, Spain gave up Florida to England. b. England returned part of Cuba to Spain, while France gave up part of Louisiana. c. France lost most of its Caribbean islands, and England gained dominance over them. d. Because every nation lost something, no clear victor was declared. 10. Which of the following sentences follows the rules of capitalization? a. One major conflict in the Seven Years’ War occurred between the Prussian Hohenzollern Family and the Austrian Hapsburg Family. b. The Hapsburg family was considered to be the rulers of the Holy Roman empire. c. At the start of the war, MariaTheresa was the empress of Austria and was strengthening Austria’s military. d. Frederick the Great of Prussia had recently acquired the former Austrian Province of Silesia. 11. What type of sentence is the following sentence? Nancy also felt that the party was too crowded, but the hosts, who relied so much on her, would have been hurt if she had not attended. a. Simple b. Complex c. Compound d. Compound-complex 12. Which of the following sentences contains a correct example of subject-verb agreement? a. Some of the post-rally fervor have already died down. b. Gary, as well as his three children, are coming to visit later today. c. Are neither Robert nor his parents planning to see the presentation? d. We waited patiently while a herd of moose was crossing the mountain highway. ATI TEAS Practice Test #3 13. Which of the following words functions as an adverb in the sentence below?? I tried to call Lisle earlier, but I could not get her on the phone. a. call b. earlier c. could d. phone 14. Which of the answer choices best explains the purpose of the parentheses in the sentence? The Hapsburg rule of the Austro-Hungarian Empire effectively ended with the reign of Franz Joseph I (1848–1916). a. to indicate the page numbers in the book where this information might be found b. to tell the reader when the Austro-Hungarian empire collapsed c. to identify information that was located using another source d. to set off useful information that does not fit directly into the flow of the sentence 15. Which of the following sentences is grammatically correct? a. The person who left the trash in the hallway needs to pick it up now. b. Nobody needs to turn in their projects before the end of the month. c. Every new instructor should stop by the main office to pick up one’s room key. d. Both Simeon and Ruth are generous with his or her time. 16. What is the point of view indicated by the underlined words in the sentence? I never know when you are joking about something. a. third; second b. second; first c. first; second d. first; third 17. Which of the answer choices best combines the following sentences? The colonists refused to buy stamps. They were determined to get the Stamp Act repealed. a. The colonists refused to buy stamps and they were determined to get the Stamp Act repealed. b. The colonists refused to buy stamps, and they were determined to get the Stamp Act repealed. c. The colonists refused to buy stamps, and were determined to get the Stamp Act repealed. d. The colonists refused to buy stamps, were determined to get the Stamp Act repealed. 18. Which of the answer choices gives the best definition of the underlined word in the following sentence? Throughout the elegant dinner party, the man’s guests couldn’t help but notice he took inordinate pride in the flattery of even his most obsequious servants. a. showing deference b. poorly dressed c. reserved d. aggressive ATI TEAS Practice Test #3 19. Caret, carrot and to, two and too share something in common. They: a. Are nouns b. Are monosyllabic c. Are homophones d. Represent things in nature 20. Which of the answer choices is an effective revision of the following ambiguous sentence? Unless she were to study harder, the student feared she would fail out of the university during her exams. a. Unless the student had fear that she would fail out of school, she wouldn’t study harder. b. The student said, “she will fail out of the university unless she studies during her exams.” c. The student was afraid that she should study harder before failing out during her exams. d. “If I don’t study harder before the exams,” the student fretted, “I will surely fail out of school.” 21. Which of the following sentences demonstrates correct use of an apostrophe? a. In one version of the story, there are seven fairy’s invited to the christening, while in another version there are twelve fairy’s. b. Some historians’ believe that the number twelve represents the shift from a lunar year of thirteen months to a solar year of twelve months. c. Other historians claim that the symbolism in the fairy tale is more about nature and the shifting season’s. d. Regardless of its meaning, the fairy tale remains popular and has been immortalized in Tchaikovsky’s music for the ballet. 22. How should the underlined pronoun in the sentence below be classified? The teacher spoke firmly to the class: “If you want to succeed in this course, be willing to work hard and turn in work on time.” a. first-person singular b. second-person singular c. second-person plural d. third-person plural 23. Which of the following is not a simple sentence? a. Agatha Christie was the author of more than sixty detective novels. b. Her most famous detectives were Hercule Poirot and Miss Marple. c. She also wrote over fifteen collections of short stories about these detectives. d. Most readers favor Poirot, but Christie preferred Miss Marple. 24. Which of the answer choices gives the best definition of the underlined word in the following sentence? Hercule Poirot is remembered not only for his genius in solving mysteries, but also for his fastidious habits and his commitment to personal grooming. a. fussy b. lazy c. old-fashioned d. hilarious ATI TEAS Practice Test #3 25. Which of the answer choices gives the best definition of the underlined word in the following sentence? The elderly Miss Marple, on the other hand, is remembered for solving the mysteries she encounters by making seemingly extraneous connections to life in her small village. a. sophisticated b. irrelevant c. diligent d. useful 26. Which of the answer choices effectively revises the following sentence to remove the dangling modifier? Leaping to the saddle, his horse bolted. a. His horse bolted as it leaped to the saddle. b. When he leaped to the saddle, his horse bolted. c. His horse bolting, he leaped to the saddle. d. He leaped to the saddle, his horse bolted. 27. The word anaesthetic refers to medication that causes a temporary loss of feeling or sensation. Based on the meaning of the word in medical usage, which is the most likely meaning of the prefix an-? a. without b. against c. away d. before 28. Based on the contextual usage of the underlined word, what is the most likely meaning of the prefix ante-? The years leading up to the American Civil War are often referred to using the term antebellum. a. again b. good c. before d. together